Ch 17-20 block exam
Which of the following readings on the glucometer would be of concern to the EMT?
150 mg/dl
What is the dosage for aspirin given to treat acute coronary syndrome?
162 to 324 mg of chewable baby aspirin
Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old child? A. 40 breaths/min B. 32 breaths/min C. 16 breaths/min D. 28 breaths/min
16 breaths/min
When ventilating a child with inadequate respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be delivered? A. 15 per minute B. 24 per minute C. 20 per minute D. 12 per minute
20 per minute
Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting?
3
Typically, how many shocks should you administer on scene before transport, assuming that the shocks are ineffective?
3
While caring for a 3-year-old child, assisted ventilations might be necessary if his respiratory rate exceeds how many breaths per minute A. 16 B. 24 C. 20 D. 30
30
If a shock is not indicated, how many cycles of CPR will you give before analyzing again?
5
Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an adult? A. 20 breaths/min B. 16 breaths/min C. 12 breaths/min D. 8 breaths/min
8 breaths/min
In an ischemic stroke, what occludes an artery?
A clot or embolism Your answer is correct.
Which patient should be administered oxygen via nonrebreather mask? A. A patient is gurgling and in a tripod position. B. A patient is breathing much faster than the normal range. C. A patient has absent breath sounds and is presenting with grayish-blue skin. D. A patient has suffered trauma but is breathing adequately.
A patient has suffered trauma but is breathing adequately.
A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has a(n) ________% chance of having an acute stroke. A. 70 B. 60 C. 50 D. 80
A. 70
Which of the following would be an appropriate description of the reticular activating system? A. Wake and sleep center B. React and move center C. Feed or breed center D. Vegetative and thought center
A. Wake and sleep center
Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic reaction? A. Wheezing B. Fine, wet crackles or rales C. Clear, adequate air movement D. Coarse-sounding rhonchi
A. Wheezing
A 45-year-old female is struggling to breathe. She has a history of COPD and smoking. You assess her accessory muscle use and hear wheezing on listening to her chest. Her vital signs are P 118, R 38, BP 119/70. After administering the appropriate amount of oxygen, you should NEXT: A. assist the patient with her bronchodilator according to your protocols. B. lay her down and raise her legs. C. administer four baby aspirins. D. administer an epinephrine self-injector.
A. assist the patient with her bronchodilator according to your protocols.
A 76-year-old male patient has been found with facial droop and paralysis to the left side of his body. His vital signs are P 88, R 20, BP 210/100. His oxygen saturation is 90%. You administer oxygen and initiate transport to the local stroke center. Ten minutes later, you note that he has recovered fully. You should NEXT: A. continue to the stroke center. B. discontinue the oxygen. C. divert to the nearest hospital. D. return the patient to his home.
A. continue to the stroke center.
You have administered epinephrine via auto-injector to a patient and disposed of the used injector in a portable biohazard container. Now you: A. document the patient's response to the medication. B. perform the secondary assessment. C. perform the primary assessment. D. take the patient's baseline vital signs.
A. document the patient's response to the medication.
The basic primary fuel for the cell is: A. glucose. B. glucagon. C. oxygen. D. carbon dioxide.
A. glucose.
Hemorrhagic stroke is frequently the result of long-standing A. high blood pressure. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. blunt force trauma to the head. D. high sodium intake.
A. high blood pressure.
The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called: A. hypoglycemia. B. hyperglycemia. C. diabetic ketoacidosis. D. diabetic coma.
A. hypoglycemia.
An allergic reaction is an abnormal response of the: A. immune system. B. nervous system. C. endocrine system. D. cardiac system.
A. immune system.
A 71-year-old female presents with respiratory distress. She has diminished lung sounds and slow, shallow respirations. You note that she is cyanotic and confused. The patient is presenting with: A. inadequate breathing. B. adequate breathing. C. tachypnea. D. apnea.
A. inadequate breathing.
Which of the following refers to any condition in which the heart may not be getting enough oxygen?
Acute coronary syndrome
Which of the following terms is used to represent any symptoms that are related to a lack of oxygen in the heart muscle?
Acute coronary syndrome
Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac care?
Administration of epinephrine
At which ages would 20 breaths per minute be within the range of normal? A. Child and infant B. Adult and infant C. Adult, child, and infant D. Adult and child
Adult and child
Which of the following would most likely be seen just prior to respiratory arrest? A. Breathing through the nose, not the mouth B. Very deep, rapid respirations C. Accessory respirations D. Agonal respirations
Agonal respirations
Which of the following are the MOST important treatment elements to consider in transporting a patient with seizures?
Airway and oxygen levels
Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the heart?
All of the above
Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? A. Grunting respirations B. Nasal flaring C. See-sawing of the chest and abdomen D. All of the above
All of the above
If a patient reports an allergy to walnuts, what other foods should the patient probably avoid? A. Almonds B. Strawberries C. Crayfish D. Chocolate
Almonds Walnuts and almonds (or any tree nuts) may have cross-sensitivity.
Which of the following would BEST describe a patient who is experiencing shock and respiratory compromise after exposure to a known allergen? A. Local allergic reaction B. Anaphylaxis C. Moderate allergic reaction D. Mild allergic reaction
Anaphylaxis In anaphylaxis, also called anaphylactic shock, exposure to the allergen will cause blood vessels to rapidly dilate and cells to leak fluid, which will causes a drop in blood pressure (hypotension). Many tissues may swell, including those that line the respiratory system. This swelling can obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory failure.
Which of the following refers to chest pain that occurs when blood supply to the heart is reduced and a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough oxygen?
Angina
Which of the following skills is typically NOT used to manage the airway and breathing of a patient in cardiac arrest?
Application of oxygen via nasal cannula
Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during anaphylaxis? A. Allergens bind to hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen. B. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing. C. Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs. D. Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive.
B. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.
Which of the following findings is the MOST concerning in a patient with a suspected severe allergic reaction? A. Splotches and swelling of the hands and forearms B. Swollen face and tongue C. Hives on the chest D. Flushed, red skin throughout the body
B. Swollen face and tongue
Your patient is a 19-year-old male who was reportedly unconscious for a brief time. You learn that he regained consciousness in about 30 seconds. You find no evidence of drowsiness or neurological deficits. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Status epilepticus B. Syncope C. Hyperglycemia D. Stroke
B. Syncope
An 89-year-old male complains of an acute onset of shortness of breath. He notes it came on suddenly and awoke him from sleep. You note he is alert but has severe difficulty breathing, and you auscultate rales when listening to his lung sounds. His vital signs are P 128, R 44, BP 210/150. You should: A. assist the patient with his albuterol inhaler. B. initiate CPAP. C. await the arrival of ALS. D. initiate bilevel positive airway pressure ventilations.
B. initiate CPAP.
To prevent additional injuries during repeated seizures, you should: A. immediately transport the patient. B. move objects away from the patient. C. place the patient on his back. D. bind the patient's hands and feet.
B. move objects away from the patient.
In the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) screening method, arm drift is when: A. the palms of both hands face upward. B. one arm drifts compared to the other. C. both arms move equally. D. both arms are held to the patient's sides.
B. one arm drifts compared to the other.
There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one area of her body and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a: A. generalized seizure. B. partial seizure. C. postictal seizure. D. tonic-clonic seizure.
B. partial seizure.
Your 68-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath that has been getting worse over the past few days. He denies any history of COPD and has not experienced any penetrating trauma. He does have a low-grade fever. He says that he feels weak and has some chest pain. You provide supportive treatment including CPAP because his MOST likely problem is: A. pulmonary edema. B. pneumonia. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. pulmonary embolus.
B. pneumonia.
You respond to a 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating the: A. aura phase. B. postictal phase. C. tonic phase. D. clonic phase.
B. postictal phase.
If medical control authorizes the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector, then you would: A. take the patient's vital signs. B. prepare the auto-injector for use by removing the safety cap. C. perform a primary assessment. D. obtain a SAMPLE history.
B. prepare the auto-injector for use by removing the safety
Your patient was experiencing anaphylaxis with severe hypoxia when you administered his epinephrine auto-injector. Within minutes, his oxygen saturation improved. What therapeutic effect of epinephrine would BEST explain this improvement? A. Reduction of vascular permeability B. Vasoconstriction C. Bronchodilation D. Increased heart rate
Bronchodilation Bronchodilation is a common therapeutic effect of epinephrine and would likely improve his oxygenation the most. Although epinephrine does cause the other effects, they are less likely to affect oxygenation levels.
After activating the auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh? A. 30 seconds B. It should be removed from the injection site immediately. C. 10 seconds D. 1 minute
C. 10 seconds
At what rate per minute should you ventilate an infant? A. 24 B. 16 C. 20 D. 12
C. 20
En route to the hospital, it is important to perform an ongoing assessment of the patient with breathing difficulty. While reevaluating your patient, remember that: A. moist skin usually correlates with an improving condition. B. a decrease in accessory muscle use is concerning. C. decreased wheezing may not indicate improvement. D. the use of an MDI may normally cause the heart rate to slow.
C. decreased wheezing may not indicate improvement.
Patients displaying altered mental status were lost for several hours in a desert area without food and water and temperatures in the high 90s. You would expect their altered mental status to be from: A. hypoglycemia. B. hyperglycemia. C. dehydration. D. hypoxia.
C. dehydration.
Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs is: A. do a thorough physical exam of the patient. B. transport the patient to a Level I Trauma Center. C. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms. D. transport to the closest hospital.
C. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.
The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses for: A. agitated emotional response, facial droop, and abnormal speech. B. arm drift, leg lift, and facial droop. C. facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech. D. abnormal speech, lack of pattern recognition, and lack of facial recognition.
C. facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech.
A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is called: A. hypoglycemic. B. tonic-clonic. C. idiopathic. D. hypoxic.
C. idiopathic.
Contraction of the diaphragm relates to: A. aspiration of foreign materials. B. relaxation of the lungs. C. intake of breath. D. expiration of breath.
C. intake of breath.
A hormone called insulin is secreted by the: A. gallbladder found in the pancreas. B. kidneys. C. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. D. islets of Langerhans in the liver.
C. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
A 17-year-old female has been actively seizing for over 5 minutes. The patient's jaw is clenched, and you note that she is cyanotic around her lips. Her vitals are P 130, R 18, BP 180/92. You should next: A. begin CPR. B. protect the patient from injury until the convulsions subside. C. maintain the airway and administer oxygen as approriate. D. reassess the patient.
C. maintain the airway and administer oxygen as approriate.
A patient carrying a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector: A. must use the device only if diagnosed as anaphylactic by a physician. B. may not legally allow anyone else to use the device. C. may ask you for assistance with using the device. D. will be proficient in its use.
C. may ask you for assistance with using the device.
A particular antibody combines with: A. an allergen it is exposed to for the first time. B. histamine and other chemicals released by the immune system. C. only the allergen it was formed in response to or a very similar allergen. D. any allergen that it comes into contact with.
C. only the allergen it was formed in response to or a very similar allergen.
Hyperglycemia typically develops: A. over the course of an hour or so. B. in a few seconds. C. over days or even weeks. D. in a few minutes.
C. over days or even weeks.
If your patient is breathing adequately but with difficulty, you should first: A. verify breathing difficulty by using a pulse oximeter. B. contact medical control for permission to administer nitroglycerin. C. provide supplemental oxygen D. begin artificial ventilations.
C. provide supplemental oxygen
You have used an Auvi-Q device to administer epinephrine to a patient. Now you should: A. hold the device in place for 10 seconds. B. document the patient's response to the medication. C. put the outer case back on. D. dispose of the device in a biohazard container.
C. put the outer case back on.
Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival, you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, "Not until nine o'clock," but shows no actual understanding of what you just said. This phenomenon is BEST described as: A. expressive aphasia. B. disorientation to time. C. receptive aphasia. D. unresponsive to verbal stimuli.
C. receptive aphasia.
Normal breathing is: A. always regular. B. different for every individual. C. regular under most circumstances. D. shallow and irregular.
C. regular under most circumstances.
During normal exhalation, the diaphragm: A. dilates. B. contracts. C. relaxes. D. constricts.
C. relaxes.
You are called to a scene at which multiple patients are seizing at the same time. The likely cause is: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypoxia. C. something environmental at the scene. D. metabolic.
C. something environmental at the scene.
Some EMS systems allow administration of intranasal glucagon to patients who are A. combative because their fight-or-flight response. B. intolerant of the taste of oral glucose. C. unable to safely swallow oral glucose. D. responsive and alert.
C. unable to safely swallow oral glucose.
A 17-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. When you listen to her chest you hear high pitched "squeaking" sounds in her lower airways. These sounds would best be described as: A. stridor. B. rhonchi. C. wheezes. D. crackles.
C. wheezes.
A 45-year-old male has dyspnea associated with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following would be the MOST important treatment? A. CPAP B. Fowler's position C. High-concentration oxygen D. Assist with a bronchodilator
C. High-concentration oxygen
Which of the following is the most critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped convulsing? A. Cervical collar B. Suctioning equipment C. Bite block D. Glucometer
C. Suctioning equipment
You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a "little sick" for the past two days, but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has "heart problems," suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress?
Congestive heart failure
Treatment of someone with a seizure disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. placing the patient on the floor or ground. B. loosening restrictive clothing. C. removing objects that might harm the patient. D. placing a bite block in the patient's mouth so he does not bite his tongue.
D. placing a bite block in the patient's mouth so he does not bite his tongue.
After administering oral glucose to a patient in a diabetic emergency, you should: A. perform a primary assessment. B. find out if the patient has a history of diabetes. C. take the patient's vital signs. D. reassess the patient.
D. reassess the patient.
Patients with COPD often get progressively worse and call an ambulance because of: A. pulmonary embolism. B. pneumothorax. C. upper airway obstruction. D. recent upper respiratory infection.
D. recent upper respiratory infection.
In hyperglycemia, increasing blood sugar levels starve the cells of the body for: A. oxygen. B. insulin. C. fats. D. sugar.
D. sugar.
One of the criteria for administering oral glucose is the patient having a history of diabetes. The point at which you would typically ask about whether the patient has a history of diabetes is when: A. gathering a history of the present episode. B. performing a primary assessment. C. reassessing the patient. D. taking the SAMPLE history.
D. taking the SAMPLE history.
Following an epinephrine injection, reassessment should occur during: A. administration of a second injection. B. contact with medical control. C. disposal of the injector. D. transport.
D. transport.
Administer oxygen to a pediatric patient and transport as quickly as possible if the patient begins: A. sighing or snoring. B. sighing or wheezing. C. grunting or snoring. D. wheezing or grunting.
D. wheezing or grunting.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis? A. "I am having severe muscle pains." B. "I can't remember what happened." C. "My legs are numb and I can't move them." D. "My throat feels like it is closing."
D. "My throat feels like it is closing."
What change in vital signs would typically indicate that patient with an allergic reaction has progressed to anaphylaxis? A. Hypertension B. Bradycardia C. Bradypnea D. Decreased oxygen saturation
Decreased oxygen saturation Decreased oxygen saturation along with tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are vital signs associated with anaphylaxis.
Which of the following will provide a cardiac arrest patient the greatest chance of survival?
Defibrillation within two minutes
Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration? A. Chest cavity increases in size B. Intercostal muscles contract C. Diaphragm relaxes D. Diaphragm lowers
Diaphragm relaxes
What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart?
Dysrhythmia
What of the following is the single MOST important factor in determining survival from cardiac arrest?
Early CPR
Which intervention is proven to be the most effective is obtaining a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a cardiac arrest patient?
Early defibrillation
Which of the following BEST describes the EMT's intended role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac care?
Early defibrillation
Which of the following would NOT be considered an element of post-cardiac arrest care?
Early defibrillation
You are on the scene of a 3-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states the child rapidly developed a sore throat and he was found in the tripod position. He is crying and drooling profusely. What condition do you suspect? A. Child abuse B. Strep throat C. Croup D. Epiglottitis
Epiglottitis
Your patient is a 6-year-old male who appears very anxious, is using increased effort during expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's distress? A. Pneumonia B. Epiglottitis C. COPD D. Cystic fibrosis
Epiglottitis
Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A. Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray. B. Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible. C. Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator. D. Do not use the patient's inhaler because you do not know how the medication has been stored.
Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.
Which of the following is an expected side effect of aspirin?
Heartburn
You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this patient?
His pain will not be alleviated by any of the medications administered by EMTs.
In an allergic reaction, what substance released by mast cells and basophils causes bronchoconstriction, promotion of thick mucus production in the lungs, vasodilation, and increased vascular permeability? A. Adrenaline B. Histamine C. Basophils D. Plasma
Histamine Histamine is a potent substance that causes bronchoconstriction, promotion of thick mucus production in the lungs, vasodilation, and increased vascular permeability. Histamine acts by activating specialized histamine receptors that are present throughout the body. These are released with degranulation of immune cells during an allergic reaction. Basophils are components of the immune system. Plasma is the liquid portion of the blood. Adrenaline is otherwise known as epinephrine and is a neurotransmitter for the autonomic nervous system.
Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) can include which of the following? A. Audible rhonchi B. History of pulmonary fibrosis C. Audible wheezing D. History of obstructive sleep apnea
History of pulmonary fibrosis
What is not part of the cardiovascular system?
Hormones
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause an altered mental status?
Hypoxia
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a continuous quality improvement program for AED?
Improving patient outcomes in the community
Which of the following statements about infarction is CORRECT?
Infarction is commonly the result of a totally occluded coronary blood vessel.
Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is TRUE?
It can be brought on by exertion or stress.
Which of the following patients does not definitely require the intervention of assisted ventilations with a pocket face mask, bag-valve mask, or FROPVD? A. Patient with cyanosis B. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm C. Patient whose breath sounds cannot be heard D. Patient with agonal respirations
Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm
Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac patients?
Pedal edema
What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary edema D. Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are five minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
Which of the following statements about the AED is correct?
The AED can encounter difficulty in analyzing a rhythm in a moving vehicle.
When using an AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to "clear" the patient before delivering a shock?
The EMT operating the defibrillator
Which of the following is true concerning expiration? A. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. B. The ribs move upward and outward. C. The chest cavity increases in size. D. The diaphragm moves upward.
The diaphragm moves upward.
A 65-year-old male complains of chest pain that started about 45 minutes ago and is radiating up to his jaw. He feels nauseous and has very little energy. His vitals are respirations of 24, pulse of 110, and BP of 88/60. What would make you decide to transport this patient?
The low blood pressure reading
You are on the scene of a 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states that it feels "just like the last time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is five minutes away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best destination?
The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization
Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with administering? A. Two sprays B. As needed until respiratory status improves C. The number of sprays directed by medical control D. One spray
The number of sprays directed by medical control
Which of the following BEST describes the pain associated with acute coronary syndrome?
The pain may be chest pressure, mild discomfort, or not present at all.
After administration of nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain, which is a side effect you MOST might expect to see?
The patient develops a headache.
Which of the following situations could contraindicate the administration of aspirin?
The patient has a history of GI bleeding.
In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited?
The patient has a history of asthma.
What finding is LEAST likely to make an EMT suspect an allergic reaction? A. The patient has dry eyes and nose. B. The patient shows signs or symptoms of shock. C. The patient has come into contact with an allergen that has caused an allergic reaction in the past. D. The patient complains of itching, hives, or difficulty breathing.
The patient has dry eyes and nose. Dry eyes and nose would not be a signs of an allergic reaction and would be least likely of these findings to make an EMT suspect an allergic reaction.
Which of the following is a contraindication for use of the AED?
The patient is in contact with metal.
Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is "no shock advised"?
The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is TRUE?
The patient may complain of a headache following administration.
Which of the following findings from the SAMPLE and OPQRST history of a seizure patient is of GREATEST concern to the EMT?
The patient stopped taking his antiseizure medicine.
Of four patients who you know to have, respectively, epiglottis, pneumonia, pulmonary edema from congestive heart failure, and a viral respiratory infection, for which patient would you expect to focus primarily on keeping the patient calm and comfortable, even if that means not administering oxygen if the patient is distressed by that? A. The patient with epiglottitis B. The patient with pulmonary edema C. The patient with a viral respiratory infection D. The patient with pneumonia
The patient with epiglottitis
To which of the following hypoglycemic seizure patients should the EMT administer oral glucose?
The postictal patient who can manage his or her own airway
Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient? A. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth. B. The breath is delivered easily. C. The pulse rate slows down. D. The pulse rate increases.
The pulse rate increases.
While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different from that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences? A. The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. B. The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand. C. The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. D. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed
The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed
Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems? A. They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication. B. They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate. C. The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. D. Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler.
They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.
You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective? A. The patient's skin color remains the same. B. You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute. C. The patient's pulse returns to normal. D. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.
The patient's pulse returns to normal.
A 62-year-old male complains of weakness on one side of his body and slurred speech. After you arrive and evaluate the patient, you notice that the symptoms are beginning to subside. What is the likely cause of the patient's condition?
Transient ischemic attack
Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems? A. Sleepiness B. Tremors C. Trapped air in the lungs D. Decreased heart rate
Tremors
What is the MOST common reason for the AED's delivering a shock inappropriately?
User error
Which of the following is characterized by sudden, temporary loss of consciousness caused by insufficient blood flow to the brain, with return of consciousness almost immediately on becoming supine?
Vasovagal syncope
A paramedic unit has arrived on the scene of a cardiac arrest where you have been performing CPR and using an AED. The crew has started an IV and inserted an endotracheal tube. How will this change how you do your job?
Ventilations may be delivered asynchronously from chest compressions now.
Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a pulse?
Ventricular fibrillation
Automatic defibrillation is NOT appropriate in most cases of infant cardiac arrest due to which of the following?
Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient.
In which of the following dysrhythmias would it be most important to apply and engage an automatic external defibrillator?
Ventricular tachycardia
Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction? A. Wheezing B. Rhonchi C. Stridor D. Crowing
Wheezing
An EMT is performing a secondary assessment of patients involved in a building fire who have experienced breathing difficulty. Which question the EMT asks most clearly involves the OPQRST memory aid? A. Have you gained weight recently? B. Are you taking any new medications? C. When did the breathing difficulty begin? D. Have you traveled to another country recently?
When did the breathing difficulty begin?
When should the EMT expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack? A. While breathing in B. In between breaths C. While holding his breath D. While breathing out
While breathing out
You must reassess your patient within two minutes after administering nitroglycerin, as one of the side effects is:
a decrease in blood pressure.
One of the side effects of administering nitroglycerin to a cardiac patient could involve:
a drop in blood pressure.
Hyperglycemia is often due to:
a lack of insulin.
Your patient was pulseless but had a return of spontaneous pulses after one shock from the AED. Before transport, you notice that the patient is again unresponsive. You should NEXT:
check the pulse.
An indication for aspirin is a:
complaint of chest pain.
All of the following are elements of adult high-performance CPR, EXCEPT:
compressing the patient's chest about one inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.
An 80-year-old male is presenting with pedal edema, JVD, and dyspnea. You should suspect:
congestive heart failure.
A patient experiencing disorientation and a lowered state of alertness is experiencing a failure of the reticular activating system (RAS), which is responsible for:
consciousness.
ALS personnel have just placed an advanced airway in an adult cardiac arrest patient. You should:
deliver asynchronous ventilations at 8 to 10 breaths per minute.
A stroke cannot happen without:
deprivation of oxygen to the brain tissue.
In the cardiac conductive system, what cause the heart to contract are specialized muscles and:
electrical impulses.
For both the Lucas and Auto-Pulse CPR devices, you would take Standard Precautions and:
ensure CPR is in progress and effective.
Syncope is:
fainting.
In taking the history of a patient who has had a convulsive seizure, you discover the patient is epileptic, which means that the patient experiences seizures:
from an unknown cause.
The postictal phase of a tonic-clonic seizure involves the patient transitioning from full loss of consciousness to:
full mental status.
Which of the following substances specifically nourishes the brain to enable consciousness?
glucose
Urticaria is another term for: A. severe itching. B. hives. C. bronchoconstriction. D. swelling of the face.
hives. Urticaria is another term for hives:, which are red, itchy, possibly raised blotches on the skin. Severe itching is known as pruritus. Swelling is known as edema.
For a patient who is hypoxic, hyperglycemic, dehydrated, and with altered mental status, you would expect that what would MOST make this patient prone to a seizure would be the:
hypoxia.
If a patient experiencing cardiac compromise does not complain of dyspnea, then it is:
important to ask the patient about breathing difficulty.
When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should place the tip of the device against the: A. posterior portion of the patient's lower arm. B. lateral portion of the patient's thigh. C. lateral portion of the patient's neck. D. anterior portion of the patient's upper arm.
lateral portion of the patient's thigh. The auto-injector is simple to use. It is activated by being pressed against the patient's thigh. The pressure releases a spring-activated plunger, pushing the concealed needle into the thigh muscle and injecting a dose of the drug. The anterolateral portion of the thigh midway between the waist and knee is preferred because it provides the fastest absorption and the highest peak blood concentration of the medication.
When using a mechanical CPR device, you should:
limit interruptions in chest compressions to 10 seconds or less.
You suspect that your patient is experiencing acute coronary syndrome. Your hospital destination should be determined by:
local protocols.
A patient with a ventricular assist device will:
not have a palpable pulse or blood pressure.
You just administered an EpiPen® to your patient. The patient is improved but is now complaining of chest pain. You should: A. administer nitroglycerin. B. tell the patient that this is normal. C. notify medical direction. D. administer another dose of epinephrine.
notify medical direction. The patient's chest pain may be a temporary side effect of the medication or something more serious. Contact medical direction for assistance. You should not administer more epinephrine. Medical control may consider nitroglycerin, but this would be rare in a patient who is sick enough to require epinephrine.
To optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a potential candidate for thrombolytics, an EMT can determine and document the exact time of:
onset of symptoms.
A person in a hypoxic state experiences an altered mental status, because in the reticular activating system, oxygen is needed to:
perfuse the brain tissue.
A 45-year-old male presents agitated and confused. Your assessment identifies an oxygen saturation of 90%. You should next:
administer oxygen.
Today patients with cystic fibrosis are surviving to: A. older adulthood. B. adulthood. C. infancy. D. toddler years
adulthood.
As you arrive for a patient in cardiac arrest, bystanders are analyzing the patient with an AED. You should:
allow the AED to shock before you take over care.
When assessing the patient's symptoms, you should:
allow the patient to describe symptoms in his own words.
A 17-year-old male presents with itchy skin after exposure to peanuts. He is allergic to peanuts. The findings at this point indicate: A. an anxiety attack. B. an anaphylactic reaction. C. a skin infection. D. an allergic reaction.
an allergic reaction. Itchy skin after an exposure to a known allergen is considered a sign of an allergic reaction. No further signs have materialized yet, so he has not yet progressed to anaphylaxis. To be considered a severe allergic reaction, or anaphylaxis, the patient must have either respiratory distress or signs and symptoms of shock. Skin signs are an important sign of allergy that should be recognized and associated with a reaction.
The word for a weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may rupture, causing catastrophic bleeding, is:
aneurysm.
Your patient has a weakened section of the arterial wall that is ballooning. This is known as a(n):
aneurysm.
Proteins produced by the body that search for invaders and destroy them are called: A. antigens. B. platelets. C. antibodies. D. allergens.
antibodies. The first time a foreign antigen is introduced into the body, the immune system will make antibodies and attach them to mast cells and basophils so that the next time that antigen is introduced into the body, the immune system has a mechanism by which to protect itself. An allergen is the substance that elicits an allergic reaction. An antigen is simply a foreign substance. A platelet is the clotting component of the blood.
Administer oxygen to your chest pain patient to maintain an oxygen saturation level of:
at least 94 percent.
You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard, accidentally stepped on a hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99%. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put "nox-a-sting" on the sting sites but the hives only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering from? A. Allergic reaction most likely from the hornets' stings B. Moderate anaphylactic reaction C. Minor anaphylactic reaction D. Anaphylactic reaction from the "nox-a-sting" swabs
A. Allergic reaction most likely from the hornets' stings
A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. She describes a feeling of impending doom, she is sweating profusely, and she has an elevated heart rate and respiratory rate, although she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition? A. Anaphylaxis B. Mild allergy C. Dyspnea D. Tachycardia
A. Anaphylaxis
As you prepare to enter a patient's room in a nursing home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the BEST way to care for the patient? A. Ask the nursing facility staff to find non-latex exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient. B. Only perform a history on this patient, not a physical exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves. C. Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves. D. Put on latex gloves anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI.
A. Ask the nursing facility staff to find non-latex exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.
You are transporting a 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per minute, she is cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this patient? A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. B. Elevate the patient's head. C. Search for an epinephrine auto-injector. D. Transport rapidly.
A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
Why are nausea and vomiting a contraindication to CPAP? A. CPAP may cause an increased risk of aspiration. B. A nauseated person cannot tolerate the mask. C. CPAP may lead to a pneumothorax. D. The corneas of the eyes may become dried.
A. CPAP may cause an increased risk of aspiration.
What effect does epinephrine have on the blood vessels? A. Constriction B. Dilation. C. Distension. D. Perfusion
A. Constriction
You are unsure if a patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? A. Consult medical direction. B. Ask the patient what he or she would prefer. C. Administer the epinephrine, just in case. D. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation in which the patient usually takes his auto-injector.
A. Consult medical direction.
Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several auto-injectors. You have administered one of the auto-injectors, but the patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of action? A. Contact medical control. B. Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities. C. Immediately administer a second auto-injector. D. Continue supportive care in route to the hospital.
A. Contact medical control.
Which of the following is a good sign in adults with respiratory distress but an ominous sign in infants and children? A. Decrease in pulse B. Increase in blood pressure C. Decrease in blood pressure D. Increase in pulse
A. Decrease in pulse
Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. She has no previous history of seizures or any other medical condition. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the seizure? A. Eclampsia B. Congenital brain defects C. Hypoglycemia D. Trauma
A. Eclampsia
Which of the following involves relaxation of the rib muscles and the diaphragm? A. Exhalation and expiration B. Exhalation and inhalation C. Inhalation and inspiration D. Inspiration and expiration
A. Exhalation and expiration
A patient with a history of seizures experiences a seizure for no apparent reason. What is the likely cause? A. Failure to take prescribed medication B. Fever C. Withdrawal from alcohol D. Head trauma
A. Failure to take prescribed medication
What is more characteristic of anaphylaxis than a less severe allergic reaction? A. Generalized pallor B. Itching C. Swelling D. Wheezing
A. Generalized pallor
What is a skin texture sign common to both anaphylaxis and less severe allergic reactions? A. Hives B. Flushing C. Pallor D. Wheezing
A. Hives
Which of the following does a physician NOT take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine auto-injector? A. How far the patient lives from medical attention B. Patient's medical history C. Severity of previous allergic reactions D. Patient's known allergies
A. How far the patient lives from medical attention
What statement BEST distinguishes type 1 from type 2 diabetes? A. In type 1 diabetes, the pancreas does not secrete insulin normally, but in type 2 diabetes, the body's cells fail to use insulin properly. B. Type 1 is typically far less severe than type 2. C. In type 1 diabetes, too much insulin is the problem, and in type 2 diabetes, too little insulin is the problem. D. Type 1 diabetes is known as non-insulin-dependent diabetes, and type 2 diabetes is known as insulin-dependent diabetes.
A. In type 1 diabetes, the pancreas does not secrete insulin normally, but in type 2 diabetes, the body's cells fail to use insulin properly.
Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic patient? A. Vomiting after eating a meal B. Lack of exercise C. Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications D. Overeating
A. Vomiting after eating a meal
You are on the scene of a 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The patient's mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first action? A. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. B. Administer epinephrine with medical control consent. C. Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis. D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask.
A. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.
Which of the following medications is used in some fast-acting emergency inhalers? A. Ipratropium B. Metoprolol C. Pentothal D. Pravachol
A. Ipratropium
What is a limitation of a nonrebreather mask? A. It requires adequate breathing to pull oxygen into the lungs. B. It should only be used with patients who are not breathing. C. It does not work with pediatric patients. D. It is contraindicated in patients who require supplemental oxygen.
A. It requires adequate breathing to pull oxygen into the lungs.
A 3-year-old male complains of breathing difficulty. You assess stridor and excessive drooling. What would you expect the patient's breathing effort to be? A. Labored B. Irregular C. Adequate D. Absent
A. Labored
Under what circumstance can an EMT use a glucometer to determine a patient's blood glucose level? A. Only if allowed by medical direction and local protocols B. Only if no higher level of EMS is available C. Under no circumstance D. If the patient allows it and signs a release first
A. Only if allowed by medical direction and local protocols
For the reticular activating system (RAS) to work correctly, what three substances are needed? A. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated B. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated C. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated D. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated
A. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated
Which of the following foods is MOST likely to cause a severe allergic reaction? A. Peanuts B. Beets C. Celery D. Rice
A. Peanuts
Which of the following is the proper method of disposing a used epinephrine auto-injector? A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container. B. Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash. C. Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of. D. Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department.
A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.
Your patient is an unresponsive 30-year-old male wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The patient's coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. Which of the following should you do next? A. Protect the patient's airway, administer oxygen, and consider assessing the patient's blood glucose per local protocol. B. Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar before taking any further action. C. Use the patient's glucometer to check his blood sugar level. D. Administer oral glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in hyperglycemia, but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic.
A. Protect the patient's airway, administer oxygen, and consider assessing the patient's blood glucose per local protocol.
Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia. However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia? A. Reduced rate of breathing B. Excessive urination C. Chronic thirst D. Nausea
A. Reduced rate of breathing
Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is more common in pediatric patients than in patients in other age groups? A. Seesaw breathing B. Cyanosis C. Tachypnea D. Accessory muscle use
A. Seesaw breathing
Which of the following is the BIGGEST contributing factor to COPD? A. Smoking B. Burn injuries C. Age D. Chemical exposure
A. Smoking
A 2-year-old male is having severe respiratory distress caused by a partial obstruction of his upper airway by a foreign object. Which of the following sounds would most likely be associated with this condition? A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Wheezing D. Crackles
A. Stridor
Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the skin? A. Stridor B. Itching C. Hives D. Flushing
A. Stridor
Your patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. You ask the patient when this began. What part of OPQRST does this fall under? A. T B. Q C. P D. S
A. T
Which of the items below is NOT part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? A. Test for equal grip strength. B. Ask the patient to smile. C. Test the patient for arm droop or lack of movement. D. Have the patient repeat a simple sentence.
A. Test for equal grip strength.
What is the BEST way to determine whether artificial ventilations are adequate? A. The patient's chest will rise and fall with each ventilation. B. The patient's color will improve. C. The patient's LOC will improve. D. The patient's SpO2 will increase.
A. The patient's chest will rise and fall with each ventilation.
Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus? A. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness B. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body C. A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures D. A seizure that occurs without a known cause
A. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness
A 16-year-old male athlete suffered a syncopal episode while playing soccer on a hot, humid day. You find him lying supine and complaining of dizziness. He has no apparent injuries. You should: A. keep the patient supine and allow him to slowly recover. Consider ALS and/or transport. B. apply high-concentration oxygen and transport in Trendelenburg position. C. initiate high-priority transport to the nearest hospital and intercept with ALS. D. ask the patient to stand while you take his pulse and blood pressure.
A. keep the patient supine and allow him to slowly recover. Consider ALS and/or transport.
A dose of oral glucose gel in a toothpaste-type tube is: A. one tube. B. a quarter of a tube. C. half a tube. D. dependent on the patient's glucose level.
A. one tube.
The medical term for fainting is: A. syncope. B. dehydration. C. altered RAS status. D. vertigo.
A. syncope.
You are taking the history of a 35-year-old male patient who is unresponsive in the postictal phase of a tonic-clonic seizure from the patient's spouse, who informs you that the patient has been taking a prescribed medication for managing generalized seizures for several months. Based on this information, you suspect it is MOST likely that: A. the patient failed to take his prescribed medication. B. the prescribed medication's dosage was probably insufficient to manage the patient's seizures. C. the prescribed medication has expired without the patient realizing it. D. the prescribed medication is not correct for the patient's type of seizure.
A. the patient failed to take his prescribed medication.
A CPAP device that has no machine: A. uses the Venturi principle. B. uses only as much oxygen as a patient needs. C. administers oxygen slowly. D. requires a battery to operate.
A. uses the Venturi principle.
A 29-year-old female complains of a sore throat and runny nose for three days. Today she notes she is having difficulty breathing due to frequent and severe coughing spells. She is alert and oriented and her vital signs are P 84, R 20, BP 122/80. Given her symptoms, you should suspect: A. viral respiratory infection. B. pulmonary embolism. C. asthma. D. COPD.
A. viral respiratory infection.
The insulin-glucose relationship has been described as a "lock and key" mechanism because: A. without the insulin "key," glucose cannot enter the locked cells. B. insulin is the "key" to unlocking cells storing glucose. C. without the glucose "key," insulin cannot enter the locked cells. D. glucose is the "key" to unlocking cells storing insulin.
A. without the insulin "key," glucose cannot enter the locked cells.
After properly measuring a patient's blood glucose level, the glucometer displays a reading that displays the word "low." This finding would indicate: A. hypoglycemia. B. normal blood glucose level. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypoxemia.
A. hypoglycemia.
Your patient is a 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following would you assess should be your next action? A. Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so that you can ventilate her. B. Wait for the patient's level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. C. Obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs and full patient history. D. Apply supplemental oxygen and be prepared to assist her ventilations as needed.
Apply supplemental oxygen and be prepared to assist her ventilations as needed.
Your patient is a 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for four to five minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first action?
Apply the AED.
You are the first on the scene of a 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do next?
Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.
Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival, the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical control. B. Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask device and supplemental oxygen. C. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. D. Assist the patient with his inhaler.
Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve mask device and supplemental oxygen.
Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next?
Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest.
Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?
Asthma
Which of the following would NOT be corrected by defibrillation?
Asystole
Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied?
A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic
At what rate per minute should you ventilate an adult patient who is not breathing? A. 24 B. 12 C. 20 D. 16
B. 12
Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult? A. 180 mg/dL B. 80 mg/dL C. 40 mg/dL D. 150 mg/dL
B. 80 mg/dL
What is epilepsy? A. A condition in which a person has an aura followed by a seizure and that is usually controlled by medication. B. A condition in which a person has multiple seizures and that is usually controlled by medication. C. A condition in which a person has general seizures that start in childhood. D. A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only once or twice a year.
B. A condition in which a person has multiple seizures and that is usually controlled by medication.
Which of the following situations would MOST likely lead to hyperglycemia? A. A patient fails to eat adequately after self-administering insulin. B. A patient forgets to self-administer insulin. C. A patient self-administers too much insulin. D. A patient overexercises after self-administering insulin.
B. A patient forgets to self-administer insulin.
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in mild respiratory distress. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first? A. Perform rapid extrication. B. Administer high-concentration oxygen. C. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts. D. Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector.
B. Administer high-concentration oxygen.
What is another name for a severe allergic reaction? A. Asthma B. Anaphylaxis C. Dermatitis D. Psychosomatic reaction
B. Anaphylaxis
Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as a result of a stroke? A. Ischemia B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Ataxia
B. Aphasia
Which of the following is classified as COPD? A. Asthma B. Black lung disease C. Pneumonia D. Congestive heart failure
B. Black lung disease
Your patient is a 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty breathing, and she has hives, watery eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the BEST course of immediate action? A. Transport immediately. B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway (OPA). D. Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.
B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the patient's epinephrine auto-injector.
If a patient was having a myocardial infarction, not an allergic reaction, and received an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following would most likely occur? A. No reaction if administered inadvertently B. Stronger and faster heartbeat C. Bradycardia D. Relief of shortness of breath
B. Stronger and faster heartbeat
When assessing a patient for a possible stroke, which of the following three functions should be tested by the EMT? A. Memory, ability to speak, and ability to track movement with the eyes B. Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds C. Ability to walk, ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds, and ability to name common objects D. Ability to walk, control of facial muscles, and balance
B. Control of facial muscles, ability to speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds
Which of the following sounds is created by the presence of fluid in the alveoli and the very small airways of the lungs? A. Stridor B. Crackles C. Gurgling Your answer is not correct.D. Wheezes
B. Crackles
Which of the following structures separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities? A. Thoracic cage B. Diaphragm C. Transverse line D. Mediastinum
B. Diaphragm
Which of the following occurs to blood vessels during an anaphylactic reaction? A. No change B. Dilation C. Constriction D. Spasm
B. Dilation
Upon examining the patient's auto-injector, you notice that the contents are yellow and contain particulate matter. What should you do? A. Administer the epinephrine; this is normal. B. Do not administer the auto-injector and seek an alternative source for epinephrine. C. The drug has increased in concentration; administer only half the usual dosage. D. Because the auto-injector is sealed, discoloration is impossible.
B. Do not administer the auto-injector and seek an alternative source for epinephrine.
During your primary assessment, you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the following? A. The need for suctioning of the airway B. Failing respiratory system C. Problems with the RAS due to hypertension D. The need for rapid transport
B. Failing respiratory system
You are reassessing a patient to whom you have administered oxygen and an MDI for respiratory distress. During your reassessment, you find that there is only slight expiratory wheezing, the pulse oximetry is 97%, the patient is speaking in full sentences, and the patient's color is good. Given these findings, which of the choices best characterizes the patient? A. He is displaying respiratory arrest. B. He is displaying mild breathing difficulty. C. He is displaying inadequate ventilations. D. He is displaying normal breathing.
B. He is displaying mild breathing difficulty.
Which of the following is caused by a histamine release during an allergic reaction? A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased leakage of fluids from blood vessels C. Bronchodilation D. Drying and reduction of mucus in the bronchi of the lungs
B. Increased leakage of fluids from blood vessels
Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of hyperglycemia? A. Its onset is more sudden. B. Its onset is more gradual. C. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia. D. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.
B. Its onset is more gradual.
Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during anaphylaxis? A. High blood pressure due to tachycardia B. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation C. High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction D. Low blood pressure due to bradycardia
B. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of CPAP? A. Spontaneous breathing B. Nausea and vomiting C. Tachycardia D. Hypertension
B. Nausea and vomiting
Which of the following statements about patients with altered mental status is CORRECT? A. A patient is considered alert if the patient is at least responsive to a verbal stimulus. B. One of the most common causes of altered mental status is hypoxia. C. Hypoperfusion in combination with shock generally does not cause altered mental status. D. You may assume that the patient is still responsive even if there is no response to a painful stimulus.
B. One of the most common causes of altered mental status is hypoxia.
The typical steps of managing a diabetic emergency are: A. Assist the patient in accepting glucose, prepare to administer oral glucose, primary assessment, secondary assessment, and reassessment. B. Primary assessment, secondary assessment, prepare to administer oral glucose, assist the patient in accepting glucose, and reassessment. C. Prepare to administer oral glucose, assist the patient in accepting glucose, primary assessment, secondary assessment, and reassessment. D. Primary assessment, prepare to administer oral glucose, assist the patient in accepting glucose, secondary assessment, and reassessment.
B. Primary assessment, secondary assessment, prepare to administer oral glucose, assist the patient in accepting glucose, and reassessment.
Which of the following represents an abnormal respiratory rate? A. Respiratory rate of 40 in an infant B. Respiratory rate of 20 in an infant C. Respiratory rate of 20 in a child D. Respiratory rate of 20 in an adult
B. Respiratory rate of 20 in an infant
Which of the following would be considered an appropriate reason to use a spacer in assisting a patient with a rescue inhaler? A. Spacers allow administration of lower doses. B. Spacers make exact timing less important. C. Spacers increase drug concentration. D. Spacers require the patient to breathe less deeply.
B. Spacers make exact timing less important.
you respond to a 7-year-old patient presenting with symptoms of productive cough containing blood and large amounts of mucus, fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain. The patient appears to be breathing adequately but nonetheless is experiencing respiratory distress from the onset of the coughing. What should you do to treat this patient? A. Administer a bronchodilator to the patient. B. Speak to the patient's parent or guardian. C. Begin positive pressure ventilations. D. Begin assisted ventilations at 20 per minute.
B. Speak to the patient's parent or guardian.
What is a high-pitched lung sound heard on inspiration? A. Rales B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes
B. Stridor
The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following? A. Aphasia B. Stroke C. Transient ischemic attack D. Seizure
B. Stroke
A 50-year-old woman is experiencing an allergic reaction after accidentally ingesting some shrimp. She has hives, complains of diarrhea, and notes that she is beginning to have difficulty breathing. You assess wheezes. Her vital signs are P 118, R 30, BP 100/60. What is the BEST answer for when you may administer epinephrine? A. The patient has a prescription for epinephrine. B. The patient has a prescription for epinephrine and medical control authorizes you to do so. C. You believe the patient is in anaphylactic shock. D. Medical control authorizes you to do so.
B. The patient has a prescription for epinephrine and medical control authorizes you to do so.
You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived, the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has most likely occurred? A. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage. B. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack. C. The patient suffered a stroke. D. The patient is suffering from aphasia.
B. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.
Which of the following should be assessed FIRST for a patient who is in anaphylactic shock? A. The patient's distal pulses B. The patient's airway C. The patient's lung sounds D. The patient's blood pressure
B. The patient's airway
Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a stroke? A. Sudden, severe headache B. Weakness on one side of the body C. Sudden onset of bizarre behavior D. Projectile vomiting
B. Weakness on one side of the body
Upon delivering a patient to the emergency department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most likely? A. You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient. B. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves. C. You are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction. D. You have come into contact with poison ivy in the patient's yard.
B. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.
It is characteristic of an allergen to be: A. naturally occurring. B. a substance foreign to the body. C. a substance in the air. D. a substance that is ingested.
B. a substance foreign to the body.
If a person is allergic to bee stings, the venom from the bee is referred to as a(n): A. mediator. B. allergen. C. catalyst. D. agent.
B. allergen.
Your patient is complaining of respiratory distress. She also tells you that her feet and ankles are unusually swollen. This swelling is: A. the chief complaint. B. an associated symptom. C. a pertinent negative. D. an irrelevant distraction.
B. an associated symptom.
A sensation experienced by a seizure patient right before the seizure is: A. a symptom. B. an aura. C. a vital sign. D. a premonition.
B. an aura.
Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as: A. the clonic phase. B. an aura. C. the postictal phase. D. the tonic phase.
B. an aura.
After administering the epinephrine auto-injector to your patient with anaphylaxis, you should pay particular attention to: A. justifying your actions to medical control. B. assessing the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. C. ensuring the patient has a prescription for epinephrine. D. determining the patient's need for transport.
B. assessing the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation.
A 4-year-old patient presents with respiratory distress and just developed a significant drop in heart rate. You should first: A. look for the cause of the change in heart rate. B. assist ventilations with supplemental oxygen. C. apply a nonrebreather mask. D. check the patient's SpO2.
B. assist ventilations with supplemental oxygen.
A 45-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. You have assisted the patient with her bronchodilator medication, but you note that she continues to have considerable distress. Her mental status is now becoming altered. You should NEXT: A. administer another bronchodilator treatment. B. assist ventilations. C. administer an epinephrine self-injector. D. increase the supplemental oxygen flow rate.
B. assist ventilations.
A patient presenting with dizziness and a rapid heart rate may be experiencing: A. hypoglycemia. B. cardiac dysrhythmia. C. hypovolemia. D. vasovagal syncope.
B. cardiac dysrhythmia.
A respiratory condition that was formerly prominent in children who presented with stridor and drooling but is now more often found in adults is: A. croup. B. epiglottitis. C. chronic bronchitis. D. asthma.
B. epiglottitis.
The first time someone is exposed to an allergen, the immune system: A. triggers an allergic reaction. B. forms antibodies in response. C. releases histamine and other chemicals. D. triggers anaphylactic shock.
B. forms antibodies in response.
In an anaphylactic reaction, hives are: A. localized. B. generalized. C. blotchy and red. D. absent.
B. generalized.
The steps in administering epinephrine by auto-injector include: A. pushing the injector firmly against the patient's buttock until the needle is deployed. B. holding the injector in place until all the medication has C. placing the injector back in its container for reuse. D. drawing up the medication into the syringe.
B. holding the injector in place until all the medication has
A patient fainted when she tried to stand up, and you discover signs of internal bleeding during your assessment. This patient's syncope was likely from: A. cardiac dysrhythmia. B. hypovolemia. C. absence seizure. D. hypoxia.
B. hypovolemia.
A 10-year-old male was stung by several bees. Shortly after the envenomation, his face became severely swollen. This edema is the result of: A. decreased histamine production. B. increased capillary permeability. C. vasoconstriction. D. decreased capillary permeability.
B. increased capillary permeability.
Which statement below is NOT true about seizures? A. The most common seizure that EMTs are likely to be called on is a tonic-clonic seizure. B. A partial seizure affects one part, or one side, of the brain. C. Many seizures are followed by an aura. D. A generalized seizure affects the entire brain.
C. Many seizures are followed by an aura.
Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma attack? A. Proventil B. Ventolin C. Beclomethasone D. Albuterol
Beclomethasone
Which of the following types of defibrillators will adjust the amount of energy used on the basis of impedance?
Biphasic AED
Which term refers to a heart rate of below 60 beats per minute?
Bradycardia
Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing? A. Wheezing noises when breathing B. Breathing slower than normal C. Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life D. Breathing faster than normal
Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life
Which of the following BEST describes the process of expiration in normal breathing? A. Contraction of rib muscles B. Contraction of diaphragm C. Passive D. Active
C. Passive
You are called to a residence for a 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. You administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask. What action next is the best treatment for the patient? A. Rapid transport to the nearest facility B. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask C. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control D. Reassessing the patient
C. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control
A rescue inhaler is most likely to contain which of the following? A. Advair B. Claritin C. Albuterol D. Bronkosol
C. Albuterol
You have responded to a park where you find a 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30 minutes, and all of a sudden she cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is flushed, her pulse is fast and weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing with stridor, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the following? A. Hyperventilation syndrome B. Heat stroke C. Anaphylaxis D. Allergic reaction
C. Anaphylaxis
Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and syncope? A. Loosen any tight clothing around the neck. B. Lay the patient flat. C. Apply cold packs to the patient's head. D. Administer oxygen.
C. Apply cold packs to the patient's head.
Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock? A. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic B. Determining whether the patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty D. Looking for hives and swelling
C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty
Brochoconstriction involves what happening to the bronchi? A. Relaxation B. Bypass C. Blockage D. Distension
C. Blockage
Which of the following is the cause of most strokes? A. A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain B. A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain D. A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm
C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of epinephrine? A. Pallor B. Vomiting C. Bradycardia D. Chest pain
C. Bradycardia
Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of stroke? A. Seizure B. Vomiting C. Chest pain D. Sudden impairment of vision
C. Chest pain
Which of the following is TRUE about adult and pediatric patients? A. The adult trachea is more flexible. B. The child's tongue is proportionally smaller than that of the adult. C. Children depend more heavily on the diaphragm for respiration. D. The airway of the adult is more rigid and therefore more easily obstructed.
C. Children depend more heavily on the diaphragm for respiration.
You are on the scene of a 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. You had inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. After the epinephrine administration, your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should perform? A. Discontinue bagging the patient. B. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask. C. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine. D. Hyperventilate the patient.
C. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.
Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the EMT's arrival at the scene? A. Suctioning B. Checking for mechanism of injury C. Determining when the patient was last transported to the hospital for seizures D. Administering oxygen
C. Determining when the patient was last transported to the hospital for seizures
Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting? A. What was the patient doing before the seizure? B. How did the patient behave during the seizure? C. Does the patient have a family history of seizures? D. Did the patient lose control of his bladder?
C. Does the patient have a family history of seizures?
A 50-year-old female patient has been found unconscious and unresponsive. She is breathing rapidly and is diaphoretic. Her vital signs are P 130, R 30, BP 140/80. Which of the following conditions would most likely explain these findings? A. TIA B. High blood pressure C. Hypoglycemia D. Beta-blocker overdose
C. Hypoglycemia
Your patient is a 59-year-old female with a sudden onset of slurred speech and weakness on her right side. Which of the following measures is appropriate? A. Test the patient's sensation with a series of pinpricks, beginning at the feet and working upward. B. Administer oral glucose and then assess the patient's blood sugar. C. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients. D. Withhold oxygen unless the patient exhibits signs of profound hypoxia.
C. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients.
Which of the following is NOT an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient's condition? A. Increased heart rate B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased dyspnea D. Increased ease of respirations
C. Increased dyspnea
Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic reactions? A. Infants have received natural immunity to allergens from their mothers before birth. B. Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation have little effect on an infant's physiology. C. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens. D. Allergens do not affect infants.
C. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens.
It is characteristic for a CPAP device to blow air: A. intermittently. B. at high pressure. C. continuously. D. in short gusts.
C. continuously.
Your patient is a 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, heart rate of 112 beats per minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this patient? A. Place the patient in the recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the patient's tongue. B. Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the patient's cheek and gums. C. Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status. D. Encourage the patient's family to administer his insulin.
C. Place the patient in the recovery position, administer oxygen, and monitor his airway status.
During the primary assessment, what is a sign of shock? A. Radial pulses B. Perfusion C. Rapid heart rate D. Flushed skin
C. Rapid heart rate
The family of a 30-year-old male states that the patient recently had a tonic-clonic seizure. The event lasted 5 minutes, and the family notes that the patient has no previous history of seizures. The family also states that the patient has no past medical history of any kind. Until the point he began seizing, he had seemed fine. Which of the following causes MOST likely explain the previous findings? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypoxia C. Recent head trauma D. Anxiety
C. Recent head trauma
The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which one of the factors below is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia? A. Overexercises or overexerts himself B. Vomits a meal C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much D. Takes too much insulin
C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
Which of the following would be a sign that a pediatric patient required immediate transport? A. Flushed lips or mouth B. Slowed breathing C. Retracted muscles of breathing D. Decreased breathing effort
C. Retracted muscles of breathing
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency? A. Combativeness B. Anxiety C. Slow heart rate D. Cold, clammy skin
C. Slow heart rate
Normal consciousness is regulated by a series of neurologic circuits in the brain that comprise the reticular activating system (RAS). The RAS has simple requirements to function properly. Which one of the following items is NOT one of those requirements? A. Oxygen B. Water C. Sodium D. Glucose
C. Sodium
You are managing a patient who you believe is severely hypoxic. Given this information, which of the following should you do FIRST? A. Place the patient in a tripod position. B. Take a pulse oximetry reading. C. Start high-flow oxygen. D. Perform a secondary assessment.
C. Start high-flow oxygen.
Why should the EMT explain the CPAP device to the patient? A. Insurance will typically not cover the treatment, and permission must be given. B. The patient must understand how a CPAP machine works. C. The device might cause the patient to feel smothered and anxious. D. The treatment may lead to COPD.
C. The device might cause the patient to feel smothered and anxious.
Which of the following occurs during inhalation? A. The diaphragm rises, and the ribs move upward and outward. B. The diaphragm rises, and the ribs move downward and inward. C. The diaphragm lowers, and the ribs move upward and outward. D. The diaphragm lowers, and the ribs move downward and inward.
C. The diaphragm lowers, and the ribs move upward and outward.
Looking at the following list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia? A. Hyperglycemic patients often have warm, red, dry skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin. B. Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia. C. The hypoglycemic patient is usually complaining of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient is not. D. The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.
C. The hypoglycemic patient is usually complaining of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient is not.
When someone is experiencing hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which one of the statements below is NOT one of the fight-or-flight responses? A. The heart pumps faster. B. Blood vessels constrict. C. The skin is hot and dry. D. Breathing accelerates.
C. The skin is hot and dry.
After administering epinephrine per medical control via an auto-injector to an unresponsive anaphylactic adult patient, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields, whereas before the injection, they were diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower. What is your suspicion regarding the patient's condition? A. The patient is about to go into cardiac arrest. B. There is no change in the patient's condition. C. The patient's condition is improving. D. The patient's condition is worsening.
C. The patient's condition is improving.
At which of the following sites should the EMT administer an epinephrine auto-injector? A. Upper arm B. Abdomen C. Thigh D. Buttocks
C. Thigh
For a hypotensive patient, which of the following effects of epinephrine would be MOST important? A. Increased capillary permeability B. Bronchoconstriction C. Vasoconstriction D. Vasodilation
C. Vasoconstriction
When is administering oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient the worst thing you could do? A. When the patient has an altered mental status B. When the patient desperately needs sugar C. When the patient can't protect his airway D. When the patient has a history of diabetes
C. When the patient can't protect his airway
Your 44-year-old patient has a decreased level of consciousness, respiratory distress, and shallow breathing. You should immediately: A. apply a NRB mask. B. apply a nasal cannula. C. assist ventilations. D. ask the patient whether she has an inhaler.
C. assist ventilations.
The advantage of a battery-powered CPAP device is that it: A. requires a charged battery to operate. B. applies positive airway pressure. C. blows oxygen and air at an adjustable rate. D. uses oxygen quickly.
C. blows oxygen and air at an adjustable rate.
A ________ device works by blowing oxygen or air continuously at a low pressure to prevent a patient's alveoli from collapsing. A. CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) B. COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) C. FROPVD (Flow-Restricted, Oxygen-Powered Ventilation Device) D. Nonrebreather
CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure)
In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in adults?
Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.
Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the heart?
Cardiac compromise
Delivery of an electrical shock to restore a normal heart rhythm most directly affects which of the following?
Cardiac conduction system
You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptoms would you expect to see with this condition?
Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin
A wheezing patient might be experiencing which problem? A. An obstruction of the trachea B. Chronic bronchitis C. Fluid in the alveoli D. Material aspirated into the lungs
Chronic bronchitis
Which of the following is the primary cause of COPD? A. Infection B. Cigarette smoking C. Air pollution D. Congenital diseases
Cigarette smoking
In your management of a patient with true anaphylaxis who has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector, which of the following interventions is MOST correct? A. If she is unconscious, place the patient upright in a position of comfort to assist her breathing difficulty. B. Place the patient on oxygen at 6 lpm via nasal cannula. C. Wait for ALS to arrive before giving any medications, including epinephrine. D. Contact medical direction for authorization to administer the epinephrine auto-injector.
Contact medical direction for authorization to administer the epinephrine auto-injector. Administering the patient's auto-injector is the most effective treatment. In true anaphylaxis, epinephrine should never be delayed for other treatments.
You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention?
Continue CPR.
Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries of the heart?
Coronary artery disease
At what rate per minute should you ventilate a child? A. 12 B. 16 C. 24 D. 20
D. 20
The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) may last up to: A. 1 hour. B. 30 minutes. C. 6 hours. D. 24 hours.
D. 24 hours.
With advances in clot-busting (thrombolytic) drugs, the patient has a window of ________ hours to receive treatment. A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 3
D. 3
If a patient had a long-standing vascular malformation in her brain that went unrecognized for years but finally resulted in a burst blood vessel, what type of stroke will she likely present with? A. A transient ischemic attack B. An ischemic stroke on the opposite side of the brain C. An ischemic stroke with bilateral deficits D. A subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke
D. A subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke
You are treating a 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is 72/50 mmHg. You are in an area that allows EMTs to carry and administer epinephrine, and the patient has a prescribed Epi-Pen®. Which of the following is the BEST option for the EMT? A. Immediately administer the patient's Epi-PenSuperscript ®®. B. Do not administer the Epi-PenSuperscript ®® under any circumstances. C. Transport rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital. D. Administer the Epi-PenSuperscript ®® only on the advice of medical control.
D. Administer the Epi-PenSuperscript ®® only on the advice of medical control.
What is a sign of sepsis becoming systemic? A. Lowered respiratory rate B. Lowered heart rate C. High blood pressure D. Altered mental status
D. Altered mental status
You are called to a residence for a 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You find the patient seated in bed. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory distress, but speaks only in short two- to three-word statements and complains of a tightness in the chest. What condition do you suspect? A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Asthma C. Angina pectoris D. Anaphylaxis
D. Anaphylaxis
A 19-year-old female has lost consciousness while traveling home from a house party. Friends note that she vomited and then she appeared to "pass out" for several minutes. They note this has never happened before. The patient is responsive, has a patent airway, and is breathing adequately. She insists that she did not drink or take any drugs at the party. Which of the following questions would be LEAST appropriate to this situation? A. Did you hurt yourself? B. What position were you in when the episode happened? C. Did you have any warning? If so, what was it like? D. Are you afraid of the consequences of admitting substance abuse?
D. Are you afraid of the consequences of admitting substance abuse?
Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia? A. Cool, moist skin, agitated behavior, and increased heart rate B. Sudden onset of altered mental status C. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake D. A "fruity" odor of the breath
D. A "fruity" odor of the breath
Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during anaphylaxis? A. Cardiac output increases and the tissues of the body become more perfused. B. Blood vessels constrict, capillaries lose permeability, and bronchodilation occurs. C. Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the skin, causing dehydration of tissue. D. Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords
D. Capillaries become leaky, bronchoconstriction occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords
Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to anaphylaxis? A. Wasp stings B. Penicillin C. Peanuts D. Cat dander
D. Cat dander
If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result? A. Hyperactivity, excessive thirst, and polyuria B. Excessive insulin, excessive glucose, and excessive urination C. Polyuria and hyperactivity D. Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger
D. Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger
Which of the following is a known complication of applying CPAP to a patient with respiratory distress? A. The patient will develop respiratory acidosis. B. There will be a reflexive decrease in the heart rate. C. Hyperoxemia may occur. D. It may cause a drop in blood pressure.
D. It may cause a drop in blood pressure.
Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you do? A. Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs. B. Insert a bite block, cloth, wallet, or similar item between the patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue. C. Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue. D. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.
D. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is a form of what? A. Noninvasive negative pressure ventilation B. Invasive positive pressure ventilation C. Invasive negative pressure ventilation D. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
D. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause anaphylaxis? A. Dextrose B. Morphine C. Nitroglycerin D. Penicillin
D. Penicillin
You respond to a local swim park for a 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and "passed out." Upon arrival, you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best action? A. Request an ALS unit. B. Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy. C. Hyperventilate the patient. D. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.
D. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.
Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true? A. Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s. B. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine auto-injector before exposure to the substance. C. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before. D. Signs or symptoms of shock indicate a severe allergic reaction.
D. Signs or symptoms of shock indicate a severe allergic reaction.
Which of the following statements about the differences between adults and children is TRUE? A. All airway structures of the adult are more easily blocked. B. The diaphragm is more heavily used in the adult. C. The tongue of an adult is more apt to block the airway. D. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible in infants and children.
D. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible in infants and children.
Over which of the following factors that affect the survivability of a stroke patient does the EMT have the MOST influence? A. Reduction of blood pressure B. Initiation of an IV by ALS providers C. Intubation of the trachea D. Time to treatment
D. Time to treatment
Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? A. Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine auto-injector. B. Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time. C. Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis. D. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.
D. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.
Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in anaphylaxis? A. Bronchoconstriction B. Increased capillary permeability C. Decreased heart rate D. Vasoconstriction
D. Vasoconstriction
A 25-year-old male is complaining of difficulty breathing after a submersion (near drowning) injury. He says that the breathing difficulty "came on all of a sudden." You note rales when listening to his chest. His vital signs are P 120, R 36, BP 130/88. You should NEXT: A. assist with a bronchodilator inhaler. B. administer a small-volume nebulizer. C. administer nitroglycerin. D. administer CPAP.
D. administer CPAP.
A 9-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing. His respiratory rate is 28, and he has wheezes. He is alert but scared, and his pulse oximetry reads 93%. You should next: A. apply a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. B. initiate CPAP. C. immediately remove the child from the parents. D. administer supplemental oxygen.
D. administer supplemental oxygen.
When a clot or embolism occludes an artery, this causes: A. a hemorrhagic stroke. B. expressive aphasia. C. receptive aphasia. D. an ischemic stroke.
D. an ischemic stroke.
A patient complains of dizziness followed by brief syncope of several seconds. Regardless of this patient's history, it is likely that the dizziness and syncope are related to interference with the function of the patient's: A. kidneys. B. peripheral nervous system. C. lungs. D. brain.
D. brain.
An inhaler containing a beta agonist medication is intended to: A. dilate pulmonary blood vessels. B. constrict smooth muscle. C. mimic the parasympathetic nervous system. D. dilate the airways.
D. dilate the airways.
It is characteristic of less severe allergic reactions to: A. decrease oxygen saturation. B. be life -threatening. C. produce stridor. D. exhibit localized swelling and hives.
D. exhibit localized swelling and hives.
A 65-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. You wish to obtain a "room air" pulse oximetry reading but realize the pulse oximeter is in the ambulance. You should: A. immediately move the patient to the ambulance. B. withhold oxygen as a pulse oximetry reading is necessary. C. wait to administer oxygen until your partner can retrieve the oximeter. D. immediately administer supplemental oxygen.
D. immediately administer supplemental oxygen.
A partial seizure affects: A. the extremities. B. consciousness. C. the entire brain. D. one part or one side of the brain.
D. one part or one side of the brain.
Which of the following statements about poison ivy is TRUE? A. It is the oil on the leaves of the poison ivy plant that causes the allergic reaction. B. Poison ivy must enter the system through broken skin. C. Only about ten percent of the population is allergic to poison ivy. D. Poison ivy is a common cause of weeping sores on the skin.
It is the oil on the leaves of the poison ivy plant that causes the allergic reaction. The oil on the leaves of the plant causes the allergic reaction. Poison ivy causes a rash, not weeping sores. It is absorbed through contact with the skin and does not need an opening. About two-thirds of the population is allergic to the oil on poison ivy leaves.
Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies?
It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body.
What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask? A. Push the full amount of the bag into the patient. B. Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100%. C. Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100%. D. Look for chest rise and fall with every ventilation
Look for chest rise and fall with every ventilation
Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
Low blood pressure
In which of the following circumstances is medical direction necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A. Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival. B. The inhaler belongs to another family member, not the patient. C. Medical control is not necessary because assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice. D. Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.
Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.
Which of the following would prevent the administration of an EpiPen® to a 16-year-old male in a life-threatening anaphylactic situation? A. A blood pressure reading of 90/70 B. Respirations that are 24 and shallow C. A pulse rate above 130 D. Medical direction has denied permission to administer the drug
Medical direction has denied permission to administer the drug None of these vital signs are contraindications, but medical direction denying permission for administration of the EpiPen® should prevent the EMT from involvement in its administration.
Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen?
Myocardial infarction
Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the defibrillator?
None of the above
Your patient is a 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of significant respiratory distress, although she appears to be breathing adequately. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather mask? A. Listen to the patient's breath sounds. B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Obtain a history of the present illness. D. None of the above
None of the above
Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental oxygen? A. A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive B. An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration C. A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 93% on room air D. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld
None of these patients should have oxygen withheld
Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life support, even when EMTs in the community carry AEDs?
Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.
You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? A. Increase the force of ventilations. B. Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating. D. Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved.
Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved.
Which of the following is typical of angina pectoris?
Often subsides with rest
Why is a patient's second exposure to an allergen more dangerous than the first? A. On the second exposure, the antibody combines with the allergen, causing histamine release. B. On the first exposure, the patient's antibodies will disable the antigen. C. The patient is unable to release histamines after the first exposure. D. The second exposure usually has a faster onset of symptoms than subsequent exposures.
On the second exposure, the antibody combines with the allergen, causing histamine release. The first exposure sensitizes the patient to the allergen. On the second or subsequent exposures, the interaction of antigen and antibodies can cause a dangerous histamine release.
You arrive on-scene of a 56-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. What is the first airway you should administer?
Oropharyngeal airway
After placing a patient experiencing chest pain in a comfortable position, it is most important for you to assess the need for administering which of the following?
Oxygen
You are on scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure 68/42, pulse 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats, what is your next intervention?
Package the patient for rapid transport.
Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the chest?
Palpitations
You are called to the scene of a 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is diaphoretic, and complains of being cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past three days. His vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70, heart rate of 116, respiratory rate of 24, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 100.6degrees°F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes, and he is coughing up yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you suspect? A. Pneumonia B. COPD C. Asthma D. Silent myocardial infarction
Pneumonia
What condition is when fluid accumulates in the lungs, preventing them from breathing adequately? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Asthma C. Pulmonary edema D. Pneumonia
Pulmonary edema
Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs?
Pulmonary edema
Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following situations?
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
Which of the following is NOT one of the links in the chain of survival?
Rehabilitation
After a period of syncope lasting 30 seconds, your patient is now reporting a "fluttering" in his chest and generalized weakness. Which of the following is necessary?
Requesting ALS to support the patient's care
You arrive on scene to back up another EMT unit on a patient with an allergic reaction. As you approach the scene, you see one EMT preparing to administer the patient's EpiPen®. Which of the following clinical findings would support the use of the EpiPen®? A. Wheezing B. Signs and symptoms of shock C. Anxiety D. Itching
Signs and symptoms of shock Evidence of hypoperfusion is one of the key findings that will alert the EMT to the presence of a severe allergic reaction that will probably need the administration of the patient's EpiPen®, if available. The other findings could be present in less severe allergic reactions.
Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication?
Slows the heart rate
When the lung collapses without injury or any other cause, it is called which of the following? A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Spontaneous pulmonary embolism C. Spontaneous pertussis D. COPD
Spontaneous pneumothorax
What is NOT one of the symptoms of a pulmonary embolus? A. Anxiety B. Pain and swelling in one or both legs C. Sudden onset of sharp chest pain D. Sudden calmness
Sudden calmness
Histamine release increases vascular permeability. What physical sign is associated with this pathophysiology? A. Swelling B. Decreased cardiac output C. Flushed skin D. Urticaria
Swelling When capillaries become leaky, fluid moves into the tissue and appears as swelling (angioedema), especially around the site of an injection (or sting) and the face, including the eyes, lips, ears, tongue, and airway. If the area around the vocal cords becomes swollen, the patient may have a muffled voice or display stridor on inspiration.
Which of the following is an anticipated side effect of epinephrine administration? A. Lethargy B. Hypotension C. Vasodilation D. Tachycardia
Tachycardia Tachycardia is a common side effect of epinephrine administration. Epinephrine does not cause hypotension, vasodilation, or lethargy.
In the case of a patient with rales, on auscultation the EMT might hear: A. rattling. B. wheezing. C. bubbling. D. stridor.
bubbling.
A 35-year-old male is suffering a severe anaphylactic reaction. You have administered one of the patient's two epinephrine auto-injectors as indicated; however, after 10 minutes, the patient's condition has not improved. You should NEXT: A. inject the second auto-injector, but this time try to inject it into a vein. B. not administer the second auto-injector because two consecutive doses of epinephrine are never indicated. The second one is simply a spare. C. wait 10 more minutes and then administer the second auto-injector. D. consult with medical control and administer the second auto-injector.
consult with medical control and administer the second auto-injector. Some patients' anaphylaxis is so severe that they carry two auto-injectors. If your protocols allow it, consult medical control and administer the second dose. Typically, a 10-minute window is sufficient to gauge response to the first injection.
You are treating your cardiac arrest patient when a "No Shock Indicated" message appears. You should NEXT:
continue CPR for two minutes.
Conditions that narrow or block the arteries of the heart are called:
coronary artery disease.
You have just completed administering an EpiPen® to an anaphylactic 22-year-old female. You have successfully injected the medication and withdrawn the syringe. You should NEXT: A. turn the EpiPenSuperscript ® over to the hospital upon arrival. B. deliver the EpiPenSuperscript ® to the pharmacy. C. place the EpiPenSuperscript ® in an appropriate biohazard container. D. turn the EpiPenSuperscript ® over to ALS personnel.
place the EpiPenSuperscript ® in an appropriate biohazard container. The EpiPen® should be placed in a biohazard container as it technically contains a contaminated sharp. There is no need to deliver it to the hospital, the pharmacy, or ALS personnel as long as the dose and time are documented on the hand-off documentation.
In the mnemonic OPQRST, the "P" stands for:
provocation.
A study into the effects of disease on blood composition would focus on:
red and white blood cells, platelets, and plasma.
You have just used an AED to deliver a shock to your cardiac arrest patient. You should immediately:
resume chest compressions.
Hypoperfusion refers to:
shock.
Occasionally, a patient with only mild hypoglycemia and minor altered mental status can be treated by simply giving that patient:
something to eat.
A 54-year-old male is found pulseless and apneic on the sofa. The scene is safe. You should first:
start CPR and retrieve an AED.
The Lucas CPR device involves:
stopping CPR just long enough to put a base plate under the patient.
Aphasia is often seen in:
stroke patients.
For a mountain climber exhibiting pulmonary edema during an extremely high-altitude climb, you should suspect: A. a cardiac cause with heart complications. B. the climber needs to remain at high altitude until the edema is treated. C. the climber was exposed to high atmospheric pressures. D. the climber should be administered oxygen until stabilized
the climber should be administered oxygen until stabilized
The key difference between angina and a myocardial infarction is that:
the pain of angina usually goes away with rest.
A 16-year-old female has altered mental status. Her blood glucose is 40 mg/dL. This finding tells you that:
the patient is hypoglycemic.
An EMT must ventilate an adult patient at 12 breaths per minute if: A. there is stridor when the patient breaths. B. the patient is not breathing. C. the patient's breath sounds are diminished. D. the patient is breathing faster than normal.
the patient is not breathing.
Your diabetic ketoacidosis patient has rapid breathing and a fruity odor on his breath. This is likely due to:
the presence of ketones.
Auto-Pulse is designed:
to be started manually.
A patient was running a riding lawnmower in a closed garage and experienced dizziness. Immediately after opening the garage door, the patient experienced syncope that lasted for several moments. It is MOST likely that the cause of the patient's syncope was:
toxicological.
A patient with aphasia who seems to understand what you say but cannot form intelligible responses to what you say should be classified as:
verbal.
Contraindications for the administration of nitroglycerin include a patient:
who took Viagra in the last 48 hours.
A shock advisory defibrillator:
will alert the operator to press a button to deliver shocks.
Which of the following descriptors is MOST common in a patient who is experiencing chest pain due to a problem with the heart?
"Heavy"
A 26-year-old female complains of six hours of vomiting and diarrhea. She is dizzy and lightheaded but feels better while lying down. What follow-up question would be BEST to ask if the patient answers yes to the question "Have you had any similar episodes in the past?"
"What cause was found?"
Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless VT?
Shock, two minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again
Which of the following statements is TRUE about paralysis caused by stroke?
Typically, paralysis from strokes affects only one side of the body.
Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide ________.
high-quality compressions