Cancer Q's

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy and notes that the platelet count is 10,000 cells/mm3. On the basis of this laboratory value, the nurse should collect which data as a priority?

Level of consciousness

A client who has been diagnosed with multiple myeloma asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which characteristic of the disorder?

Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone

A client with endometrial cancer is receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse should specifically collect data about which criterion?

Hematological laboratory values

The nurse is collecting data from a client with a history of bladder cancer. Which sign/symptom is the client most likely to report?

Hematuria

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Serum sodium of 126 mEq/L

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching?

The patient's visitors bring in fresh peaches.

2. A patient who has been told by the health care provider that the cells in a bowel tumor are poorly differentiated asks the nurse what is meant by "poorly differentiated." Which response should the nurse make? a. "The cells in your tumor do not look very different from normal bowel cells." b. "The tumor cells have DNA that is different from your normal bowel cells." c. "Your tumor cells look more like immature fetal cells than normal bowel cells." d. "The cells in your tumor have mutated from the normal bowel cells."

C Rationale: An undifferentiated cell has an appearance more like a stem cell or fetal cell and less like the normal cells of the organ or tissue. The DNA in cancer cells is always different from normal cells, whether the cancer cells are well differentiated or not. All tumor cells are mutations form the normal cells of the tissue.

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)?

Cook food thoroughly before eating. Avoid public transportation such as buses. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work.

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

Crackles heard at the lung bases

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?

Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.

A client receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, "What will I do when my hair starts to fall out?" Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Encourage her to select a wig

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to support the patient's self-esteem?

Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat to wear when hair loss begins

The nurse is assisting with developing a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma. Which is a priority nursing intervention for this client?

Encouraging Fluids

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of suspected Hodgkin's disease. Which finding should the nurse most likely expect to find documented in the client's record?

Enlarged lymph nodes

The nurse determines that a client with which history is most at risk for endometrial cancer?

Estrogen replacement therapy

A client has just been told by the health care provider about her diagnosis of breast cancer. The client responds, "Oh no, does this mean I'm going to die?" The nurse interprets which response as the client's initial reaction?

Fear

During a routine health examination, a 40-yr-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next?

Obtain more information about the family history.

The nurse is assisting with conducting a health-promotion program to community members regarding testicular cancer. The nurse determines the need for further teaching if a community member states that which is a sign/symptom of testicular cancer?

Alopecia

The nurse is assisting with developing a plan of care for a client who is experiencing hematological toxicity as a result of chemotherapy. The nurse should suggest including which in the plan of care?

Restricting fresh fruits and vegetables in the diet

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site.

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action would address the cause of the patient problem?

Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked.

The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client with cancer of the prostate after a prostatectomy. The nurse should reinforce which discharge instruction?

Avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 pounds for at least 6 weeks

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care?

Establish time to take a short walk almost every day.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect

Hematuria

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan?

Hospitalization is required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant.

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient?

IL-2 enhances the body's immunologic response to tumor cells.

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse?

Shortness of breath

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective?

The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs.

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C)

A client is tentatively diagnosed with ovarian cancer. The nurse gathers data about which late symptom of this disease?

Pelvic pain, anemia, and ascites

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

A 24-yr-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck

A patient who is scheduled for a breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct?

"Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs."

Which instruction is most appropriate for the nurse to convey to the client with chemotherapy-induced neuropathy? A. Bathe in cold water. B. Wear cotton gloves when cooking. C. Consume a diet high in fiber. D. Make sure shoes are snug

. C. Consume a diet high in fiber. A high-fiber diet will assist with constipation due to neuropathy. The client should bathe in warm water, not hotter than 96° F. Cotton gloves may prevent harm from scratching; protective gloves should be worn for washing dishes and gardening. Wearing cotton gloves while cooking can increase the risk for burns. Shoes should allow sufficient length and width to prevent blisters. Shoes that are snug can increase the risk for blisters in a client with peripheral neuropathy.

When monitoring a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), the nurse reviews the client's medical record, which contains the following information. The nurse notifies the health care provider for which signs and symptoms consistent with this syndrome? (Select all that apply.) Neuro: Episodes of confusion Cardiac: Pulse 88 and regular Musculoskeletal: Weakness, tremor Na: 115, K: 4.2, Creatinine: 0.8 ondansetron (Zofran) cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) A. Hyponatremia B. Mental status changes C. Azotemia D. Bradycardia E. Weakness

A, B, E Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted or produced ectopically, resulting in water retention and sodium dilution. Dilutional hyponatremia results from ADH secretion, causing confusion and changes in mental status. Weakness results from hyponatremia. Azotemia refers to buildup of nitrogenous waste products in the blood, typically from renal damage. Bradycardia is not part of the constellation of symptoms related to SIADH; tachycardia may result from fluid volume excess.

When reviewing the health care record of a client with ovarian cancer, the nurse recognizes which sign/symptom as being a typical manifestation of the disease?

Abdominal distention

In educating a client, what would the nurse NOT mention as a risk factor that increases the risk of developing endometrial cancer? A. Obesity B. Increased age C. Having had several children D. Diabetes

Answer: C. Having had several children.

5) A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to receive chemotherapy for treatment of ovarian cancer. The client vomited after each previous dose of chemotherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent vomiting? A. Speak to the provider about decreasing the chemotherapy dose B. Withhold food and fluids prior to and during treatment C. Provide the client with an emesis basin during treatment D. Administer and antiemetic prior to chemotherapy

Answer: D - Administer an antiemetic prior to chemotherapy

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake?

Apply prescribed anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving rituximab (Rituxan) for treatment of lymphoma. During the infusion, it is essential for the nurse to observe for which side effect? A. Alopecia B. Allergy C. Fever D. Chills

B. Allergy Allergy is the most common side effect of monoclonal antibody therapy (rituximab). Monoclonal antibody therapy does not cause alopecia. Although fever and chills are side effects of monoclonal antibody therapy, they would not take priority over an allergic response that could potentially involve the airway.

What can the nurse do to facilitate cancer prevention for the patient in the promotion stage of cancer development? A. Teach the patient to exercise daily. B. Teach the patient promoting factors to avoid. C. Tell the patient to have the cancer surgically removed now. D. Teach the patient which vitamins will improve the immune system.

B. Teach the patient promoting factors to avoid. The promotion stage of cancer is characterized by the reversible proliferation of the altered cells. Changing the lifestyle to avoid promoting factors (dietary fat, obesity, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption) can reduce the chance of cancer development. Daily exercise and vitamins alone will not prevent cancer. Surgery at this stage may not be possible without a critical mass of cells, and this advice would not be the nurse's role.

11. Which action by a nursing assistant (NA) caring for a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant indicates that the RN should intervene? a. The NA places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. b. The NA flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. c. The NA stands by the patient's bed for an hour talking with the patient. d. The NA gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash for oral care. .

C Rationale: Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated

The nurse is caring for a client after a mastectomy. Which nursing intervention should assist with preventing lymphedema of the affected arm?

Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level

The nurse is caring for a client with an internal radiation implant. The nurse should observe which principle?

Pregnant women are not allowed into the client's room

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client on performing a testicular self-examination (TSE). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

The best time for the examination is after a shower

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with stage I colon cancer. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information?

"Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?"

13. Which information obtained by the nurse about a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen indicates a need for patient teaching? a. The patient swims a mile 5 days a week. b. The patient eats frequently during the day. c. The patient showers with Dove soap daily. d. The patient has a history of dental caries.

A Rationale: The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change the habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

Which of the following is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy? A. Faster growing cells are less susceptible to chemotherapy B. Non dividing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy C. Faster growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy D. Slower growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy

ANSWER C The faster the cell grows the more susceptible it is to chemotherapy,

3). Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find in newly diagnosed intrinsic LC? 1. Dysphagia 2. Foul smelling breath 3. Hoarseness 4. Weight loss

Answer: 3- Hoarseness Rational: Hoarseness is an early sign.

A woman tells the nurse that "there's been a lot of cancer in my family." The nurse should instruct the client to report which possible sign of cervical cancer? A. Pain B. Leg edema C. Urinary and rectal symptoms D. Light bleeding or watery vaginal discharge

Answer: D. Light bleeding or watery vaginal discharge. Rationale: In its early stages, cancer of the cervix is usually asymptomatic, which underscores the importance of regular Pap smears. A light bleeding or serosanguineous discharge may be apparent as the first noticeable symptom. Pain, leg edema, urinary and rectal symptoms, and weight loss are late signs of cervical cancer.

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client receiving external radiation therapy. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states an intention to take which action?

Apply pressure on the radiated area to prevent bleeding

The nurse is assessing a client with lung cancer. Which symptom does the nurse anticipate finding? A. Easy bruising B. Dyspnea C. Night sweats D. Chest wound

B. Dyspnea Dyspnea is a sign of lung cancer, as are cough, hoarseness, shortness of breath, bloody sputum, arm or chest pain, and dysphagia. Easy bruising is a nonspecific finding. Night sweats is a symptom of the lymphomas. A chest wound is not specific to lung cancer.

The patient is receiving an IV vesicant chemotherapy drug. The nurse notices swelling and redness at the site. What should the nurse do first? A. Ask the patient if the site hurts. B. Turn off the chemotherapy infusion. C. Call the ordering health care provider. D. Administer sterile saline to the reddened area.

B. Turn off the chemotherapy infusion. Because extravasation of vesicants may cause severe local tissue breakdown and necrosis, with any sign of extravasation the infusion should first be stopped. Then the protocol for the drug-specific extravasation procedures should be followed to minimize further tissue damage. The site of extravasation usually hurts, but it may not. It is more important to stop the infusion immediately. The health care provider may be notified by another nurse while the patient's nurse starts the drug-specific extravasation procedures, which may or may not include sterile saline.

15. A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. An important nursing intervention for the patient is to a. teach about the importance of nutrition during treatment. b. have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. c. administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy.

C Rationale: Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help to prevent anticipatory nausea. Although nausea may lead to poor nutrition, there is no indication that the patient needs instruction about nutrition. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea.

A 33-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with stage II cervical cancer. What should the nurse understand about the patient's cancer? A. It is in situ. B. It has metastasized. C. It has spread locally. D. It has spread extensively.

C. It has spread locally. Stage II cancer is associated with limited local spread. Stage 0 denotes cancer in situ; stage I denotes tumor limited to the tissue of origin with localized tumor growth. Stage III denotes extensive local and regional spread. Stage IV denotes metastasis.

33. A with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is taking allopurinol (Xyloprim). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication? a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) b. Serum phosphate c. Serum potassium d. Uric acid level

D Rationale: Allopurinol is used to decrease uric acid levels. BUN, potassium, and phosphate levels are also increased in TLS but are not affected by allopurinol therapy.

Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient experiencing myelosuppression secondary to chemotherapy for cancer treatment? A. Acute pain B. Hypothermia C. Powerlessness D. Risk for infection

D. Risk for infection Myelosuppression is accompanied by a high risk of infection and sepsis. Hypothermia, powerlessness, and acute pain are also possible nursing diagnoses for patients undergoing chemotherapy, but the threat of infection is paramount.

A patient with a large stomach tumor attached to the liver is scheduled for a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure?

Decreasing the tumor size will improve the effects of other therapy.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which finding should the nurse expect to note with this diagnosis?

Increased calcium level

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in cancer therapy with the health care provider?

Increased carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. Which intervention is a priority in the nursing plan of care?

Monitor the client for bleeding

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-yr-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 lb (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine two or three times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)?

Pap testing Sunscreen use Mammography Colorectal screening

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hr in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider?

Patient has crackles up to the midline posterior chest.

The client is hospitalized for the insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant. While giving care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. Which is the immediate nursing action?

Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place into a lead container.

The nurse should monitor for which laboratory result as indicating an adverse reaction in the client with endometrial cancer who is receiving chemotherapy?

Platelet count 20,000 cells/mm3

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient?

Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

The client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The nurse monitors the client knowing that which is the most likely side/adverse effect of the external radiation?

Sore throat

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration?

Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

The nurse reinforces instructions to the client about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse instructs the client to lie down and examine the left breast. Which is the correct area for placing a pillow when examining the left breast?

Under the left shoulder

The nurse is caring for a client after a mastectomy. Which finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?

Arm edema on the operative side

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Blueberry yogurt

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

"Would you like to talk about options for the care of your children?"

A client has a diagnosis of lung cancer. To which areas does the nurse anticipate that this client's tumor may metastasize? (Select all that apply.) A. Brain B. Bone C. Lymph nodes D. Kidneys E. Liver

A, B, C, E Typical sites of metastasis of lung cancer include the brain, bone, liver, lymph nodes, and pancreas. Kidneys are not a typical site of lung cancer metastasis.

The nurse includes which factors in teaching regarding the typical warning signs of cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. Persistent constipation B. Scab present for 6 months C. Curdlike vaginal discharge D. Axillary swelling E. Headache

A, B, D Change in bowel habits, a sore that does not heal, and a lump or thickening in the breast or elsewhere are all potential warning signs of cancer. Curdlike vaginal discharge represents a yeast infection. Headache is not a warning sign, but may be present with multiple problems.

The nurse explains to a client that which risk factor of those listed most likely contributed to the client's primary liver carcinoma? A. Infection with hepatitis B virus B. Consuming a diet high in animal fat C. Exposure to radon D. Familial polyposis

A. Infection with hepatitis B virus Hepatitis B and C are risk factors for primary liver cancer. Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for the development of liver cancer. Consuming a diet high in animal fat may predispose a person to colon or breast cancer. Exposure to radon is a risk factor for lung cancer.

The patient and his family are upset that the patient is going through procedures to diagnose cancer. What nursing actions should the nurse use first to facilitate their coping with this situation (select all that apply)? A. Maintain hope. B. Exhibit a caring attitude. C. Plan realistic long-term goals. D. Give them antianxiety medications. E. Be available to listen to fears and concerns. F. Teach them about all the types of cancer that could be diagnosed.

A. Maintain hope. B. Exhibit a caring attitude. E. Be available to listen to fears and concerns. Maintaining hope, exhibiting a caring attitude, and being available to actively listen to fears and concerns would be the first nursing interventions to use as well as assessing factors affecting coping during the diagnostic period. Providing relief from distressing symptoms for the patient and teaching them about the diagnostic procedures would also be important. Realistic long-term goals and teaching about the type of cancer cannot be done until the cancer is diagnosed. Giving the family antianxiety medications would not be appropriate.

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Temperature 100.2° F (37.9° C) c. Shivering and complaint of chills d. Generalized muscle aches and pains

ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" b. "I'm sure you have friends that will take the children when you can't care for them." c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is still time to plan for your children."

ANS: A This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine 2 or 3 times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and/or teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work done.

ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 | eTable 16-16 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

ANS: B Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection.

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

ANS: B Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression

The nurse should include which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Roasted chicken c. Whole wheat toast d. Cream of potato soup

ANS: B To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided

The nurse should include which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Roasted chicken c. Whole wheat toast d. Cream of potato soup

ANS: B To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.

ANS: B Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."

ANS: C A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant, and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."

ANS: C A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant, and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life.

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes 2 packs/day. To reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer, which action by the nurse is best? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during every patient encounter. d. Teach the patient about the use of annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.

ANS: C Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumor must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumor reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 255-256 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient two ounces of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

ANS: C Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach

A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue. d. Tumor size will decrease and this will improve the effects of other therapy.

ANS: D A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting after each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is appropriate?

Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Alopecia c. Mucositis d. Hematuria

ANS: D The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Alopecia c. Mucositis d. Hematuria

ANS: D The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy.

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

ANS: D The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation." d. "I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured."

ANS: D The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up.

3) A nurse is instructing a client how to decrease nausea secondary to chemotherapy and radiation. The nurse understands that the client needs more teaching if the client states, "I will try A. eating small, frequent meals" B. Staying upright for at least on hour during meals" C. Avoiding a lot of liquids with my meals" D. Increasing the amount of unsaturated fats in my diet"

Answer - D - increasing the amount of unsaturated fats in my diet"

During the administration of a chemotherapeutic drug, the nurse observes that there is a lack of blood return from the intravenous catheter. The priority action by the nurse would be to A. stop the administration of the drug immediately B. reposition the client's arm and continue with the administration of the drug C. apply a tourniquet to the patient's affected arm and notify the doctor D. continue to administer the drug and assess for edema at the IV site

Answer A Chemotherapeutic agents are irritating to tissues. Lack of blood return from the IV catheter indicates that it is out of vein. Therefore, administration of the drug should be stopped immediately

6). A client with carcinoma of the lung develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) as a complication of the cancer. The nurse anticipates that which of the following may be prescribed? Select all that apply 1. Radiation 2. Chemotherapy 3. Increased fluid intake 4. Serum sodium levels 5. Decreased oral sodium intake 6. Medication that is antagonistic to antidiuretic hormone

Answer: 1,2,4,6 Rational: Cancer is a common cause of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). In SIADH, excessive amounts of water are reabsorbed by the kidney and put into the systemic circulation. The increased water causes hyponatremia (decreased serum sodium levels) and some degree of fluid retention. The syndrome is managed by treating the condition and cause and usually includes fluid restriction, increased sodium intake, and medication with a mechanism of action that is antagonistic to antidiuretic hormone. Sodium levels are monitored closely because hypernatremia can develop suddenly as a result of treatment. The immediate institution of appropriate cancer therapy, usually radiation or chemotherapy, can cause tumor regression so that antidiuretic hormone synthesis and release processes return to normal.

9) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for a patient experiencing myelosuppression secondary to chemotherapy for cancer treatment? A. Acute pain B. Hypothermia C. Powerlessness D.Risk for infection

Answer: D - Risk for infection

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first?

Assess for sensation and strength in the legs.

7. Which statement by a patient who is scheduled for a needle biopsy of the prostate indicates that the patient understands the purpose of a biopsy? a. "The biopsy will tell the doctor whether the cancer has spread to my other organs." b. "The biopsy will help the doctor decide what treatment to use for my enlarged prostate." c. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." d. "The biopsy will indicate the effect of the cancer on my life."

B Rationale: A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. Biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life; the three remaining statements indicate a need for patient teaching.

A client with cancer has undergone a total abdominal hysterectomy and has a Foley catheter in place. The nurse should expect to note which type of urinary drainage immediately following this surgery?

Blood tinged

30. After the nurse has explained the purpose of and schedule for chemotherapy to a 23-year-old patient who recently received a diagnosis of acute leukemia, the patient asks the nurse to repeat the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most likely for the patient? a. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system b. Knowledge deficit: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis d. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy

C Rationale: The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors.

28. The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Orange sherbet c. Strawberry yogurt d. French fries

C Rationale: Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Orange sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. French fries are high in calories from fat but low in protein.

Which cellular dysfunction in the process of cancer development allows defective cell proliferation? A. Proto-oncogenes B. Cell differentiation C. Dynamic equilibrium D. Activation of oncogenes

C. Dynamic equilibrium Dynamic equilibrium is the regulation of proliferation that usually only occurs to equal cell degeneration or death or when the body has a physiologic need for more cells. Cell differentiation is the orderly process that progresses a cell from a state of immaturity to a state of differentiated maturity. Mutations that alter the expression of proto-oncogenes can activate them to function as oncogenes, which are tumor-inducing genes and alter their differentiation.

The oncology nurse should use which intervention to prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? A. Monitoring platelets B. Administering packed red blood cells C. Using strict aseptic technique to prevent infection D. Administering low-dose heparin therapy for clients on bedrest

C. Using strict aseptic technique to prevent infection Sepsis is a major cause of DIC, especially in the oncology client. Monitoring platelets will help detect DIC, but will not prevent it. Red blood cells are used for anemia, not for bleeding/coagulation disorders. Heparin may be administered to clients with DIC who have developed clotting, but this has not been proven to prevent the disorder.

The nurse is caring for a client with cancer receiving chemotherapy who has developed stomatitis. The nurse plans to give mouth care by using oral care agents and devices that meet which additional criterion?

Care will be based on the severity of stomatitis

A 70-year-old man who has end-stage lung cancer is admitted to the hospital with confusion and oliguria for 2 days. Which finding would the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? A. Weight gain of 2 lb B. Urine specific gravity of 1.015 C. Blood urea nitrogen of 20 mg/dL D. Serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L

D. Serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L Lung cancer cells are able to manufacture and release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) with resultant water retention and hyponatremia. Hyponatremia (serum sodium levels less than 135 mEq/L) may lead to central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, seizures, coma, and death. A weight gain may be due to fluid retention. The urine specific gravity and blood urea nitrogen are normal.

The patient is being treated with brachytherapy for cervical cancer. What factors must the nurse be aware of to protect herself when caring for this patient? A. The medications the patient is taking B. The nutritional supplements that will help the patient C. How much time is needed to provide the patient's care D. The time the nurse spends at what distance from the patient

D. The time the nurse spends at what distance from the patient The principles of ALARA (as low as reasonably achievable) and time, distance, and shielding are essential to maintain the nurse's safety when the patient is a source of internal radiation. The patient's medications, nutritional supplements, and time needed to complete care will not protect the nurse caring for a patient with brachytherapy for cervical cancer.

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes two packs/day. Which action by the nurse could help reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer?

Discuss risks associated with cigarette smoking during each patient encounter.

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he does not know what to say to his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care?

Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

A client with ovarian cancer is scheduled to receive chemotherapy with cisplatin. The nurse assisting in caring for the client reviews the plan of care, expecting to note which intervention?

Encourage fluids.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory finding would provide information about the massive cell destruction that occurs with the chemotherapy?

Increased uric acid level

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a community group regarding the risks and causes of bladder cancer. The nurse determines that there is a need for further teaching if a member of the community group makes which statement regarding this type of cancer

It most often occurs in women

The nurse is assisting with conducting a health-promotion program at a local school. The nurse determines that there is a need for further teaching if a student identifies which as a risk factor associated with cancer?

Low-fat and high-fiber diets

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene?

The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating.

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention?

The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient.

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider?

White blood cells (WBC) 2700/µL

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

"The cancer involves only the cervix."

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about the management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective?

"I can buy aloe vera gel to use on my skin."

The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment?

"I rarely have the energy to get out of bed."

The nurse provides skin care instructions to the client who is receiving external radiation therapy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

"I will limit sun exposure to 1 hour daily."

8. The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

"I will need follow-up examinations for many years after treatment before I can be considered cured."

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective?

"The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate."

8). A nurse is teaching a client who is receiving radiation treatment for left lower lobe lung cancer. Which client statement indicates a need for further treatment? 1. "I'll use hats to protect my head from the sun when my hair falls out" 2. "If I get nauseous, I'll try to eat several small, bland meals each day" 3. "I'll allow myself plenty of time to rest between activities" 4. "Most of the adverse effects should go away shortly after my last radiation treatment"

Answer: 1-"I'll use hats to protect my head from the sun when my hair falls out" Rational: The client requires additional teaching if he mentions that he will lose the hair on his head a result of radiation therapy. Alopecia as an acute, localized adverse effect of radiation. The treatment area for this client's cancer will be localized to the lower aspects of his lungs, not his head. Nausea and fatigue are expected generalized adverse effects of radiation therapy. Most adverse effects of radiation are temporary and will stop when treatment is complete.

2). The client is 4 hours post-lobectomy for lung cancer. Which assessment data warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. Intake of 1500 mL IV and output of 1000 mL. 2. 450 mL of bright red drainage in the chest tube. 3. Complaining of pain at a 10 on a 1-10 scale. 4. Absent lung sound on the side of surgery.

Answer: 2- 450 mL of bright red drainage in the chest tube. Rational: This is about a pint of blood and could indicate a hemorrhage. HINT: Blood is always a priority.

10). Which of the following is the primary goal for surgical resection of lung cancer? 1. To remove the tumor and all surrounding tissue 2. To remove the tumor and as little surrounding tissue as possible 3. To remove the entire tumor and any collapsed alveoli in the same region 4. To remove as much of the tumor as possible, without removing any alveoli

Answer: 2- To remove the tumor and as little surrounding tissue as possible Rational: The goal of surgical resection is to remove the lung tissue that has a tumor in it while saving as much surrounding tissue as possible. It may be necessary to remove alveoli and bronchioles, but care is taken to make sure only what's absolutely necessary is removed.

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia, the patient is restless and looks away without making eye contact. The patient asks the nurse to repeat the information about the complications associated with chemotherapy. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient?

Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to possible anxiety about leukemia diagnosis

The nurse should suggest which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external-beam radiation for abdominal cancer?

Baked chicken

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching?

The patient swims several days each week.

32. Which action by a nursing assistant (NA) when caring for a patient who is pancytopenic indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The NA assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The NA makes an oral rinse using 1 teaspoon of salt in a liter of water. c. The NA adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. d. The NA puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush.

A Rationale: Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient.

3. A patient who smokes tells the nurse, "I want to have a yearly chest x-ray so that if I get cancer, it will be detected early." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Chest x-rays do not detect cancer until tumors are already at least a half-inch in size." b. "Annual x-rays will increase your risk for cancer because of exposure to radiation." c. "Insurance companies do not authorize yearly x-rays just to detect early lung cancer." d. "Frequent x-rays damage the lungs and make them more susceptible to cancer."

A Rationale: A tumor must be at least 1 cm large before it is detectable by an x-ray and may already have metastasized by that time. Radiographs have low doses of radiation, and an annual x-ray alone is not likely to increase lung cancer risk. Insurance companies do not usually authorize x-rays for this purpose, but it would not be appropriate for the nurse to give this as the reason for not doing an x-ray. A yearly x-ray is not a risk factor for lung cancer.

31. A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the RN caring for the patient indicates that the nurse should take action? a. The patient's visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home. b. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room. c. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day. d. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool.

A Rationale: Fresh, thinned-skin peaches are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help to prevent perineal skin breakdown and infection.

34. When assessing a patient's needs for psychologic support after the patient has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" b. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" c. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?" d. "How do you feel about having a possibly terminal illness?"

A Rationale: Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. The patient with stage I cancer is not considered to have a terminal illness at this time, and this question is likely to worry the patient unnecessarily.

16. When the nurse is administering a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent intravenously, an important consideration is to a. stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. b. infuse the medication over a short period. c. administer the chemotherapy through small-bore catheter. d. hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

A Rationale: Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication should generally be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapy drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred.

27. A bone marrow transplant is being considered for treatment of a patient with acute leukemia that has not responded to chemotherapy. In discussing the treatment with the patient, the nurse explains that a. hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). b. the transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone. c. donor bone marrow cells are transplanted immediately after an infusion of chemotherapy. d. the transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection.

A Rationale: The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room required. The HSCT takes place 1 or 2 days after chemotherapy to prevent damage to the transplanted cells by the chemotherapy drugs.

22. A 40-year-old divorced mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic cancer of the ovary. The nurse finds the patient crying, and she tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. The most appropriate response by the nurse is a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" b. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children." c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well, not worry about your children." d. "Perhaps your ex-husband will take the children when you can't care for them."

A Rationale: This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's ex-husband will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

When caring for the client receiving cancer chemotherapy, which signs or symptoms related to thrombocytopenia should the nurse report to the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) A. Bruises B. Fever C. Petechiae D. Epistaxis E. Pallor

A, C, D Bruising, petechiae, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) are symptoms of a low platelet count. Fever is a sign of infection secondary to neutropenia. Pallor is a sign of anemia.

Which potential side effects does the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. Fatigue B. Changes in color of hair C. Change in taste D. Changes in skin of the neck E. Difficulty swallowing

A, C, D, E Radiation therapy to any site produces fatigue in most clients, and may cause clients to report changes in taste. Radiation side effects are site-specific; the larynx is in the neck, so changes in the skin of the neck may occur. Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) may occur from radiation to the throat area. Chemotherapy, which causes alopecia, may cause changes in the color or texture of hair; this does not normally occur with radiation therapy.

The nurse has received in report that a client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which interventions does the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.) A. Assess for fever. B. Observe for bleeding. C. Administer pegfilgrastim (Neulasta) - a biologic response modifier D. Do not permit fresh flowers or plants in the room. E. Do not allow the client's 16-year-old son to visit. F. Teach the client to omit raw fruits and vegetables from the diet.

A, C, D, F Any temperature elevation in a client with neutropenia is considered a sign of infection and should be reported immediately to the health care provider. Administration of biological response modifiers, such as filgrastim (Neupogen) and pegfilgrastim (Neulasta), is indicated in neutropenia to prevent infection and sepsis. Flowers and plants may harbor organisms such as fungi or viruses and are to be avoided for the immune-suppressed client. All fruits and vegetables should be cooked well; raw fruits and vegetables may harbor organisms. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet levels, causes bleeding, not low neutrophils (a type of white blood cell). The client is at risk for infection, not the visitors, if they are well; however, very small children, who may get frequent colds and viral infections, may pose a risk.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who reports anorexia. Which measure does the nurse use to best monitor for cachexia? A. Monitor weight B. Trend red blood cells and hemoglobin and hematocrit C. Monitor platelets D. Observe for motor deficits

A. Monitor weight Cachexia results in extreme body wasting and malnutrition; severe weight loss is expected. Anemia and bleeding tendencies result from bone marrow suppression secondary to invasion of bone marrow by a cancer or a side effect of chemotherapy. Motor deficits result from spinal cord compression.

The nurse assesses a 76-year-old man with chronic myeloid leukemia receiving nilotinib (Tasigna). It is most important for the nurse to ask which question? A. "Have you had a fever?" B. "Have you lost any weight?" C. "Has diarrhea been a problem?" D. "Have you noticed any hair loss?"

A. "Have you had a fever?" An adverse effect of nilotinib is neutropenia. Infection is common in neutropenic patients and is the primary cause of death in cancer patients. Patients should report a temperature of 100.4o F or higher. Other adverse effects of nilotinib are thrombocytopenia, bleeding, nausea, fatigue, elevated lipase level, fever, rash, pruritus, diarrhea, and pneumonia.

The nurse is teaching a 47-year-old woman about recommended screening practices for breast cancer. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions? A. "My mother and grandmother had breast cancer, so I am at risk." B. "I get a mammogram every 2 years since I turned 30." C. "A clinical breast examination is performed every month since I turned 40." D. "A computed tomography (CT) scan will be done every year after I turn 50."

A. "My mother and grandmother had breast cancer, so I am at risk." A strong family history of breast cancer indicates a risk for breast cancer. Annual rather than biannual screening may be indicated for a strong family history. An annual mammogram is performed after age 40 or in younger clients with a strong family history. The client may perform a self-breast examination monthly; a clinical examination by a health care provider is indicated annually. Annual CT breast scans after age 50 are not a current recommendation.

Which information must the organ transplant nurse emphasize before a client is discharged? A. "Taking immunosuppressant medications increases your risk for cancer and the need for screenings." B. "You are at increased risk for cancer when you reach 60 years of age." C. "Immunosuppressant medications will decrease your risk for developing cancers." D. "After 6 months, you may stop immunosuppressant medications, and your risk for cancer will be the same as that of the general population."

A. "Taking immunosuppressant medications increases your risk for cancer and the need for screenings." Use of immunosuppressant medications to prevent organ rejection increases the risk for cancer. Advanced age is a risk factor for all people, not just for organ transplant recipients. Immunosuppressant medications must be taken for the life of the organ; the risk for developing cancer remains.

Previous administrations of chemotherapy agents to a cancer patient have resulted in diarrhea. Which dietary modification should the nurse recommend? A. A bland, low-fiber diet B. A high-protein, high-calorie diet C. A diet high in fresh fruits and vegetables D. A diet emphasizing whole and organic foods

A. A bland, low-fiber diet Patients experiencing diarrhea secondary to chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy often benefit from a diet low in seasonings and roughage before the treatment. Foods should be easy to digest and low in fat. Fresh fruits and vegetables are high in fiber and should be minimized during treatment. Whole and organic foods do not prevent diarrhea.

The laboratory reports that the cells from the patient's tumor biopsy are Grade II. What should the nurse know about this histologic grading? A. Cells are abnormal and moderately differentiated. B. Cells are very abnormal and poorly differentiated. C. Cells are immature, primitive, and undifferentiated. D. Cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well-differentiated.

A. Cells are abnormal and moderately differentiated. Grade II cells are more abnormal than Grade I and moderately differentiated. Grade I cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well-differentiated. Grade III cells are very abnormal and poorly differentiated. Grade IV cells are immature, primitive, and undifferentiated; the cell origin is difficult to determine.

The RN working on an oncology unit has just received report on these clients. Which client should be assessed first? A. Client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia who has just been admitted with an elevated temperature B. Client with lymphoma who will need administration of an antiemetic before receiving chemotherapy C. Client with metastatic breast cancer who is scheduled for external beam radiation in 1 hour D. Client with xerostomia associated with laryngeal cancer who needs oral care before breakfast

A. Client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia who has just been admitted with an elevated temperature Neutropenia poses high risk for life-threatening sepsis and septic shock, which develop and progress rapidly in immune-suppressed people; the nurse should see the client with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia first. The client with lymphoma and the client with metastatic breast cancer are not in distress and can be assessed later. The client with dry mouth (xerostomia) can be assessed later, or the nurse can delegate mouth care to unlicensed assistive personnel.

The oncology nurse is caring for a group of clients receiving chemotherapy. The client with which sign/symptom is displaying bone marrow suppression? A. Hemoglobin of 7.4 and hematocrit of 21.8 B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L and diarrhea C. 250,000 platelets/mm3 D. 5000 white blood cells/mm3

A. Hemoglobin of 7.4 and hematocrit of 21.8 Bone marrow suppression causes anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia; the client with a hemoglobin of 7.4 and hematocrit of 21.8 has anemia demonstrated by low hemoglobin and hematocrit. The client with diarrhea and a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L has hypokalemia and electrolyte imbalance. The client with 250,000 platelets/mm3 and the client with 5000 white blood cells/mm3 demonstrate normal values.

The nurse manager in a long-term care facility is developing a plan for primary and secondary prevention of colorectal cancer. Which tasks associated with the screening plan will be delegated to nursing assistants within the facility? A. Testing of stool specimens for occult blood B. Teaching about the importance of dietary fiber C. Referring clients for colonoscopy procedures D. Giving vitamin and mineral supplements

A. Testing of stool specimens for occult blood Testing of stool specimens for occult blood is done according to a standardized protocol and can be delegated to nursing assistants. Client education is within the scope of practice of the RN, not of the LPN or nursing assistant. Referral for further care is best performed by the RN. Administration of medications is beyond the nursing assistant's scope of practice and should be done by licensed nursing personnel.

When the nurse is counseling a 60-year-old African-American male client with all of these risk factors for lung cancer, teaching should focus most on which risk factor? A. Tobacco use B. Ethnicity C. Gender D. Increased age

A. Tobacco use Although all of these are risk factors for lung cancer, the client's tobacco use is the only factor that he can change. Ethnicity, gender, and increasing age are associated with lung cancer, but they are not modifiable risks.

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can buy some aloe vera gel to use on the area." b. "I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily." c. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area." d. "I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales."

ANS: A Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can buy some aloe vera gel to use on the area." b. "I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily." c. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area." d. "I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales."

ANS: A Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury.

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look almost like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look almost like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread.

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look almost like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 254 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis. c. IL-2 prevents the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. d. IL-2 protects normal cells from the harmful effects of chemotherapy.

ANS: A IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis. c. IL-2 prevents the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. d. IL-2 protects normal cells from the harmful effects of chemotherapy.

ANS: A IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression.

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Temperature 100.2° F (37.9° C) c. Shivering and complaint of chills d. Generalized muscle aches and pains

ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Temperature 100.2° F (37.9° C) c. Shivering and complaint of chills d. Generalized muscle aches and pains

ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications.

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient swims a mile 3 days a week. b. The patient snacks frequently during the day. c. The patient showers everyday with a mild soap. d. The patient has a history of dental caries with amalgam fillings.

ANS: A The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient swims a mile 3 days a week. b. The patient snacks frequently during the day. c. The patient showers everyday with a mild soap. d. The patient has a history of dental caries with amalgam fillings.

ANS: A The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" b. "I'm sure you have friends that will take the children when you can't care for them." c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is still time to plan for your children."

ANS: A This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

ANS: A Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

ANS: A Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

ANS: C Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and will require rapid treatment in order to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention, but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine 2 or 3 times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and/or teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy.

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine 2 or 3 times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and/or teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 255 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work done.

ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work done.

ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics.

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

ANS: B Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

ANS: B Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated.

The home health nurse cares for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."

ANS: B Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of biologic therapies. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours

The home health nurse cares for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."

ANS: B Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of biologic therapies. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours.

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

ANS: B Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

ANS: B Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression.

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

ANS: B Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapeutic drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

ANS: B Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapeutic drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred.

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to maintain the patient's self-esteem? a. Tell the patient to limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. Teach the patient to gently wash hair with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once the chemotherapy is complete.

ANS: B The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to maintain the patient's self-esteem? a. Tell the patient to limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. Teach the patient to gently wash hair with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once the chemotherapy is complete.

ANS: B The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem.

The nurse should include which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Roasted chicken c. Whole wheat toast d. Cream of potato soup

ANS: B To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided.

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.

ANS: B Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility.

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet b. Blueberry yogurt c. Cream cheese bagel d. Fresh strawberries and bananas

ANS: B Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet b. Blueberry yogurt c. Cream cheese bagel d. Fresh strawberries and bananas

ANS: B Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein.

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 35-year-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. 42-year-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. 24-year-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. 56-year-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

ANS: C Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 35-year-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. 42-year-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. 24-year-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. 56-year-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

ANS: C Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening.

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

ANS: C For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics also may be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

ANS: C For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics also may be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time.

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

ANS: C Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

ANS: C Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

ANS: C Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and will require rapid treatment in order to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention, but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening.

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes 2 packs/day. To reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer, which action by the nurse is best? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during every patient encounter. d. Teach the patient about the use of annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.

ANS: C Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumor must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumor reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes 2 packs/day. To reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer, which action by the nurse is best? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during every patient encounter. d. Teach the patient about the use of annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.

ANS: C Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumor must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumor reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/µL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

ANS: C Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions, but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/µL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/µL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

ANS: C Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions, but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/µL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain.

A patient who is scheduled for a right breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur

A patient who is scheduled for a right breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur.

A patient who is scheduled for a right breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 253 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient.

ANS: C The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.

During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient

ANS: C The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.

During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient.

ANS: C The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia the patient is restless and is looking away, never making eye contact. After teaching about the complications associated with chemotherapy, the patient asks the nurse to repeat all of the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis d. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment

ANS: C The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia the patient is restless and is looking away, never making eye contact. After teaching about the complications associated with chemotherapy, the patient asks the nurse to repeat all of the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis d. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment

ANS: C The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors.

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Add strained baby meats to foods such as casseroles. b. Teach the patient about foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add extra spice to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Add strained baby meats to foods such as casseroles. b. Teach the patient about foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add extra spice to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Add strained baby meats to foods such as casseroles. b. Teach the patient about foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add extra spice to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition.

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient two ounces of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

ANS: C Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach.

A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue. d. Tumor size will decrease and this will improve the effects of other therapy.

ANS: D A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs.

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in therapy with the health care provider? a. Poor oral intake b. Frequent loose stools c. Complaints of nausea and vomiting d. Increase in carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

ANS: D An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. The other patient findings are common adverse effects of chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in therapy with the health care provider? a. Poor oral intake b. Frequent loose stools c. Complaints of nausea and vomiting d. Increase in carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

ANS: D An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. The other patient findings are common adverse effects of chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy.

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply the ordered anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

ANS: D Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition, but would not be as helpful for this patient

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply the ordered anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

ANS: D Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition, but would not be as helpful for this patient.

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Complaints of nausea and anorexia c. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) d. Crackles heard at the lower scapular border

ANS: D Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Complaints of nausea and anorexia c. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) d. Crackles heard at the lower scapular border

ANS: D Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2.

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Complaints of nausea and anorexia c. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) d. Crackles heard at the lower scapular border

ANS: D Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2.

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hour in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient needs to void every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has audible crackles to the midline posterior chest.

ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer and/or are receiving chemotherapy

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hour in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient needs to void every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has audible crackles to the midline posterior chest.

ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer and/or are receiving chemotherapy

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hour in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient needs to void every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has audible crackles to the midline posterior chest.

ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer and/or are receiving chemotherapy.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Alopecia c. Mucositis d. Hematuria

ANS: D The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 261 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he never knows what to say to help his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

ANS: D The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he never knows what to say to help his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

ANS: D The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 30% b. Platelets of 95,000/µL c. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2700/µL

ANS: D The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 30% b. Platelets of 95,000/µL c. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2700/µL

ANS: D The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy.

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone. b. Donor bone marrow cells are transplanted through an incision into the sternum or hip bone. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant procedure is performed.

ANS: D The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone. b. Donor bone marrow cells are transplanted through an incision into the sternum or hip bone. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant procedure is performed.

ANS: D The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required.

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

ANS: D The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended.

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation." d. "I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured."

ANS: D The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

ANS: D Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short- or long-term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

ANS: D Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short- or long-term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider.

A nurse is teaching a group of women about the appropriate method for performing a breast self-exam (BSE). Which of the following statements regarding breast self-exam demonstrates correct comprehension of the material? A. "Breast exams should begin around age 30." B. "Breast exams should be done one week prior to the menstrual cycle." C. "Breast exams should incorporate both feeling and looking at the breasts." D. "Breast exams should be done during the middle of the menstrual cycle."

Answer C Rationale: Breast exams should incorporate both feeling and looking at the breasts. Premenstrual swelling and tenderness of the breasts may be present one week prior. Breast self-examination should begin as early as possible, preferably when the individual is an adolescent.

9). A patient who smokes tells the nurse, "I want to have a yearly chest x-ray so that if I get cancer, it will be detected early." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? 1. "Chest x-rays do not detect cancer until tumors are already at least a half-inch in size." 2. "Annual x-rays will increase your risk for cancer because of exposure to radiation." 3. "Insurance companies do not authorize yearly x-rays just to detect early lung cancer." 4. "Frequent x-rays damage the lungs and make them more susceptible to cancer."

Answer: 1-"Chest x-rays do not detect cancer until tumors are already at least a half-inch in size." Rational: A tumor must be at least 1 cm large before it is detectable by an x-ray and may already have metastasized by that time. Radiographs have low doses of radiation, and an annual x-ray alone is not likely to increase lung cancer risk. Insurance companies do not usually authorize x-rays for this purpose, but it would not be appropriate for the nurse to give this as the reason for not doing an x-ray. A yearly x-ray is not a risk factor for lung cancer.

7). A client with suspected lung cancer is scheduled for thoracentesis as part of the diagnostic workup. The nurse reviews the client's history for conditions that might contraindicate this procedure. Which condition is a contraindication for thoracentesis? 1. A seizure disorder 2. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) 3. Anemia 4. A bleeding disorder

Answer: 4- A bleeding disorder Rational: A bleeding disorder is a contraindication for thoracentesis because a hemorrhage may occur during or after this procedure, possibly causing death. Although a history of a seizure disorder, COPD, or anemia calls for caution, it doesn't contraindicate thoracentesis.

4). A 69-year-old patient was diagnosed with lung cancer. He is receiving chemotherapy and the nurse caring for him reviewed the laboratory results showing a platelet count is 18,000/mm3 and a pH of 7.36. Which of the following measures would the nurse implement based on the laboratory result? 1. Contact isolation 2. Reverse isolation 3. Respiratory isolation 4. Bleeding precautions

Answer: 4- Bleeding precautions Rational: Normal platelet count is 150,000-400,000/mm3. Bleeding precautions should be implemented with a platelet count below 50,000/mm3. Patients receiving chemotherapy are at risk for thrombocytopenia. Bleeding precautions include avoiding anticoagulant and antiplatelet medications, using an electric razor, stool softeners to prevent straining, and avoiding dental floss.

1).The nurse is taking the social history of a client diagnosed with SCLC (Single Cell Lung Cancer).Which information is significant for this disease? 1. Worked with asbestos for a short time many years ago. 2. Has no family Hx of this type of lung cancer. 3. Has numerous tattoos on upper and lower arms. 4. Has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes/day for 20 years.

Answer: 4- Has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes/day for 20 years. Rational: Smoking is greatest risk for LC.

5). A 71-year-old patient diagnosed with lung cancer is receiving chemotherapy on an outpatient basis. The nurse must provide which of the following home care instructions to the patient? 1. During chemotherapy, use disposable plates and plastic utensils 2. All members of the family can share a bathroom 3. Do not consider urine and stool as contaminated 4. If necessary, contaminated linens should be washed separately and then washed a second time with other laundry.

Answer: 4- If necessary, contaminated linens should be washed separately and then washed a second time with other laundry. Rational: Any contaminated linen or clothing should be washed separately and then washed a second time with other laundry to prevent exposure to chemotherapy in body fluids.

The nurse is caring for a young woman who is dying from breast cancer. The nurse determines that a defining characteristic of anticipatory grieving is present when the young woman: A. Discusses thoughts and feelings related to the loss. B. Has prolonged emotional reactions and outbursts. C. Verbalizes unrealistic goals and plans for the future. D. Ignores untreated medical conditions that require treatment.

Answer: A Rationale: The nurse can determine the client's stage of grief by observing the client's behavior. This is important because the appropriate nursing diagnoses must be developed so that the plan of care is appropriate.

A 22 year old client asks about the purpose of the HPV vaccine (Gardasil). What is an appropriate nursing explanation? A. It is to lower the risk of contracting melanoma. B. It is a vaccine that prevents infection by all strains of HPV. C. The vaccine treats infections of HPV. D. The vaccine can lower the risk of cervical cancer.

Answer: D. The vaccine can lower the risk of cervical cancer. Rationale: The HPV vaccine can prevent infection by certain strains of HPV, not all strains. It is useful in that it can lower the risk of developing cervical cancer. It does not treat preexisting infection, but can prevent infection by other types.

For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client? A. "Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety." B. "Client doesn't guess at prognosis." C. "Client uses any effective method to reduce tension." D. "Client stops seeking information."

Answer: A Rationale: Verbalizing feelings are the client's first step in coping with the situational crisis. It also helps the health care team gain insight into the client's feelings, helping guide psychosocial care. Suppressing speculation may prevent the client from coming to terms with the crisis and planning accordingly. Some methods of reducing tension, such as illicit drug or alcohol use, may prevent the client from coming to terms with the threat of death as well as cause physiologic harm. Seeking information can help a client with cancer gain a sense of control over the crisis

6) Previous administrations of chemotherapy agents to a cancer patient have resulted in diarrhea. Which of the following dietary modifications should the nurse recommend? A. A bland, low-fiber diet B. A high-protein, high-calorie diet C. A diet high in fresh fruits and vegetables D. A diet emphasizing whole and organic foods

Answer: A - A bland, low-fiber diet

4) The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client being admitted to the hospital who is immunosuppressed and will be placed on neutropenic precautions. With regard to neutropenic precautions, which intervention is incorrect? A) admitting the client to a semi-private room B) placing a precaution sign on the door to the room C) placing a mask on the client if the client leaves the room D) removing a vase with fresh flowers left by a previous client

Answer: A - admitting the client to a semiprivate room

The husband of a client with cervical cancer says to the nurse, "The doctor told my wife that her cancer is curable. Is he just trying to make us feel better?" Which would be the nurse's most accurate response? A. "When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively, the cure rate is almost 100%" B. "The 5-year survival rate is about 75%, which makes the odds pretty good." C. "Saying a cancer is curable means that 50% of all women with the cancer survive at least 5 years." D. "Cancers of the female reproductive tract tend to be slow-growing and respond well to treatment."

Answer: A. "When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively , the cure rate is almost 100%" Rationale: When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively, the cure rate approaches 100%. The incidence of cervical cancer has increased among African Americans, Native Americans, and Latinas, and these women often have a poorer prognosis because the cancer is not identified early. Papanicolaou (Pap) smears and colposcopy have the potential to decrease mortality from invasive carcinoma when these screening and treatment programs are utilized by women.

A 40-year-old divorced mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic cancer of the ovary. The nurse finds the patient crying, and she tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. The most appropriate response by the nurse is A. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" B. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children." C. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well, not worry about your children." D. "Perhaps your ex-husband will take the children when you can't care for them."

Answer: A. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?"  Rationale: This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's ex-husband will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans.

A 58-year-old woman calls the health clinic when she has a moderate amount of vaginal bleeding after 6 years of menopause. The nurse will anticipate scheduling the patient for A. endometrial biopsy. B. dilation and curettage (D&C). C. laser endometrial ablation. D. uterine balloon therapy.

Answer: A. endometrial biopsy Rationale: A postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding should be evaluated for endometrial cancer, and endometrial biopsy is the primary test for endometrial cancer. D&C will be needed only if the biopsy does not provide sufficient information to make a diagnosis. Endometrial ablation and balloon therapy are used to treat menorrhagia, which is unlikely in this patient

Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of radiation. When should a nurse administer antiemetics? A: 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy B: With the administration of therapy C: Immediately after nausea begins D: When therapy is completed

Answer: A: 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy Rationale: Antiemetics are most beneficial when given before the onset of nausea and vomiting. If the antiemetic was given with the medication or after the medication, it could lose its maximum effectiveness when needed.

The nurse is caring for a 35-year old patient receiving radiation and chemotherapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that he is using a positive coping mechanism that is useful during treatments? A: I may miss my own hair, but I have chosen a nice wig to wear B: Losing my hair won't bother me at all C: I'm never going to leave the house if I am bald D: I will not lose my hair and I'll make sure of that

Answer: A: I may miss my own hair, but I have chosen a nice wig to wear Rationale: Expressing personal feelings and positive interventions demonstrate positive coping mechanisms

After surgery for gastric cancer, a client is scheduled to undergo radiation therapy. It will be most important for the nurse to include information about which of the following in the client's teaching plan? A: Nutritional intake B: Management of alopecia C: Exercise and activity levels D: Access to community resources

Answer: A: Nutritional intake Rationale: Clients who have had gastric surgery are prone to postoperative complications, such as dumping syndrome and postprandial hypoglycemia, which can affect nutritional intake. Vitamin absorption can also be an issue, depending on the extent of the gastric surgery. Radiation therapy to the upper gastrointestinal area also can affect nutritional intake by causing anorexia, nausea, and esophagitis. The client would not be expected to develop alopecia. Exercise and activity levels as well as access to community resources are important teaching areas, but nutritional intake is a priority need.

A client undergoing radiation therapy has a severely depressed WBC count. The nurse should include which priority nursing intervention in the plan of care? A: Place the client in a private room and maintain strict aseptic technique with all procedures B: Encourage the client to include fresh fruits and vegetables in the diet C: Educate the client to avoid shaving with a razor D: Encourage frequent visitors to reduce the client's feelings of isolation

Answer: A: Place the client in a private room and maintain strict aseptic technique with all procedures Rationale: The immunosuppressed client is at a high risk for infection. A private room, maintaining aseptic technique, and limiting visitors will reduce exposure and risk.

The nurse is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which nursing intervention would assist in preventing lymphedema of the affected arm? A. Placing cool compresses on the affected arm B. Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level C. Avoiding arm exercises in the immediate post-operative period. D. Maintaining an intravenous site below the antecubital area of the affected side

Answer: B Rationale: Following mastectomy, the arm should be elevated above the level of the heart. Simple arm exercises should be encouraged. No blood pressure readings, injections, intravenous lines, or blood draws should be performed on the affected arm. Cool compresses are not a suggested measure to prevent lymphedema from occurring

While being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast, the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. The nurse explains that a benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that benign tumors A. Do not cause damage to adjacent tissue. B. Do not spread to other tissues and organs. C. Are simply an overgrowth of normal cells. D. Frequently recur in the same site.

Answer: B Rationale: The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. The cells differ from normal in both benign and malignant tumors. Benign tumors usually do not recur.

A patient has undergone a mastectomy. The nurse determines that the client is having the most difficulty adjusting to the loss of the breast if which behavior is observed? A. Performs arm exercises B. Refuses to look at the dressing C. Reads the post operative care booklet D. Requests pain medication when needed

Answer: B Rationale: The patient demonstrated the most difficult adjustments to the loss if she refuses to look at the dressing. This indicates that the client is not ready or willing to begin to acknowledge and cope with the surgery. Performing arm exercises is an action oriented behavior on the part of the patient and is considered a positive sign of adjustment. Reading the post operative care booklet indicates an interest in self care and is a positive action oriented option that is helpful, although there is no direct connection to adjustment to the loss of the breast.

7) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an initial dose of chemotherapy to treat a rapidly growing metastatic colon cancer. The nurse is aware that this patient is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and will monitor the patient closely for which of the following abnormalities associated with this oncologic emergency? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypouricemia D. Hypophosphatemia

Answer: B - Hypocalcemia

A 50 year old female client complains of bloating and indigestion and tells the nurse she has gained two inches in her waist recently. Which question should the nurse ask the client? A:"What do you eat before you feel bloated?" B:"Have you had your ovaries removed?" C:"Are your stools darker in color lately?" D:"Is this indigestion worse when you lie down?"

Answer: B. "Have you had your ovaries removed?" Rationale: Ovarian Cancer has vague symptoms of abdominal discomfort, but increasing abdominal girth is the most common symptom. If the client has had the ovaries removed, then the nurse could assess for another cause.

A female client has a mother who died from ovarian cancer and sister diagnosed with it. Which recommendations should the nurse make regarding early detection of ovarian cancer? A:The client should consider having a prophylactic bilateral oophorectomy B:The client should have a trans-vaginal ultrasound and a CA-125 lab test every 6 months C:The client should have yearly MRI scans D:The client should have a biannual gyn exam with flexible sigmoidoscopy

Answer: B. The client should have a trans-vaginal ultrasound and a CA-125 lab test every 6 months Rationale: A trans-vaginal ultrasound is a sonogram probe is inserted into the vagina and sound waves are directed toward the ovaries. The CA-125 tumor marker is elevated in several cancers. It is nonspecific but, coupled with the sonogram, can provide info about ovarian cancer for early diagnosis.

The nurse is visiting a patient receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following statements is incorrect and requires additional teaching? A: "I may lose the ability to sweat" B: "To keep the radiation from burning my skin, I will use lotion" C: "I need to check my mouth frequently for signs of irritation" D: "During radiation therapy, I may lose some of my hair and foods may not taste right"

Answer: B: "To keep the radiation from burning my skin, I will use lotion" Rationale: Skin products must be prescribed by the physician because they can irritate the skin

A recently divorced male who has undergone radiation therapy for testicular cancer tells the nurse he is unable to achieve an erection. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate? A: Ineffective coping related to the effects of radiation therapy B: Sexual dysfunction related to the effects of radiation therapy C: Disturbed body image related to the effects of radiation therapy D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to radiation therapy

Answer: B: Sexual dysfunction related to the effects of radiation therapy Rationale: Radiation may cause sexual dysfunction. Libido may only be temporarily affected, and the client should be provided with emotional support.

When teaching safety precautions to the client with internal radiation implant, the nurse would include which statement in explanations to the client? A: No precautions are necessary for internal radiation therapy implants B: The client poses a risk of radiation exposure to others C: The client must remain in solitary isolation for the entire hospitalization D: Visitors should maintain a distance of 30 feet from the client at all times

Answer: B: The client poses a risk of radiation exposure to others Rationale: Internal radiation is emitted outward to people in close contact as long as the implant is in place. Therefore, certain precautions to protect others must be taken: The client should have a private room, and visitors should maintain a distance of 6 feet and limit visits to 10-30 minutes.

A hospitalized client with an internal radiation implant calls the nurse to the room to report the implant is dislodged and is lying in the bed. The nurse's actions would include which of the following? A: Apply gloves and place implant in a biohazard bag B: Use long-handled forceps to pick up the implant and place it into lead container C: Have client pick up the implant and place it into lead container D: Notify infection control personnel to dispose of implant

Answer: B: Use long-handled forceps to pick up the implant and place it into lead container Rationale: Direct handling of the implant causes exposure to radiation and no one should directly touch the implant. Gloves and biohazard bags do not offer protection from radiation. Long-handled forceps should be used to pick up the implant and lead containers are necessary to prevent exposure to radiation.

A 58 year old female is concerned about her risk for developing breast cancer. She began menarche at age 14, had 3 children before the age of 35, went through menopause at age 50 with an associated weight gain of 20 lbs. Which of the risk factors would contribute to this client's risk of developing breast cancer? A. menarche at age 14 B. children before the age of 35 C. postmenopausal obesity D. menopause at age 50

Answer: C Rationale: Postmenopausal obesity is a risk factor for developing breast cancer

10. What would be most important for the nurse to teach the patient to protect themselves from infection? A) Avoiding crowds and taking antipyretics such as Aspirin TID to avoid a fever. B) Assessing their vital signs weekly and reporting a persistent fever of 102 degrees or greater. C) Bathing daily and washing their hands frequently, especially after using restroom or handling contaminated objects. D) Interacting only with individuals who have recently been vaccinated with live or attenuated vaccines.

Answer: C - Bathing daily and washing their hands frequently, especially after using restroom or handling contaminated objects.

When planning care for a client being treated for cervical cancer, it would be a priority for the nurse to include which of the following in the plan of care? A. Instruction on birth control methods. B. Vigorous fluid hydration. C. Assessment of sexual function. D. Daily weights.

Answer: C. Assessment of sexual function. Rationale: Surgery and radiation therapy for cervical cancer often result in shortening of the vagina, vaginal dryness, and loss of libido due to emotional issues related to sexuality and femininity. Therefore, the client's feelings about sexuality and the partner's feelings should be assessed. If a client is not sexually active, instructions should be given in the use of a vaginal dilator and lubricant to prevent adhesion of the vaginal walls. While instruction about birth control methods may be needed for some clients, treatment for cervical cancer may include total abdominal hysterectomy, so that this would not be appropriate for all clients. Encouraging fluids and daily weights are not priorities for cervical cancer care.

The nurse is making a home visit to a client receiving external radiation therapy on an outpatient basis. Further teaching is necessary when the nurse observes the client doing which of the following? A: Washing radiation site with plain water and patting skin dry B: Protecting skin with soft, loose clothing C: Applying lotion to irritated skin D: Inspecting skin for damage

Answer: C: Applying lotion to irritated skin Rationale: Lotion, deodorant, and powders should not be applied to the radiation site during the treatment period to avoid further irritation to the skin.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the surgical unit following a right modified radical mastectomy. The nurse includes which of the following in the nursing plan of care? A. Take blood pressure in the right arm only. B. Draw serum laboratory samples from the right arm only. C. Position the client supine with the right arm elevated on a pillow. D. Check the right posterior axilla area when assessing the surgical dressing.

Answer: D Rationale: If there is drainage or bleeding from the surgical site after a mastectomy, gravity will cause the drainage to seep down and soak the posterior axillary portion of the drainage first. The nurse checks this area to detect early bleeding. The patient should be positioned with the head of the bed in semi-Fowler's position and the arm elevated on pillows to decrease edema. Edema is likely to occur because lymph drainage channels have been resected during the surgical procedure. Blood pressure management, venipuncture, and intra-venous sites should not involve use of the operative arm.

The community health nurse is instructing a group of young female clients bout breast self-examination. The nurse should instruct the clients to perform the examination at which time? A. At the onset of menstruation B. Every month during ovulation C. Weekly at the same time of day D. 1 week after menstruation begins

Answer: D Rationale: The breast self-examination should be performed monthly, 7 days after the onset of the menstrual period. Performing the examination weekly is not recommended. At the onset of menstruation and during ovulation, hormonal changes occur that may alter breast tissue.

The nurse is caring for a patient suffering from anorexia secondary to chemotherapy. Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate for the nurse to use to increase the patient's nutritional intake? A) Increase intake of liquids at mealtime to stimulate appetite. B) Serve three large meals per day plus snacks between each meal C) Avoid the use of liquid protein supplements to encourage eating at mealtime D) Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods

Answer: D - Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods.

Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor, is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which pre-procedure instruction to the client? A. Eat a light breakfast only B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Answer: D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the ingestion of large volumes of water just before the procedure. A full bladder is necessary so that it will be visualized as such and not mistaken for a possible pelvic growth. An abdominal ultrasound may require that the client abstain from food or fluid for several hours before the procedure. Option C is unrelated to this specific procedure.

At a senior citizen program, the nurse who was invited to speak to the group is teaching them about detecting the early signs of cancer. Which of the following should the nurse include? A: Do not overexpose yourself to the sun B: Exercise for no more than 7 minutes a day C: Lower the amount of fats in your diet D: Do a monthly breast self-exam

Answer: D: Do a monthly breast self-exam Rationale: Monthly breast exams aid in early detection of cancer. Changing the patients diet and limiting exposure to the sun may help with prevention but not detection.

A nurse is counseling the family of patient who has terminal breast cancer about palliative care. The nurse explains that which of the following are goals of palliative care? Select all that apply. A. Delays death B. Offers a support system C. Provides relief from pain D. Enhances the quality of life E. Focuses only on the patient not the family F. Manages symptoms of disease and therapies

Answers: B, C, D, F Rationale: Palliative care is a philosophy of total care. Palliative care goals include the following: providing relief from pain and other distressing symptoms, affirming life and regarding dying as a normal process, neither hastening nor postponing death, integrating psychological and spiritual aspects of client care, offering a support system to help the client live as actively as possible until death, offering a support system to help families cope during the client's illness and their own bereavement, and enhancing the quality of life.

Which medication does the nurse plan to administer to a client before chemotherapy to decrease the incidence of nausea and vomiting? A. Morphine B. Ondansetron (Zofran) C. Naloxone (Narcan) D. Diazepam (Valium)

B. Ondansetron (Zofran) Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor blocker that blocks serotonin to prevent nausea and vomiting. Morphine is a narcotic analgesic or opiate; it may cause nausea. Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist used for opiate overdose. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is an antianxiety medication only; lorazepam, another benzodiazepine, may be used for nausea.

20. A patient who is receiving interleukin-2 (IL-2) therapy (Proleukin) complains to the nurse about all of these symptoms. Which one is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Generalized aches b. Dyspnea c. Decreased appetite d. Insomnia

B Rationale: Dyspnea may indicate capillary leak syndrome and pulmonary edema, which requires rapid treatment. The other symptoms are common with IL-2 therapy, and the nurse should teach the patient that these are common adverse effects that will resolve at the end of the therapy.

25. The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient may indicate a need for a change in treatment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours." d. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon."

B Rationale: Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of biologic therapies. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use Tylenol every 4 hours.

24. Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. The nurse teaches the patient that the purpose of therapy with this agent is to a. protect normal kidney cells from the damaging effects of chemotherapy. b. enhance the patient's immunologic response to tumor cells. c. stimulate malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis. d. prevent the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy.

B Rationale: IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression.

26. Which information noted by the nurse reviewing the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L b. WBC count of 1700/µl c. Platelets of 65,000/µl d. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl .

B Rationale: Neutropenia places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that white blood cell (WBC) growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. The other laboratory data do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy

4. In teaching about cancer prevention to a community group, the nurse stresses promotion of exercise, normal body weight, and low-fat diet because a. most people are willing to make these changes to avoid cancer. b. dietary fat and obesity promote growth of many types of cancer. c. people who exercise and eat healthy will make other lifestyle changes. d. obesity and lack of exercise cause cancer in susceptible people.

B Rationale: Obesity and dietary fat promote the growth of malignant cells, and decreasing these risk factors can reduce the chance of cancer development. Many people are not willing to make these changes. Good diet and exercise habits are not a guarantee that other healthy lifestyle changes will then occur. Obesity and lack of exercise do not cause cancer, but they promote the growth of altered cells.

14. A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse knows that teaching about management of the skin reaction has been effective when the patient says a. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area." b. "I can buy a steroid cream to use on the itching area." c. "I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily." d. "I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales."

B Rationale: Steroid (over-the-counter [OTC] hydrocortisone) cream may be used to reduce itching in the area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury.

21. A 32-year-old male patient is to undergo radiation therapy to the pelvic area for Hodgkin's lymphoma. He expresses concern to the nurse about the effect of chemotherapy on his sexual function. The best response by the nurse to the patient's concerns is a. "Radiation does not cause the problems with sexual functioning that occur with chemotherapy or surgical procedures used to treat cancer." b. "It is possible you may have some changes in your sexual function, and you may want to consider pretreatment harvesting of sperm if you want children." c. "The radiation will make you sterile, but your ability to have sexual intercourse will not be changed by the treatment." d. "You may have some temporary impotence during the course of the radiation, but normal sexual function will return."

B Rationale: The impact on sperm count and erectile function depends on the patient's pretreatment status and on the amount of exposure to radiation. The patient should consider sperm donation before radiation. Radiation (like chemotherapy or surgery) may affect both sexual function and fertility either temporarily or permanently.

1. While being prepared for a biopsy of a lump in the right breast, the patient asks the nurse what the difference is between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. The nurse explains that a benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that benign tumors a. do not cause damage to adjacent tissue. b. do not spread to other tissues and organs. c. are simply an overgrowth of normal cells. d. frequently recur in the same site.

B Rationale: The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. The cells differ from normal in both benign and malignant tumors. Benign tumors usually do not recur.

17. A chemotherapeutic agent known to cause alopecia is prescribed for a patient. To maintain the patient's self-esteem, the nurse plans to a. suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. have the patient wash the hair gently with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. inform the patient that hair loss will not be permanent and that the hair will grow back.

B Rationale: The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem.

29. The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation in a patient with lung cancer who has had a 10% loss in weight. An appropriate nursing intervention that addresses the etiology of this problem is to a. provide foods that are highly spiced to stimulate the taste buds. b. avoid presenting foods for which the patient has a strong dislike. c. add strained baby meats to foods such as soups and casseroles. d. teach the patient to eat whatever is nutritious since food is tasteless.

B Rationale: The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. Patients will not improve intake by eating foods that are beneficial but have unpleasant taste.

8. The nurse is teaching a postmenopausal patient with breast cancer about the expected outcomes of her cancer treatment. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective when the patient says a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured." c. "Cancer is considered cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." d. "Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation." .

B Rationale: The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer; for breast cancer in postmenopausal women, the patient needs at least 20 disease-free years to be considered cured. Some cancers (e.g., leukemia) are cured by nonsurgical therapies such as radiation and chemotherapy

The nurse is conducting a community health education class on diet and cancer risk reduction. What should be included in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) A. Limit sodium intake. B. Avoid beef and processed meats. C. Increase consumption of whole grains. D. Eat "colorful fruits and vegetables," including greens. E. Avoid gas-producing vegetables such as cabbage.

B, C, D Consuming bran and whole grains and avoiding red meat and processed foods such as lunchmeats can reduce cancer risk. Consuming foods high in vitamin A, including apricots, carrots, and leafy green and yellow vegetables, can also reduce cancer risk. Reducing sodium is helpful in the treatment of hypertension and heart and kidney failure; no evidence suggests that lowering of sodium intake decreases the incidence of cancer. Eating cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli, cauliflower, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage may actually reduce cancer risk.

What are the common cancers related to tobacco use? (Select all that apply.) A. Cardiac cancer B. Lung cancer C. Cancer of the tongue D. Skin cancer E. Cancer of the larynx

B, C, E Organs exposed to the carcinogens in tobacco (lungs, tongue, larynx) are the most likely to develop cancer. Oral cancer is also a risk with "smokeless" tobacco. The heart does not contain cells that divide; therefore, cardiac cancer is unlikely. Skin cancer generally is related to repeated sun and other ultraviolet exposure, such as that found with tanning beds.

When caring for a client who has had a colostomy created during treatment for colon cancer, which nursing actions help support the client in accepting changes in appearance or function? (Select all that apply.) A. Explain to the client that the colostomy is only temporary. B. Encourage the client to participate in changing the ostomy. C. Obtain a psychiatric consultation. D. Offer to have a person who is coping with a colostomy visit. E. Encourage the client and family members to express their feelings and concerns.

B, D, E Encouraging the client to participate in changing the ostomy is an appropriate way for the client to become familiar with the ostomy and its care. A visit from a person who is successfully coping with an ostomy can demonstrate to the client that many aspects of life can be the same after surgery. Offering to listen to feelings and concerns is part of a therapeutic relationship and therapeutic communication. Ostomies may be temporary for bowel rest, such as after a perforation, but are typically permanent for cancer treatment. Obtaining a psychiatric consultation may need to be done for clients with persistent depression, but would not be done immediately.

The nurse reviews the chart of a client admitted with a diagnosis of glioblastoma with a T1NXM0 classification. Which explanation does the nurse offer when the client asks what the terminology means? A. "Two lymph nodes are involved in this tumor of the glial cells, and another tumor is present." B. "The brain tumor measures about 1 to 2 cm and shows no regional lymph nodes and no distant metastasis." C. "This type of tumor in the brain is small with some lymph node involvement; another tumor is present somewhere else in your body." D. "Glioma means this tumor is benign, so I will have to ask your health care provider the reason for the chemotherapy and radiation."

B. "The brain tumor measures about 1 to 2 cm and shows no regional lymph nodes and no distant metastasis." T1 means that the tumor is increasing in size to about 2 cm, and that no regional lymph nodes are present in the brain. M0 means that no distant metastasis has occurred. NX means that no regional lymph nodes can be assessed. A glioma is a benign tumor of the brain, but the client is diagnosed with a glioblastoma, which means a malignant tumor of the glial cells of the brain.

The nurse is teaching a wellness class to a group of women at their workplace. The nurse knows that which woman is at highest risk for developing cancer? A. A woman who obtains regular cancer screenings and consumes a high-fiber diet B. A woman who has a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 and smoked cigarettes for 20 years C. A woman who exercises five times every week and does not consume alcoholic beverages D. A woman who limits fat consumption and has regular mammography and Pap screenings

B. A woman who has a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 and smoked cigarettes for 20 years Cancer prevention and early detection are associated with the following behaviors: limited alcohol use; regular physical activity; maintaining a normal body weight; obtaining regular cancer screenings; avoiding cigarette smoking and other tobacco use; using sunscreen with SPF 15 or higher; and practicing healthy dietary habits (e.g., reduced fat and increased fruits and vegetables).

When caring for the client with hyperuricemia associated with tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), for which medication does the nurse anticipate an order? A. Recombinant erythropoietin (Procrit) B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) C. Potassium chloride D. Radioactive iodine-131 (131I)

B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) TLS results in hyperuricemia (elevation of uric acid in the blood), hyperkalemia, and other electrolyte imbalances; allopurinol decreases uric acid production and is indicated in TLS. Recombinant erythropoietin is used to increase red blood cell production and is not a treatment for hyperuricemia. Administering additional potassium is dangerous. Radioactive iodine-131 is indicated in the treatment of thyroid cancer, not TLS.

The nurse suspects metastasis from left breast cancer to the thoracic spine when the client has which symptom? A. Vomiting B. Back pain C. Frequent urination D. Cyanosis of the toes

B. Back pain Typical sites of breast cancer metastasis include bone (manifested by back pain), lung, liver, and brain. Signs of metastasis to the spine may include numbness, pain, paresthesias and tingling, and loss of bowel and bladder control, but not vomiting. Although frequent urination may be a sign of bladder cancer, incontinence is more indicative of spinal metastasis. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased tissue perfusion, often related to atherosclerotic disease.

Which manifestation of an oncologic emergency requires the nurse to contact the health care provider immediately? A. New onset of fatigue B. Edema of arms and hands C. Dry cough D. Weight gain

B. Edema of arms and hands Edema of the arms and hands indicates worsening compression of the superior vena cava consistent with superior vena cava syndrome. The compression must be relieved immediately, often with radiation therapy, because death can result without timely intervention. New onset of fatigue may likely be an early manifestation of hypercalcemia, which usually develops slowly, but because it is an early manifestation, this is not the priority. Dry cough is not a manifestation that is specific to an oncologic emergency; however, it may be a side effect of chemotherapy. Weight gain could be an early sign of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone; although this should be addressed, it is an early sign so it is not the priority.

Which client problem does the nurse set as the priority for the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy? A. Potential for lack of understanding related to side effects of chemotherapy B. Potential for injury related to sensory and motor deficits C. Potential for ineffective coping strategies related to loss of motor control D. Altered sexual function related to erectile dysfunction

B. Potential for injury related to sensory and motor deficits The highest priority is safety. Although knowing the side effects of chemotherapy may be helpful, the priority is the client's safety because of the lack of sensation or innervation to the extremities. The nurse should address the client's coping only after providing for safety. Erectile dysfunction may be a manifestation of peripheral neuropathy, but the priority is still the client's safety.

The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage ovarian cancer who needs clarification on the purpose of palliative surgery. Which outcome should the nurse teach the client is the goal of palliative surgery? A. Cure of the cancer B. Relief of symptoms or improved quality of life C. Allowing other therapies to be more effective D. Prolonging the client's survival time

B. Relief of symptoms or improved quality of life The focus of palliative surgery is to improve quality of life during the survival time. Curative surgery removes all cancer cells, visible and microscopic. Debulking is a procedure that removes some cancerous tissue, allowing other therapies to be more effective. Many therapies, such as surgery, chemotherapy, and biotherapy, increase the client's chance of cure and survival, but palliation improves quality of life.

Which activity performed by the community health nurse best reflects primary prevention of cancer? A. Assisting women to obtain free mammograms B. Teaching a class on cancer prevention C. Encouraging long-term smokers to get a chest x-ray D. Encouraging sexually active women to get annual Papanicolaou (Pap) smears

B. Teaching a class on cancer prevention Primary prevention involves avoiding exposure to known causes of cancer; education assists clients with this strategy. Mammography is part of a secondary level of prevention, defined as screening for early detection. Chest x-ray is a method of detecting a cancer that is present—secondary prevention and early detection. A Pap smear is a means of detecting cervical cancer early—secondary prevention.

The nurse is caring for a client dying of ovarian cancer. During care, the client states, "If I can just live long enough to attend my daughter's graduation, I'll be ready to die." Which phase of coping is this client experiencing?

Bargaining

10. External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with endometrial cancer. The nurse teaches the patient that an important measure to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation is to a. test all stools for the presence of blood. b. inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush. c. perform perianal care with sitz baths and meticulous cleaning. d. maintain a high-residue, high-fat diet.

C Rationale: Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

12. A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma is undergoing external radiation therapy on an outpatient basis. After 2 weeks of treatment, the patient tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." An appropriate intervention for the nurse to plan with the patient is to a. exercise vigorously when fatigue is not as noticeable. b. consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. c. establish a time to take a short walk every day. d. maintain bed rest until the treatment is completed.

C Rationale: Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Vigorous exercise when the patient is less tired may lead to increased fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Bed rest will lead to weakness and other complications of immobility.

A 52-year-old client relates to the nurse that she has never had a mammogram because she is terrified that she will have cancer. Which response by the nurse is therapeutic? A. "Don't worry, most lumps are discovered by women during breast self-examination." B. "Does anyone in your family have breast cancer?" C. "Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the chance for cure." D. "Have you noticed a lump or thickening in your breast?"

C. "Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the chance for cure." Providing truthful information addresses the client's concerns. Mammography can detect lumps smaller than those discovered by palpation. Asking about family history or symptoms is not therapeutic because it does not address the client's fear of cancer.

Which statement made by a client allows the nurse to recognize whether the client receiving brachytherapy for ovarian cancer understands the treatment plan? A. "I may lose my hair during this treatment." B. "I must be positioned in the same way during each treatment." C. "I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time." D. "I will be placed in a semiprivate room for company."

C. "I will have a radioactive device in my body for a short time." Brachytherapy refers to short-term insertion of a radiation source. Side effects of radiation therapy are site-specific; this client is unlikely to experience hair loss from treating ovarian cancer with radiation. The client undergoing teletherapy (external beam radiation), not brachytherapy, must be positioned precisely in the same position each time. The client who is receiving brachytherapy must be in a private room.

A client who is scheduled to undergo radiation for prostate cancer is admitted to the hospital by the nurse. Which statement by the client is most important to communicate to the health care provider? A. "I am allergic to iodine." B. "My urinary stream is very weak." C. "My legs are numb and weak." D. "I am incontinent when I cough."

C. "My legs are numb and weak." Numbness and weakness should be reported to the physician because paralysis caused by spinal cord compression can occur. Prostate cancer may frequently metastasize to the bone, specifically the spine. Allergy to iodine should be reported when contrast media will be used, but dye is not used in radiation therapy. A weak urinary stream and incontinence are common clinical manifestations of prostate cancer. Incontinence associated with coughing is typical of stress incontinence and is not a complication of cancer.

The patient has osteosarcoma of the right leg. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that the patient's vital signs are normal, but the patient says he still has pain in his leg and it is getting worse. What assessment question should the nurse ask the patient to determine treatment measures for this patient's pain? A. "Where is the pain?" B. "Is the pain getting worse?" C. "What does the pain feel like?" D. "Do you use medications to relieve the pain?"

C. "What does the pain feel like?" The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) told the nurse the location of the patient's pain and the worsening of pain (pattern). Asking about the quality of the pain will help in planning further treatment. The nurse should already know if the patient is using medication to relieve the pain or can check the patient's medication administration record to see if analgesics have been administered. The intensity of pain using a pain scale should also be assessed.

The female patient is having whole brain radiation for brain metastasis. She is concerned about how she will look when she loses her hair. What is the best response by the nurse to this patient? A. "When your hair grows back it will be patchy." B. "Don't use your curling iron and that will slow down the loss." C. "You can get a wig now to match your hair so you will not look different." D. "You should contact "Look Good, Feel Better" to figure out what to do about this."

C. "You can get a wig now to match your hair so you will not look different." Hair loss with radiation is usually permanent. The best response by the nurse is to suggest getting a wig before she loses her hair so she will not look or feel so different. When hair grows back after chemotherapy, it is frequently a different color or texture. Avoiding use of electric hair dryers, curlers, and curling irons may slow the hair loss but will not answer the patient's concern. The American Cancer Society's "Look Good, Feel Better" program will be helpful, but this response is avoiding the patient's immediate concern.

A newly graduated RN has just finished a 6-week orientation to the oncology unit. Which client is most appropriate to assign to the new graduate? A. A 30-year-old with acute lymphocytic leukemia who will receive combination chemotherapy today B. A 40-year-old with chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting who has had no urine output for 16 hours C. A 45-year-old with pancytopenia who will require IV administration of erythropoietin (Procrit) D. A 72-year-old with tumor lysis syndrome who is receiving normal saline IV at a rate of 250 mL/hr

C. A 45-year-old with pancytopenia who will require IV administration of erythropoietin (Procrit) A new nurse after a 6-week oncology orientation possesses the skills to care for clients with pancytopenia and with administration of medications to correct anemia. The clients with acute lymphocytic leukemia and chemotherapy-induced nausea are complex clients requiring a nurse certified in chemotherapy administration. The client with tumor lysis syndrome has complicated needs for assessment and care and should be cared for by an RN with more oncology experience.

The patient was told that he would have intraperitoneal chemotherapy. He asks the nurse when the IV will be started for the chemotherapy. What should the nurse teach the patient about this type of chemotherapy delivery? A. It is delivered via an Ommaya reservoir and extension catheter. B. It is instilled in the bladder via a urinary catheter and retained for 1 to 3 hours. C. A Silastic catheter will be percutaneously placed into the peritoneal cavity for chemotherapy administration. D. The arteries supplying the tumor are accessed with surgical placement of a catheter connected to an infusion pump.

C. A Silastic catheter will be percutaneously placed into the peritoneal cavity for chemotherapy administration. Intraperitoneal chemotherapy is delivered to the peritoneal cavity via a temporary percutaneously inserted Silastic catheter and drained from this catheter after the dwell time in the peritoneum. The Ommaya reservoir is used for intraventricular chemotherapy. Intravesical bladder chemotherapy is delivered via a urinary catheter. Intraarterial chemotherapy is delivered via a surgically placed catheter that delivers chemotherapy via an external or internal infusion pump.

The patient with breast cancer is having teletherapy radiation treatments after her surgery. What should the nurse teach the patient about the care of her skin? A. Use Dial soap to feel clean and fresh. B. Scented lotion can be used on the area. C. Avoid heat and cold to the treatment area. D. Wear the new bra to comfort and support the area.

C. Avoid heat and cold to the treatment area. Avoiding heat and cold in the treatment area will protect it. Only mild soap and unscented, nonmedicated lotions may be used to prevent skin damage. The patient will want to avoid wearing tight-fitting clothing such as a bra over the treatment field and will want to expose the area to air as often as possible.

Which finding alarms the nurse when caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who has a platelet count of 17,000/mm3? A. Increasing shortness of breath B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds C. Change in mental status D. Weight gain of 4 pounds in 1 day

C. Change in mental status A change in mental status could result from spontaneous bleeding; in this case, a cerebral hemorrhage may have developed. Increasing shortness of breath is typically related to anemia, not to thrombocytopenia. Diminished breath sounds may be related to many factors, including poor respiratory excursion, infection, and atelectasis, which is not related to thrombocytopenia. A large weight gain in a short period may be related to kidney or heart failure; bleeding is the major complication of thrombocytopenia.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an initial dose of chemotherapy to treat a rapidly growing metastatic colon cancer. The nurse is aware that this patient is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and will monitor the patient closely for which abnormality associated with this oncologic emergency? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypouricemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypophosphatemia

C. Hypocalcemia TLS is a metabolic complication characterized by rapid release of intracellular components in response to chemotherapy. This can rapidly lead to acute renal injury. The hallmark signs of TLS are hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, and hypocalcemia.

When caring for a client receiving chemotherapy, the nurse plans care during the nadir of bone marrow activity to prevent which complication? A. Drug toxicity B. Polycythemia C. Infection D. Dose-limiting side effects

C. Infection The lowest point of bone marrow function is referred to as the nadir; risk for infection is highest during this phase. Drug toxicity can develop when drug levels exceed peak concentrations. Polycythemia refers to an increase in the number of red blood cells; typically chemotherapy causes reduction of red blood cells or anemia. Dose limiting side effects occur when the dose or frequency of chemotherapy need to be altered or held, such as in the case of severe neutropenia or neurologic dysfunction .

The patient is told that the adenoma tumor is not encapsulated but has normally differentiated cells and that surgery will be needed. The patient asks the nurse what this means. What should the nurse tell the patient? A. It will recur. B. It has metastasized. C. It is probably benign. D. It is probably malignant.

C. It is probably benign. Benign tumors usually are encapsulated and have normally differentiated cells. They do not metastasize and rarely recur as malignant tumors do.

A 64-year-old male patient who is receiving radiation to the head and neck as treatment for an invasive malignant tumor complains of mouth sores and pain. Which intervention should the nurse add to this patient's plan of care? A. Weigh the patient every month to monitor for weight loss. B. Cleanse the mouth every 2 to 4 hours with hydrogen peroxide. C. Provide high-protein and high-calorie, soft foods every 2 hours. D. Apply palifermin (Kepivance) liberally to the affected oral mucosa.

C. Provide high-protein and high-calorie, soft foods every 2 hours. A patient with stomatitis should have soft, nonirritating foods offered frequently. The diet should be high in protein and high in calories. Saline or water should be used to cleanse the mouth (not hydrogen peroxide). Palifermin is administered intravenously as a growth factor to stimulate cells on the surface layer of the mouth to grow. Patients should be weighed at least twice each week to monitor for weight loss.

When caring for the client with chemotherapy-induced mucositis, which intervention will be most helpful? A. Administering a biological response modifier B. Encouraging oral care with commercial mouthwash C. Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab D. Maintaining NPO until the lesions have resolved

C. Providing oral care with a disposable mouth swab The client with mucositis would benefit most from oral care; mouth swabs are soft and disposable and therefore clean and appropriate to provide oral care. Biological response modifiers are used to stimulate bone marrow production of immune system cells; mucositis or sores in the mouth will not respond to these medications. Commercial mouthwashes should be avoided because they may contain alcohol or other drying agents that may further irritate the mucosa. Keeping the client NPO is not necessary because nutrition is important during cancer treatment; a local anesthetic may be prescribed for comfort.

The nurse corrects the nursing student when caring for a client with neutropenia secondary to chemotherapy in which circumstance? A. The student scrubs the hub of IV tubing before administering an antibiotic. B. The nurse overhears the student explaining to the client the importance of handwashing. C. The student teaches the client that symptoms of neutropenia include fatigue and weakness. D. The nurse observes the student providing oral hygiene and perineal care.

C. The student teaches the client that symptoms of neutropenia include fatigue and weakness. Symptoms of neutropenia include low neutrophil count, fever, and signs and symptoms of infection; the student should be corrected. Asepsis with IV lines is an appropriate action. Handwashing is an essential component of client care, especially when the client is at risk for neutropenia. Hygiene and perineal care help prevent infection and sepsis.

. A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. The nurse explains that the expected outcome of this surgery is a. control of the tumor growth by removal of malignant tissue. b. promotion of better nutrition by relieving the pressure in the stomach. c. relief of pain by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. d. reduction of the tumor burden to enhance adjuvant therapy.

D Rationale: A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs.

6. When reviewing the chart for a patient with cervical cancer, the nurse notes that the cancer is staged as Tis, N0, M0. The nurse will teach the patient that a. the cancer cells are well-differentiated. b. it is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer. c. further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer. d. the cancer is localized to the cervix.

D Rationale: Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread.

23. A patient who has terminal cancer of the liver and is cared for by family members at home tells the nurse, "I have intense pain most of the time now." The nurse recognizes that teaching regarding pain management has been effective when the patient a. uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 on a 10-point scale. b. states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief. c. agrees to take the medications by the IV route to improve effectiveness. d. takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs.

D Rationale: For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics may also be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route and the oral route is preferred.

8. A patient with ovarian cancer tells the nurse, "I don't think my husband cares about me anymore. He rarely visits me." On one occasion when the husband was present, he told the nurse he just could not stand to see his wife so ill and never knew what to say to her. An appropriate nursing diagnosis in this situation is a. compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle and role changes. b. impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes. c. risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities. d. interrupted family processes related to effect of illness on family members.

D Rationale: The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because the family members are impacted differently by the patient's cancer diagnosis. There are no data to suggest a change in lifestyle or role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities.

5. During a routine health examination, a 30-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. The nurse will plan to a. teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. ask the patient to bring in a stool specimen to test for occult blood. c. schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient. d. have the patient ask the doctor about specific tests for colon cancer.

D Rationale: The patient is at increased risk and should talk with the health care provider about needed tests, which will depend on factors such as the exact type of family history and any current symptoms. Colonoscopy at age 50 is used to screen for individuals without symptoms or increased risk, but earlier testing may be needed for this patient because of family history. For fecal occult blood testing, patients use a take-home multiple sample method rather than bring one specimen to the clinic. The health care provider will take multiple factors into consideration before determining whether a sigmoidoscopy is needed at age 30.

19. A patient receiving head and neck radiation and systemic chemotherapy has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. An appropriate intervention for the nurse to teach the patient is to a. remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

D Rationale: The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended.

The nurse is teaching a client who is receiving an antiestrogen drug about the side effects she may encounter. Which side effects does the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) A. Heavy menses B. Smooth facial skin C. Hyperkalemia D. Breast tenderness E. Weight loss F. Deep vein thrombosis

D, F Breast tenderness and shrinking breast tissue may occur with antiestrogen therapy. Venous thromboembolism may also occur. Irregular menses or no menstrual period is the typical side effect of antiestrogen therapy. Acne may also develop. Hypercalcemia, not hyperkalemia, is typical. Fluid retention with weight gain may also occur.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A 61-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg) tells the nurse that she has a glass of wine two or three times a week. The patient works for the post office and has a 5-mile mail-delivery route. This is her first contact with the health care system in 20 years. Which of these topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol use b. Physical activity c. Body weight d. Colorectal screening e. Tobacco use f. Mammography g. Pap testing h. Sunscreen use

D, F, G, H Rationale: The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for teaching about or screening or both for colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy.

The nurse is caring for an 18-year-old female patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is scheduled to receive hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a correct understanding of the procedure? A. "After the transplant I will feel better and can go home in 5 to 7 days." B. "I understand the transplant procedure has no dangerous side effects." C. "My brother will be a 100% match for the cells used during the transplant." D. "Before the transplant I will have chemotherapy and possibly full body radiation."

D. "Before the transplant I will have chemotherapy and possibly full body radiation." Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) requires eradication of diseased or cancer cells. This is accomplished by administering higher-than-usual dosages of chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy. A relative such as a brother would not be a perfect match with human leukocyte antigens; only identical twins are an exact match. HSCT is an intensive procedure with adverse effects and possible death. HSCT recipients can expect a 2- to 4-week hospitalization after the transplant.

Original Alphabetical The nurse is giving a group presentation on cancer prevention and recognition. Which statement by an older adult client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions? A. "Cigarette smoking always causes lung cancer." B. "Taking multivitamins will prevent me from developing cancer." C. "If I have only one shot of whiskey a day, I probably will not develop cancer." D. "I need to report the pain going down my legs to my health care provider."

D. "I need to report the pain going down my legs to my health care provider." Pain in the back of the legs could indicate prostate cancer in an older man. Cigarette smoking is implicated in causing lung cancer and other types of cancer, but it does not always cause cancer. Investigation is ongoing about the efficacy of vitamins A and C in cancer prevention. Limiting alcohol to one drink per day is only one preventive measure.

Which item would be most beneficial when providing oral care to a patient with metastatic cancer who is at risk for oral tissue injury secondary to chemotherapy? A. Firm-bristle toothbrush B. Hydrogen peroxide rinse C. Alcohol-based mouthwash D. 1 tsp salt in 1 L water mouth rinse

D. 1 tsp salt in 1 L water mouth rinse A salt-water mouth rinse will not cause further irritation to oral tissue that is fragile because of mucositis, which is a side effect of chemotherapy. A soft-bristle toothbrush will be used. One teaspoon of sodium bicarbonate may be added to the salt-water solution to decrease odor, alleviate pain, and dissolve mucin. Hydrogen peroxide and alcohol-based mouthwash are not used because they would damage the oral tissue.

The nurse teaches a client that intraperitoneal chemotherapy will be delivered to which part of the body? A. Veins of the legs B. Lung C. Heart D. Abdominal cavity

D. Abdominal cavity Intraperitoneal chemotherapy is placed in the peritoneal cavity or the abdominal cavity. Intravenous drugs are delivered through veins. Chemotherapy delivered into the lungs is typically placed in the pleural space (intrapleural). Chemotherapy is not typically delivered into the heart.

The patient is receiving biologic and targeted therapy for ovarian cancer. What medication should the nurse expect to administer before therapy to combat the most common side effects of these medications? A. Morphine sulfate B. Ibuprofen (Advil) C. Ondansetron (Zofran) D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) Acetaminophen is administered before therapy and every 4 hours to prevent or decrease the intensity of the severe flu-like symptoms, especially with interferon which is frequently used for ovarian cancer. Morphine sulfate and ibuprofen will not decrease flu-like symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic, but not used first to combat flu-like symptoms of headache, fever, chills, myalgias, etc.

The nurse is caring for a patient suffering from anorexia secondary to chemotherapy. Which strategy would be most appropriate for the nurse to use to increase the patient's nutritional intake? A. Increase intake of liquids at mealtime to stimulate the appetite. B. Serve three large meals per day plus snacks between each meal. C. Avoid the use of liquid protein supplements to encourage eating at mealtime. D. Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods.

D. Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods. The nurse can increase the nutritional density of foods by adding items high in protein and/or calories (such as peanut butter, skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or brown sugar) to foods the patient will eat. Increasing fluid intake at mealtime fills the stomach with fluid and decreases the desire to eat. Small frequent meals are best tolerated. Supplements can be helpful.

A 72-year-old client recovering from lung cancer surgery asks the nurse to explain how she developed cancer when she has never smoked. Which factor may explain the possible cause? A. A diagnosis of diabetes treated with insulin and diet B. An exercise regimen of jogging 3 miles four times a week C. A history of cardiac disease D. Advancing age

D. Advancing age Advancing age is the single most important risk factor for cancer. As a person ages, immune protection decreases. Diabetes is not known to cause lung cancer. Regular exercise is not a risk factor for lung cancer, nor does having cardiac disease predispose a person to lung cancer.

A client who is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer reports problems with concentration and memory. Which nursing intervention is indicated at this time? A. Explain that this occurs in some clients and is usually permanent. B. Inform the client that a small glass of wine may help her relax. C. Protect the client from infection. D. Allow the client an opportunity to express her feelings.

D. Allow the client an opportunity to express her feelings. Although no specific intervention for this side effect is known, therapeutic communication and listening may be helpful to the client. Evidence regarding problems with concentration and memory loss with chemotherapy is not complete, but the current thinking is that this process is usually temporary. The client should be advised to avoid the use of alcohol and recreational drugs at this time because they also impair memory. Chemotherapeutic agents are implicated in central nervous system function in this scenario, not infection.

A client has a glioblastoma. The nurse begins to plan care for this client with which type of cancer? A. Liver B. Smooth muscle C. Fatty tissue D. Brain .

D. Brain The prefix "glio-" is used when cancers of the brain are named. The prefix "hepato-" is included when cancers of the liver are named. The prefix "leiomyo-" is included when cancers of smooth muscle are named. The prefix "lipo-" is included when cancers of fat or adipose tissue are named

The nurse presents a cancer prevention program to teens. Which instruction will have the greatest impact in cancer prevention? A. Avoid asbestos. B. Wear sunscreen. C. Get the human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine. D. Do not smoke cigarettes.

D. Do not smoke cigarettes. All of these actions are part of cancer prevention; however, tobacco is the single most important source of preventable carcinogenesis. Asbestos may be found in older homes and buildings. Most schools have been through an asbestos abatement program so should not pose a risk. It would be important to share with teens who may be involved in the construction industry during the summer to be aware of asbestos risks. Although asbestos may present a risk for lung cancer, it is not a likely exposure for teens. Lifetime exposure to the sun and the use of tanning beds will increase the risk for cancer, but not as much as tobacco use. The HPV vaccine will decrease the risk for cervical cancer, but will not have as much of an impact on cancer prevention as avoiding tobacco.

The patient has been diagnosed with non-small cell lung cancer. Which type of targeted therapy will most likely be used for this patient to suppress cell proliferation and promote programmed tumor cell death? A. Proteasome inhibitors B. BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors C. CD20 monoclonal antibodies (MoAb) D. Epidermal growth factor receptor-tyrosine kinase inhibitors (EGFR-TK)

D. Epidermal growth factor receptor-tyrosine kinase inhibitors (EGFR-TK) Targeted therapies are more selective for specific molecular targets. Thus they are able to kill cancer cells with less damage to normal cells than with chemotherapy. Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) is a transmembrane molecule that works through activation of intracellular tyrosine kinase (TK) to suppress cell proliferation and promote apoptosis of non-small cell lung cancer and some colorectal, head and neck, and metastatic breast cancers. Proteasome inhibitors promote accumulation of proteins that promote tumor cell death for multiple myeloma. BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors target specific oncogenes for chronic myeloid leukemia and some GI stromal tumors. CD20 monoclonal antibodies (MoAb) bind with CD20 antigen causing cytotoxicity in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

A patient has been diagnosed with Burkitt's lymphoma. In the initiation stage of cancer, the cells genetic structure is mutated. Exposure to what may have functioned as a carcinogen for this patient? A. Bacteria B. Sun exposure C. Most chemicals D. Epstein-Barr virus

D. Epstein-Barr virus Burkitt's lymphoma consistently shows evidence of the presence of Epstein-Barr virus in vitro. Bacteria do not initiate cancer. Sun exposure causes cell alterations leading to melanoma and squamous and basal cell skin carcinoma. Long-term exposure to certain chemicals (e.g., ethylene oxide, chloroform, benzene) is known to initiate cancer.

When caring for the patient with cancer, what does the nurse understand as the response of the immune system to antigens of the malignant cells? A. Metastasis B. Tumor angiogenesis C. Immunologic escape D. Immunologic surveillance

D. Immunologic surveillance Immunologic surveillance is the process where lymphocytes check cell surface antigens and detect and destroy cells with abnormal or altered antigenic determinants to prevent these cells from developing into clinically detectable tumors. Metastasis is increased growth rate of the tumor, increased invasiveness, and spread of the cancer to a distant site in the progression stage of cancer development. Tumor angiogenesis is the process of blood vessels forming within the tumor itself. Immunologic escape is the cancer cells' evasion of immunologic surveillance that allows the cancer cells to reproduce.

Which type of cancer has been associated with Down syndrome? A. Breast cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Malignant melanoma D. Leukemia

D. Leukemia Leukemia is associated with Down syndrome and Turner syndrome. Breast cancer is often found clustered in families, not in association with Down syndrome. Colorectal cancer is associated with familial polyposis. Malignant melanoma is associated with familial clustering and sun exposure.

Which statement about the process of malignant transformation is correct? A. Mutation of genes is an irreversible event that always leads to cancer development in the initiation phase. B. Insulin and estrogen enhance the division of an initiated cell during the promotion phase. C. Tumors form when carcinogens invade the gene structure of the cell in the latency phase. D. Nutrition of cancer cells is provided by tumor angiogenesis factor (TAF) in the promotion stage.

D. Nutrition of cancer cells is provided by tumor angiogenesis factor (TAF) in the promotion stage. The promotion phase consists of progression when the blood supply changes from diffusion to TAF. Insulin and estrogen increase cell division. If cell division is halted, mutation of genes does not lead to cancer development in the initiation phase. In the initiation phase, carcinogens invade the DNA of the nucleus of a single cell. A 1-cm tumor consists of 1 billion cells. The latency phase occurs between initiation and tumor formation.

The home health nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a kidney transplant and takes cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and prednisone (Deltasone) to prevent rejection. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the transplant team? A. Temperature of 96.6° F B. Reports of joint pain C. Pink and dry oral mucosa D. Palpable lump in the client's axilla

D. Palpable lump in the client's axilla Clients taking immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection are at increased risk for the development of cancer; any lump should be reported to the physician. Fever should be reported to the physician, but this client's temperature is normal. It is not necessary to report joint pain to the transplant team; it is not a sign of rejection and is not a complication of transplant. A pink and dry oral mucosa may be a sign of dehydration, but it is not necessary to report this to the transplant team.

An outpatient client is receiving photodynamic therapy. Which environmental factor is a priority for the client to adjust for protection? A. Storing drugs in dark locations at room temperature B. Wearing soft clothing C. Wearing a hat and sunglasses when going outside D. Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light

D. Reducing all direct and indirect sources of light Lighting of all types must be kept to a minimum with clients receiving photodynamic therapy; it can lead to burns of the skin and damage to the eyes because these clients' eyes are sensitive to light. Any drug that the client is prescribed should be considered for its photosensitivity properties; drugs should be stored according to the recommendations, but this is not the primary concern for this client. Clothing must cover the skin to prevent burns from direct or indirect light; texture is not a concern for the client receiving this treatment. The client will be homebound for 1 to 3 months after the treatment and should not go outside.

The client with carcinoma of the lung develops the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) as a complication of the cancer. The nurse anticipates that which may be prescribed to treat this complication?

Radiation, Chemotherapy, Serum sodium blood levels, Medication that is antagonistic to antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. The nurse understands that which information documented in the medical history is an unassociated risk factor of this type of cancer?

Regular consumption of a high-fiber diet

The health education nurse reinforces instructions to a group of clients regarding measures that will assist in preventing skin cancer. Which instructions should the nurse reinforce to the client?

Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities. Wear a hat, opaque clothing, and sunglasses when in the sun. Examine your body monthly for any lesions that may be suspicious.

A gastrectomy is performed on a client with gastric cancer. In the immediate postoperative period the nurse notes bloody drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take?

continue to monitor drainage