Ch 36: Pretest, Post Test, Chapter Test
What is an appropriate-sized landing zone for a helicopter? A. 75 feet by 75 feet B. 100 feet by 100 feet C. 25 feet by 25 feet D. 50 feet by 50 feet
100 feet by 100 feet
A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely. A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 D. 5
3
When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis? A. Refueling the ambulance for the next call B. Beginning to reorganize the ambulance C. Documentation D. A safe return
A safe return
Regarding the use of emergency sirens, which of the following statement is FALSE? A. Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise. B. Dense shrubbery may block the sound of the siren. C. EMTs should assume that other drivers cannot hear the siren. D. The sound of the siren may increase the patient's anxiety.
Ambulance operators are not affected by siren noise.
At the landing zone for a medical helicopter, which of the following actions is appropriate? A. Approach fully erect from the direction of the tail rotor. B. Approach as soon as the helicopter skids touch the ground. C. Approach the aircraft from the front, escorted by the flight personnel. D. If the landing zone is not flat, approach from the uphill side.
Approach the aircraft from the front, escorted by the flight personnel.
How many straps should a patient-securing device have? A. At least three B. At least one C. At least two D. At least four
At least three
At what point for most services should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be performed? A. When you arrive at the scene of the first call of your shift B. At the beginning of your shift, before your first call C. On being dispatched for your first call of the shift D. On returning to service after the first call of the shift
At the beginning of your shift, before your first call
Which of the following statements concerning disinfection is TRUE? A. A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls. B. A high-level disinfectant will kill high numbers of bacterial spores C. High-level disinfection destroys all sources of infection. D. A solution of 1 part household bleach to 100 parts water is a low-level disinfectant for health care purposes.
A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls.
Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off? A. Warning lights B. Dash-mounted gauges C. Windshield wiper operation D. Battery
Battery
Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time? A. During transfer of care B. En route to the hospital C. Before moving the patient to the ambulance D. Before the primary assessment
Before moving the patient to the ambulance
Which of the following is NOT one of the actions necessary to ready an ambulance for its engine-on inspection? A. Pull the ambulance from quarters if engine exhaust fumes will be a problem. B. Set the parking brake and put the transmission in park. C. Check the level of the fluids. D. Have your partner chock the wheels.
Check the level of the fluids.
Which of the following MUST be done during patient transport? A. Completion of the patient care report B. Confirmation of your field impression C. Continuous monitoring of the patient D. Communication with medical direction
Continuous monitoring of the patient
Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? A. Exceed posted speed limits without endangering life and property. B. Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on. C. Expect freedom from liability in the event of any collision while on duty. D. Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing.
Exceed posted speed limits without endangering life and property.
Which of the following is allowed of EMTs driving an emergency ambulance in MOST states? A. Proceeding through a red light without slowing B. Speeding through school zone C. Exceeding the posted speed limit D. Driving without due regard if the patient is critical
Exceeding the posted speed limit
Which of the following is required to be a part of the on-board, permanently mounted equipment in a basic life support ambulance? A. Fixed suction unit B. Backboard C. AED D. Sterile burn sheets
Fixed suction unit
Which of the following fluids is NOT checked by an EMT? A. Oil B. Hydraulic C. Transmission D. Coolant
Hydraulic
Which of these statements about the general nature of state laws that govern emergency ambulance operations is TRUE? A. If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of others, you are liable for the consequences. B. You must use red lights and siren any time you are responding to a call. C. Most states allow an exemption for reckless driving performed while responding to an emergency. D. In an emergency, saving the patient's life overrides all other considerations.
If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of others, you are liable for the consequences.
Which of the following is NOT a basic guideline for safe driving? A. Ignore GPS and other distractions. B. Minimize lights-and-siren "hot" responses. C. Come to a complete stop at intersections. D. Wear your seat belts.
Ignore GPS and other distractions.
How will a patient with difficulty breathing but no possibility of a spinal injury likely prefer to be transported? A. Supine B. In Trendelenburg position C. In a lateral recumbent position D. In a seated position
In a seated position
Which of the following is optional equipment on a basic life support ambulance? A. Disinfectant solution B. Infant cervical immobilization device C. Flashlights D. Lubricating jelly
Infant cervical immobilization device
The saline drops and bulb suction required to be carried on all basic life support ambulances are for which population? A. Adults B. Teens C. School-age children D. Infants
Infants
Which of the following disinfectants or procedures would be appropriate for cleaning and killing germs on ambulance floors and walls? A. High level B. Sterilization C. Low level D. Intermediate level
Low level
Which of the following ambulance types is built for rugged durability and large storage? A. Type III B. Light duty C. Medium duty D. Type I
Medium duty
Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation? A. BLS B. Type A C. ALS D. Medium duty
Medium duty
Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for medical helicopter transportation from a crash scene to a trauma center? A. Penetrating injury to the chest B. Abdominal trauma with signs of shock C. Head injury with altered mental status D. Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest
Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest
Which of the following is an appropriate infection control measure to be taken at the completion of a call? A. Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper B. Placing blood-saturated dressings and disposable items in regular hospital waste containers C. Using gel hand sanitizer to clean your hands D. Using high-level disinfectant for all ambulances surfaces
Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper
While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following would the EMD need to do in this situation? A. Notify the victim's family of the incident. B. Provide prearrival medical instructions to the caller. C. Determine the location of the shooter. D. Provide the caller with information about local hospitals.
Provide prearrival medical instructions to the caller.
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher? A. Coordinating with other public safety agencies B. Providing medical direction to the responding units C. Prioritizing calls that come in D. Providing emergency instructions to the caller
Providing medical direction to the responding units
Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance? A. Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. B. Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance. C. Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance. D. Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance.
Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The ambulance should be easily seen from 360 degrees. B. Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights. C. The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. D. In most states, it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight.
The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.
Which of the following statements regarding safety at highway incidents is generally TRUE? A. The fewer people and vehicles are gathered, the less the emergency. B. The more people and vehicles are gathered, the faster the emergency response. C. The fewer people and vehicles are gathered, the greater the responsibility. D. The more people and vehicles are gathered, the greater the risk.
The more people and vehicles are gathered, the greater the risk.
Which of the following situations may warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility? A. The distance to the medical facility is 15 minutes away. B. The patient is located in a remote area. C. The patient is in cardiac arrest. D. The patient is in stable condition.
The patient is located in a remote area.
Which of the following statements about passing other vehicles in a no-passing zone on an emergency call is TRUE? A. Ignore precautions against danger to property. B. Never pass a school bus under any circumstances. C. Signaling is unnecessary. D. The way must be clear.
The way must be clear.
Which of the following statements about crossovers on highways is TRUE? A. They can be dangerous. B. They are the safest way to turn around. C. They require a police escort. D. Ambulances are not permitted to use them.
They can be dangerous.
Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. How should you position your ambulance? A. Immediately behind the vehicle where your patients are, to block the view of people driving by B. Ahead of the collision site to avoid blocking traffic C. In the median or off the side of the road D. To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene
To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene
Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation? A. Modu-van B. Type I C. Rescue squad D. Type A
Type I
The U.S. Department of Transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances EXCEPT: A. Type III. B. Type IV. C. Type II. D. Type I.
Type IV.
An ambulance is typically classified according to: A. durability. B. weight. C. speed. D. US DOT specifications.
US DOT specifications.
You have transported a stable patient with complaints of having abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. On arrival, you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. You have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the patient, but all are currently helping other patients. Your partner tells you to take the patient to the waiting room and leave him because the dispatcher of your service is holding several serious calls. What should you do? A. Demand immediate attention for your patient. B. Leave the patient in the waiting room and respond to the next call. C. Wait until you can transfer your patient to the emergency department staff. D. Contact medical direction for orders.
Wait until you can transfer your patient to the emergency department staff.
When answering a call for help, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher will ask all of the following questions EXCEPT which one? A. What is your insurance provider? B. What is your call-back number? C. What is your location? D. What's the problem?
What is your insurance provider?
Which of the following is the most common device used for loading the patient into the ambulance? A. Folding backboard B. Stokes basket C. Wheeled ambulance stretcher D. Scoop stretcher
Wheeled ambulance stretcher
Disregarding certain traffic laws while responding to an emergency is: A. a privilege granted under law. B. against the law. C. permitted only when a critical patient is on board. D. legal only for municipal employees.
a privilege granted under law.
After you clean up blood, vomitus, and other body fluids that have soiled the floor of your ambulance, you wipe down any equipment that has been splashed. Place disposable towels you used to clean up blood or body fluids directly in: A. a red bag. B. a clear plastic bag marked "disposables." C. a nearby wastebasket. D. any biohazard container nearby.
a red bag
You are delivering a stable patient to the emergency department. Hospital personnel are busy, and you have a call holding. You transfer the patient to a hospital bed and hand the patient a copy of the patient care report. This is an example of: A. providing a written report. B. patient advocacy. C. transfer of care. D. abandonment.
abandonment
Failure to formally transfer the patient to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for: A. unlawful consent. B. false imprisonment. C. abandonment. D. patient endangerment.
abandonment.
You have transported a patient to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. At what point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete? A. As soon as you get back to the station and notify your dispatch center you are in quarters B. As soon as you put the stretcher back in the ambulance with a clean sheet and you notify your dispatch center you are available C. As soon as your partner completes the patient care report and you are restocking the supplies used during the call D. After your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked
after your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked
Before removing any pressure caps, you should: A. chock the wheels. B. pull the ambulance from quarters. C. allow the engine to cool. D. turn on the engine.
allow the engine to cool.
When transferring a patient to the ambulance, you must: A. protect the patient's cervical spine. B. use at least three rescuers. C. place the patient in the position of comfort. D. appropriately package the patient.
appropriately package the patient.
Prepare the prehospital care report: A. during transport. B. while waiting to transfer a patient to hospital staff. C. on the way to the scene of a call. D. as soon as you are free from patient-care activities.
as soon as you are free from patient-care activities.
Lock a wheeled stretcher to prevent movement in the ambulance: A. only in an emergency. B. at the head. C. at the foot. D. at both ends.
at both ends.
One reason that police escorts of ambulances driving at emergency status are typically discouraged is because: A. ambulances do not move as fast as police cruisers. B. drivers who pull over for the escort often pull back into traffic in front of the ambulance. C. there is no guarantee that the police officer knows where the call is located. D. police officers are not accustomed to driving an ambulance.
drivers who pull over for the escort often pull back into traffic in front of the ambulance.
After you have moved an unconscious patient with an airway adjunct in place to the transport position, you should: A. ensure the patient has adequate air exchange. B. take steps to immobilize the patient. C. remove the adjunct. D. assess the patient for life threats.
ensure the patient has adequate air exchange
Which part of an EMT's typical duties begins by obtaining a report from the off-going shift regarding any potential problems with the ambulance and equipment? A. Terminating the call B. Receiving and responding to a call C. Transferring the patient to the ambulance D. Ensuring ambulance readiness for service
ensuring ambulance readiness for service
Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding. A. privately employed B. inexperienced C. younger D. experienced
inexperienced
Which of the following actions is part of the engine-off ambulance inspection and can be performed in quarters? A. Check dash-mounted gauges for proper operation. B. Check the headlights. C. Inspect the body of the vehicle. D. Test the parking brake.
inspect the body of the vehicle
Two-way communications equipment is required on basic life support ambulances for communication between the EMS provider, the dispatcher, and: A. the patient's physician. B. police and fire department personnel. C. other units. D. medical direction.
medical direction.
If resuscitation is required, a patient with a suspected spinal injury: A. can be propped on the right side for drainage of fluids from the mouth. B. can be transported in a sitting position for comfort. C. can be propped on the left side for drainage of fluids from the mouth. D. must remain supine with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.
must remain supine with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.
After responding to the scene of a patient complaining of difficulty breathing, you and your partner determine that the patient's condition is not life threatening based on a thorough assessment. You should transport the patient to an appropriate medical facility with: A. neither lights nor siren activated. B. the emergency lights on, but without activating the siren. C. both lights and siren activated. D. the emergency lights off, but activating the siren when traffic builds.
neither lights nor siren activated.
A study of 18 years of ambulance statistics in New York state demonstrated that most collisions occurred: A. on a dry road with inclement weather during nighttime hours in an intersection. B. on a wet road with clear weather during nighttime hours in an intersection. C. on a dry road with clear weather during daylight hours in an intersection. D. on a wet road with inclement weather during daylight hours in an intersection.
on a dry road with clear weather during daylight hours in an intersection.
When is the transfer of care at the receiving hospital completed? A. As soon as the patient is physically on the hospital's property B. After completion of the hospital admissions process C. Once the patient has been transferred to a hospital bed D. Only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has accepted patient care
only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has been accepted patient care
If you are not the primary or first-arriving unit to the scene of a highway collision, then: A. size up the incident from a distance. B. park next to the primary unit for staging. C. park or stage your unit near the on-ramp. D. determine the resources needed when the primary unit has sized up the scene.
park or stage your unit near the on-ramp.
Covering a patient in the ambulance does all of the following EXCEPT: A. maintain body temperature. B. prevent exposure to the elements. C. prevent infection. D. ensure privacy.
prevent infection.
Emergency Medical Dispatchers are trained to: A. provide prearrival medical instructions. B. administer advanced life support. C. review EMS encounter forms. D. provide medical direction.
provide prearrival medical instructions.
To make up an ambulance cot, you would FIRST: A. raise the cot to a high-level position. B. remove all soiled linen. C. clean the mattress surface. D. remove all unsoiled blankets and pillows.
raise the cot to a high-level position.
Which of the following guidelines should you adhere to when setting up a landing zone for a helicopter? A. Shine a light into the cockpit as the helicopter approaches to signal where you are. B. Choose ground with a slope of greater than 8 degrees. C. Select an area that is a flat square with 100-foot sides. D. Mark each corner of the landing zone with flares and place a fifth warning device on the downwind side of the landing zone.
select an area that is flat square with 100 foot sides
An obstetrical kit should be kept on board all basic life support ambulances that is: A. included with other sterile items in a case. B. separate and sterile. C. sufficient to provide ALS services to patients in labor. D. fixed and rigid.
separate and sterile.
Obtaining your release from the hospital: A. is implicit upon completion of patient transfer without your needing to speak to anyone. B. simply requires the emergency department nurse or physician if you are still needed. C. typically happens only when the chief of emergency medicine authorizes you to go. D. is a formal process involving the completion and approval of a written form.
simply requires the emergency dept nurse or physician if you are still needed
Among the miscellaneous equipment typically required on a basic life support ambulance is a: A. sphygmomanometer. B. pediatric stethoscope. C. infant oxygen mask. D. mobile phone.
sphygmomanometer.
When using a siren, remember that: A. all motorists except those with hearing impairments will hear the siren and respond appropriately. B. some drivers will not get out of the way even if they hear the siren and must be intimidated to allow passage. C. if any driver does not yield, you are required by law to report that motorist's license number. D. the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves.
the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves.
For location, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher does NOT need: A. the street name with the direction designator. B. the nearest cross street. C. the name of the development or subdivision. D. the exact route to the location from currently available responders.
the exact same route to the location from currently available responders
Which of the following is MOST clearly a legitimate reason for requesting air medical transport of a critical patient? A. The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground. B. The weather is stormy and visibility is low for ground transportation. C. The receiving hospital is in the response area. D. Extrication of a high-priority patient can be completed quickly.
the facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 min away by ground
What information should be given to the hospital staff FIRST in providing a transfer of care report? A. Start by asking the hospital staff what they want to know. B. Always start with the patient's age, sex, and chief complaint. C. The most important information should be provided first, such as any changes in the patient's condition. D. The patient's insurance and primary physician should be provided first.
the most important info should be provided first, such as any changes in the patients condition
A true emergency requiring the emergency mode of ambulance operation is typically defined as: A. respiratory distress. B. any traumatic injury requiring an EMS call. C. any medical condition requiring an EMS call. D. the possibility of loss of life and limb.
the possibility of loss of life and limb.
When deciding whether or not to drive to the hospital with lights and siren activated for any patient, the driver should consider: A. how many calls are waiting for an available ambulance. B. the patient's past medical history. C. the potential risk of making the patient's condition worse. D. the patient's preference for lights and siren.
the potential risk of making the patient's condition worse.
A call-back number is not necessary for an Emergency Medical Dispatcher to ask about if: A. the chief complaint doesn't seem life threatening. B. the system is an enhanced 911 system. C. the chief complaint doesn't seem urgent. D. the patient is a minor.
the system is an enhanced 911 system.
Drivers expect a vehicle operating four-way flashers to be: A. easier to pass quickly. B. responding to an emergency. C. traveling at a very slow speed. D. about to make a turn.
traveling at a very slow speed
If you are the first unit on the scene of an accident on the highway, you should: A. wait in your vehicle for additional units. B. set up a safe area to stage downstream of the incident. C. use your vehicle to protect the scene. D. set up your staging area on a crossover.
use your vehicle to protect the scene.
What factor is LEAST likely to affect ANY emergency response? A. Week-long festival B. Day of the week C. Weather D. Time of the day
week long festival
Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving: A. defensively. B. with emergency privilege. C. as a public servant. D. with due regard.
with due regard
When arriving at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance downstream of the incident UNLESS: A. you are establishing a safe area for command vehicles. B. you are the first unit on scene. C. traffic appears to be light. D. directed to park upstream by police.
you are the first unit on scene
You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1 transport? A. 25-year-old with signs of shock who is not breathing B. 45-year-old with mild abdominal bruising and slightly depressed vital signs C. 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs D. 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns
25-year-old with signs of shock who is not breathing
The size of the occlusive dressings that must be carried on a basic life support ambulance is at least: A. 8" × 6". B. 10" × 12". C. 3" × 8". D. 4" × 4".
3" × 8".
Because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue, advanced life support, and hazardous materials operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. This has necessitated introduction of a ________ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage and work areas. A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. medium-duty
medium-duty