Cardiac practice test NCLEX

The client has had a myocardial infarction, and the nurse has instructed the client to prevent Valsalva's maneuver. The nurse determines the client is following the instructions when the client:

- Avoid holding the breath during activity - Valsalva's maneuver, or bearing down against a closed glottis, can best be prevented by instructing the client to exhale during activities such as having a bowel movement or moving around in bed.

The nurse is assisting a client with a stroke who has homonymous hemianopia. The nurse should understand that the client will do which when eating?

- Eat food on only half of the plate - Homonymous hemianopia is blindness in half of the visual field; therefore, the client would see only half of the plate. Eating only the food on half of the plate results from an inability to coordinate visual images and spatial relationships. There may be an increased preference for foods high in salt after a stroke, but this would not be related to homonymous hemianopia. Forgetting the names of foods is a sign of aphasia, which involves a cerebral cortex lesion. Being unable to swallow liquids is dysphagia, which involves motor pathways of cranial nerves IX and X, including the lower brain stem.

The nurse is assessing a client who has a long history of uncontrolled hypertension. The nurse should assess the client for damage in which area of the eye?

- Retina - The retina is especially susceptible to damage in a client with chronic hypertension. The arterioles supplying the retina are damaged. Such damage can lead to vision loss. The iris, cornea, and sclera are not affected by hypertension.

A nurse is evaluating a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 7 days earlier. Which outcome indicates that the client is responding favorably to therapy?

- The client demonstrates ability to tolerate more activity without chest pain. - The ability to tolerate more activity without chest pain indicates a favorable response to therapy in a client who is recovering from an MI or who has a history of coronary artery disease. A heart rate within the normal limits of 60-100 per minute does not necessarily indicate a favorable response to treatment. Smoking is a cardiovascular risk factor that the client would be wise to eliminate, but it does not indicate favorable response to treatment. Knowledge of prescribed meds is a good thing, but again does not impact response to treatment.

A client with severe angina pectoris and electrocardiogram changes is seen in the emergency department. What laboratory studies would the nurse most likely anticipate?

- Troponin - This client exhibits signs of myocardial infarction (MI), and the most accurate serum determinant of an MI is troponin level. Creatine kinase, lactate dehydrogenase, and myoglobin tests can show evidence of muscle injury, but they are less specific indicators of myocardial damage than troponin.

A client is scheduled for a treadmill stress test. Prior to the stress test, the nurse reviews the results of the laboratory reports. The nurse should report which elevated laboratory value to the health care provider (HCP) prior to the stress test?

- Troponin Level - The elevated troponin level should be reported to the HCP prior to the stress test as this change indicates myocardial damage. Sending the client to walk on a treadmill for stress testing would be contraindicated with evidence of recent myocardial injury and could further extend the damage. The other blood levels are helpful but not critical to this client's welfare at this point in time.

Which client is at greatest risk for Buerger's disease?

- a 29-year-old male with a 14-year history of cigarette smoking. - Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease) is a nonatherosclerotic, inflammatory vaso occlusive disorder. The disorder occurs predominantly in younger men less than 40 years of age, and there is a very strong relationship with tobacco use.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin therapy following a mechanical valve replacement. The nurse completed the client's prothrombin time and International Normalized Ratio (INR) at 7 a.m. (0700), before the morning meal. The client had an INR reading of 4. The nurse's first priority should be to

- assess the client for bleeding around the gums or in the stool and notify the physician of the laboratory results and most recent administration of warfarin. - For a client taking warfarin following a valve replacement, the INR should be between 2 and 3.5. The nurse should notify the physician of an elevated INR level and communicate assessment data regarding possible bleeding. The nurse shouldn't administer medication such as warfarin or vitamin K without a physician's order. The nurse should notify the physician before holding a medication scheduled to be administered during another shift.

The nurse is caring for a client in the intensive care unit. Which drug is most commonly used to treat cardiogenic shock?

- dopamine - Cardiogenic shock is when the heart has been significantly damaged and is unable to supply enough blood to the organs of the body. Dopamine, a sympathomimetic drug, improves myocardial contractility and blood flow through vital organs by increasing perfusion pressure.

The nurse is taking a nursing history from a client prior to surgery. Which information in the client's history would have a significant impact on the client's recovery postoperatively? The client:

- has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes a day for 12 years. - A client who smokes is at increased risk for atelectasis postoperatively; thus, smoking is the most significant risk factor.