Ch. 23 Management of pt's w Chest and Lower Resp Tract D/O

A patient taking isoniazid (INH) therapy for tuberculosis demonstrates understanding when making which statement?

"It is all right if I have a grilled cheese sandwich with American cheese."-Patients taking INH should avoid foods that contain tyramine and histamine (tuna, aged cheese, red wine, soy sauce, yeast extracts), because eating them while taking INH may result in headache, flushing, hypotension, lightheadedness, palpitations, and diaphoresis. Patients should also avoid alcohol because of the high potential for hepatotoxic effects.

The occupational nurse is completing routine assessments on the employees where you work. What might be revealed by a chest radiograph for a client with occupational lung diseases?

Fibrotic changes in lungs-For a client with occupational lung diseases, a chest radiograph may reveal fibrotic changes in the lungs. Hemorrhage, lung contusion, and damage to surrounding tissues are possibly caused by trauma due to chest injuries.

After 48 hours, a Mantoux test is evaluated. At the site, there is a 10 mm induration. This finding would be considered:

Significant-An induration of 10 mm or greater is usually considered significant and reactive in people who have normal or mildly impaired immunity. Erythema without induration is not considered significant.

A nurse is caring for a client after a thoracentesis. Which sign, if noted in the client, should be reported to the physician immediately?

"Client is becoming agitated and complains of pleuritic pain."-After a thoracentesis, the nurse monitors the client for pneumothorax or recurrence of pleural effusion. Signs and symptoms associated with pneumothorax depend on its size and cause. Pain is usually sudden and may be pleuritic. The client may have only minimal respiratory distress, with slight chest discomfort and tachypnea, and a small simple or uncomplicated pneumothorax. As the pneumothorax enlarges, the client may become anxious and develop dyspnea with increased use of the accessory muscles.

A nurse is preparing dietary recommendations for a client with a lung abscess. Which statement would be included in the plan of care?

"You must consume a diet rich in protein, such as chicken, fish, and beans."-The nurse encourages a client with a lung abscess to eat a diet that is high in protein and calories in order to ensure proper nutritional intake. A carbohydrate-dense diet or diets with limited fats are not advisable for a client with a lung abscess.

A client with severe shortness of breath comes to the emergency department. He tells the emergency department staff that he recently traveled to China for business. Based on his travel history and presentation, the staff suspects severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). Which isolation precautions should the staff institute?

Airborne and contact precautions-SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. The client should be placed on airborne and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Droplet precautions don't require a negative air pressure room and wouldn't protect the nurse who touches contaminated items in the client's room. Contact precautions alone don't provide adequate protection from airborne particles.

The nurse knows that a sputum culture is necessary to identify the causative organism for acute tracheobronchitis. What causative fungal organism would the nurse suspect?

Aspergillus-In acute tracheobronchitis, the inflamed mucosa of the bronchi produces mucopurulent sputum, often in response to infection by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Hemophilus influenzae, or Mycoplasma pneumoniae. In addition, a fungal infection (e.g., Aspergillus) may also cause tracheobronchitis. A sputum culture is essential to identify the specific causative organism.

Which of the following is a potential complication of a low pressure in the endotracheal cuff?

Aspiration pneumonia- Low pressure in the cuff can increase the risk for aspiration pneumonia. High cuff pressure can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis.

A victim has sustained a blunt force trauma to the chest. A pulmonary contusion is suspected. Which of the following clinical manifestations correlate with a moderate pulmonary contusion?

Blood-tinged sputum-The clinical manifestations of pulmonary contusions are based on the severity of bruising and parenchymal involvement. The most common signs and symptoms are crackles, decreased or absent bronchial breath sounds, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, chest pain, blood-tinged secretions, hypoxemia, and respiratory acidosis. Patients with moderate pulmonary contusions often have a constant, but ineffective cough and cannot clear their secretions.

A nurse is assessing a client who comes to the clinic for care. Which findings in this client suggest bacterial pneumonia?

Dyspnea and wheezing- In a client with bacterial pneumonia, retained secretions cause dyspnea, and respiratory tract inflammation causes wheezing. Bacterial pneumonia also produces a productive cough and fever, rather than a nonproductive cough and normal temperature. Sore throat occurs in pharyngitis, not bacterial pneumonia. Abdominal pain is characteristic of a GI disorder, unlike chest pain, which can reflect a respiratory infection such as pneumonia. Hemoptysis and dysuria aren't associated with pneumonia.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with pulmonary arterial hypertension. What assessment finding by the nurse is a significant finding for this patient?

Dyspnea-Dyspnea, the main symptom of PH, occurs at first with exertion and eventually at rest. Substernal chest pain also is common. Other signs and symptoms include weakness, fatigue, syncope, occasional hemoptysis, and signs of right-sided heart failure (peripheral edema, ascites, distended neck veins, liver engorgement, crackles, heart murmur). Anorexia and abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant may also occur.

Which intervention does a nurse implement for clients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises-Empyema is an accumulation of thick fluid within the pleural space. To help the client with the condition, the nurse instructs the client in lung-expanding breathing exercises to restore normal respiratory function. Placing clients together, instituting precautions, and forbidding visitors would all be interventions that would depend upon what condition was causing the empyema.

Which interventions does a nurse implement for clients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises-The nurse teaches the client with empyema to do breathing exercises as prescribed. The nurse should institute droplet precautions and isolate suspected and clients with confirmed influenza in private rooms or place suspected and confirmed clients together. The nurse does not allow visitors with symptoms of respiratory infection to visit the hospital to prevent outbreaks of influenza from occurring in health care settings.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with empyema. Which of the following interventions does a nurse implement for patients with empyema?

Encourage breathing exercises.- The nurse teaches the patient with empyema to do breathing exercises as prescribed. The nurse should institute droplet precautions, isolate suspected and confirmed influenza patients in private rooms, or place suspected and confirmed patients together, and not allow visitors with symptoms of respiratory infection to visit the hospital to prevent outbreaks of influenza from occurring in health care settings.

You are caring for a client who has been diagnosed with viral pneumonia. You are making a plan of care for this client. What nursing interventions would you put into the plan of care for a client with pneumonia?

Encourage increased fluid intake.- The nurse places the client in semi-Fowler's position to aid breathing and increase the amount of air taken with each breath. Increased fluid intake is important to encourage because it helps to loosen secretions and replace fluids lost through fever and increased respiratory rate. The nurse monitors fluid intake and output, skin turgor, vital signs, and serum electrolytes. He or she administers antipyretics as indicated and ordered. Antibiotics are not given for viral pneumonia. The client's activity level is ordered by the physician, not decided by the nurse.

A client hospitalized with pneumonia has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include when planning this client's care?

Encouraging increased fluid intake- Increasing the client's intake of oral or I.V. fluids helps liquefy thick, tenacious secretions, and ensures adequate hydration. Turning the client every 2 hours would help prevent atelectasis, but will not adequately mobilize thick secretions. Elevating the head of the bed would reduce pressure on the diaphragm and ease breathing, but wouldn't help the client with secretions. Maintaining a cool room temperature wouldn't help the client with secretions.

When caring for a client with acute respiratory failure, the nurse should expect to focus on resolving which set of problems?

Hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia-The cardinal physiologic abnormalities of acute respiratory failure are hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia. The nurse should focus on resolving these problems.

In a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and respiratory distress, which finding is the earliest sign of reduced oxygenation?

Increased restlessness-In ALS, an early sign of respiratory distress is increased restlessness, which results from inadequate oxygen flow to the brain. As the body tries to compensate for inadequate oxygenation, the heart rate increases and blood pressure drops. A decreased LOC is a later sign of poor tissue oxygenation in a client with respiratory distress.

A client who underwent surgery 12 hours ago has difficulty breathing. He has petechiae over his chest and complains of acute chest pain. What action should the nurse take first?

Initiate oxygen therapy.-The client's signs and symptoms suggest pulmonary embolism. Therefore, maintaining respiratory function takes priority. The nurse should first initiate oxygen therapy and then notify the physician immediately. The physician will most likely order an anticoagulant such as heparin or an antithrombolytic to dissolve the thrombus. Analgesics can be administered to decrease pain and anxiety but administering oxygen takes priority. Suctioning typically isn't necessary with pulmonary embolism.

A client with suspected severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) comes to the emergency department. Which physician order should the nurse implement first?

Institute isolation precautions.-SARS, a highly contagious viral respiratory illness, is spread by close person-to-person contact. Contained in airborne respiratory droplets, the virus is easily transmitted by touching surfaces and objects contaminated with infectious droplets. The nurse should give top priority to instituting infection-control measures to prevent the spread of infection to emergency department staff and clients. After isolation measures are carried out, the nurse can begin an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in half-normal saline and obtain nasopharyngeal and sputum specimens.

A client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is restless and has a low oxygen saturation level. If the client's condition does not improve and the oxygen saturation level continues to decrease, what procedure will the nurse expect to assist with in order to help the client breathe more easily?

Intubate the client and control breathing with mechanical ventilation-A client with ARDS may need mechanical ventilation to assist with breathing while the underlying cause of the pulmonary edema is corrected. The other options are not appropriate.

Which community-acquired pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence during summer and fall?

Legionnaires disease- Legionnaires disease accounts for 15% of community-acquired pneumonias; it occurs mainly in summer and fall. Streptococcal and viral pneumonias demonstrate the highest occurrence during the winter months. Mycoplasmal pneumonia demonstrates the highest occurrence in fall and early winter.

The nurse is assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli. What finding indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?

Localized calf tenderness-If the client were to complain of localized calf tenderness, the nurse would know this is a possible indication of a deep vein thrombosis. The area of tenderness could also be warm to touch. The client's urine output should not be impacted. Pain in the feet is not an indication of possible deep vein thrombosis.

The nurse caring for a client with tuberculosis anticipates administering which vitamin with isoniazid (INH) to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy?

Vitamin B6-Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is usually administered with INH to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy. Vitamins C, D, and E are not appropriate.

A nurse reading a chart notes that the client had a Mantoux skin test result with no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosis. How does the nurse interpret this result?

Negative-The size of the induration determines the significance of the reaction. A reaction 0-4 mm is not considered significant. A reaction ≥5 mm may be significant in people who are considered to be at risk. An induration ≥10 mm or greater is usually considered significant in people who have normal or mildly impaired immunity.

A client admitted to the facility for treatment for tuberculosis receives instructions about the disease. Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further instruction?

"I'll stay in isolation for 6 weeks."-The client requires additional teaching if he states that he'll be in isolation for 6 weeks. The client needs to be in isolation for 2 weeks, not 6, while taking the tuberculosis drugs. After 2 weeks of antitubercular therapy, the client is no longer considered contagious. The client needs to receive the drugs for 9 months to a year. He'll be positive when tested and if he's sick or under some stress he could have a relapse of the disease.

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder?

"The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal."-Cystic fibrosis is caused by dysfunction of the exocrine glands with no cystic lesions present in the lungs. Early treatment can improve symptoms and extend the life of clients, but a cure for this disorder is presently not available. Allergens are responsible for allergic asthma and not associated with cystic fibrosis.

A nurse recognizes that a client with tuberculosis needs further teaching when the client states:

"The people I have contact with at work should be checked regularly."-The client requires additional teaching if he states that coworkers need to be checked regularly. Such casual contacts needn't be tested for tuberculosis. However, a person in close contact with a person who's infectious is at risk and should be checked. The client demonstrates effective teaching if he states that he'll take his medications for 9 to 12 months, that coworkers don't need medication, and that he requires laboratory tests while on medication. Coworkers not needing medications, taking the medication for 9 to 12 months, and having scheduled laboratory tests are all appropriate statements.

A patient who wears contact lenses is to be placed on rifampin for tuberculosis therapy. What should the nurse tell the patient?

"You should switch to wearing your glasses while taking this medication."-The nurse informs the patient that rifampin may discolor contact lenses and that the patient may want to wear eyeglasses during treatment.

Which would be least likely to contribute to a case of hospital-acquired pneumonia?

-A nurse washes her hands before beginning client care.- HAP occurs when at least one of three conditions exists: host defenses are impaired, inoculums of organisms reach the lower respiratory tract and overwhelm the host's defenses, or a highly virulent organism is present.

A patient has a Mantoux skin test prior to being placed on an immunosuppressant for the treatment of Crohn's disease. What results would the nurse determine is not significant for holding the medication?

0 to 4 mm-The Mantoux method is used to determine whether a person has been infected with the TB bacillus and is used widely in screening for latent M. tuberculosis infection. The size of the induration determines the significance of the reaction. A reaction of 0 to 4 mm is considered not significant. A reaction of 5 mm or greater may be significant in people who are considered to be at risk.

A nurse is assessing the injection site of a client who has received a purified protein derivative test. Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation?

15-mm induration-A 10-mm induration strongly suggests a positive response in this tuberculosis screening test; a 15-mm induration clearly requires further evaluation. A reddened area, 5-mm induration, and a blister aren't positive reactions to the test and require no further evaluation.

A client admitted with pneumonia has a history of lung cancer and heart failure. A nurse caring for this client recognizes that he should maintain adequate fluid intake to keep secretions thin for ease in expectoration. The amount of fluid intake this client should maintain is:

2 L.- Clients need to keep their secretions thin by drinking 2 to 3 L of clear liquids per day. In clients with heart failure, fluid intake shouldn't exceed 1.5 L daily.

After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician tells family members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against tuberculosis. The client's daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be taken. What is the usual duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy?

6 to 12 months-Prophylactic isoniazid therapy must continue for 6 to 12 months at a daily dosage of 300 mg. Taking the drug for less than 6 months may not provide adequate protection against tuberculosis.

The nurse is educating a patient who will be started on an antituberculosis medication regimen. The patient asks the nurse, "How long will I have to be on these medications?" What should the nurse tell the patient?

6 to 12 months-Pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is treated primarily with anti-TB agents for 6 to 12 months. A prolonged treatment duration is necessary to ensure eradication of the organisms and to prevent relapse.

Acute respiratory failure (ARF) occurs when oxygen tension (PaO2) falls to less than __________ mm Hg (hypoxemia) and carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) rises to greater than __________ mm Hg (hypercapnia).

60; 50-Acute respiratory failure (ARF) is classified as hypoxemic (decrease in arterial oxygen tension [PaO2] to less than 60 mm Hg on room air) and hypercapnic (increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension [PaCO2] to greater than 50 mm Hg with an arterial pH of less than 7.35).

A nurse is reviewing a client's X-ray. The X-ray shows an endotracheal (ET) tube placed 3/4" (2 cm) above the carina and reveals nodular lesions and patchy infiltrates in the upper lobe. Which interpretation of the X-ray is accurate?

A disease process is present.-This X-ray suggests tuberculosis. An ET tube that's 3/4" above the carina is at an adequate level in the trachea. There's no need to advance it or pull it back.

The ICU nurse caring for a 2-year-old near drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome-Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia. Options A, C and D are incorrect.

The nurse caring for a 2-year-old near-drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome-Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.

The ICU nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with a diagnosis of smoke inhalation. The nurse knows that this client is at increased risk for which of the following?

Acute respiratory distress syndrome-Factors associated with the development of ARDS include aspiration related to near drowning or vomiting; drug ingestion/overdose; hematologic disorders such as disseminated intravascular coagulation or massive transfusions; direct damage to the lungs through prolonged smoke inhalation or other corrosive substances; localized lung infection; metabolic disorders such as pancreatitis or uremia; shock; trauma such as chest contusions, multiple fractures, or head injury; any major surgery; embolism; and septicemia. Smoke inhalation does not increase the risk for lung cancer, bronchitis, and tracheobronchitis.

Which action should the nurse take first in caring for a client during an acute asthma attack?

Administer bronchodilator as ordered.-Administering bronchodilator will dilate the airway and allow oxygen to reach the lungs. Although ABGs and chest x-ray are valid diagnostic tests for lung disorders, immediate action to restore gas exchange is a priority in an acute attack. The administration of oxygen is indicated, but without open bronchioles, the action will not be effective in an acute attack.

What is the reason for chest tubes after thoracic surgery?

Draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary.-After thoracic surgery, draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary to allow the lungs to expand. This makes options B, C, and D are incorrect.

A nurse is aware that the diagnostic feature of ARDS is sudden:

Unresponsive arterial hypoxemia.-Clinically, the acute phase of ARDS is marked by a rapid onset of severe dyspnea that usually occurs 12 to 48 hours after the initiating event. A characteristic feature is arterial hypoxemia that does not respond to supplemental oxygen.

A nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with lung cancer. What is a cardinal sign of lung cancer?

Cough or change in chronic cough-A cough or change in chronic cough is the most frequent symptom of lung cancer. Symptoms of fractured ribs consist primarily of severe pain on inspiration and expiration, obvious trauma, and shortness of breath. These symptoms may also be caused by other disorders, but they are not considered to be indicative of lung cancer.

A client has undergone a left hemicolectomy for bowel cancer. Which activities prevent the occurrence of postoperative pneumonia in this client?

Coughing, breathing deeply, frequent repositioning, and using an incentive spirometer- Activities that help to prevent the occurrence of postoperative pneumonia are: coughing, breathing deeply, frequent repositioning, medicating the client for pain, and using an incentive spirometer. Limiting fluids and lying still will increase the risk of pneumonia.

You are an occupational health nurse in a large ceramic manufacturing company. How would you intervene to prevent occupational lung disease in the employees of the company?

Fit all employees with protective masks.-The primary focus is prevention, with frequent examination of those who work in areas of highly concentrated dust or gases. Laws require work areas to be safe in terms of dust control, ventilation, protective masks, hoods, industrial respirators, and other protection. Workers are encouraged to practice healthy behaviors, such as quitting smoking. Adequate breaks, giving workshops, and providing smoking cessation materials do not prevent occupational lung diseases.

A patient arrives in the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes paradoxical chest movement when removing the patient's shirt. What does the nurse know that this finding indicates?

Flail chest-During inspiration, as the chest expands, the detached part of the rib segment (flail segment) moves in a paradoxical manner (pendelluft movement) in that it is pulled inward during inspiration, reducing the amount of air that can be drawn into the lungs. On expiration, because the intrathoracic pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure, the flail segment bulges outward, impairing the patient's ability to exhale. The mediastinum then shifts back to the affected side (Fig. 23-8). This paradoxical action results in increased dead space, a reduction in alveolar ventilation, and decreased compliance.

A client is admitted to the facility with a productive cough, night sweats, and a fever. Which action is most important in the initial care plan?

Placing the client in respiratory isolation-Because the client's signs and symptoms suggest a respiratory infection (possibly tuberculosis), respiratory isolation is indicated. Every 8 hours isn't frequent enough to assess the temperature of a client with a fever. Monitoring fluid intake and output may be required, but the client should first be placed in isolation. The nurse should wear gloves only for contact with mucous membranes, broken skin, blood, and other body fluids and substances.

Which type of pneumonia has the highest incidence in clients with AIDS and clients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer?

Pneumocystis-Pneumocystis pneumonia incidence is greatest in clients with AIDS and clients receiving immunosuppressive therapy for cancer, organ transplantation, and other disorders.

Which technique does a nurse suggest to a patient with pleurisy for splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side.-Teach the client to splint their chest wall by turning onto the affected side. The nurse instructs the patient with pleurisy to take analgesic medications as prescribed, but this not a technique related to splinting the chest wall. The patient can splint the chest wall with a pillow when coughing. The nurse instructs the patient to use heat or cold applications to manage pain with inspiration, but this not a technique related to splinting the chest wall.

A client who has just had a triple-lumen catheter placed in his right subclavian vein complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is decreased from baseline and, on auscultation of his chest, the nurse notes unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray is immediately ordered by the physician. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

Pneumothorax-Pneumothorax (air in the pleural space) is a potential complication of all central venous access devices. Signs and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, shoulder or neck pain, irritability, palpitations, light-headedness, hypotension, cyanosis, and unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray reveals the collapse of the affected lung that results from pneumothorax. Triple-lumen catheter insertion through the subclavian vein isn't associated with pulmonary embolism, MI, or heart failure.

A client suspected of developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is experiencing anxiety and agitation due to increasing hypoxemia and dyspnea. A nurse would implement which intervention to improve oxygenation and provide comfort for the client?

Position the client in the prone position-The patient is extremely anxious and agitated because of the increasing hypoxemia and dyspnea. It is important to reduce the patient's anxiety because anxiety increases oxygen expenditure. Oxygenation in patients with ARDS is sometimes improved in the prone position. Rest is essential to limit oxygen consumption and reduce oxygen needs.

You are caring for a client with chronic respiratory failure. What are the signs and symptoms of chronic respiratory failure?

Progressive loss of lung function associated with chronic disease-In chronic respiratory failure, the loss of lung function is progressive, usually irreversible, and associated with chronic lung disease or other disease. This makes options B, C, and D incorrect.

You are caring for a client status post lung resection. When assessing your client you find that the bubbling in the water-seal chamber for the chest tubes is more than you expected. What should you check when bubbling in the water-seal chamber is excessive?

See if there are leaks in the system.-Bubbling in the water-seal chamber occurs in the early postoperative period. If bubbling is excessive, the nurse checks the system for any kind of leaks. Fluctuation of the fluid in the water-seal chamber is initially present with each respiration. Fluctuations cease if the chest tube is clogged or a kink develops in the tubing. If the suction unit malfunctions, the suction control chamber, not the water-seal chamber, will be affected.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client correctly mentions which early sign of exacerbation?

Shortness of breath-Early signs and symptoms of pulmonary sarcoidosis may include dyspnea, cough, hemoptysis, and congestion. Generalized symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and weight loss.

The nurse is caring for a patient with pleurisy. What symptoms does the nurse recognize are significant for this patient's diagnosis?

Stabbing pain during respiratory movement-When the inflamed pleural membranes rub together during respiration (intensified on inspiration), the result is severe, sharp, knifelike pain. The key characteristic of pleuritic pain is its relationship to respiratory movement. Taking a deep breath, coughing, or sneezing worsens the pain. Pleuritic pain is limited in distribution rather than diffuse; it usually occurs only on one side. The pain may become minimal or absent when the breath is held. It may be localized or radiate to the shoulder or abdomen. Later, as pleural fluid develops, the pain decreases.

Which technique does the nurse suggest to a client with pleurisy while teaching about splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side.-The nurse teaches the client to splint the chest wall by turning onto the affected side. The nurse also instructs the client to take analgesic medications as prescribed and to use heat or cold applications to manage pain with inspiration. The client can also splint the chest wall with a pillow when coughing.

A patient comes to the clinic with fever, cough, and chest discomfort. The nurse auscultates crackles in the left lower base of the lung and suspects that the patient may have pneumonia. What does the nurse know is the most common organism that causes community-acquired pneumonia?

Streptococcus pneumoniae- Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in people younger than 60 years without comorbidity and in those 60 years and older with comorbidity (Wunderink & Niederman, 2012). S. pneumoniae, a gram-positive organism that resides naturally in the upper respiratory tract, colonizes the upper respiratory tract and can cause disseminated invasive infections, pneumonia and other lower respiratory tract infections, and upper respiratory tract infections such as otitis media and rhinosinusitis. It may occur as a lobar or bronchopneumonic form in patients of any age and may follow a recent respiratory illness.

A client is being discharged following pelvic surgery. What would be included in the patient care instructions to prevent the development of a pulmonary embolus?

Tense and relax muscles in the lower extremities.-Clients are encouraged to perform passive or active exercises, as tolerated, to prevent a thrombus from forming. Constrictive, tight-fitting clothing is a risk factor for the development of a pulmonary embolism in postoperative clients. Clients at risk for a DVT or a pulmonary embolism are encouraged to drink throughout the day to avoid dehydration. Estrogen replacement is a risk factor for the development of a pulmonary embolism.

A mediastinal shift occurs in which type of chest disorder?

Tension pneumothorax-A tension pneumothorax causes the lung to collapse and the heart, the great vessels, and the trachea to shift toward the unaffected side of the chest (mediastinal shift). A traumatic pneumothorax occurs when air escapes from a laceration in the lung itself and enters the pleural space or enters the pleural space through a wound in the chest wall. A simple pneumothorax most commonly occurs as air enters the pleural space through the rupture of a bleb or a bronchopleural fistula. Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac.

A client has been hospitalized for treatment of acute bacterial pneumonia. Which outcome indicates an improvement in the client's condition?

The client has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 90 mm Hg or higher.- As the acute phase of bacterial pneumonia subsides, normal lung function returns and the PaO2 typically rises, reaching 85 to 100 mm Hg. A PaCO2 of 65 mm Hg or higher is above normal and indicates CO2 retention — common during the acute phase of pneumonia. Restlessness and confusion indicate hypoxia, not an improvement in the client's condition. Bronchial breath sounds over the affected area occur during the acute phase of pneumonia; later, the affected area should be clear on auscultation.

A nurse observes a new environmental services employee enter the room of a client with severe acute respiratory syndrome. Which action by the employee requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

The employee enters the room wearing a gown, gloves, and a mask.-The nurse should tell the employee to wear the proper personal protective equipment, including a gown, gloves, N95 respirator, and eye protection, when entering the client's room. To prevent the spread of infection, a stethoscope, blood pressure cuff, and thermometer for single client use should be kept in the room of a client who requires isolation. Removing all personal protective equipment and washing hands before leaving the client's room are correct procedures.

While caring for a client with a chest tube, which nursing assessment would alert the nurse to a possible complication?

The tissues give a crackling sensation when palpated.-Subcutaneous emphysema is the result of air leaking between the subcutaneous layers. It is not a serious complication but is notable and reportable. Pink skin and blood in the collection chamber are normal findings. When two tubes are inserted, the posterior or lower tube drains fluid, whereas the anterior or upper tube is for air removal.

Which comfort technique does a nurse teach to a client with pleurisy to assist with splinting the chest wall?

Turn onto the affected side-The nurse teaches the client to splint the chest wall by turning onto the affected side in order to reduce the stretching of the pleurae and decrease pain.

A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for developing pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse include on the client's care plan?

Using strict hand hygiene- The nurse should use strict hand hygiene to help minimize the client's exposure to infection, which could lead to pneumonia. The head of the bed should be kept at a minimum of 30 degrees. The client should be turned and repositioned at least every 2 hours to help promote secretion drainage. Oral hygiene should be performed every 4 hours to help decrease the number of organisms in the client's mouth that could lead to pneumonia.

Which vitamin is usually administered with isoniazid (INH) to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy?

Vitamin B6-Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is usually administered with INH to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy. Vitamins C, D, and E are not appropriate.

A client is admitted to the health care facility with active tuberculosis (TB). What intervention should the nurse include in the client's care plan?

Wearing a disposable particulate respirator that fits snugly around the face-Because TB is transmitted by droplet nuclei from the respiratory tract, the nurse should put on a disposable particulate respirators that fit snugly around the face when entering the client's room. Occupation Safety and Health Administration standards require an individually fitted mask. Having the client wear a mask at all times would hinder sputum expectoration and respirations would make the mask moist. A nurse who doesn't anticipate contact with the client's blood or body fluids need not wear a gown or gloves when providing direct care. A client with TB should be in a room with laminar airflow, and the room's door should be shut at all times.

A client admitted with multiple traumatic injuries receives massive fluid resuscitation. Later, the physician suspects that the client has aspirated stomach contents. The nurse knows that this client is at highest risk for:

acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).- A client who receives massive fluid resuscitation or blood transfusions or who aspirates stomach contents is at highest risk for ARDS, which is associated with catastrophic events, such as multiple trauma, bacteremia, pneumonia, near drowning, and smoke inhalation. COPD refers to a group of chronic diseases, including bronchial asthma, characterized by recurring airflow obstruction in the lungs. Although renal failure may occur in a client with multiple trauma (depending on the organs involved), this client's history points to an assault on the respiratory system secondary to aspiration of stomach contents and massive fluid resuscitation.

A client who works construction and has been demolishing an older building is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. This lung inflammation is most likely caused by exposure to:

asbestos.-Asbestosis is caused by inhalation of asbestos dust, which is frequently encountered during construction work, particularly when working with older buildings. Laws restrict asbestos use, but old materials still contain asbestos. Inhalation of silica may cause silicosis, which results from inhalation of silica dust and is seen in workers involved with mining, quarrying, stone-cutting, and tunnel building. Inhalation of coal dust and other dusts may cause black lung disease. Pollen may cause an allergic reaction, but is unlikely to cause pneumoconiosis.

During discharge teaching, a nurse is instructing a client about pneumonia. The client demonstrates his understanding of relapse when he states that he must:

continue to take antibiotics for the entire 10 days.- The client demonstrates understanding of how to prevent relapse when he states that he must continue taking the antibiotics for the prescribed 10-day course. Although the client should keep the follow-up appointment with the physician and turn and reposition himself frequently, these interventions don't prevent relapse. The client should drink 51 to 101 oz (1,500 to 3,000 ml) per day of clear liquids.

A nurse assesses arterial blood gas results for a patient in acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which results are consistent with this disorder?

pH 7.28, PaO2 50 mm Hg-ARF is defined as a decrease in arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) to less than 60 mm Hg (hypoxemia) and an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) to >50 mm Hg (hypercapnia), with an arterial pH less than 7.35.

A physician stated to the nurse that the client has fluid in the pleural space and will need a thoracentesis. The nurse expects the physician to document this fluid as

pleural effusion.-Fluid accumulating within the pleural space is called a pleural effusion. A pneumothorax is air in the pleural space. A hemothorax is blood within the pleural space. Consolidation is lung tissue that has become more solid in nature as a result of the collapse of alveoli or an infectious process.

Resistance to a first-line antituberculotic agent in a client who has not received previous treatment is referred to as

primary drug resistance.-Primary drug resistance refers to resistance to one of the first-line antituberculotic agents in people who have not received previous treatment. Secondary or acquired drug resistance is resistance to one or more antituberculotic agents in clients undergoing therapy. Multidrug resistance is resistance to two agents, isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. Tertiary drug resistance is not a type of resistance.