Ch 17-20 block exam

Which of the following readings on the glucometer would be of concern to the​ EMT?

150​ mg/dl

What is the dosage for aspirin given to treat acute coronary​ syndrome?

162 to 324 mg of chewable baby aspirin

Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a​ 2-month-old child? A. 40​ breaths/min B. 32​ breaths/min C. 16​ breaths/min D. 28​ breaths/min

16​ breaths/min

When ventilating a child with inadequate​ respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be​ delivered? A. 15 per minute B. 24 per minute C. 20 per minute D. 12 per minute

20 per minute

Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions​ exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital​ setting?

3

Typically, how many shocks should you administer on scene before​ transport, assuming that the shocks are​ ineffective?

3

While caring for a​ 3-year-old child, assisted ventilations might be necessary if his respiratory rate exceeds how many breaths per minute A. 16 B. 24 C. 20 D. 30

30

If a shock is not​ indicated, how many cycles of CPR will you give before analyzing​ again?

5

Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an​ adult? A. 20​ breaths/min B. 16​ breaths/min C. 12​ breaths/min D. 8​ breaths/min

8​ breaths/min

In an ischemic​ stroke, what occludes an​ artery?

A clot or embolism Your answer is correct.

Which patient should be administered oxygen via nonrebreather​ mask? A. A patient is gurgling and in a tripod position. B. A patient is breathing much faster than the normal range. C. A patient has absent breath sounds and is presenting with​ grayish-blue skin. D. A patient has suffered trauma but is breathing adequately.

A patient has suffered trauma but is breathing adequately.

A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has​ a(n) ________% chance of having an acute stroke. A. 70 B. 60 C. 50 D. 80

A. 70

Which of the following would be an appropriate description of the reticular activating​ system? A. Wake and sleep center B. React and move center C. Feed or breed center D. Vegetative and thought center

A. Wake and sleep center

Which of the following would you expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient having an anaphylactic​ reaction? A. Wheezing B. ​Fine, wet crackles or rales C. ​Clear, adequate air movement D. ​Coarse-sounding rhonchi

A. Wheezing

A​ 45-year-old female is struggling to breathe. She has a history of COPD and smoking. You assess her accessory muscle use and hear wheezing on listening to her chest. Her vital signs are P​ 118, R​ 38, BP​ 119/70. After administering the appropriate amount of​ oxygen, you should​ NEXT: A. assist the patient with her bronchodilator according to your protocols. B. lay her down and raise her legs. C. administer four baby aspirins. D. administer an epinephrine​ self-injector.

A. assist the patient with her bronchodilator according to your protocols.

A​ 76-year-old male patient has been found with facial droop and paralysis to the left side of his body. His vital signs are P​ 88, R​ 20, BP​ 210/100. His oxygen saturation is​ 90%. You administer oxygen and initiate transport to the local stroke center. Ten minutes​ later, you note that he has recovered fully. You should​ NEXT: A. continue to the stroke center. B. discontinue the oxygen. C. divert to the nearest hospital. D. return the patient to his home.

A. continue to the stroke center.

You have administered epinephrine via​ auto-injector to a patient and disposed of the used injector in a portable biohazard container. Now​ you: A. document the​ patient's response to the medication. B. perform the secondary assessment. C. perform the primary assessment. D. take the​ patient's baseline vital signs.

A. document the​ patient's response to the medication.

The basic primary fuel for the cell​ is: A. glucose. B. glucagon. C. oxygen. D. carbon dioxide.

A. glucose.

Hemorrhagic stroke is frequently the result of​ long-standing A. high blood pressure. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD). C. blunt force trauma to the head. D. high sodium intake.

A. high blood pressure.

The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is​ called: A. hypoglycemia. B. hyperglycemia. C. diabetic ketoacidosis. D. diabetic coma.

A. hypoglycemia.

An allergic reaction is an abnormal response of​ the: A. immune system. B. nervous system. C. endocrine system. D. cardiac system.

A. immune system.

A​ 71-year-old female presents with respiratory distress. She has diminished lung sounds and​ slow, shallow respirations. You note that she is cyanotic and confused. The patient is presenting​ with: A. inadequate breathing. B. adequate breathing. C. tachypnea. D. apnea.

A. inadequate breathing.

Which of the following refers to any condition in which the heart may not be getting enough​ oxygen?

Acute coronary syndrome

Which of the following terms is used to represent any symptoms that are related to a lack of oxygen in the heart​ muscle?

Acute coronary syndrome

Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac​ care?

Administration of epinephrine

At which ages would 20 breaths per minute be within the range of​ normal? A. Child and infant B. Adult and infant C. ​Adult, child, and infant D. Adult and child

Adult and child

Which of the following would most likely be seen just prior to respiratory​ arrest? A. Breathing through the​ nose, not the mouth B. Very​ deep, rapid respirations C. Accessory respirations D. Agonal respirations

Agonal respirations

Which of the following are the MOST important treatment elements to consider in transporting a patient with​ seizures?

Airway and oxygen levels

Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the​ heart?

All of the above

Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in​ adults? A. Grunting respirations B. Nasal flaring C. ​See-sawing of the chest and abdomen D. All of the above

All of the above

If a patient reports an allergy to​ walnuts, what other foods should the patient probably​ avoid? A. Almonds B. Strawberries C. Crayfish D. Chocolate

Almonds Walnuts and almonds​ (or any tree​ nuts) may have​ cross-sensitivity.

Which of the following would BEST describe a patient who is experiencing shock and respiratory compromise after exposure to a known​ allergen? A. Local allergic reaction B. Anaphylaxis C. Moderate allergic reaction D. Mild allergic reaction

Anaphylaxis In​ anaphylaxis, also called anaphylactic​ shock, exposure to the allergen will cause blood vessels to rapidly dilate and cells to leak​ fluid, which will causes a drop in blood pressure​ (hypotension). Many tissues may​ swell, including those that line the respiratory system. This swelling can obstruct the​ airway, leading to respiratory failure.

Which of the following refers to chest pain that occurs when blood supply to the heart is reduced and a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough​ oxygen?

Angina

Which of the following skills is typically NOT used to manage the airway and breathing of a patient in cardiac​ arrest?

Application of oxygen via nasal cannula

Which of the following explains why a patient may experience difficulty breathing during​ anaphylaxis? A. Allergens bind to​ hemoglobin, preventing it from carrying oxygen. B. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing. C. Allergens clump together and block blood flow through the lungs. D. Swelling in the brain decreases the respiratory drive.

B. Swelling of the airway tissues causes difficulty breathing.

Which of the following findings is the MOST concerning in a patient with a suspected severe allergic​ reaction? A. Splotches and swelling of the hands and forearms B. Swollen face and tongue C. Hives on the chest D. ​Flushed, red skin throughout the body

B. Swollen face and tongue

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old male who was reportedly unconscious for a brief time. You learn that he regained consciousness in about 30 seconds. You find no evidence of drowsiness or neurological deficits. Which of the following is MOST likely the​ cause? A. Status epilepticus B. Syncope C. Hyperglycemia D. Stroke

B. Syncope

An​ 89-year-old male complains of an acute onset of shortness of breath. He notes it came on suddenly and awoke him from sleep. You note he is alert but has severe difficulty​ breathing, and you auscultate rales when listening to his lung sounds. His vital signs are P​ 128, R​ 44, BP​ 210/150. You​ should: A. assist the patient with his albuterol inhaler. B. initiate CPAP. C. await the arrival of ALS. D. initiate bilevel positive airway pressure ventilations.

B. initiate CPAP.

To prevent additional injuries during repeated​ seizures, you​ should: A. immediately transport the patient. B. move objects away from the patient. C. place the patient on his back. D. bind the​ patient's hands and feet.

B. move objects away from the patient.

In the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ (CPSS) screening​ method, arm drift is​ when: A. the palms of both hands face upward. B. one arm drifts compared to the other. C. both arms move equally. D. both arms are held to the​ patient's sides.

B. one arm drifts compared to the other.

There are two types of​ seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one area of her body and does not cause her to lose​ consciousness, it is called​ a: A. generalized seizure. B. partial seizure. C. postictal seizure. D. ​tonic-clonic seizure.

B. partial seizure.

Your​ 68-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath that has been getting worse over the past few days. He denies any history of COPD and has not experienced any penetrating trauma. He does have a​ low-grade fever. He says that he feels weak and has some chest pain. You provide supportive treatment including CPAP because his MOST likely problem​ is: A. pulmonary edema. B. pneumonia. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. pulmonary embolus.

B. pneumonia.

You respond to a​ 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient​ drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating​ the: A. aura phase. B. postictal phase. C. tonic phase. D. clonic phase.

B. postictal phase.

If medical control authorizes the administration of an epinephrine​ auto-injector, then you​ would: A. take the​ patient's vital signs. B. prepare the​ auto-injector for use by removing the safety cap. C. perform a primary assessment. D. obtain a SAMPLE history.

B. prepare the​ auto-injector for use by removing the safety

Your patient was experiencing anaphylaxis with severe hypoxia when you administered his epinephrine​ auto-injector. Within​ minutes, his oxygen saturation improved. What therapeutic effect of epinephrine would BEST explain this​ improvement? A. Reduction of vascular permeability B. Vasoconstriction C. Bronchodilation D. Increased heart rate

Bronchodilation Bronchodilation is a common therapeutic effect of epinephrine and would likely improve his oxygenation the most. Although epinephrine does cause the other​ effects, they are less likely to affect oxygenation levels.

After activating the​ auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the​ patient's thigh? A. 30 seconds B. It should be removed from the injection site immediately. C. 10 seconds D. 1 minute

C. 10 seconds

At what rate per minute should you ventilate an​ infant? A. 24 B. 16 C. 20 D. 12

C. 20

En route to the​ hospital, it is important to perform an ongoing assessment of the patient with breathing difficulty. While reevaluating your​ patient, remember​ that: A. moist skin usually correlates with an improving condition. B. a decrease in accessory muscle use is concerning. C. decreased wheezing may not indicate improvement. D. the use of an MDI may normally cause the heart rate to slow.

C. decreased wheezing may not indicate improvement.

Patients displaying altered mental status were lost for several hours in a desert area without food and water and temperatures in the high 90s. You would expect their altered mental status to be​ from: A. hypoglycemia. B. hyperglycemia. C. dehydration. D. hypoxia.

C. dehydration.

Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs​ is: A. do a thorough physical exam of the patient. B. transport the patient to a Level I Trauma Center. C. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms. D. transport to the closest hospital.

C. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses​ for: A. agitated emotional​ response, facial​ droop, and abnormal speech. B. arm​ drift, leg​ lift, and facial droop. C. facial​ droop, arm​ drift, and abnormal speech. D. abnormal​ speech, lack of pattern​ recognition, and lack of facial recognition.

C. facial​ droop, arm​ drift, and abnormal speech.

A seizure that occurs spontaneously from an unknown cause is​ called: A. hypoglycemic. B. ​tonic-clonic. C. idiopathic. D. hypoxic.

C. idiopathic.

Contraction of the diaphragm relates​ to: A. aspiration of foreign materials. B. relaxation of the lungs. C. intake of breath. D. expiration of breath.

C. intake of breath.

A hormone called insulin is secreted by​ the: A. gallbladder found in the pancreas. B. kidneys. C. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. D. islets of Langerhans in the liver.

C. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

A​ 17-year-old female has been actively seizing for over 5 minutes.​ The​ patient's jaw​ is​ clenched, and you note that she is cyanotic around her lips. Her vitals are​ P​ 130,​ R​ 18,​ BP​ 180/92. You​ should​ next: A. begin CPR. B. protect the patient from injury until the convulsions subside. C. maintain the airway and administer oxygen as approriate. D. reassess the patient.

C. maintain the airway and administer oxygen as approriate.

A patient carrying a prescribed epinephrine​ auto-injector: A. must use the device only if diagnosed as anaphylactic by a physician. B. may not legally allow anyone else to use the device. C. may ask you for assistance with using the device. D. will be proficient in its use.

C. may ask you for assistance with using the device.

A particular antibody combines​ with: A. an allergen it is exposed to for the first time. B. histamine and other chemicals released by the immune system. C. only the allergen it was formed in response to or a very similar allergen. D. any allergen that it comes into contact with.

C. only the allergen it was formed in response to or a very similar allergen.

Hyperglycemia typically​ develops: A. over the course of an hour or so. B. in a few seconds. C. over days or even weeks. D. in a few minutes.

C. over days or even weeks.

If your patient is breathing adequately but with​ difficulty, you should​ first: A. verify breathing difficulty by using a pulse oximeter. B. contact medical control for permission to administer nitroglycerin. C. provide supplemental oxygen D. begin artificial ventilations.

C. provide supplemental oxygen

You have used an ​Auvi-Q device to administer epinephrine to a patient. Now you​ should: A. hold the device in place for 10 seconds. B. document the​ patient's response to the medication. C. put the outer case back on. D. dispose of the device in a biohazard container.

C. put the outer case back on.

Your patient is a​ 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your​ arrival, you introduce yourself to the​ patient, who​ responds, "Not until nine​ o'clock," but shows no actual understanding of what you just said. This phenomenon is BEST described​ as: A. expressive aphasia. B. disorientation to time. C. receptive aphasia. D. unresponsive to verbal stimuli.

C. receptive aphasia.

Normal breathing​ is: A. always regular. B. different for every individual. C. regular under most circumstances. D. shallow and irregular.

C. regular under most circumstances.

During normal​ exhalation, the​ diaphragm: A. dilates. B. contracts. C. relaxes. D. constricts.

C. relaxes.

You are called to a scene at which multiple patients are seizing at the same time. The likely cause​ is: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypoxia. C. something environmental at the scene. D. metabolic.

C. something environmental at the scene.

Some EMS systems allow administration of intranasal glucagon to patients who are A. combative because their​ fight-or-flight response. B. intolerant of the taste of oral glucose. C. unable to safely swallow oral glucose. D. responsive and alert.

C. unable to safely swallow oral glucose.

A​ 17-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. When you listen to her chest you hear high pitched​ "squeaking" sounds in her lower airways. These sounds would best be described​ as: A. stridor. B. rhonchi. C. wheezes. D. crackles.

C. wheezes.

A​ 45-year-old male has dyspnea associated with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which of the following would be the MOST important​ treatment? A. CPAP B. ​Fowler's position C. ​High-concentration oxygen D. Assist with a bronchodilator

C. ​High-concentration oxygen

Which of the following is the most critical piece of equipment to have immediately available for the seizure patient who has just stopped​ convulsing? A. Cervical collar B. Suctioning equipment C. Bite block D. Glucometer

C. Suctioning equipment

You respond to the scene of a​ 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a​ "little sick" for the past two​ days, but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has​ "heart problems," suffers from high blood​ pressure, and takes a​ "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles​ (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory​ distress?

Congestive heart failure

Treatment of someone with a seizure disorder includes all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. placing the patient on the floor or ground. B. loosening restrictive clothing. C. removing objects that might harm the patient. D. placing a bite block in the​ patient's mouth so he does not bite his tongue.

D. placing a bite block in the​ patient's mouth so he does not bite his tongue.

After administering oral glucose to a patient in a diabetic​ emergency, you​ should: A. perform a primary assessment. B. find out if the patient has a history of diabetes. C. take the​ patient's vital signs. D. reassess the patient.

D. reassess the patient.

Patients with COPD often get progressively worse and call an ambulance because​ of: A. pulmonary embolism. B. pneumothorax. C. upper airway obstruction. D. recent upper respiratory infection.

D. recent upper respiratory infection.

In​ hyperglycemia, increasing blood sugar levels starve the cells of the body​ for: A. oxygen. B. insulin. C. fats. D. sugar.

D. sugar.

One of the criteria for administering oral glucose is the patient having a history of diabetes. The point at which you would typically ask about whether the patient has a history of diabetes is​ when: A. gathering a history of the present episode. B. performing a primary assessment. C. reassessing the patient. D. taking the SAMPLE history.

D. taking the SAMPLE history.

Following an epinephrine​ injection, reassessment should occur​ during: A. administration of a second injection. B. contact with medical control. C. disposal of the injector. D. transport.

D. transport.

Administer oxygen to a pediatric patient and transport as quickly as possible if the patient​ begins: A. sighing or snoring. B. sighing or wheezing. C. grunting or snoring. D. wheezing or grunting.

D. wheezing or grunting.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from​ anaphylaxis? A. ​"I am having severe muscle​ pains." B. ​"I can't remember what​ happened." C. ​"My legs are numb and I​ can't move​ them." D. ​"My throat feels like it is​ closing."

D. ​"My throat feels like it is​ closing."

What change in vital signs would typically indicate that patient with an allergic reaction has progressed to​ anaphylaxis? A. Hypertension B. Bradycardia C. Bradypnea D. Decreased oxygen saturation

Decreased oxygen saturation Decreased oxygen saturation along with​ tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea are vital signs associated with anaphylaxis.

Which of the following will provide a cardiac arrest patient the greatest chance of​ survival?

Defibrillation within two minutes

Which of the following does NOT occur during​ inspiration? A. Chest cavity increases in size B. Intercostal muscles contract C. Diaphragm relaxes D. Diaphragm lowers

Diaphragm relaxes

What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the​ heart?

Dysrhythmia

What of the following is the single MOST important factor in determining survival from cardiac​ arrest?

Early CPR

Which intervention is proven to be the most effective is obtaining a return of spontaneous circulation​ (ROSC) in a cardiac arrest​ patient?

Early defibrillation

Which of the following BEST describes the​ EMT's intended role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac​ care?

Early defibrillation

Which of the following would NOT be considered an element of​ post-cardiac arrest​ care?

Early defibrillation

You are on the scene of a​ 3-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states the child rapidly developed a sore throat and he was found in the tripod position. He is crying and drooling profusely. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Child abuse B. Strep throat C. Croup D. Epiglottitis

Epiglottitis

Your patient is a​ 6-year-old male who appears very​ anxious, is using increased effort during​ expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The​ patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the​ patient's distress? A. Pneumonia B. Epiglottitis C. COPD D. Cystic fibrosis

Epiglottitis

Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed​ inhaler? A. Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray. B. Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible. C. Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator. D. Do not use the​ patient's inhaler because you do not know how the medication has been stored.

Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.

Which of the following is an expected side effect of​ aspirin?

Heartburn

You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this​ patient?

His pain will not be alleviated by any of the medications administered by EMTs.

In an allergic​ reaction, what substance released by mast cells and basophils causes​ bronchoconstriction, promotion of thick mucus production in the​ lungs, vasodilation, and increased vascular​ permeability? A. Adrenaline B. Histamine C. Basophils D. Plasma

Histamine Histamine is a potent substance that causes​ bronchoconstriction, promotion of thick mucus production in the​ lungs, vasodilation, and increased vascular permeability. Histamine acts by activating specialized histamine receptors that are present throughout the body. These are released with degranulation of immune cells during an allergic reaction. Basophils are components of the immune system. Plasma is the liquid portion of the blood. Adrenaline is otherwise known as epinephrine and is a neurotransmitter for the autonomic nervous system.

Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure​ (CPAP) can include which of the​ following? A. Audible rhonchi B. History of pulmonary fibrosis C. Audible wheezing D. History of obstructive sleep apnea

History of pulmonary fibrosis

What is not part of the cardiovascular​ system?

Hormones

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause an altered mental​ status?

Hypoxia

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a continuous quality improvement program for​ AED?

Improving patient outcomes in the community

Which of the following statements about infarction is​ CORRECT?

Infarction is commonly the result of a totally occluded coronary blood vessel.

Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is​ TRUE?

It can be brought on by exertion or stress.

Which of the following patients does not definitely require the intervention of assisted ventilations with a pocket face​ mask, bag-valve​ mask, or​ FROPVD? A. Patient with cyanosis B. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm C. Patient whose breath sounds cannot be heard D. Patient with agonal respirations

Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm

Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac​ patients?

Pedal edema

What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by​ bacteria, viruses, or​ fungi? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary edema D. Pulmonary embolism

Pneumonia

You are transporting a​ 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are five minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of​ action?

Tell the driver to​ stop, analyze the cardiac​ rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

Which of the following statements about the AED is​ correct?

The AED can encounter difficulty in analyzing a rhythm in a moving vehicle.

When using an​ AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to​ "clear" the patient before delivering a​ shock?

The EMT operating the defibrillator

Which of the following is true concerning​ expiration? A. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. B. The ribs move upward and outward. C. The chest cavity increases in size. D. The diaphragm moves upward.

The diaphragm moves upward.

A​ 65-year-old male complains of chest pain that started about 45 minutes ago and is radiating up to his jaw. He feels nauseous and has very little energy. His vitals are respirations of​ 24, pulse of​ 110, and BP of​ 88/60. What would make you decide to transport this​ patient?

The low blood pressure reading

You are on the scene of a​ 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states that it feels​ "just like the last​ time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is five minutes​ away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes​ away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his​ cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best​ destination?

The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization

Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with​ administering? A. Two sprays B. As needed until respiratory status improves C. The number of sprays directed by medical control D. One spray

The number of sprays directed by medical control

Which of the following BEST describes the pain associated with acute coronary​ syndrome?

The pain may be chest​ pressure, mild​ discomfort, or not present at all.

After administration of nitroglycerin to a patient with chest​ pain, which is a side effect you MOST might expect to​ see?

The patient develops a headache.

Which of the following situations could contraindicate the administration of​ aspirin?

The patient has a history of GI bleeding.

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be​ prohibited?

The patient has a history of asthma.

What finding is LEAST likely to make an EMT suspect an allergic​ reaction? A. The patient has dry eyes and nose. B. The patient shows signs or symptoms of shock. C. The patient has come into contact with an allergen that has caused an allergic reaction in the past. D. The patient complains of​ itching, hives, or difficulty breathing.

The patient has dry eyes and nose. Dry eyes and nose would not be a signs of an allergic reaction and would be least likely of these findings to make an EMT suspect an allergic reaction.

Which of the following is a contraindication for use of the​ AED?

The patient is in contact with metal.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is​ "no shock​ advised"?

The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is​ TRUE?

The patient may complain of a headache following administration.

Which of the following findings from the SAMPLE and OPQRST history of a seizure patient is of GREATEST concern to the​ EMT?

The patient stopped taking his antiseizure medicine.

Of four patients who you know to​ have, respectively,​ epiglottis, pneumonia, pulmonary edema from congestive heart​ failure, and a viral respiratory​ infection, for which patient would you expect to focus primarily on keeping the patient calm and​ comfortable, even if that means not administering oxygen if the patient is distressed by​ that? A. The patient with epiglottitis B. The patient with pulmonary edema C. The patient with a viral respiratory infection D. The patient with pneumonia

The patient with epiglottitis

To which of the following hypoglycemic seizure patients should the EMT administer oral​ glucose?

The postictal patient who can manage his or her own airway

Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric​ patient? A. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth. B. The breath is delivered easily. C. The pulse rate slows down. D. The pulse rate increases.

The pulse rate increases.

While assessing the airway of a pediatric​ patient, you will notice that it is different from that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those​ differences? A. The tongue is​ smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. B. The chest wall is​ softer, making it easier for the chest to expand. C. The cricoid cartilage is less​ developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. D. The trachea is​ smaller, softer, and more​ flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed

The trachea is​ smaller, softer, and more​ flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed

Which of the following is a benefit of using​ small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory​ problems? A. They allow greater exposure of the​ patient's lungs to the medication. B. They will work even when the​ patient's ventilations are inadequate. C. The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. D. Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler.

They allow greater exposure of the​ patient's lungs to the medication.

You are first on the scene of a​ 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is​ effective? A. The​ patient's skin color remains the same. B. You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute. C. The​ patient's pulse returns to normal. D. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.

The​ patient's pulse returns to normal.

A​ 62-year-old male complains of weakness on one side of his body and slurred speech. After you arrive and evaluate the​ patient, you notice that the symptoms are beginning to subside. What is the likely cause of the​ patient's condition?

Transient ischemic attack

Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory​ problems? A. Sleepiness B. Tremors C. Trapped air in the lungs D. Decreased heart rate

Tremors

What is the MOST common reason for the​ AED's delivering a shock​ inappropriately?

User error

Which of the following is characterized by​ sudden, temporary loss of consciousness caused by insufficient blood flow to the​ brain, with return of consciousness almost immediately on becoming​ supine?

Vasovagal syncope

A paramedic unit has arrived on the scene of a cardiac arrest where you have been performing CPR and using an AED. The crew has started an IV and inserted an endotracheal tube. How will this change how you do your​ job?

Ventilations may be delivered asynchronously from chest compressions now.

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a​ pulse?

Ventricular fibrillation

Automatic defibrillation is NOT appropriate in most cases of infant cardiac arrest due to which of the​ following?

Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient.

In which of the following dysrhythmias would it be most important to apply and engage an automatic external​ defibrillator?

Ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory​ obstruction? A. Wheezing B. Rhonchi C. Stridor D. Crowing

Wheezing

An EMT is performing a secondary assessment of patients involved in a building fire who have experienced breathing difficulty. Which question the EMT asks most clearly involves the OPQRST memory​ aid? A. Have you gained weight​ recently? B. Are you taking any new​ medications? C. When did the breathing difficulty​ begin? D. Have you traveled to another country​ recently?

When did the breathing difficulty​ begin?

When should the EMT expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma​ attack? A. While breathing in B. In between breaths C. While holding his breath D. While breathing out

While breathing out

You must reassess your patient within two minutes after administering​ nitroglycerin, as one of the side effects​ is:

a decrease in blood pressure.

One of the side effects of administering nitroglycerin to a cardiac patient could​ involve:

a drop in blood pressure.

Hyperglycemia is often due​ to:

a lack of insulin.

Your patient was pulseless but had a return of spontaneous pulses after one shock from the AED. Before​ transport, you notice that the patient is again unresponsive. You should​ NEXT:

check the pulse.

An indication for aspirin is​ a:

complaint of chest pain.

All of the following are elements of adult​ high-performance CPR,​ EXCEPT:

compressing the​ patient's chest about one inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.

An​ 80-year-old male is presenting with pedal​ edema, JVD, and dyspnea. You should​ suspect:

congestive heart failure.

A patient experiencing disorientation and a lowered state of alertness is experiencing a failure of the reticular activating system​ (RAS), which is responsible​ for:

consciousness.

ALS personnel have just placed an advanced airway in an adult cardiac arrest patient. You​ should:

deliver asynchronous ventilations at 8 to 10 breaths per minute.

A stroke cannot happen​ without:

deprivation of oxygen to the brain tissue.

In the cardiac conductive​ system, what cause the heart to contract are specialized muscles​ and:

electrical impulses.

For both the Lucas and​ Auto-Pulse CPR​ devices, you would take Standard Precautions​ and:

ensure CPR is in progress and effective.

Syncope​ is:

fainting.

In taking the history of a patient who has had a convulsive​ seizure, you discover the patient is​ epileptic, which means that the patient experiences​ seizures:

from an unknown cause.

The postictal phase of a​ tonic-clonic seizure involves the patient transitioning from full loss of consciousness​ to:

full mental status.

Which of the following substances specifically nourishes the brain to enable​ consciousness?

glucose

Urticaria is another term​ for: A. severe itching. B. hives. C. bronchoconstriction. D. swelling of the face.

hives. Urticaria is another term for​ hives:, which are​ red, itchy, possibly raised blotches on the skin. Severe itching is known as pruritus. Swelling is known as edema.

For a patient who is​ hypoxic, hyperglycemic,​ dehydrated, and with altered mental​ status, you would expect that what would MOST make this patient prone to a seizure would be​ the:

hypoxia.

If a patient experiencing cardiac compromise does not complain of​ dyspnea, then it​ is:

important to ask the patient about breathing difficulty.

When administering epinephrine via​ auto-injector, you should place the tip of the device against​ the: A. posterior portion of​ the​ patient's lower arm. B. lateral portion of​ the​ patient's thigh. C. lateral portion of​ the​ patient's neck. D. anterior portion of​ the​ patient's upper arm.

lateral portion of​ the​ patient's thigh. The​ auto-injector is simple to use. It is activated by being pressed against the​ patient's thigh. The pressure releases a​ spring-activated plunger, pushing the concealed needle into the thigh muscle and injecting a dose of the drug. The anterolateral portion of the thigh midway between the waist and knee is preferred because it provides the fastest absorption and the highest peak blood concentration of the medication.

When using a mechanical CPR​ device, you​ should:

limit interruptions in chest compressions to 10 seconds or less.

You suspect that your patient is experiencing acute coronary syndrome. Your hospital destination should be determined​ by:

local protocols.

A patient with a ventricular assist device​ will:

not have a palpable pulse or blood pressure.

You just administered an EpiPen​® to your patient. The patient is improved but is now complaining of chest pain. You​ should: A. administer nitroglycerin. B. tell the patient that this is normal. C. notify medical direction. D. administer another dose of epinephrine.

notify medical direction. The​ patient's chest pain may be a temporary side effect of the medication or something more serious. Contact medical direction for assistance. You should not administer more epinephrine. Medical control may consider​ nitroglycerin, but this would be rare in a patient who is sick enough to require epinephrine.

To optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a potential candidate for​ thrombolytics, an EMT can determine and document the exact time​ of:

onset of symptoms.

A person in a hypoxic state experiences an altered mental​ status, because in the reticular activating​ system, oxygen is needed​ to:

perfuse the brain tissue.

A​ 45-year-old male presents agitated and confused. Your assessment identifies an oxygen saturation of​ 90%. You should​ next:

administer oxygen.

Today patients with cystic fibrosis are surviving​ to: A. older adulthood. B. adulthood. C. infancy. D. toddler years

adulthood.

As you arrive for a patient in cardiac​ arrest, bystanders are analyzing the patient with an AED. You​ should:

allow the AED to shock before you take over care.

When assessing the​ patient's symptoms, you​ should:

allow the patient to describe symptoms in his own words.

A​ 17-year-old male presents with itchy skin after exposure to peanuts. He is allergic to peanuts. The findings at this point​ indicate: A. an anxiety attack. B. an anaphylactic reaction. C. a skin infection. D. an allergic reaction.

an allergic reaction. Itchy skin after an exposure to a known allergen is considered a sign of an allergic reaction. No further signs have materialized​ yet, so he has not yet progressed to anaphylaxis. To be considered a severe allergic​ reaction, or​ anaphylaxis, the patient must have either respiratory distress or signs and symptoms of shock. Skin signs are an important sign of allergy that should be recognized and associated with a reaction.

The word for a weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may​ rupture, causing catastrophic​ bleeding, is:

aneurysm.

Your patient has a weakened section of the arterial wall that is ballooning. This is known as​ a(n):

aneurysm.

Proteins produced by the body that search for invaders and destroy them are​ called: A. antigens. B. platelets. C. antibodies. D. allergens.

antibodies. The first time a foreign antigen is introduced into the​ body, the immune system will make antibodies and attach them to mast cells and basophils so that the next time that antigen is introduced into the​ body, the immune system has a mechanism by which to protect itself. An allergen is the substance that elicits an allergic reaction. An antigen is simply a foreign substance. A platelet is the clotting component of the blood.

Administer oxygen to your chest pain patient to maintain an oxygen saturation level​ of:

at least 94 percent.

You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon​ arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her​ 3-year-old daughter was playing in the​ yard, accidentally stepped on a​ hornets' nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is​ alert, screaming and​ crying, and can follow her​ mother's commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure​ 90/40, pulse​ 110, respiratory rate​ 24, and oxygen saturation​ 99%. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put​ "nox-a-sting" on the sting sites but the hives only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering​ from? A. Allergic reaction most likely from the​ hornets' stings B. Moderate anaphylactic reaction C. Minor anaphylactic reaction D. Anaphylactic reaction from the​ "nox-a-sting" swabs

A. Allergic reaction most likely from the​ hornets' stings

A​ 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of​ itchy, watery eyes. She describes a feeling of impending​ doom, she is sweating​ profusely, and she has an elevated heart rate and respiratory​ rate, although she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her​ condition? A. Anaphylaxis B. Mild allergy C. Dyspnea D. Tachycardia

A. Anaphylaxis

As you prepare to enter a​ patient's room in a nursing​ home, you see a sign posted on the door indicating that the patient has a latex allergy. Which of the following is the BEST way to care for the​ patient? A. Ask the nursing facility staff to find​ non-latex exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient. B. Only perform a history on this​ patient, not a physical​ exam, so you can avoid contacting him with your gloves. C. Ask the nursing staff if the patient has an epinephrine​ auto-injector available in case of a reaction to your gloves. D. Put on latex gloves​ anyway; you must protect yourself with BSI.

A. Ask the nursing facility staff to find​ non-latex exam gloves to wear for contact with this patient.

You are transporting a​ 41-year-old female suffering from severe anaphylaxis. Her respiratory rate is 42 per​ minute, she is​ cyanotic, and she has a decreased level of responsiveness. Which of the following is the highest priority of care for this​ patient? A. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask. B. Elevate the​ patient's head. C. Search for an epinephrine​ auto-injector. D. Transport rapidly.

A. Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask.

Why are nausea and vomiting a contraindication to​ CPAP? A. CPAP may cause an increased risk of aspiration. B. A nauseated person cannot tolerate the mask. C. CPAP may lead to a pneumothorax. D. The corneas of the eyes may become dried.

A. CPAP may cause an increased risk of aspiration.

What effect does epinephrine have on the blood​ vessels? A. Constriction B. Dilation. C. Distension. D. Perfusion

A. Constriction

You are unsure if a​ patient's condition requires the administration of an epinephrine​ auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most​ appropriate? A. Consult medical direction. B. Ask the patient what he or she would prefer. C. Administer the​ epinephrine, just in case. D. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation in which the patient usually takes his​ auto-injector.

A. Consult medical direction.

Your patient has a history of severe anaphylaxis and carries several​ auto-injectors. You have administered one of the​ auto-injectors, but the​ patient's condition continues to worsen. Which of the following is the next best course of​ action? A. Contact medical control. B. Divert transport to a hospital with critical care capabilities. C. Immediately administer a second​ auto-injector. D. Continue supportive care in route to the hospital.

A. Contact medical control.

Which of the following is a good sign in adults with respiratory distress but an ominous sign in infants and​ children? A. Decrease in pulse B. Increase in blood pressure C. Decrease in blood pressure D. Increase in pulse

A. Decrease in pulse

Your patient is a​ 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. She has no previous history of seizures or any other medical condition. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the​ seizure? A. Eclampsia B. Congenital brain defects C. Hypoglycemia D. Trauma

A. Eclampsia

Which of the following involves relaxation of the rib muscles and the​ diaphragm? A. Exhalation and expiration B. Exhalation and inhalation C. Inhalation and inspiration D. Inspiration and expiration

A. Exhalation and expiration

A patient with a history of seizures experiences a seizure for no apparent reason. What is the likely​ cause? A. Failure to take prescribed medication B. Fever C. Withdrawal from alcohol D. Head trauma

A. Failure to take prescribed medication

What is more characteristic of anaphylaxis than a less severe allergic​ reaction? A. Generalized pallor B. Itching C. Swelling D. Wheezing

A. Generalized pallor

What is a skin texture sign common to both anaphylaxis and less severe allergic​ reactions? A. Hives B. Flushing C. Pallor D. Wheezing

A. Hives

Which of the following does a physician NOT take into consideration when writing a prescription for a patient to obtain an epinephrine​ auto-injector? A. How far the patient lives from medical attention B. ​Patient's medical history C. Severity of previous allergic reactions D. ​Patient's known allergies

A. How far the patient lives from medical attention

What statement BEST distinguishes type 1 from type 2​ diabetes? A. In type 1​ diabetes, the pancreas does not secrete insulin​ normally, but in type 2​ diabetes, the​ body's cells fail to use insulin properly. B. Type 1 is typically far less severe than type 2. C. In type 1​ diabetes, too much insulin is the​ problem, and in type 2​ diabetes, too little insulin is the problem. D. Type 1 diabetes is known as​ non-insulin-dependent diabetes, and type 2 diabetes is known as​ insulin-dependent diabetes.

A. In type 1​ diabetes, the pancreas does not secrete insulin​ normally, but in type 2​ diabetes, the​ body's cells fail to use insulin properly.

Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic​ patient? A. Vomiting after eating a meal B. Lack of exercise C. Failure to take insulin or oral diabetes medications D. Overeating

A. Vomiting after eating a meal

You are on the scene of a​ 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The​ patient's mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first​ action? A. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask. B. Administer epinephrine with medical control consent. C. Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis. D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask.

A. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask.

Which of the following medications is used in some​ fast-acting emergency​ inhalers? A. Ipratropium B. Metoprolol C. Pentothal D. Pravachol

A. Ipratropium

What is a limitation of a nonrebreather​ mask? A. It requires adequate breathing to pull oxygen into the lungs. B. It should only be used with patients who are not breathing. C. It does not work with pediatric patients. D. It is contraindicated in patients who require supplemental oxygen.

A. It requires adequate breathing to pull oxygen into the lungs.

A​ 3-year-old male complains of breathing difficulty. You assess stridor and excessive drooling. What would you expect the​ patient's breathing effort to​ be? A. Labored B. Irregular C. Adequate D. Absent

A. Labored

Under what circumstance can an EMT use a glucometer to determine a​ patient's blood glucose​ level? A. Only if allowed by medical direction and local protocols B. Only if no higher level of EMS is available C. Under no circumstance D. If the patient allows it and signs a release first

A. Only if allowed by medical direction and local protocols

For the reticular activating system​ (RAS) to work​ correctly, what three substances are​ needed? A. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, glucose to nourish brain​ tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated B. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, glucose to nourish brain​ tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated C. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, insulin to nourish brain​ tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated D. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, insulin to nourish brain​ tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated

A. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, glucose to nourish brain​ tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated

Which of the following foods is MOST likely to cause a severe allergic​ reaction? A. Peanuts B. Beets C. Celery D. Rice

A. Peanuts

Which of the following is the proper method of disposing a used epinephrine​ auto-injector? A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container. B. Bend the needle at an angle to prevent accidental punctures and place it in the trash. C. Leave it at the scene for the patient or his family to dispose of. D. Take it to the hospital for disposal in the emergency department.

A. Place the device in a rigid biohazardous sharps disposal container.

Your patient is an unresponsive​ 30-year-old male wearing a​ Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The​ patient's coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Protect the​ patient's airway, administer​ oxygen, and consider assessing the​ patient's blood glucose per local protocol. B. Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar before taking any further action. C. Use the​ patient's glucometer to check his blood sugar level. D. Administer oral​ glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in​ hyperglycemia, but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic.

A. Protect the​ patient's airway, administer​ oxygen, and consider assessing the​ patient's blood glucose per local protocol.

Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia.​ However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list​ below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of​ hyperglycemia? A. Reduced rate of breathing B. Excessive urination C. Chronic thirst D. Nausea

A. Reduced rate of breathing

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is more common in pediatric patients than in patients in other age​ groups? A. Seesaw breathing B. Cyanosis C. Tachypnea D. Accessory muscle use

A. Seesaw breathing

Which of the following is the BIGGEST contributing factor to​ COPD? A. Smoking B. Burn injuries C. Age D. Chemical exposure

A. Smoking

A​ 2-year-old male is having severe respiratory distress caused by a partial obstruction of his upper airway by a foreign object. Which of the following sounds would most likely be associated with this​ condition? A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Wheezing D. Crackles

A. Stridor

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of an allergic reaction involving the​ skin? A. Stridor B. Itching C. Hives D. Flushing

A. Stridor

Your patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. You ask the patient when this began. What part of OPQRST does this fall​ under? A. T B. Q C. P D. S

A. T

Which of the items below is NOT part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale? A. Test for equal grip strength. B. Ask the patient to smile. C. Test the patient for arm droop or lack of movement. D. Have the patient repeat a simple sentence.

A. Test for equal grip strength.

What is the BEST way to determine whether artificial ventilations are​ adequate? A. The​ patient's chest will rise and fall with each ventilation. B. The​ patient's color will improve. C. The​ patient's LOC will improve. D. The​ patient's SpO2 will increase.

A. The​ patient's chest will rise and fall with each ventilation.

Which of the following BEST describes status​ epilepticus? A. Two or more seizures with​ tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness B. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body C. A period of drowsiness following​ tonic-clonic seizures D. A seizure that occurs without a known cause

A. Two or more seizures with​ tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

A​ 16-year-old male athlete suffered a syncopal episode while playing soccer on a​ hot, humid day. You find him lying supine and complaining of dizziness. He has no apparent injuries. You​ should: A. keep the patient supine and allow him to slowly recover. Consider ALS​ and/or transport. B. apply​ high-concentration oxygen and transport in Trendelenburg position. C. initiate​ high-priority transport to the nearest hospital and intercept with ALS. D. ask the patient to stand while you take his pulse and blood pressure.

A. keep the patient supine and allow him to slowly recover. Consider ALS​ and/or transport.

A dose of oral glucose gel in a​ toothpaste-type tube​ is: A. one tube. B. a quarter of a tube. C. half a tube. D. dependent on the​ patient's glucose level.

A. one tube.

The medical term for fainting​ is: A. syncope. B. dehydration. C. altered RAS status. D. vertigo.

A. syncope.

You are taking the history of a​ 35-year-old male patient who is unresponsive in the postictal phase of a​ tonic-clonic seizure from the​ patient's spouse, who informs you that the patient has been taking a prescribed medication for managing generalized seizures for several months. Based on this​ information, you suspect it is MOST likely​ that: A. the patient failed to take his prescribed medication. B. the prescribed​ medication's dosage was probably insufficient to manage the​ patient's seizures. C. the prescribed medication has expired without the patient realizing it. D. the prescribed medication is not correct for the​ patient's type of seizure.

A. the patient failed to take his prescribed medication.

A CPAP device that has no​ machine: A. uses the Venturi principle. B. uses only as much oxygen as a patient needs. C. administers oxygen slowly. D. requires a battery to operate.

A. uses the Venturi principle.

A​ 29-year-old female complains of a sore throat and runny nose for three days. Today she notes she is having difficulty breathing due to frequent and severe coughing spells. She is alert and oriented and her vital signs are P​ 84, R​ 20, BP​ 122/80. Given her​ symptoms, you should​ suspect: A. viral respiratory infection. B. pulmonary embolism. C. asthma. D. COPD.

A. viral respiratory infection.

The​ insulin-glucose relationship has been described as a​ "lock and​ key" mechanism​ because: A. without the insulin​ "key," glucose cannot enter the locked cells. B. insulin is the​ "key" to unlocking cells storing glucose. C. without the glucose​ "key," insulin cannot enter the locked cells. D. glucose is the​ "key" to unlocking cells storing insulin.

A. without the insulin​ "key," glucose cannot enter the locked cells.

After properly measuring a​ patient's blood glucose​ level, the glucometer displays a reading that displays the word​ "low." This finding would​ indicate: A. hypoglycemia. B. normal blood glucose level. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypoxemia.

A. hypoglycemia.

Your patient is a​ 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail​ beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask​ device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following would you assess should be your next​ action? A. Have your partner restrain the​ patient's hands so that you can ventilate her. B. Wait for the​ patient's level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. C. Obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs and full patient history. D. Apply supplemental oxygen and be prepared to assist her ventilations as needed.

Apply supplemental oxygen and be prepared to assist her ventilations as needed.

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for four to five minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing​ high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first​ action?

Apply the AED.

You are the first on the scene of a​ 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply​ kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of​ high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open​ airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do​ next?

Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

Your patient is a​ 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your​ arrival, the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do​ next? A. Contact medical control. B. Assist the​ patient's ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask device and supplemental oxygen. C. Check the​ patient's oxygen saturation level. D. Assist the patient with his inhaler.

Assist the​ patient's ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask device and supplemental oxygen.

Your patient is a​ 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an​ AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done​ next?

Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest.

Which of the following is a contraindication for​ aspirin?

Asthma

Which of the following would NOT be corrected by​ defibrillation?

Asystole

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator​ applied?

A​ 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic

At what rate per minute should you ventilate an adult patient who is not​ breathing? A. 24 B. 12 C. 20 D. 16

B. 12

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an​ adult? A. 180​ mg/dL B. 80​ mg/dL C. 40​ mg/dL D. 150​ mg/dL

B. 80​ mg/dL

What is​ epilepsy? A. A condition in which a person has an aura followed by a seizure and that is usually controlled by medication. B. A condition in which a person has multiple seizures and that is usually controlled by medication. C. A condition in which a person has general seizures that start in childhood. D. A condition caused by congenital brain abnormalities that causes seizures only once or twice a year.

B. A condition in which a person has multiple seizures and that is usually controlled by medication.

Which of the following situations would MOST likely lead to​ hyperglycemia? A. A patient fails to eat adequately after​ self-administering insulin. B. A patient forgets to​ self-administer insulin. C. A patient​ self-administers too much insulin. D. A patient overexercises after​ self-administering insulin.

B. A patient forgets to​ self-administer insulin.

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in mild respiratory distress. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A​ Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do​ first? A. Perform rapid extrication. B. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen. C. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts. D. Search the patient for an epinephrine​ auto-injector.

B. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen.

What is another name for a severe allergic​ reaction? A. Asthma B. Anaphylaxis C. Dermatitis D. Psychosomatic reaction

B. Anaphylaxis

Which of the following refers to difficulty in speaking or understanding speech as a result of a​ stroke? A. Ischemia B. Aphasia C. Hemiparesis D. Ataxia

B. Aphasia

Which of the following is classified as​ COPD? A. Asthma B. Black lung disease C. Pneumonia D. Congestive heart failure

B. Black lung disease

Your patient is a​ 45-year-old female who is allergic to sesame​ seeds, which she accidentally ingested when she ate a deli sandwich. She is having difficulty​ breathing, and she has​ hives, watery​ eyes, a weak pulse of 120 per​ minute, and swelling of the face and tongue. Which of the following is the BEST course of immediate​ action? A. Transport immediately. B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the​ patient's epinephrine​ auto-injector. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway​ (OPA). D. Contact dispatch to see where the closest ALS unit is.

B. Contact medical control for orders to administer the​ patient's epinephrine​ auto-injector.

If a patient was having a myocardial​ infarction, not an allergic​ reaction, and received an epinephrine​ auto-injection, which of the following would most likely​ occur? A. No reaction if administered inadvertently B. Stronger and faster heartbeat C. Bradycardia D. Relief of shortness of breath

B. Stronger and faster heartbeat

When assessing a patient for a possible​ stroke, which of the following three functions should be tested by the​ EMT? A. ​Memory, ability to​ speak, and ability to track movement with the eyes B. Control of facial​ muscles, ability to​ speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds C. Ability to​ walk, ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10​ seconds, and ability to name common objects D. Ability to​ walk, control of facial​ muscles, and balance

B. Control of facial​ muscles, ability to​ speak, and ability to hold both arms in an extended position for 10 seconds

Which of the following sounds is created by the presence of fluid in the alveoli and the very small airways of the​ lungs? A. Stridor B. Crackles C. Gurgling Your answer is not correct.D. Wheezes

B. Crackles

Which of the following structures separates the thoracic and abdominal​ cavities? A. Thoracic cage B. Diaphragm C. Transverse line D. Mediastinum

B. Diaphragm

Which of the following occurs to blood vessels during an anaphylactic​ reaction? A. No change B. Dilation C. Constriction D. Spasm

B. Dilation

Upon examining the​ patient's auto-injector, you notice that the contents are yellow and contain particulate matter. What should you​ do? A. Administer the​ epinephrine; this is normal. B. Do not administer the​ auto-injector and seek an alternative source for epinephrine. C. The drug has increased in​ concentration; administer only half the usual dosage. D. Because the​ auto-injector is​ sealed, discoloration is impossible.

B. Do not administer the​ auto-injector and seek an alternative source for epinephrine.

During your primary​ assessment, you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the​ following? A. The need for suctioning of the airway B. Failing respiratory system C. Problems with the RAS due to hypertension D. The need for rapid transport

B. Failing respiratory system

You are reassessing a patient to whom you have administered oxygen and an MDI for respiratory distress. During your​ reassessment, you find that there is only slight expiratory​ wheezing, the pulse oximetry is​ 97%, the patient is speaking in full​ sentences, and the​ patient's color is good. Given these​ findings, which of the choices best characterizes the​ patient? A. He is displaying respiratory arrest. B. He is displaying mild breathing difficulty. C. He is displaying inadequate ventilations. D. He is displaying normal breathing.

B. He is displaying mild breathing difficulty.

Which of the following is caused by a histamine release during an allergic​ reaction? A. Vasoconstriction B. Increased leakage of fluids from blood vessels C. Bronchodilation D. Drying and reduction of mucus in the bronchi of the lungs

B. Increased leakage of fluids from blood vessels

Compared to​ hypoglycemia, which of the following is true of​ hyperglycemia? A. Its onset is more sudden. B. Its onset is more gradual. C. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia. D. Its onset is preceded by an​ aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.

B. Its onset is more gradual.

Which of the following changes commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system during​ anaphylaxis? A. High blood pressure due to tachycardia B. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation C. High blood pressure due to vasoconstriction D. Low blood pressure due to bradycardia

B. Low blood pressure due to vasodilation

Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of​ CPAP? A. Spontaneous breathing B. Nausea and vomiting C. Tachycardia D. Hypertension

B. Nausea and vomiting

Which of the following statements about patients with altered mental status is​ CORRECT? A. A patient is considered alert if the patient is at least responsive to a verbal stimulus. B. One of the most common causes of altered mental status is hypoxia. C. Hypoperfusion in combination with shock generally does not cause altered mental status. D. You may assume that the patient is still responsive even if there is no response to a painful stimulus.

B. One of the most common causes of altered mental status is hypoxia.

The typical steps of managing a diabetic emergency​ are: A. Assist the patient in accepting​ glucose, prepare to administer oral​ glucose, primary​ assessment, secondary​ assessment, and reassessment. B. Primary​ assessment, secondary​ assessment, prepare to administer oral​ glucose, assist the patient in accepting​ glucose, and reassessment. C. Prepare to administer oral​ glucose, assist the patient in accepting​ glucose, primary​ assessment, secondary​ assessment, and reassessment. D. Primary​ assessment, prepare to administer oral​ glucose, assist the patient in accepting​ glucose, secondary​ assessment, and reassessment.

B. Primary​ assessment, secondary​ assessment, prepare to administer oral​ glucose, assist the patient in accepting​ glucose, and reassessment.

Which of the following represents an abnormal respiratory​ rate? A. Respiratory rate of 40 in an infant B. Respiratory rate of 20 in an infant C. Respiratory rate of 20 in a child D. Respiratory rate of 20 in an adult

B. Respiratory rate of 20 in an infant

Which of the following would be considered an appropriate reason to use a spacer in assisting a patient with a rescue​ inhaler? A. Spacers allow administration of lower doses. B. Spacers make exact timing less important. C. Spacers increase drug concentration. D. Spacers require the patient to breathe less deeply.

B. Spacers make exact timing less important.

you respond to a​ 7-year-old patient presenting with symptoms of productive cough containing blood and large amounts of​ mucus, fatigue,​ nausea, and abdominal pain. The patient appears to be breathing adequately but nonetheless is experiencing respiratory distress from the onset of the coughing. What should you do to treat this​ patient? A. Administer a bronchodilator to the patient. B. Speak to the​ patient's parent or guardian. C. Begin positive pressure ventilations. D. Begin assisted ventilations at 20 per minute.

B. Speak to the​ patient's parent or guardian.

What is a​ high-pitched lung sound heard on​ inspiration? A. Rales B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes

B. Stridor

The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the​ following? A. Aphasia B. Stroke C. Transient ischemic attack D. Seizure

B. Stroke

A​ 50-year-old woman is experiencing an allergic reaction after accidentally ingesting some shrimp. She has​ hives, complains of​ diarrhea, and notes that she is beginning to have difficulty breathing. You assess wheezes. Her vital signs are P​ 118, R​ 30, BP​ 100/60. What is the BEST answer for when you may administer​ epinephrine? A. The patient has a prescription for epinephrine. B. The patient has a prescription for epinephrine and medical control authorizes you to do so. C. You believe the patient is in anaphylactic shock. D. Medical control authorizes you to do so.

B. The patient has a prescription for epinephrine and medical control authorizes you to do so.

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your​ arrival, the patient denies signs and​ symptoms, is alert and​ oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you​ arrived, the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be​ "slack." Which of the following has most likely​ occurred? A. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage. B. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack. C. The patient suffered a stroke. D. The patient is suffering from aphasia.

B. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

Which of the following should be assessed FIRST for a patient who is in anaphylactic​ shock? A. The​ patient's distal pulses B. The​ patient's airway C. The​ patient's lung sounds D. The​ patient's blood pressure

B. The​ patient's airway

Which of the following is one of the most common characteristics of a​ stroke? A. ​Sudden, severe headache B. Weakness on one side of the body C. Sudden onset of bizarre behavior D. Projectile vomiting

B. Weakness on one side of the body

Upon delivering a patient to the emergency​ department, you remove your gloves and find that your hands are red and itchy. Which of the following is most​ likely? A. You have been exposed to an infectious disease through contact with the patient. B. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves. C. You are showing early signs of an anaphylactic reaction. D. You have come into contact with poison ivy in the​ patient's yard.

B. You are having an allergic reaction to the latex in the gloves.

It is characteristic of an allergen to​ be: A. naturally occurring. B. a substance foreign to the body. C. a substance in the air. D. a substance that is ingested.

B. a substance foreign to the body.

If a person is allergic to bee​ stings, the venom from the bee is referred to as​ a(n): A. mediator. B. allergen. C. catalyst. D. agent.

B. allergen.

Your patient is complaining of respiratory distress. She also tells you that her feet and ankles are unusually swollen. This swelling​ is: A. the chief complaint. B. an associated symptom. C. a pertinent negative. D. an irrelevant distraction.

B. an associated symptom.

A sensation experienced by a seizure patient right before the seizure​ is: A. a symptom. B. an aura. C. a vital sign. D. a premonition.

B. an aura.

Your patient is waking up from a​ seizure; it was the​ patient's first seizure ever. When you ask what​ happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known​ as: A. the clonic phase. B. an aura. C. the postictal phase. D. the tonic phase.

B. an aura.

After administering the epinephrine​ auto-injector to your patient with​ anaphylaxis, you should pay particular attention​ to: A. justifying your actions to medical control. B. assessing the​ patient's airway,​ breathing, and circulation. C. ensuring the patient has a prescription for epinephrine. D. determining the​ patient's need for transport.

B. assessing the​ patient's airway,​ breathing, and circulation.

A​ 4-year-old patient presents with respiratory distress and just developed a significant drop in heart rate. You should​ first: A. look for the cause of the change in heart rate. B. assist ventilations with supplemental oxygen. C. apply a nonrebreather mask. D. check the​ patient's SpO2.

B. assist ventilations with supplemental oxygen.

A​ 45-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. You have assisted the patient with her bronchodilator​ medication, but you note that she continues to have considerable distress. Her mental status is now becoming altered. You should​ NEXT: A. administer another bronchodilator treatment. B. assist ventilations. C. administer an epinephrine​ self-injector. D. increase the supplemental oxygen flow rate.

B. assist ventilations.

A patient presenting with dizziness and a rapid heart rate may be​ experiencing: A. hypoglycemia. B. cardiac dysrhythmia. C. hypovolemia. D. vasovagal syncope.

B. cardiac dysrhythmia.

A respiratory condition that was formerly prominent in children who presented with stridor and drooling but is now more often found in adults​ is: A. croup. B. epiglottitis. C. chronic bronchitis. D. asthma.

B. epiglottitis.

The first time someone is exposed to an​ allergen, the immune​ system: A. triggers an allergic reaction. B. forms antibodies in response. C. releases histamine and other chemicals. D. triggers anaphylactic shock.

B. forms antibodies in response.

In an anaphylactic​ reaction, hives​ are: A. localized. B. generalized. C. blotchy and red. D. absent.

B. generalized.

The steps in administering epinephrine by​ auto-injector include: A. pushing the injector firmly against the​ patient's buttock until the needle is deployed. B. holding the injector in place until all the medication has C. placing the injector back in its container for reuse. D. drawing up the medication into the syringe.

B. holding the injector in place until all the medication has

A patient fainted when she tried to stand​ up, and you discover signs of internal bleeding during your assessment. This​ patient's syncope was likely​ from: A. cardiac dysrhythmia. B. hypovolemia. C. absence seizure. D. hypoxia.

B. hypovolemia.

A​ 10-year-old male was stung by several bees. Shortly after the​ envenomation, his face became severely swollen. This edema is the result​ of: A. decreased histamine production. B. increased capillary permeability. C. vasoconstriction. D. decreased capillary permeability.

B. increased capillary permeability.

Which statement below is NOT true about​ seizures? A. The most common seizure that EMTs are likely to be called on is a​ tonic-clonic seizure. B. A partial seizure affects one​ part, or one​ side, of the brain. C. Many seizures are followed by an aura. D. A generalized seizure affects the entire brain.

C. Many seizures are followed by an aura.

Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma​ attack? A. Proventil B. Ventolin C. Beclomethasone D. Albuterol

Beclomethasone

Which of the following types of defibrillators will adjust the amount of energy used on the basis of​ impedance?

Biphasic AED

Which term refers to a heart rate of below 60 beats per​ minute?

Bradycardia

Which of the following BEST defines inadequate​ breathing? A. Wheezing noises when breathing B. Breathing slower than normal C. Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life D. Breathing faster than normal

Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life

Which of the following BEST describes the process of expiration in normal​ breathing? A. Contraction of rib muscles B. Contraction of diaphragm C. Passive D. Active

C. Passive

You are called to a residence for a​ 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to​ time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the​ chest, stridor, a swollen​ tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in​ two- to​ three-word sentences. You administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask. What action next is the best treatment for the​ patient? A. Rapid transport to the nearest facility B. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask C. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control D. Reassessing the patient

C. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control

A rescue inhaler is most likely to contain which of the​ following? A. Advair B. Claritin C. Albuterol D. Bronkosol

C. Albuterol

You have responded to a park where you find a​ 23-year-old female sitting on a bench near a running trail. She states that she has been running for the past 30​ minutes, and all of a sudden she cannot catch her breath. She states that this has never happened before and she usually runs 5 miles a day. Your assessment reveals that she is​ flushed, her pulse is fast and​ weak, her respirations are fast and she is wheezing with​ stridor, and she has hives on her arms and chest. She is most likely suffering from which of the​ following? A. Hyperventilation syndrome B. Heat stroke C. Anaphylaxis D. Allergic reaction

C. Anaphylaxis

Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and​ syncope? A. Loosen any tight clothing around the neck. B. Lay the patient flat. C. Apply cold packs to the​ patient's head. D. Administer oxygen.

C. Apply cold packs to the​ patient's head.

Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic​ shock? A. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic B. Determining whether the​ patient's systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty D. Looking for hives and swelling

C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

Brochoconstriction involves what happening to the​ bronchi? A. Relaxation B. Bypass C. Blockage D. Distension

C. Blockage

Which of the following is the cause of most​ strokes? A. A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain B. A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain D. A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm

C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of​ epinephrine? A. Pallor B. Vomiting C. Bradycardia D. Chest pain

C. Bradycardia

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of​ stroke? A. Seizure B. Vomiting C. Chest pain D. Sudden impairment of vision

C. Chest pain

Which of the following is TRUE about adult and pediatric​ patients? A. The adult trachea is more flexible. B. The​ child's tongue is proportionally smaller than that of the adult. C. Children depend more heavily on the diaphragm for respiration. D. The airway of the adult is more rigid and therefore more easily obstructed.

C. Children depend more heavily on the diaphragm for respiration.

You are on the scene of a​ 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. You had inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. After the epinephrine​ administration, your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should​ perform? A. Discontinue bagging the patient. B. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask. C. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine. D. Hyperventilate the patient.

C. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.

Which of the following is LEAST important for the patient who has stopped seizing before the​ EMT's arrival at the​ scene? A. Suctioning B. Checking for mechanism of injury C. Determining when the patient was last transported to the hospital for seizures D. Administering oxygen

C. Determining when the patient was last transported to the hospital for seizures

Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital​ setting? A. What was the patient doing before the​ seizure? B. How did the patient behave during the​ seizure? C. Does the patient have a family history of​ seizures? D. Did the patient lose control of his​ bladder?

C. Does the patient have a family history of​ seizures?

A​ 50-year-old female patient has been found unconscious and unresponsive. She is breathing rapidly and is diaphoretic. Her vital signs are P​ 130, R​ 30, BP​ 140/80. Which of the following conditions would most likely explain these​ findings? A. TIA B. High blood pressure C. Hypoglycemia D. ​Beta-blocker overdose

C. Hypoglycemia

Your patient is a​ 59-year-old female with a sudden onset of slurred speech and weakness on her right side. Which of the following measures is​ appropriate? A. Test the​ patient's sensation with a series of​ pinpricks, beginning at the feet and working upward. B. Administer oral glucose and then assess the​ patient's blood sugar. C. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients. D. Withhold oxygen unless the patient exhibits signs of profound hypoxia.

C. Immediately transport the patient to a hospital with specialized treatment for stroke patients.

Which of the following is NOT an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis​ patient's condition? A. Increased heart rate B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased dyspnea D. Increased ease of respirations

C. Increased dyspnea

Which of the following is the reason why infants rarely experience anaphylactic​ reactions? A. Infants have received natural immunity to allergens from their mothers before birth. B. Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation have little effect on an​ infant's physiology. C. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens. D. Allergens do not affect infants.

C. Infants have not yet developed antibodies to allergens.

It is characteristic for a CPAP device to blow​ air: A. intermittently. B. at high pressure. C. continuously. D. in short gusts.

C. continuously.

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old male with a history of diabetes. He is lying on the living room​ floor, unresponsive to all stimuli. He has a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per​ minute, heart rate of 112 beats per​ minute, and is pale and sweaty. Which of the following should you do to treat this​ patient? A. Place the patient in the recovery position to protect the airway and place oral glucose solution under the​ patient's tongue. B. Apply oral glucose solution to a tongue depressor and insert it between the​ patient's cheek and gums. C. Place the patient in the recovery​ position, administer​ oxygen, and monitor his airway status. D. Encourage the​ patient's family to administer his insulin.

C. Place the patient in the recovery​ position, administer​ oxygen, and monitor his airway status.

During the primary​ assessment, what is a sign of​ shock? A. Radial pulses B. Perfusion C. Rapid heart rate D. Flushed skin

C. Rapid heart rate

The family of a​ 30-year-old male states that the patient recently had a​ tonic-clonic seizure. The event lasted 5​ minutes, and the family notes that the patient has no previous history of seizures. The family also states that the patient has no past medical history of any kind. Until the point he began​ seizing, he had seemed fine. Which of the following causes MOST likely explain the previous​ findings? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypoxia C. Recent head trauma D. Anxiety

C. Recent head trauma

The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is​ hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which one of the factors below is NOT a cause of​ hypoglycemia? A. Overexercises or overexerts himself B. Vomits a meal C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much D. Takes too much insulin

C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much

Which of the following would be a sign that a pediatric patient required immediate​ transport? A. Flushed lips or mouth B. Slowed breathing C. Retracted muscles of breathing D. Decreased breathing effort

C. Retracted muscles of breathing

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic​ emergency? A. Combativeness B. Anxiety C. Slow heart rate D. ​Cold, clammy skin

C. Slow heart rate

Normal consciousness is regulated by a series of neurologic circuits in the brain that comprise the reticular activating system​ (RAS). The RAS has simple requirements to function properly. Which one of the following items is NOT one of those​ requirements? A. Oxygen B. Water C. Sodium D. Glucose

C. Sodium

You are managing a patient who you believe is severely hypoxic. Given this​ information, which of the following should you do​ FIRST? A. Place the patient in a tripod position. B. Take a pulse oximetry reading. C. Start​ high-flow oxygen. D. Perform a secondary assessment.

C. Start​ high-flow oxygen.

Why should the EMT explain the CPAP device to the​ patient? A. Insurance will typically not cover the​ treatment, and permission must be given. B. The patient must understand how a CPAP machine works. C. The device might cause the patient to feel smothered and anxious. D. The treatment may lead to COPD.

C. The device might cause the patient to feel smothered and anxious.

Which of the following occurs during​ inhalation? A. The diaphragm​ rises, and the ribs move upward and outward. B. The diaphragm​ rises, and the ribs move downward and inward. C. The diaphragm​ lowers, and the ribs move upward and outward. D. The diaphragm​ lowers, and the ribs move downward and inward.

C. The diaphragm​ lowers, and the ribs move upward and outward.

Looking at the following​ list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and​ hyperglycemia? A. Hyperglycemic patients often have​ warm, red, dry​ skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have​ cold, pale,​ moist, or clammy skin. B. Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia. C. The hypoglycemic patient is usually complaining of a​ headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient is not. D. The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone​ breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.

C. The hypoglycemic patient is usually complaining of a​ headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient is not.

When someone is experiencing​ hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the​ fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which one of the statements below is NOT one of the​ fight-or-flight responses? A. The heart pumps faster. B. Blood vessels constrict. C. The skin is hot and dry. D. Breathing accelerates.

C. The skin is hot and dry.

After administering epinephrine per medical control via an​ auto-injector to an unresponsive anaphylactic adult​ patient, your partner reassesses the lung sounds. He tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all​ fields, whereas before the​ injection, they were diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower. What is your suspicion regarding the​ patient's condition? A. The patient is about to go into cardiac arrest. B. There is no change in the​ patient's condition. C. The​ patient's condition is improving. D. The​ patient's condition is worsening.

C. The​ patient's condition is improving.

At which of the following sites should the EMT administer an epinephrine​ auto-injector? A. Upper arm B. Abdomen C. Thigh D. Buttocks

C. Thigh

For a hypotensive​ patient, which of the following effects of epinephrine would be MOST​ important? A. Increased capillary permeability B. Bronchoconstriction C. Vasoconstriction D. Vasodilation

C. Vasoconstriction

When is administering oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient the worst thing you could​ do? A. When the patient has an altered mental status B. When the patient desperately needs sugar C. When the patient​ can't protect his airway D. When the patient has a history of diabetes

C. When the patient​ can't protect his airway

Your​ 44-year-old patient has a decreased level of​ consciousness, respiratory​ distress, and shallow breathing. You should​ immediately: A. apply a NRB mask. B. apply a nasal cannula. C. assist ventilations. D. ask the patient whether she has an inhaler.

C. assist ventilations.

The advantage of a​ battery-powered CPAP device is that​ it: A. requires a charged battery to operate. B. applies positive airway pressure. C. blows oxygen and air at an adjustable rate. D. uses oxygen quickly.

C. blows oxygen and air at an adjustable rate.

A​ ________ device works by blowing oxygen or air continuously at a low pressure to prevent a​ patient's alveoli from collapsing. A. CPAP​ (Continuous Positive Airway​ Pressure) B. COPD​ (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary​ Disease) C. FROPVD​ (Flow-Restricted, Oxygen-Powered Ventilation​ Device) D. Nonrebreather

CPAP​ (Continuous Positive Airway​ Pressure)

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in​ adults?

Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the​ heart?

Cardiac compromise

Delivery of an electrical shock to restore a normal heart rhythm most directly affects which of the​ following?

Cardiac conduction system

You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptoms would you expect to see with this​ condition?

Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin

A wheezing patient might be experiencing which​ problem? A. An obstruction of the trachea B. Chronic bronchitis C. Fluid in the alveoli D. Material aspirated into the lungs

Chronic bronchitis

Which of the following is the primary cause of​ COPD? A. Infection B. Cigarette smoking C. Air pollution D. Congenital diseases

Cigarette smoking

In your management of a patient with true anaphylaxis who has a prescribed epinephrine​ auto-injector, which of the following interventions is MOST​ correct? A. If she is​ unconscious, place the patient upright in a position of comfort to assist her breathing difficulty. B. Place the patient on oxygen at 6 lpm via nasal cannula. C. Wait for ALS to arrive before giving any​ medications, including epinephrine. D. Contact medical direction for authorization to administer the epinephrine​ auto-injector.

Contact medical direction for authorization to administer the epinephrine​ auto-injector. Administering the​ patient's auto-injector is the most effective treatment. In true​ anaphylaxis, epinephrine should never be delayed for other treatments.

You are on the scene of a​ 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the​ patient, what is your next​ intervention?

Continue CPR.

Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries of the​ heart?

Coronary artery disease

At what rate per minute should you ventilate a​ child? A. 12 B. 16 C. 24 D. 20

D. 20

The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA) may last up​ to: A. 1 hour. B. 30 minutes. C. 6 hours. D. 24 hours.

D. 24 hours.

With advances in​ clot-busting (thrombolytic)​ drugs, the patient has a window of​ ________ hours to receive treatment. A. 5 B. 4 C. 6 D. 3

D. 3

If a patient had a​ long-standing vascular malformation in her brain that went unrecognized for years but finally resulted in a burst blood​ vessel, what type of stroke will she likely present​ with? A. A transient ischemic attack B. An ischemic stroke on the opposite side of the brain C. An ischemic stroke with bilateral deficits D. A subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke

D. A subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke

You are treating a​ 28-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant. She has a history of bee sting anaphylaxis and was stung by a bee while in the garden. She is having severe respiratory distress and her blood pressure is​ 72/50 mmHg. You are in an area that allows EMTs to carry and administer​ epinephrine, and the patient has a prescribed​ Epi-Pen®. Which of the following is the BEST option for the​ EMT? A. Immediately administer the​ patient's ​Epi-PenSuperscript ®®. B. Do not administer the ​Epi-PenSuperscript ®® under any circumstances. C. Transport​ rapidly, bypassing the emergency department and taking the patient directly to the obstetrics unit of the hospital. D. Administer the ​Epi-PenSuperscript ®® only on the advice of medical control.

D. Administer the ​Epi-PenSuperscript ®® only on the advice of medical control.

What is a sign of sepsis becoming​ systemic? A. Lowered respiratory rate B. Lowered heart rate C. High blood pressure D. Altered mental status

D. Altered mental status

You are called to a residence for a​ 60-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You find the patient seated in bed. His past medical history includes hypertension and high cholesterol. The patient presents with hives over the​ chest, stridor, a swollen​ tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He denies any shortness of breath or respiratory​ distress, but speaks only in short​ two- to​ three-word statements and complains of a tightness in the chest. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Asthma C. Angina pectoris D. Anaphylaxis

D. Anaphylaxis

A​ 19-year-old female has lost consciousness while traveling home from a house party. Friends note that she vomited and then she appeared to​ "pass out" for several minutes. They note this has never happened before. The patient is​ responsive, has a patent​ airway, and is breathing adequately. She insists that she did not drink or take any drugs at the party. Which of the following questions would be LEAST appropriate to this​ situation? A. Did you hurt​ yourself? B. What position were you in when the episode​ happened? C. Did you have any​ warning? If​ so, what was it​ like? D. Are you afraid of the consequences of admitting substance​ abuse?

D. Are you afraid of the consequences of admitting substance​ abuse?

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with​ hyperglycemia? A. ​Cool, moist​ skin, agitated​ behavior, and increased heart rate B. Sudden onset of altered mental status C. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake D. A​ "fruity" odor of the breath

D. A​ "fruity" odor of the breath

Which of the following is the result of histamine and other chemicals in the body during​ anaphylaxis? A. Cardiac output increases and the tissues of the body become more perfused. B. Blood vessels​ constrict, capillaries lose​ permeability, and bronchodilation occurs. C. Urticaria occurs due to fluid being shunted from the​ skin, causing dehydration of tissue. D. Capillaries become​ leaky, bronchoconstriction​ occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords

D. Capillaries become​ leaky, bronchoconstriction​ occurs, and swelling appears in areas around the vocal cords

Which of the following does NOT commonly lead to​ anaphylaxis? A. Wasp stings B. Penicillin C. Peanuts D. Cat dander

D. Cat dander

If the blood sugar level is very​ high, which of the following may​ result? A. ​Hyperactivity, excessive​ thirst, and polyuria B. Excessive​ insulin, excessive​ glucose, and excessive urination C. Polyuria and hyperactivity D. Excessive​ urination, excessive​ thirst, and excessive hunger

D. Excessive​ urination, excessive​ thirst, and excessive hunger

Which of the following is a known complication of applying CPAP to a patient with respiratory​ distress? A. The patient will develop respiratory acidosis. B. There will be a reflexive decrease in the heart rate. C. Hyperoxemia may occur. D. It may cause a drop in blood pressure.

D. It may cause a drop in blood pressure.

Your patient is a​ 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you​ do? A. Restrain the​ patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs. B. Insert a bite​ block, cloth,​ wallet, or similar item between the​ patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue. C. Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue. D. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.

D. Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.

Continuous positive airway pressure​ (CPAP) is a form of​ what? A. Noninvasive negative pressure ventilation B. Invasive positive pressure ventilation C. Invasive negative pressure ventilation D. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation

D. Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause​ anaphylaxis? A. Dextrose B. Morphine C. Nitroglycerin D. Penicillin

D. Penicillin

You respond to a local swim park for a​ 29-year-old male who was stung by a bee and​ "passed out." Upon​ arrival, you find the patient unresponsive to all stimuli with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. You insert an oral airway and administer oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask. You notice that it is difficult to bag the patient. Your partner listens to lung sounds and states they are very diminished in the upper fields and absent in the lower fields. What is the best​ action? A. Request an ALS unit. B. Request orders from medical control for an emergency cricothyroidotomy. C. Hyperventilate the patient. D. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.

D. Request orders from medical control to administer epinephrine.

Which of the following statements concerning severe allergic reactions is true​? A. Allergies do not develop until a person is in his late teens to early 20s. B. A severe allergic reaction can be prevented by the use of an epinephrine​ auto-injector before exposure to the substance. C. A severe allergic reaction occurs only when the patient has never been exposed to the substance before. D. Signs or symptoms of shock indicate a severe allergic reaction.

D. Signs or symptoms of shock indicate a severe allergic reaction.

Which of the following statements about the differences between adults and children is​ TRUE? A. All airway structures of the adult are more easily blocked. B. The diaphragm is more heavily used in the adult. C. The tongue of an adult is more apt to block the airway. D. The trachea is​ smaller, softer, and more flexible in infants and children.

D. The trachea is​ smaller, softer, and more flexible in infants and children.

Over which of the following factors that affect the survivability of a stroke patient does the EMT have the MOST​ influence? A. Reduction of blood pressure B. Initiation of an IV by ALS providers C. Intubation of the trachea D. Time to treatment

D. Time to treatment

Your patient has eaten a casserole that may have contained seafood. The patient is worried because he has a seafood allergy. Upon​ assessment, you find no signs or symptoms of anaphylaxis. The​ patient's vital signs are stable and he has an epinephrine​ auto-injector prescribed to him. Which of the following actions is most​ appropriate? A. Assist him with the administration of his epinephrine​ auto-injector. B. Advise the patient that he does not require treatment and transport at this time. C. Transport the patient rapidly before the onset of anaphylaxis. D. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.

D. Try to find out if the casserole contained seafood.

Which of the following is an action caused by epinephrine in​ anaphylaxis? A. Bronchoconstriction B. Increased capillary permeability C. Decreased heart rate D. Vasoconstriction

D. Vasoconstriction

A​ 25-year-old male is complaining of difficulty breathing after a submersion​ (near drowning) injury. He says that the breathing difficulty​ "came on all of a​ sudden." You note rales when listening to his chest. His vital signs are P​ 120, R​ 36, BP​ 130/88. You should​ NEXT: A. assist with a bronchodilator inhaler. B. administer a​ small-volume nebulizer. C. administer nitroglycerin. D. administer CPAP.

D. administer CPAP.

A​ 9-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing. His respiratory rate is​ 28, and he has wheezes. He is alert but​ scared, and his pulse oximetry reads​ 93%. You should​ next: A. apply a​ flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. B. initiate CPAP. C. immediately remove the child from the parents. D. administer supplemental oxygen.

D. administer supplemental oxygen.

When a clot or embolism occludes an​ artery, this​ causes: A. a hemorrhagic stroke. B. expressive aphasia. C. receptive aphasia. D. an ischemic stroke.

D. an ischemic stroke.

A patient complains of dizziness followed by brief syncope of several seconds. Regardless of this​ patient's history, it is likely that the dizziness and syncope are related to interference with the function of the​ patient's: A. kidneys. B. peripheral nervous system. C. lungs. D. brain.

D. brain.

An inhaler containing a beta agonist medication is intended​ to: A. dilate pulmonary blood vessels. B. constrict smooth muscle. C. mimic the parasympathetic nervous system. D. dilate the airways.

D. dilate the airways.

It is characteristic of less severe allergic reactions​ to: A. decrease oxygen saturation. B. be life​ -threatening. C. produce stridor. D. exhibit localized swelling and hives.

D. exhibit localized swelling and hives.

A​ 65-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. You wish to obtain a​ "room air" pulse oximetry reading but realize the pulse oximeter is in the ambulance. You​ should: A. immediately move the patient to the ambulance. B. withhold oxygen as a pulse oximetry reading is necessary. C. wait to administer oxygen until your partner can retrieve the oximeter. D. immediately administer supplemental oxygen.

D. immediately administer supplemental oxygen.

A partial seizure​ affects: A. the extremities. B. consciousness. C. the entire brain. D. one part or one side of the brain.

D. one part or one side of the brain.

Which of the following statements about poison ivy is​ TRUE? A. It is the oil on the leaves of the poison ivy plant that causes the allergic reaction. B. Poison ivy must enter the system through broken skin. C. Only about ten percent of the population is allergic to poison ivy. D. Poison ivy is a common cause of weeping sores on the skin.

It is the oil on the leaves of the poison ivy plant that causes the allergic reaction. The oil on the leaves of the plant causes the allergic reaction. Poison ivy causes a​ rash, not weeping sores. It is absorbed through contact with the skin and does not need an opening. About​ two-thirds of the population is allergic to the oil on poison ivy leaves.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac​ emergencies?

It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body.

What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a​ bag-valve mask? A. Push the full amount of the bag into the patient. B. Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches​ 100%. C. Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to​ 100%. D. Look for chest rise and fall with every ventilation

Look for chest rise and fall with every ventilation

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure​ (CHF)?

Low blood pressure

In which of the following circumstances is medical direction necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed​ inhaler? A. Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival. B. The inhaler belongs to another family​ member, not the patient. C. Medical control is not necessary because assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice. D. Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

Which of the following would prevent the administration of an EpiPen​® to a​ 16-year-old male in a​ life-threatening anaphylactic​ situation? A. A blood pressure reading of​ 90/70 B. Respirations that are 24 and shallow C. A pulse rate above 130 D. Medical direction has denied permission to administer the drug

Medical direction has denied permission to administer the drug None of these vital signs are​ contraindications, but medical direction denying permission for administration of the EpiPen​® should prevent the EMT from involvement in its administration.

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of​ oxygen?

Myocardial infarction

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be​ "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the​ defibrillator?

None of the above

Your patient is a​ 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of significant respiratory​ distress, although she appears to be breathing adequately. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather​ mask? A. Listen to the​ patient's breath sounds. B. Check the​ patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Obtain a history of the present illness. D. None of the above

None of the above

Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental​ oxygen? A. A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive B. An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration C. A patient whose oxygen saturation level is​ 93% on room air D. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld

None of these patients should have oxygen withheld

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life​ support, even when EMTs in the community carry​ AEDs?

Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.

You are ventilating a​ 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT​ appropriate? A. Increase the force of ventilations. B. Check the flow of oxygen reaching the​ bag-valve-mask device. C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating. D. Notify medical control that the​ patient's condition has improved.

Notify medical control that the​ patient's condition has improved.

Which of the following is typical of angina​ pectoris?

Often subsides with rest

Why is a​ patient's second exposure to an allergen more dangerous than the​ first? A. On the second​ exposure, the antibody combines with the​ allergen, causing histamine release. B. On the first​ exposure, the​ patient's antibodies will disable the antigen. C. The patient is unable to release histamines after the first exposure. D. The second exposure usually has a faster onset of symptoms than subsequent exposures.

On the second​ exposure, the antibody combines with the​ allergen, causing histamine release. The first exposure sensitizes the patient to the allergen. On the second or subsequent​ exposures, the interaction of antigen and antibodies can cause a dangerous histamine release.

You arrive​ on-scene of a​ 56-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. What is the first airway you should​ administer?

Oropharyngeal airway

After placing a patient experiencing chest pain in a comfortable​ position, it is most important for you to assess the need for administering which of the​ following?

Oxygen

You are on scene with a​ 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure​ 68/42, pulse​ 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life​ threats, what is your next​ intervention?

Package the patient for rapid transport.

Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the​ chest?

Palpitations

You are called to the scene of a​ 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is​ diaphoretic, and complains of being​ cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past three days. His vital signs are blood pressure of​ 110/70, heart rate of​ 116, respiratory rate of​ 24, oxygen saturation of​ 93%, and temperature of 100.6degrees°F. You hear rhonchi in the left​ lobes, and he is coughing up​ yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you​ suspect? A. Pneumonia B. COPD C. Asthma D. Silent myocardial infarction

Pneumonia

What condition is when fluid accumulates in the​ lungs, preventing them from breathing​ adequately? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Asthma C. Pulmonary edema D. Pneumonia

Pulmonary edema

Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the​ lungs?

Pulmonary edema

Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following​ situations?

Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following is NOT one of the links in the chain of​ survival?

Rehabilitation

After a period of syncope lasting 30​ seconds, your patient is now reporting a​ "fluttering" in his chest and generalized weakness. Which of the following is​ necessary?

Requesting ALS to support the​ patient's care

You arrive on scene to back up another EMT unit on a patient with an allergic reaction. As you approach the​ scene, you see one EMT preparing to administer the​ patient's EpiPen®. Which of the following clinical findings would support the use of the​ EpiPen®? A. Wheezing B. Signs and symptoms of shock C. Anxiety D. Itching

Signs and symptoms of shock Evidence of hypoperfusion is one of the key findings that will alert the EMT to the presence of a severe allergic reaction that will probably need the administration of the​ patient's EpiPen®, if available. The other findings could be present in less severe allergic reactions.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker​ medication?

Slows the heart rate

When the lung collapses without injury or any other​ cause, it is called which of the​ following? A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Spontaneous pulmonary embolism C. Spontaneous pertussis D. COPD

Spontaneous pneumothorax

What is NOT one of the symptoms of a pulmonary​ embolus? A. Anxiety B. Pain and swelling in one or both legs C. Sudden onset of sharp chest pain D. Sudden calmness

Sudden calmness

Histamine release increases vascular permeability. What physical sign is associated with this​ pathophysiology? A. Swelling B. Decreased cardiac output C. Flushed skin D. Urticaria

Swelling When capillaries become​ leaky, fluid moves into the tissue and appears as swelling​ (angioedema), especially around the site of an injection​ (or sting) and the​ face, including the​ eyes, lips,​ ears, tongue, and airway. If the area around the vocal cords becomes​ swollen, the patient may have a muffled voice or display stridor on inspiration.

Which of the following is an anticipated side effect of epinephrine​ administration? A. Lethargy B. Hypotension C. Vasodilation D. Tachycardia

Tachycardia Tachycardia is a common side effect of epinephrine administration. Epinephrine does not cause​ hypotension, vasodilation, or lethargy.

In the case of a patient with​ rales, on auscultation the EMT might​ hear: A. rattling. B. wheezing. C. bubbling. D. stridor.

bubbling.

A​ 35-year-old male is suffering a severe anaphylactic reaction. You have administered one of the​ patient's two epinephrine​ auto-injectors as​ indicated; however, after 10​ minutes, the​ patient's condition has not improved. You should​ NEXT: A. inject the second​ auto-injector, but this time try to inject it into a vein. B. not administer the second​ auto-injector because two consecutive doses of epinephrine are never indicated. The second one is simply a spare. C. wait 10 more minutes and then administer the second​ auto-injector. D. consult with medical control and administer the second​ auto-injector.

consult with medical control and administer the second​ auto-injector. Some​ patients' anaphylaxis is so severe that they carry two​ auto-injectors. If your protocols allow​ it, consult medical control and administer the second dose.​ Typically, a​ 10-minute window is sufficient to gauge response to the first injection.

You are treating your cardiac arrest patient when a​ "No Shock​ Indicated" message appears. You should​ NEXT:

continue CPR for two minutes.

Conditions that narrow or block the arteries of the heart are​ called:

coronary artery disease.

You have just completed administering an EpiPen​® to an anaphylactic​ 22-year-old female. You have successfully injected the medication and withdrawn the syringe. You should​ NEXT: A. turn the EpiPenSuperscript ® over to the hospital upon arrival. B. deliver the EpiPenSuperscript ® to the pharmacy. C. place the EpiPenSuperscript ® in an appropriate biohazard container. D. turn the EpiPenSuperscript ® over to ALS personnel.

place the EpiPenSuperscript ® in an appropriate biohazard container. The EpiPen​® should be placed in a biohazard container as it technically contains a contaminated sharp. There is no need to deliver it to the​ hospital, the​ pharmacy, or ALS personnel as long as the dose and time are documented on the​ hand-off documentation.

In the mnemonic​ OPQRST, the​ "P" stands​ for:

provocation.

A study into the effects of disease on blood composition would focus​ on:

red and white blood​ cells, platelets, and plasma.

You have just used an AED to deliver a shock to your cardiac arrest patient. You should​ immediately:

resume chest compressions.

Hypoperfusion refers​ to:

shock.

​Occasionally, a patient with only mild hypoglycemia and minor altered mental status can be treated by simply giving that​ patient:

something to eat.

A​ 54-year-old male is found pulseless and apneic on the sofa. The scene is safe. You should​ first:

start CPR and retrieve an AED.

The Lucas CPR device​ involves:

stopping CPR just long enough to put a base plate under the patient.

Aphasia is often seen​ in:

stroke patients.

For a mountain climber exhibiting pulmonary edema during an extremely​ high-altitude climb, you should​ suspect: A. a cardiac cause with heart complications. B. the climber needs to remain at high altitude until the edema is treated. C. the climber was exposed to high atmospheric pressures. D. the climber should be administered oxygen until stabilized

the climber should be administered oxygen until stabilized

The key difference between angina and a myocardial infarction is​ that:

the pain of angina usually goes away with rest.

A​ 16-year-old female has altered mental status. Her blood glucose is 40​ mg/dL. This finding tells you​ that:

the patient is hypoglycemic.

An EMT must ventilate an adult patient at 12 breaths per minute​ if: A. there is stridor when the patient breaths. B. the patient is not breathing. C. the​ patient's breath sounds are diminished. D. the patient is breathing faster than normal.

the patient is not breathing.

Your diabetic ketoacidosis patient has rapid breathing and a fruity odor on his breath. This is likely due​ to:

the presence of ketones.

​Auto-Pulse is​ designed:

to be started manually.

A patient was running a riding lawnmower in a closed garage and experienced dizziness. Immediately after opening the garage​ door, the patient experienced syncope that lasted for several moments. It is MOST likely that the cause of the​ patient's syncope​ was:

toxicological.

A patient with aphasia who seems to understand what you say but cannot form intelligible responses to what you say should be classified​ as:

verbal.

Contraindications for the administration of nitroglycerin include a​ patient:

who took Viagra in the last 48 hours.

A shock advisory​ defibrillator:

will alert the operator to press a button to deliver shocks.

Which of the following descriptors is MOST common in a patient who is experiencing chest pain due to a problem with the​ heart?

​"Heavy"

A​ 26-year-old female complains of six hours of vomiting and diarrhea. She is dizzy and lightheaded but feels better while lying down. What​ follow-up question would be BEST to ask if the patient answers yes to the question​ "Have you had any similar episodes in the​ past?"

​"What cause was​ found?"

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless​ VT?

​Shock, two minutes of​ CPR, analyze, shock again

Which of the following statements is TRUE about paralysis caused by​ stroke?

​Typically, paralysis from strokes affects only one side of the body.

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide​ ________.

​high-quality compressions