BOC HEME 168 QUESTIONS (PT 2)

When reviewing platelet morphology on a blood smear, the presence of giant platelets is noted. This may indicate: A. Bernard-Soulier B. von Williebrand Disease C. Glanzmann thrombasthemia D. Ehler-Danlos

Bernard-Soulier

Which of the RBC indices is a measure of the amount of hemoglobin in individual red blood cells? A. MCHC B. MCV C. Hct D. MCH

MCH

Automated hematology analyzer calculate the hematocrit using which of the following parameters? A. MCV and RBC B. MCH and RBC C. Hgb and RBC D. MCV and MCHC

MCV and RBC

Which substrate is used for the detection of specific esterase? A. acetate B. choloroacetate C. lymphocyte D. monocyte

choloroacetate

Which of the following tests id diagnostic in DIC? A. thrombin time B. D-dimer C. fibrinogen D. none of the above

none of the above

Which of the following is the formula to calculate an absolute cell count? A. number of cells counted/total count B. total count/number of cells count C. 10 x total count D. % of cells counted x total count

% of cells counted x total count

Which of the following is the formula for calculating the mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)? A. Hct/(RBC x 1000) B. Hgb/Hct C. RBC/Hct D. (Hgb x 10)/RBC

(Hgb x 10)/RBC

Which of the following is the formula for calculating the mean corpuscular volume (MCV)? A. (Hgb x 10)/RBC B. Hgb/Hct C. (Hct x 10)/RBC D.RBC/Hct

(Hgb x 10)/RBC

Which of the following is the formula for calculating the MCHC? A. (Hgb x 100)/Hct B. Hgb/RBC C. RBC/Hct D. (Hct x 1000)/RBC

(Hgb x 100)/Hct

Which of the following is the formula to calculate a manual white cell count? A. (number of cells counted x dilution x 10)/number of squares counted B. (number of cells counted x dilution)/10 x number of squares counted C. number of cells counted x dilution D. number of cells counted x number of squares counted

(number of cells counted x dilution x 10)/number of squares counted

The life span of a platelet is: A. 5 days B. 10 days C. 20 days D. 30 days

10 days

What is the MCV if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 x 10⁶/µL (1.5 x 10¹²/L) and the hemoglobin is 6 g/dL (60 g/L)? A. 68 fL B. 75 fL C. 115 fL D. 133 fL

133 fL

Which of the following best describes the bone marrow criteria for the diagnosis of acute myelomonocytic leukemia (AMML)? A. 20% blasts, 20% monocytes, 20% neutrophilic precursors B. 20% blasts, 50% monocytes, 50% neutrophilic precursors C. 20% blasts, 90% monocytes, 10% neutrophilic precursors D. 30% blasts, 10% monocytes, 90% neutrphilic precursors

20% blasts, 20% monocytes, 20% neutrophilic precursors

What is the MCH if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/µL (2.4 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 5 g/dL (50 g/L)? A. 21 pg B. 23 pg C. 25 pg D. 84 pg

21 pg

What is the MCHC if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/µL (2.4 x 10^12/L), and the Hgb is 5 g/dL (50 g/L)? A. 21% B. 25% C. 30% D. 34%

25%

Blood is diluted 1:200, and a plt count is performed. 180 plts were counted in the center square mm on one side of the hemacytometer and 186 on the other side. The total plt count is: A. 146 x 10^3/µL (146 x 10^9/L) or 146,000/microliters B. 183 x 10^3/µL (183 x 10^9/L) or 183,000/ microliters C. 366 x 10^3/µL (366 x 10^9/L) or 366,000/ microliters D. 732 x 10^3/µL (732 x 10^9/L) or 732,000/ microliters

366 x 10^3/µL (366 x 10^9/L) or 366,000 microliters

The mean value of a reticulocyte count on specimens of cord blood from healthy, full term newborns is approximately? A. 0.5% B. 2.0% C. 5.0% D.8.0%

5.0%

A 40-year old man had an erythrocyte count of 2.5 x 106/ micro-liters (2.5 x 1012/L), hematocrit of 22% and reticulocyte count of 2.0%. What is the patient's absolute reticulocyte count? A. 5.0 x 103/micro-liters (5.0 x 109/L) B. 50.0 x 103/micro-liters (50.0 x 109/L) C. 500 x 103/micro-liters (500 x 109/L) D. 5000 x 103/micro-liters (5000 x 109/L)

50.0 x 103/micro-liters (50.0 x 109/L)

If a WBC count is performed on a 1:10 dilution and the number of cells counted in 8 squares is 120, the total WBC count is? A. 5,000/microliters (5.0 x 109/L) B. 6,250/microliters (6.25 x 109/L) C. 50,000/microliters (50.0 x 109/L) D. 62,500/microliters (62.5 x 109/L)

6,250/microliters (6.25 x 109/L)

A total leukocyte count is 10.0 x 10^3/µL (10.0 x 10^9/L) and 25 NRBCs are seen per 100 leukocytes on the differential. What is the corrected leukocyte count? A. 2,000/µL (2.0 x 10^9/L) B. 8,000/µL (8.0 x 10^9/L) C. 10,000/µL (10.0 x 10^9/L) D. 12,000/µL (12.0 x 10^9/L)

8,000/µL (8.0 x 10^9/L)

What is usually the factor VIII level in a hemophiliac patient with spontaneous bleeding? A. <1% B. 5-10% C. 20-30% D. 50-60%

<1%

What defines acute myelogenous leukemia with minimal differentiation? A. >20% blasts positive for Sudan black B B. positivity for myeloperoxidase or nonspecific esterase in at least 50% of blasts C. positivity for myeloperoxidase or nonspecific esterase in at least 100% of blasts D. >20% blasts lacking cytochemical evidence of myeloid differentiation

>20% blasts lacking cytochemical evidence of myeloid differentiation

What is the most common presentation of acute erythroid leukemia? A. >80% of nucleated marrow cells are erythroid precursors B. >50% of nucleated marrow cells are erythroid precursors and >20% of nonerthyroid cells are myeloblasts C. >50% of nucleated marrow cells are eythroid precursors and <20% of nonerythroid cells are myeloblasts D. 80% blasts with 20% erythroid precursors, >20% myeloblasts

>50% of nucleated marrow cells are erythroid precursors and >20% of nonerthyroid cells are myeloblasts

Which of the following are main groups of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in the WHO classification system? A. AML with myeloproliferative related changes B. AML with lymphoid differentiation C. AML with biphenotypic morphology D. AML, NOS

AML, NOS

Protein S forms a reversible complex with: A. C4b binding protein B. protein C C. total protein S D. Fc receptors

C4b binding protein

Which of the following markers, typically detected in normal, myeloid cells, are expressed on the surface of hairy cell leukemia lymphocytes? A. CD3 B. CD8 C. CD10 D. CD11c

CD10

Which of the following markers is expressed in most cases of AML? A. CD2 B. CD10 C. CD11b D. CD117

CD117

A cell surface marker that is expressed on neoplastic plasma cells and is helpful in the diagnosis of myeloma is: A. CD19 B. CD20 C. CD38 D. CD138

CD138

Which of the following markers are usually negative in hairy cell leukemia? A. CD5 B. CD11c C. CD25 D. CD103

CD5

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia cells are most likely to express which of the following cell surface markers? A. CD3, CD7, CD19, CD20 B. CD4, CD5, CD19, CD20 C. CD5, CD19, CD20, CD21 D. CD13, CD33, CD107

CD5, CD19, CD20, CD21

Which of the following represent residual nuclear fragments? A. Pappenheimer bodies B. cabot rings C. Heniz bodies D. target cells

Cabot rings

A native of Thailand has a normal hemoglobin level. Hemoglobin electrophoresis on cellulose acetate shows 70% hemoglobin A and approximately 30% of a hemoglobin with the mobility of hemoglobin A2. This is most consistent with hemoglobin: A. C trait B. E trait C. O trait D. D trait

E trait

The specimen of choice for preparation of blood films for manual differential leukocyte counts is whole blood collected in: A. EDTA B. oxaiae C. citrate D. heparin

EDTA

Von Willebrand factor mediates platelet adhesion by binding to platelet receptor: A. GP 1b/IIa B. GP Ib/GPIX/GPV C. GP IIb/IIa D. GP Ib/GPIIIa/GPX

GP Ib/GPIX/GPV

The light colored zone adjacent to the nucleus in a plasma is the: A. ribosome B. chromatin C. mitchondria D. Golgi area

Golgi area

In the hemoglobin solubility (dithionates) test, which type of hemoglobin causes turbidity (positive reaction)? A. HgbdD B. HgbE C. HgbS D.HgbA

HgbS

Warfarin is classified as a vitamin K antagonist. The factors that are impacted by warfarin therapy are: A. VIII,IX and X B. I, II, V, and VII C. II, VII, IX and X D. II, V and VII

II, VII, IX and X

Antithrombin inhibits factors: A. IIa and Xa B. Va and VIIIa C. VIIa and XIIa D. IXa and Va

IIa and Xa

The 2 factors that differentiate liver disease from vitamin K deficiency are: A. II and VII B. IX and VII C. VIII and IX D. C and VII

IX and VII

What is the most common immunoglobulin present in plasma cell myeloma? A.IgG B. IgA C. light chains D. IgD

IgG

A screening procedure for detecting hemoglobin F is the: A. fluorescent spot test B. dithionite solubility test C. Kleihauer-Betke test D. heat instability test

Kleihauer-Betke test

Large blue inclusions bodies in WBC are found in patients with: A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome B. May-Hegglin Anomaly C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome D. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

May-Hegglin Anomaly

When evaluating a patient for von Williebrand disorder, the ABO blood type that has the lowest level of vWF is: A. O B. A C. B D. AB

O

Which of the following RBC inclusions are seen in sideroblastic anemia and contain high amounts of iron? A. cabot rings B. Howell-Jolly bodies C. Heniz bodies D. Pappenheimer bodies

Pappenheimer bodies

Which of the following stains can be used to differentiate siderotic granules (Pappenheuer bodies) from basophilic stippling? A. Wright B. Prussian blue C. crystal violet D. myeloperoxidase

Prussian blue

Which of the following stains is used to demonstrate iron, ferritin, and hemosiderin? A. myeloperoxidase B. methylene blue C. specific esterase D. Prussian blue

Prussian blue

Bone marrow examination reveals a hypercellular marrow consisting of probable lymphoblasts. The cells are positive for TdT, CD3, and CD7; however, the lymphoblasts are negative for surface immunoglobins, CD19, CD10, (CALLA), Fc and complement receptors. The most likely diagnosis is: A. large granular lymphocytosis B. chronic lymphocytic luekemia (CLL) C. T cell leukemia (T-ALL) D. hairy cell leukemia

T cell leukemia (T-ALL)

Arterial thrombosis is caused by: A. RBC and platelets B. fibrin and WBC C. thrombin and FXIII D. WBC and platelets

WBC and platelets

The electrical resistance method of cell counting requires: A. equal-sized particles B. a conductive liquid C. 2 internal electrodes for current D. 3 apertures for counting

a conductive liquid

Which of the following will cause erroneous results when using a phase optical system for enumerating platelets? A. lysed RBCs B. aggregated platelets C. diluted samples D. intact lymphocytes

aggregated platelets

Patients with Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome present with: A. thrombocytopenia B. eczema C. small platelets D. all of the above

all of the above

An inhibitor of plasmin activity is: A.tPA B. PAI-1 C. alpha-2 antiplasmin D. plasminogen

alpha-2 antiplasmin

The RDW-CV and RDW-SD performed by automated hematology analyzers are calculations that provide: A. an index of the distribution of RBC volumes B. a calculated mean RBC hemoglobin concentration C. a calculated mean cell hemoglobin D. the mean RBC volume

an index of the distribution of RBC volumes

The RDW is elevated on a CBC report. The smear would show: A. hypochromia B. anisocytosis C. poikilocytoisis D. macrocytosis

anisocytosis

What is the most common presentation of precursor T-ALL? A. anterior mediastinal mass B. bone marrow involvement/ cytopenias C. cervical lymphadenopathy D. dermal lymphatic infiltrates

anterior mediastinal mass

Several hours after birth an infant develops petechiae, purpuric hemorrhages and a platelet count of 21 x 103/micro-liters (21 x 109/L). The most likely diagnosis is: A. drug induced immune thrombocytopenia B. thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura C. autoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia D. neonatal idiopathic thrombocytopenia

autoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia

The presence of hemoglobin H may be demonstrated by: A. Prussian blue stain B. Wright stain C. Giemsa stain D. brilliant cresyl blue

brillian cresyl blue

A patient is suspected of having a factor XIII deficiency, which test is most likely abnormal: A. prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time B. clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution C. euglobulin clot lysis D. prolonged prothrombin time

clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution

If a blood smear is dried too slowly, the RBCs are often: A. clumped B. crenated C. lysed D. destroyed

crenated

A hemophiliac male and a normal female can produce a: A. female carrier B. male carrier C. male hemophiliac D. normal female

female carrier

On an automated hematology, if the RBC is erroneously increased, how will other parameters be affected? A. increased MCHC B. increased hemoglobin C. decreased MCH D. increased MCV

decreased MCH

Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is associated with a more stable clinical course in myelodysplastic syndrome (MDSs)? A. monosomy 7 B. del 5q C. loss of Y D. del 20q

del 5q

Patients withe factor XIII deficiency have: A. an abnormal aPTT B. delayed bleeding C. tissue damage D. joint damage

delayed bleeding

What is the most common presentation of factor XIII deficiency? A. clinically inapparent B. delayed bleeding tendency C. severe bleeding responsive to DDAVP D. severe bleeding not responsive to DDAVP

delayed bleeding tendency

Heinz bodies are: A. readily identified with polychrome stains B. remnants of RNA C. closely associated with spherocytes D. denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen

denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen

Unregulated and excessive formation of thrombin and plasmin is seen as: A. liver disease B. vitamain K deficiency C. hemolytic disease of the newborn D. disseminated intravascular coagulation

disseminated intravascular coagulation

The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin S is: A. Kleihauer-Betke B. dithionite solubility C. heat stability D. fluorescent spot

dithionite solubility

Which of the following is associated with acute megakaryoblastic leukemia? A. down syndrome B. systemic mastocytosis C. isochromosome 17p D. <5% of blasts being megakaryoblastic

down syndrome

When time is a disparity between the results of the fibrinogen antigen and the activity the most likely diagnoses is: A. dysfibrinogenemia B. hypofibrinogenemia C. hyperfibrinogenemia D. afibrinoegemia

dysfibrinogenemia

In polycythemia vera, the platelet count is: A. elevated B. normal C. decreased D. variable

elevated

A patient with beta-thalassemia characteristically has a(n): A. elevated A2 hemoglobin B. low fetal hemoglobin C. high serum iron D. normal red cell volume

elevated A2 hemoglobin

What type of morphologically abnormal cells proliferate in acute myelogenous leukemia with inv(16)? A. lymphocytes B. erythrocytes C. platelets D. eosinophils

eosinophils

On a smear made directly from a finger stick, no platelets were found in the counting area. The first thing to do is: A. examine the slide for clumping B. obtain another smear C. perform a total platelet count D. request another finger stick

examine the slide for clumping

Many microspherocytes, schistocytes and budding off of spherocytes can be seen on peripheral blood smears of patients with: A. hereditary spherocytosis B. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) C. acquired autoimmune hemolytic anemia D. extensive burns

extensive burns

When a patient is placed on warfarin therapy, the first factor that will be decreased is: A. factor II B. factor V C. factor VII D. factor VIII

factor VII

A patient is diagnosed with amyloidosis, they will be deficient in which of the following factors? A. factor II B. factor V C. factor VII D. factor X

factor X

In a patient diagnosed with liver disease, which one of the following factors typically shows an increase? A. factor VII B. factor VIII C. factor IX D. factor X

factor X

A pediatric inpatient presents with an aPTT of 54.8 seconds. With an abnormal thrombin time of 26 seconds (12-19 seconds), a reptilase time is performed ans is normal at 15 seconds (12-19 seconds). Base on these results, what disorder has been ruled out? A. lupus anticoagulant C. fibrinogen deficiency C. heparin contamination D. presence of a DTI

fibrinogen deficiency

A confirmatory test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is: A. heat instability test B. sucrose hemolysis C. flow cytometric immunophenotyping D. dithionite solubility

flow cytometric immunophenotyping

Which characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome helps distinguish it from von Williebrand disease? A. concomitant storage pool defects in platelets B. giant platelets C. thrombocytosis D. thrombocytopenia

giant platelets

A patient is diagnosed as having bacterial septicemia. Which of the following would best describe the expected change in his peripheral blood? A. granulocytic leukemoid reaction B. lymphocytic leukemoid reaction C. neutropenia D. eosinphilia

granulocytic leukemoid reaction

Which of the following is suggestive of a myeloproliferative disorder? A. basopenia B. granulocytosis C. lack of toxic granulation D. cytopenias

granulocytosis

Which of the following values is calculated from the red blood cell indices in an automated hemtaology analzyer? A. red blood cell (RBC) B. hematocrit C. mean corpuscular volume (MVC) D. red cell distribution width (RDW)

hematocrit

In HELLP syndrome patients present with: A. normal liver enzymes B. elevated platelets C. high blood pressure D. all of the above

high blood pressure

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, babies present with: A. hyperbilirubinemia B. thrombocytosis C. hyperalbuminemia D. leukoctyosis

hyperbilirubinemia

Acute disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by: A. hypofibrinogenemia B. thrombocytosis C. negative-D-dimer D. shortened thrombin time

hypofibrinogenemia

The term "shift to the left" refers to: A. a microscope adjustment B. immature cell forms in the peripheral blood C. a trend on a Levy-Jennings chart D. a calibration adjustment on an instrument

immature cell forms in the peripheral blood

A 40-year old female has pinpoint hemorrhages on her legs, with an Hct of 43% and a platelet count of 19 x 103/micro-liters (19 x 109/L). Steroids fail to increase platelet count. The patient's diagnosis is: A. decreased platelet production B. suppressed pluripotent stem cells C. immune thrombocytopenia purpura D. defective platelet endothelial interaction

immune thrombocytopenia purpura

A hematology analyzer counts red blood cells by which method? A. impedance B. chromogenic C. photometric D. turbidimetric

impedance

Blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room temperature for 6-24 hours? A. increased hematocrit and MCV B. increased ESR and MCV C. increased MCHC and MCV D. decreased reticulocyte count and hematocrit

increased hematocrit and MCV

How does tissue factor pathway inhibitor inhibit coagulation? A. inhibition of tissue factor-factor VIIa-factor Xa complex B. conversion of thrombin to prothrombin C. uncoupling factor XIII dependent crosslinking of fibrin D. binding and hiding tissue factor on the endothelial surface

inhibition of tissue factor-factor VIIa-factor Xa complex

Which of the following disorders is a category in the WHO classification of myelodysplastic syndromes/ myeloproliferative neoplasms? A. acute myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML) B. chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) C. juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML) D. refractory anemia with excessive blasts (RAEB)

juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML)

The most potent plasminogen activator in the contact phase of coagulation is: A. kallikrein B. streptokinase C. HMWK D. fibrinogen

kallikrein

One of the main difference between ITP and HUS is: A. neurological involvement B. kidney dysfunction C. thrombocytopenia D. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

kidney dysfunction

Characteristic morphologic features of reactive lymphocytes include: A. small size, clumped nuclear chromatin, scantly basophilic cytoplasm B. small size, nucleoli, granular cytoplasm C. large cell, oval nucleus, scanty blue-gray cytoplasm D. large size, irregularly shaped nucleus, abundant blue cytoplasm

large size, irregularly shaped nucleus, abundant blue cytoplasm

A term that means varying degrees of leukocytosis with a shift to the left and occasional nucleated red blood cells in the peripheral blood is: A. polycythemia vera B. erythroleukemia C. leukoerythroblastosis D. megaloblastoid

leukoerythroblastosis

TTP presents with a pentad of symptoms which doesn't include: A. fever B. anemia C. thrombocytopenia D. liver failure

live failure

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is a marker found on: A. hairy cells B. myeloblsts C. monoblasts D. lymphoblasts

lymphoblasts

In an automated hematology analyzer, the WBC printed result is +++. The next step is to: A. repeat after warming the sample to 37 degrees Celsius B. make an appropriate dilution of the sample C. re-calibrate the machine from pooled samples D. request a new sample immediately

make an appropriate dilution of the sample

A flag of immature granulocytes (IG) is reported from a hematology analyzer. The next step is to perform a(an): A. auto vertification B. smear review C. manual differential D. pathology review

manual differential

A platelet determination was performed on an automated instrument and a very low value was obtained. The platelets appeared adequate when estimated from the stained blood film. The best explanation for this discrepancy is: A. many platelets are abnormally large B. blood sample is hemolyzed C. white cell fragments are present in the blood D. red cell fragments are present in the blood

many platelets are abnormally large

In which of the following types of cells is CD5 usually expressed? A. mature T cells B. pro B cells C. macrophages D. endothelial cells

mature T cells

vWF antigen can be found in which of the following? A. myeloblast B. momoblast C. lymphoblast D. megakaryoblast

megakaryoblast

Which of the following laboratory finding is associated with extravascular hemolysis? A. decreased bilirubin B. spherocytes C. microcytes D. hemoglobinuria

microcytes

Occasional spontaneous bleeding may occur in a hemophiliac, who is classified as: A. severe B. mild C. moderate D. all of the above

moderate

Which cell type shows the most intense staining with myeloperoxidase? A. neutrophil B. basophil C. lymphocyte D. monocyte

monocyte

In patients who present with bleeding disorder caused by platelets, the most common type of bleeding is: A. mucosal bleeding B. hemarthrosis C. delayed bleeding D. deep hematomas

mucosal bleeding

The type of bleeding that is the most characteristic in patients disorders is: A. deep muscle hemorrhages B. retroperitoneal hemorrhages C. mucous membrane hemorrhages D. severely prolonged clotting times

mucous membrane hemorrhages

Cytochemical stains were performed on bone marrow smears from an acute leukemia patient. The majority if the blasts showed varying amounts of myeloperoxidase positivity. Some of the blasts stained positive for choloroacetate esterase, some were positive foe alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase, and some blasts stained positive for both esterases. What type of leukemia is indicated? A. acetate B. myelogenous C. myelomonocytic D. erythroleukemia

myelomonocytic

Which of the following stains is closely associated with the lysosomal enzyme in primary (azurophilic) granules? A. myeloperoxidase B. nonspecific esterase C. methylene blue D. Purssian blue

myeloperoxidase

Which of the following is used for staining reticulocytes? A. Giemsa stain B. Wright stain C. new methylene blue C. Prussian blue

new methylene blue

Evidence of a Wright-stained smear of the same sample would most likely show: A. macrocytic, normochromic erythrocytes B. microcytic, hypochromic erythrocytes C. normocytic, hypochromic erythrocytes D. normocytic, normochromic erythrocytes

normocytic, hypochromic erythrocytes

Which of the following characteristics are common between Hermansky-Pudlak and Chediak-Higashi syndromes? A. giant inclusion granules in granulocytes B. alpha granule storage pool defects C. inclusions in macrophages D. oculocutaneous albinism

oculocutaneous albinism

Which of the following conditions is most often associated with the V617F mutation of JAK2? A. chronic myelogenous leukemia B. essential thromocytosis C. chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis D. polycythemia vera

polycythemia vera

In which of the following disease states are teardrops cells and abnormal platelets most characteristically seen? A. hemolytic anemia B. multiple myeloma C. G6PD deficiency D. primary myelofibrosis

primary myelofibrosis

A newborn baby boy id known to have a homozygous protein C deficiency. This puts him at a risk for: A. DVT B. warfarin induced skin necrosis C. increased risk of thrombosis D. purpura fulminans

purpura fulminans

The most common cause of bleeding in patients is: A. qualitative platelet defect B. qualitative abnormality of fibrinogen C. quantitative abnormality of fibrinogen D. quantitative abnormality of platelets

quantitative abnormality of platelets

Which of the following is a WHO classification of myelodysplastic syndrome? A. chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML) B. refractory thrombocytopenia C. refractory cytopenia with excessive blasts (RAEB) D. refractory neutrophilia

refractory thrombocytopenia

Supravital staining is important for reticulocytes since the cells must be living in order to stain the? A. remaining RNA in the cell B. iron before it precipitates C. cell membrane before it dries out D. denatured hemoglobin in the cell

remaining RNA in the cell

On initial start-up of the automated hematology analyzer, one of the controls is slightly below the range for the MCV. Which of the following is indicated? A. call of service B. adjust the MCV up slightly C. shut down the instrument D. repeat the control

repeat the control

A patient has a high could agglutinin titer. Automated hematology analyzer results reveal an elevated MCV, MCH, and MCHC as well as a decreased RBC. Individual erythrocytes appear normal on a stained smear, but agglutinates are noted. The appropriate results for the action would be: A. perform the RBC, Hgb, and Hct determinations using manual methods B. perform the RBC determination by a manual method; use the automated automated results for the Hgb and Hct C. repeat the determinations using a microsample of diluted blood D. repeat the determinations using a prewarmed microsample of diluted blood

repeat the determinations using a prewarmed microsample of diluted blood

A phase platelet was performed and the total platelet count was 356,000/microliters. Ten high power (100x) fields on the stained blood smear were examined for platelets and the results per field were: 16, 18,15 ,20, 19, 17 18, 20 ,16 The next step would be to: A. report the phase-platelet count since it correlated well with the slide B. repeat the phase-platelet count on a recollected specimen and check for clumping C. check 10 additional fields on the blood smear D. repeat the platelet count using a different method

report the phase-platelet count since it correlated well with the slide

A specimen analyzed on an automated hematology instrument has a platelet count of 19 x 103/microliters (19 x 109/L). The first procedure to follow is: A. report the count after the batch run is completed B. request a new specimen C. review the stained blood smear D. notify the laboratory manager

review the stained blood smear

The characteristic peripheral blood morphologic feature in multiple myeloma is: A. cytotoxic T cells B. rouleaux formation C. spherocytosis D. macrocytosis

rouleaux formation

The presence of excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear is often accompanied by an increased: A. reticulocyte count B. sedimentation rate C. hematocrit D. erythrocyte count

sedimentation rate

The Prussian blue staining of peripheral blood identifies: A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. siderotic granules C. reticulocytes D. basophilic stippling

siderotic granules

Which of the following technical factors will cause a normal (low) erythrocyte sedimentation rate? A. gross hemolysis B. small fibrin clots in the sample C. increased room temperature D. tilting of the tube

small fibrin clots in the sample

A red blood cell about 5 micrometers in diameter that stains bright red and shows no central pallor is a: A. spherocyte B. leptocyte C. microcyte D. macrocyte

spherocyte

What cell shape is MOST commonly associated with an increased MCHC? A. teardrop cells B. target cells C. spherocytes D. sickle cells

spherocytes

The cyanmethemoglobin method of measuring hemoglobin cannot detect this form of hemoglobin: A. methemoglobin B. carboxyhemoglobin C. deoxyhemoglobin D. sulfhemoglobin

sulfhemoglobin

Which of the following features define chronic myelogenous leukemia? A. JAK2 mutation B. myelocyte "bulge" C. basophilia, eosinophilia, and thrombocytosis D. t(9;22)

t(9;22)

A useful chemical test for the diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia is the: A. peroxidase test B. Sudan black test C. periodic acid-Schiff test D. tartrate-resistance acid phosphatase test

tartrate-resistance acid phosphatase test

When evaluating a peripheral blood smear or a reticulocyte count, the red blood cells are observed to overlap throughout the entire slide. The most likely explanation is: A. grease on the slide prevented even staining B. improper proportions of blood and stain were used C. the slide was dried too quickly D. the drop used for the slide preparation was too large

the drop used for the slide preparation was too large

Vasoconstriction is caused by several regulatory molecules which include: A. fibrinogen and vWF B. ADP and EPI C. thromboxane A2 and serotonin D. collagen and actomyosin

thromboxane A2 and serotonin

The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can be falsely elevated by: A. tilting the tube B. refrigerated blood C. air bubbles in the column D. specimen being too old

tilting the tube

Hageman Factor (XII) is involved in each of the following reactions EXCEPT? A. activation of C1 to C1 esterase B. activation of plasminogen C. activation of factor XI D. transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin

transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin

A false elevation in a manual hematocrit (microhematocrit) determination may result from: A. prolonged centrifugation B. in vitro hemolysis C. trapped plasma D. incomplete sealing of the hematcrit tube

trapped plasma

Which of the following is characteristic of the myelodysplastic syndromes? A. neutrophilia B. unilineage or multilineage dyspoiesis C. effective hematopoiesis D. propensity to develop lymphoma

unilineage or multilineage dyspoiesis

A common source of interference in the cyanmethemoglobin method is: A. hemolysis B. very high WBC count C. cold agglutinins D. clumped platelets

very high WBC count

In liver disease patients present with decreased synthesis is: A. common pathway factors B. intrinsic pathway factors C. fibrinogen pathway factoes D. vitamin K dependent factors

vitamin K dependent factors

In secondary hemostasis, coagulation proteins become activated to form a fibrin clot. Prior to these proteins being activated, their inactive proenzymes are known as: A. serine proteases B. cofactors C. zymogens D. substrates

zymogens