Ch. 14:

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques? A. Pregnancy and diabetes B. Young children and older adults C. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins D. Cancer and bleeding disorders

Cancer and bleeding disorders

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching? A. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes B. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes C. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds D. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize? A. Active stretching should be used after muscle imbalances are improved. B. SMR/dynamic stretching C. SMR/active stretching D. Dynamic/active stretching

Active stretching should be used after muscle imbalances are improved. SMR/static stretching

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface? A. Osteokinematics B. Biomechanics C. Kinesiology D. Arthrokinematics

Arthrokinematics

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise? A. Precaution B. Contraindication C. Cardiovascular precaution D. Psychological concern

Contraindication

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? A. Daviss law B. Wolffs law C. Overload principle D. Archimedes principle

Daviss law

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? A. Mechanical and neurophysiological response B. Pain response and muscle spasm C. Daviss law and Wolfs law D. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength

Mechanical and neurophysiological response

What principle describes the nervous systems ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? A. Eccentric control B. All-or-nothing principle C. Concentric control D. Neuromuscular efficiency

Neuromuscular efficiency

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction? A. Autogenic inhibition B. Pattern overload C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Stretch reflex

Pattern overload

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? A. Downward dog pose B. Bound angle pose C. Cat pose D. Plow pose

Plow pose

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance? A. Poor SMART goals B. Too much cardiovascular exercise C. Postural distortions D. Inability to exercise 3 times per week

Postural distortions

Susans quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? A. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings B. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps C. Active stretching of the hamstrings D. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? A. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change B. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion C. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening D. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle? A. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change B. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion C. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening D. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? A. Ballistic stretching B. Static stretching C. Active stretching D. Dynamic stretching

Static stretching

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called? A. Isometric contraction B. Stretch reflex C. Eccentric contraction D. Lengthening reaction

Stretch reflex

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? A. Altered reciprocal inhibition B. Synergistic dominance C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Altered length-tension relationship

Synergistic dominance

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle? A. Altered reciprocal inhibition B. Synergistic dominance C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Altered length-tension relationship

Synergistic dominance

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)? A. Tensor fascia latae B. Piriformis C. Thoracic spine D. Adductors

Tensor fascia latae

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? A. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems B. The sight, hearing, and taste systems C. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. D. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? A. This position places very high stress on the kneecap and the other tissues on the front of the knee joint. B. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. C. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles. D. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.

The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

Why is the hurdlers stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? A. The stretch is too advanced for the average person. B. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. C. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee. D. The stretch is too complicated for the new client.

The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? A. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises B. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions C. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises D. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions

1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling? A. 2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes B. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes C. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds D. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? A. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise B. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise C. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise D. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise

24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

Davis law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? A. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue. B. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. C. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility. D. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage.

Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? A. Ability to stretch in small increments B. Ability to stretch only one muscle C. Altered movement patterns D. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods

Altered movement patterns

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? A. Synergistic dominance B. Reciprocal inhibition C. Altered length-tension relationship D. Altered reciprocal inhibition

Altered reciprocal inhibition

Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called? A. Altered reciprocal inhibition B. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) C. Overtraining syndrome D. Eccentric overload

Altered reciprocal inhibition

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises? A. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results B. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results C. Any medical precautions or contraindications D. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results

Any medical precautions or contraindications

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? A. Isometric contraction B. Stretch reflex C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Autogenic inhibition

Autogenic inhibition

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? A. Mechanoreceptor B. Neurotransmitter C. Action potential D. Nociceptor

Nociceptor

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? A. Length-tension relationships B. Synergistic dominance C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Lengthening reaction

Reciprocal inhibition

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called? A. Isometric contraction B. Stretch reflex C. Reciprocal inhibition D. Autogenic inhibition

Reciprocal inhibition

What should be the first step in a clients program after the assessment? A. Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate B. Designing the flexibility portion of the program C. Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program D. Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss

Designing the flexibility portion of the program

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components? A. Muscle strength and power B. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness C. Flexibility and joint ROM D. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency

Flexibility and joint ROM

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? A. Strengthening exercises B. Balance exercises C. Flexibility exercises D. Plyometric exercises

Flexibility exercises

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques? A. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags B. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls C. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls D. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? A. Supine hamstrings stretch B. Inverted hurdlers stretch for hamstrings C. Standing hamstring stretch D. Assisted supine hamstring stretch

Inverted hurdlers stretch for hamstrings

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? A. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis B. Cancer and bleeding disorders C. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension D. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis

Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

Flexibility is defined as the following: A. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion B. A muscles capability to be elongated or stretched C. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely D. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees

Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? A. Arthrokinematics B. Biomechanics C. Osteokinematics D. Kinesiology

Osteokinematics

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? A. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling. B. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching. C. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. D. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.

Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? A. Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion B. Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle C. Increased muscle strength and speed D. Increased mobility and balance

Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling? A. Compression of the myofascia causes the delayed onset of muscle soreness within 48 hours of rolling. B. This statement does not describe a neurophysiological effect. C. Compression of the myofascia increases psychological alertness and stimulates release of growth hormones. D. Compression of the myofascia "tightens" the tissues by decreasing local blood flow, which increases myofascial restriction.

This statement does not describe a neurophysiological effect.

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? A. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising B. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema C. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance D. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising

Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance