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what are the 3 contraindications for post-op cholangiography?

1. hypersensitivity to iodine 2. acute infection of the biliary system 3. elevated creatinine/BUN levels

What are the 4 contraindications for ERCP?

1. hypersensitivity to iodine 2. acute infection of the biliary system 3. elevated creatinine/BUN levels 4. possible pseudocyst

What are the 4 segments of the uterine tubes?

1. interstitial 2. ampulla 3. infundibulum 4. isthmus

What are the structures of interest for knee arthrography?

1. joint capsule 2. menisci 3. collateral/cruciate ligaments

What are the 2 clinical indications for ERCP?

1. residual calculi 2. strictures

What are the 2 clinical indications for post-op cholangiography?

1. residual calculi 2. strictures

What type of needle is commonly used for shoulder arthrograms?

2 3/4 - 3 1/2" spinal needle

What type of needle is most often used to introduce contrast media during a shoulder arthrogram?

2 3/4 - 3 1/2" spinal needle

The absorption of the water-soluble of the water-soluble contrast media in the vascular system of the body begins approximately _____ minutes after injection and is totally undetectable radiographically after _____ hours.

30 minutes; 24 hours

When should HSG be performed?

7-10 days after the onset of menstruation

What type of radiographic table must be used for myelography?

90/45-degree or 90/90-degree tilting table

If both lower limbs are radiographed together on one image receptor, why should two rulers be used with one under each limb rather than placing one midway between the two limbs?

A single center-placed ruler makes it difficult or impossible to shield the gonads without obscuring the upper part of the ruler.

When performing an orthoroentgenographic procedure, what device must be placed on top of the table next to the affected limb?

A special metallic (Bell-Thompson) ruler to measure bone length from one joint to another

What is the literal meaning of the term orthoroentgenogram?

A straight or right-angle radiograph

Indicate the correct sequence of events for a myelogram by numbering the following steps in order (from 1 through 8): A. Introduce needle into subarachnoid space B. Collect CSF and send to laboratory C. Take overhead radiographic images D. Explain procedure to the patient E. Introduce contrast medium F. Have patient sign informed consent form G. Take fluoroscopic images H. Prepare patient's skin for puncture

A. 4 B. 5 C. 8 D. 1 E. 6 F. 2 G. 7 H. 3

How many exposures are made, and how much is the leg rotated, between each exposure for horizontal beam knee arthrograms? A. Number of exposures per meniscus: B. Degrees of rotation between exposures:

A. 9 B. 20 degrees

A. On average, how many exposure are taken of each meniscus during fluoroscopy of the knee? B. How many degrees of rotation of the leg are used between exposures?

A. 9 images per meniscus B. 20 degrees

List the two routine projections for conventional radiographic projections used for knee arthrography:

A. AP B. Lateral

List the six projections frequently taken during a shoulder arthrogram:

A. AP Scout B. AP internal rotation C. AP external rotation D. Glenoid fossa (Grashey) projection E. Transaxillary (inferosuperior axial) projection F. Intertubercular (bicipital) sulcus projection

List the overhead projections that may be requested for a shoulder arthrogram: Scout

A. AP internal and external rotation shoulder scout

List the three contraindications for a hysterosalpingogram:

A. Acute pelvic inflammatory disease B. Active uterine bleeding C. Pregnancy

Which two blood chemistry values must be checked before a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram?

A. BUN B. Creatinine

List the four common contraindications for myelography:

A. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid B. Arachnoiditis C. Increased intracranial pressure D. Recent lumbar puncture (within 2 weeks)

List three clinical indications for a shoulder arthrogram:

A. Chronic pain B. General weakness C. Suspected tear in the rotator cuff

Which of the following terms is not an aspect of the uterine tube? A. Cornu B. Ampulla C. Isthmus D. Infundibulum

A. Cornu

What are the two other clinical indications for HSG?

A. Demonstration of intrauterine pathology B. Evaluation of the uterine tubes after tubal ligation or reconstructive surgery

List the four factors that determine the amount of blurring:

A. Distance the object is from the objective plane B. Exposure angle or amplitude C. Distance the object is from the IR (OID) D. Alignment of anatomic part to tube movement

List the three common types of lesions that can be demonstrated during a hysterosalpingogram:

A. Endometrial polyps B. Uterine fibroids C. Intrauterine adhesions

List the three layers of tissue that form the uterus (from the innermost to the outermost layer):

A. Endometrium B. Myometrium C. Serosa

A. A radiographic procedure of examining the biliary and main pancreatic ducts is called a(n) _____. B. What initials are commonly used as an abbreviation for this procedure? C. What type of special endoscope is commonly used for this procedure? D. Which member of the health care team usually performs this procedure? E. Why should a patient remain NPO at least 1 hour after this procedure?

A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram B. ERCP C. Duodenoscope or video endoscope D. Gastroenterologist E. To prevent aspiration of food or liquid into the lungs

List the four divisions of the uterus:

A. Fundus B. Corpus (body) C. Isthmus D. Cervix

List the four common lesions or clinical indications demonstrated during myelography:

A. Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP) B. Cancerous or benign tumors C. Cysts D. Possible bone fragments (in the case of trauma)

Level of CR for this projection/position: Cervical region

A. Horizontal beam lateral (prone), C5 B. Horizontal beam lateral (Swimmer's) C7

What four aspects of shoulder anatomy are demonstrated with shoulder arthrography?

A. Joint capsule B. Rotator cuff C. Long tendon of biceps D. Articular cartilage

List the two synovial types of joints most commonly examine with an arthrogram:

A. Knee B. Shoulder

What is the most common spinal puncture site for a lumbar myelogram? A. L3-L4 B. L1-L2 C. L4-L5 D. L5-S1

A. L3-L4

In addition to the supine position, what two other positions may be imaged to visualize adequately the pertinent anatomy for an HSG?

A. LPO B. RPO

List the two common puncture sites for contrast media injection during myelography: Which is preferred?

A. Lumbar (L3-L4) - preferred B. Cervical (C1-C2)

Which of the following is not a tissue layer of the uterus? A. Osseometrium B. Myometrium C. Endometrium D. Serosa

A. Osseometrium

List the two types of contrast media used for a knee arthrogram:

A. Positive or radiopaque media such as iodinated, water-soluble contrast agent B. Negative or radiolucent contrast agents, such as room air, oxygen, or carbon dioxide

What is the patient's general body position for each of the following punctures? (NOTE: May be more than one acceptable answer for each.) A. Lumbar B. Cervical

A. Prone or left lateral B. Erect or prone

Level of CR for this projection/position: Thoracic region

A. R lateral decubitus (AP or PA), T7 B. L lateral decubitus (AP or PA), T7 C. R or L lateral, vertical beam, T7

Level of CR for this projection/position: Lumbar region

A. Semierect horizontal beam lateral (prone), L3

List the two contraindications for an arthrogram:

A. Sensitivity to iodine B. Sensitivity to local anesthetics

Myelography is a radiographic study of the:

A. Spinal cord B. Nerve root branches

List the three common forms of knee injury that may require arthrography:

A. Tears of the joint capsule B. Tears of the menisci C. Tears of ligaments

List four common adjustments or features found on the tomographic control panel:

A. Tube travel speed B. Objective plane C. Tube center/prep D. Fulcrum level

The contrast medium preferred by most radiologists for a hysterosalpingogram is: A. Water-soluble, iodinated B. Oil-based, iodinated C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen

A. Water-soluble, iodinated

List the two types of contrast media commonly used for a knee arthrogram:

A. iodinated water soluble B. Carbon dioxide, oxygen, or room air

What are the two primary contraindications for arthrography of any joint?

Allergic reactions to iodine-based contrast media and allergic reactions to local anesthetics

Central segment of the uterine tube where the isthmus (constricted portion of the uterine tube) widens. This segment then arches over the ovaries

Ampulla

Study of synovial joints and related soft tissue structures that employs contrast

Arthrography

The most common pathologic indication for the hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is:

Assessment of female infertility - dx any fxnal/structural defects

What is the minimum exposure time required to produce a breathing lateral projection of the thoracic spine? A. 1 second B. 2 seconds C. 4 seconds D. 6 seconds

B. 2 seconds

List the overhead projections that may be requested for a shoulder arthrogram: Post-injection

B. AP internal rotation C. AP external rotation D. Glenoid fossa (Grashey) projection E. Transaxillary (inferosuperior axial) projection F. Intertubercular (bicipital) groove projection (Fisk method)

Postoperative (T-tube) cholangiograms are usually performed to detect: A. Pancreatitis B. Biliary Stones C. Liver Cyst D. Infected gallbladder

B. Biliary Stones

Which of the following terms is used to describe the "degree of openness" of the uterine tube? A. Stenosis B. Patency C. Atresia D. Gauge

B. Patency

To gain maximum blurring of the body of the sternum during tomography, it should be placed _____ to tube movement. A. Parallel B. Perpendicular C. Diagonally D. at a 5-degree angle

B. Perpendicular

When injecting contrast for post-op cholangiography, why should you be careful not to inject air bubbles?

B/c they may be perceived as stones

Give an example of nontraumatic pathology of the knee joint indicating arthrography. Where does it commonly occur?

Baker's cyst. Popliteal area

What is the proper name for the special metal ruler used for long bone measurement?

Bell-Thompson ruler

Define: Distortion of objects outside the objective plane

Blur

Define: The area of distortion of objects outside the objective plane

Blur

Another term for tomography is _____.

Body section radiography

The contrast medium most commonly used for myelography provides good radiopacity up to _____ after injection. A. 20 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 8 hours

C. 1 hour

Which of the following exposure angles would produce the least amount of blurring outside of the objective plane? A. 10 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 5 degrees D. 40 degrees

C. 5 degrees

What dosage range of contrast medium is usually injected for myelography? A. 8 to 10 mL B. 20 to 30 mL C. 9 to 15 mL D. Approximately 1 mL

C. 9 to 15 mL

The most common clinical indication for a myelogram is: A. Benign tumors B. Spinal cysts C. HNP D. Bony injury to the spine

C. HNP

Which of the following procedures might be performed during a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram? A. Removal of the gallbladder B. Removal of a liver cyst C. Removal of a biliary stone D. Catheterization of the hepatic portal vein

C. Removal of a biliary stone

Which position will move the contrast media column from the lumbar to the cervical region during a myelogram? A. Fowler B. Left later decubitus C. Trendelenburg D. Prone

C. Trendelenburg

What are the chief disadvantages of using CT over orthoroentgenography for long bone measurements?

CT is more costly and requires specialized equipment.

What type of contrast does CT use for arthrograms? MRI?

CT: iodine MRI: gadolinium

Distal cylindrical portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina, ending as the external os

Cervix

The distal aspect of the uterus extending to the vagina is the _____.

Cervix

What is the normal appearance of synovial fluid?

Clear and tinged yellow

Why are the contrast media for a T-tube cholangiogram occasionally diluted before injection?

Contrast media that are too concentrated may obscure small stones in the biliary ducts

Type of imaging used to obtain a dx image of a specific layer of tissue or an object that is superimposed by other tissues/objects

Conventional tomography

Larger central component of the uterus

Corpus

The largest division of the uterus is the _____.

Corpus

Where is the CR centered for radiographic projections taken during an HSG using a 10 x 12" IR? A. At level of ASIS B. Symphysis pubis C. Iliac crest D. 2" superior to the symphysis pubis

D. 2" superior to the symphysis pubis

Which of the following exposure angles would produce the greatest amount of blurring outside of the objective plane? A. 10 degrees B. 8 degrees C. 5 degrees D. 20 degrees

D. 20 degrees

Which of the following conditions may contraindicate an ERCP? A. Biliary obstruction B. Stone in main pancreatic duct C. Jaundice D. Pseudocyst

D. Pseudocyst

A cervical puncture is indicated for an upper spinal region myelogram if: A. The patient has severe lordosis B. The patient has mild scoliosis C. The patient has HNP of the L4-L5 level D. The patient has complete blockage at the T-spine level

D. The patient has complete blockage at the T-spine level

What are the therapeutic uses for HSG?

Dilate/straighten narrow, tortuous, occluded uterine tubes

Inner lining that lines the uterine cavity and undergoes cyclic changes of the menstrual cycle

Endometrium

What is the name of the surgical procedure that shortens a limb by fusing the epiphyses?

Epiphysiodeses

How is the contrast medium removed from the body after myelography?

Excreted by kidneys

Define: The factor that determines slice thickness

Exposure angle

Define: The total distance that the x-ray tube travels during the actual exposure; controls sectional thickness

Exposure angle

True/False: Anatomy at the fulcrum level becomes blurred and difficult to see on a radiograph.

False

True/False: Bile is sterile, and standard precautions do not apply when handling it.

False

True/False: More blurring occurs with a shorter exposure angle.

False

True/False: The Bucky tray lock must be securely locked before a tomographic exposure.

False

True/False: The uterine tubes are connected directly to the ovaries.

False

True/False: A surgeon usually performs T-tube cholangiography during a colectomy.

False (during cholecystectomy)

True/False: The wrist is examined in the pronated position (PA) for a long bone study of the upper limb.

False; PA would cross radius and ulna

True/False: Epiphysiodesis is an operation to lengthen bone by widening the epiphyseal plate.

False; a premature fusion of the epiphysis is to shorten a bone

True/False: To measure the length of a long bone properly, the entire lower limb should be included on a single projection.

False; ends of bone must be on separate projections

True/False: As the exposure angle decreases, slice thickness also decreases (becomes thinner).

False; increases

True/False: Myelography of the cervical and thoracic spinal regions is most common.

False; most common are cervical and lumbar regions

True/False: After the contrast medium is introduced into the knee joint, the knee must not be flexed or exercised.

False; needs to be flexed to distribute contrast media

True/False: Objects closer to the objective plane will experience maximum blurring.

False; objects away from the objective plane have the greatest blurring

True/False: The proximal humerus must be rotated internally for the shoulder projection taken during upper limb orthoroentgenography.

False; patient is supine, arm extended, and hand supinated, external rotation position

True/False: An oil-based contrast medium is preferred for the majority of hysterosalpingograms.

False; water-soluble is preferred

Why is a large positioning block placed under the abdomen for a lumbar puncture in the prone position?

For spinal flexion to widen the interspinous spaces to facilitate needle placement

Define: The pivot point between tube and IR

Fulcrum

Define: The pivot point of the connecting rod between tube and IR (measured in cm)

Fulcrum

All structures at ______ level are in object plane and remain in the same position on IR during exposure, clear and in focus?

Fulcrum level

Define: The distance from tabletop to fulcrum; controls object plane

Fulcrum level

Rounded superior portion of the uterus

Fundus

Other than a radiologist, what type of physician often performs ERCP?

Gastroenterologist

Of the four clinical indications, which is most common for myelography?

Herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)

Which three joints are included on one IR for a long bones study of the lower limb?

Hip, knee, and ankle

What are the joints that may be studied with arthrography?

Hip, knee, ankle, shoulder, elbow, wrist, and TMJ

Which position is performed during a cervical myelogram to demonstrate the C7-T1 region?

Horizontal beam Swimmer's lateral

What demos the patency of the uterine tubes?

If contrast spills into the peritoneal cavity during HSG

Postoperative (T-tube) cholangiograms are generally performed _____. Why?

In the radiology department. b/c dr is concerned about residual stones in the bile duct

Most distal segment of the uterine tube, contains finger-like fimbriae that attaches to each ovary. Opens into the peritoneal cavity

Infundibulum

Proximal segment of the uterine tube that communicates with the uterine cavity

Interstitial segment

Why is water-soluble iodine the most ideal contrast for HSG? Why not oil-based?

Iodine: absorbed easily, leaves no residue, BUT does cause pain when injected into uterine cavity Oil: very slow absorption rate, persists in body cavities, increases risk of embolus in lungs

Narrow constricted segment that joins the cervix at the internal os

Isthmus

An indication of a possible Baker's cyst suggests the need for an arthrogram procedure for the _____.

Knee

(Small/large) structures are best imaged with thick object plane at reduced exposure angle (10*)?

Large

What patient prep is needed for HSG?

Laxative/suppository/enema so reproductive system is unobstructed. Empty bladder immediately prior to exam so reproductive anatomy is not displaced

What is the approx length and width of the uterine tubes?

Length: 10-12 cm Width: 1-4 mm

Which locks on the x-ray tube must be opened or unlocked during linear tomography?

Longitudinal tube, Bucky tray, and angle locks

Arthrography is rarely used for TMJ, which modality is preferred?

MRI

Other than conventional radiography of synovial joints (e.g., arthrography), which imaging procedure is preferred by physicians for studying synovial joints?

MRI or CT

Middle layer of the uterine cavity that consists of smooth muscle and constitutes most of the uterine tissue

Myometrium

What is the patient prep for post-op cholangiography?

NPO 8 hours

What type of contrast medium is most commonly used for myelography?

Nonionic, water-soluble, iodine-based

Define: The plane or section of the object that is clear and in relative focus; controlled by fulcrum level

Object plane

Define: The plane where the target anatomy is clear

Object plane

What does the fulcrum level determine?

Object plane

The formal term for a radiographic long bone measurement study is _____.

Orthoroentgenography

A tomographic principle in which the anatomic structure moves but the IR/tube remain stationary is called _____.

Orthostatic breathing technique

How does the uterus appear?

Pear-shaped, hollow, muscular organ. Lies in anteflexed position

Which condition of the pancreas may contraindicate an ERCP?

Pseudocyst

Situation: A T-tube cholangiogram image demonstrates the biliary ducts superimposed over the spine. The patient is in an AP position. Which position would remove the ducts from the spine?

RPO position

The uterus is situated between the _____ posteriorly and the _____ anteriorly.

Rectosigmoid colon; urinary bladder

What is the general name for the conjoined tendons of the four major shoulder muscles?

Rotator cuff

Define: The thickness of the objective or focal plane; controlled by exposure angle

Sectional thickness

What does exposure angle determine?

Sectional thickness

Outer surface of the uterus, lined with peritoneum and forms a capsule around the uterus

Serosa

Which three joints are included on one IR for a long bones study of the upper limb?

Shoulder, elbow, wrist

To help facilitate the flow of contrast media into the uterine cavity, in which position is the patient placed following the injection of contrast media?

Slight Trendelenburg

(Small/large) structures are best imaged with thin object plane at greater exposure angle (40*)?

Small

In which space is the contrast medium injected during a myelogram?

Subarachnoid space

Into which spinal space is the contrast medium introduced during myelography?

Subarachnoid space

Which position is performed to demonstrate the region of C7 during a cervical myelogram?

Swimmer's lateral using a horizontal x-ray beam

Which classification of joints are studied with arthrography?

Synovial joints

What device might be needed to aid the insertion and fixation of the cannula or catheter during the hysterosalpingogram?

Tenaculum

The term rotator cuff refers to what structures of the shoulder?

The conjoined tendons of the four major shoulder muscles

Briefly describe the tomographic blurring principle. (Why, or how, does blurring occur for some objects whereas others remain in sharp focus?)

The movement of the tube and IR will blur objects farther from the fulcrum level or objective plane. Objects closer to this fulcrum level and those that are parallel to tube travel will remain almost stationary and experience little or no blurring.

What are the therapeutic uses for ERCP? Dx uses?

Therapeutic: relieve pathologies (remove choleliths/lesions, repair stenosis) Dx: endoscopic insertion and retro injection of contrast into biliary ducts

How is the contrast medium instilled into the biliary ducts during an ERCP?

Through a special catheter introduced through the duodenoscope

What is the most common clinical reason for performing a T-tube cholangiogram?

To detect, post-operatively, any residual stones in the biliary ducts that may have gone undetected during the cholecystectomy.

Why should the patient's head and neck remain hyperextended during cervical myelography?

To keep the contrast media from entering the cranial subarachnoid space

Why should separate projections be taken on limb joints rather than including the entire extremity on a single projection?

To prevent elongation (magnification) of the limb as a result of the divergence of the x-ray beam

What is the purpose of flexing the knee gently after the contrast medium has been injected for an arthrogram procedure?

To provide a thin, even coating of positive contrast media over the soft tissues of the knee joint

Demos a clear image of an object lying in a specific plane with blurring of structures located above/below the specific plane

Tomogram

Define: Radiograph produced by a tomographic unit

Tomograph

Define: The image produced during a tomographic procedure

Tomograph

Many pathologic processes that occur in the knee are due to?

Trauma

True/False: An arthrogram must be approached as a sterile procedure. Proper skin prep and sterility must be maintained.

True

True/False: As the distance from the IR increases. object blurring increases.

True

True/False: Blurring is a desired outcome of tomography.

True

True/False: Both right and left lower limbs can be placed on the same radiograph for a long bone study.

True

True/False: Fertilization of the ovum occurs in the uterine tube.

True

True/False: For a bilateral study, all three joints of both lower limbs can be placed on the same 14 x 17" IR.

True

True/False: For a long bone study of the upper limb, all three projections must be taken with the IR placed in the Bucky tray.

True

True/False: Hysterosalpingography can be a therapeutic procedure in correcting certain obstructions within the uterine tube.

True

True/False: If a long bone study of both lower limbs is ordered, the use of two metal rulers is recommended with both limbs exposed at the same time on the same IR.

True

True/False: Increased blurring occurs when the object is farther from the IR.

True

True/False: Maximum blurring of anatomy is achieved when it is perpendicular to tube travel.

True

True/False: Movement of the body part between exposures compromises the long bone study.

True

True/False: Myelography has been largely replaced by MRI and CT.

True

True/False: The distal portion of the uterine tube opens into the peritoneal cavity.

True

True/False: The primary factor affecting the sectional thickness, as controlled by the operator, is exposure angle.

True

True/False: Generally, AP supine, PA prone, or horizontal beam lateral projections are not taken during thoracic spine myelography.

True - Right and Left lateral decubitus positions are taken

What does HSG best demo?

Uterine cavity and patency (degree of openness) of the uterine tubes

Communicate with the uterine cavity from a superior/lateral aspect btwn the body and the fundus

Uterine tubes

The hysterosalpingogram is a radiographic study of the _____ and _____.

Uterus and uterine tubes

What are the organs of the F reproductive system?

Vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, ovaries

Define: Using an exposure angle of ≤10 degrees

"Thick cut"

To reduce patient anxiety, a sedative is usually administered _____ hour(s) before the procedure.

1 hour


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