ch 7, ch 8, ch 9

7. The joint between adjacent vertebral bodies is a A. symphysis that is amphiarthrotic. B. symphysis that is synarthrotic. C. symphysis that is diarthrotic. D. synovial that is synarthrotic.

A

70. Myasthenia gravis is A. an autoimmune disorder. B. a bacterial infection. C. a form of cancer. D. the result of injury.

A

28. A shift in metabolism that breaks down pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called A. aerobic threshold. B. lactic acid threshold. C. pyruvic acid threshold. D. glycogenic threshold.

B

15. Greg trips over a toy and experiences a sharp pain. His physician diagnosis a torn meniscus. Greg has injured his A. knee joint. B. elbow joint. C. shoulder joint. D. hip joint.

A

17. Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone? A. Broad, flat skull bones B. Phalanges of the fingers C. Humerus D. Femur

A

18. Fluid-filled sacs containing synovial fluid are called A. bursae. B. menisci. C. ligaments. D. tendons.

A

18. The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that: A. the bone is lengthening. B. the bone is no longer lengthening. C. the bone is increasing in diameter. D. the bone has completed ossification.

A

19. Fibrocartilage discs that divide the joint into two compartments are called A. menisci. B. bursae. C. tendons. D. ligaments.

A

2. The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the A. epimysium. B. perimysium. C. endomysium. D. sarcomysium.

A

20. The toxin that causes botulism A. prevents release of acetylcholine. B. promotes release of acetylcholine. C. decomposes acetylcholine. D. prevents decomposition of acetylcholine.

A

21. In which of the following is rotational movement possible? A. Ball-and-socket joint B. Condylar joint C. Hinge joint D. Pelvic joint

A

7. Articular cartilage of a long bone is found A. on the outer surface of the epiphyses. B. inside the medullary cavity. C. on the outer surface of the diaphysis. D. in the spaces of the spongy bone.

A

28. Which of the following is the most abundant form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of the bone? A. Calcium oxalate B. Hydroxyapatite C. Calcium pyrophosphate D. Calcium carbonate

B

30. Bones A. are not living tissue. B. are multifunctional. C. do not contribute to homeostasis. D. have a matrix composed mostly of organic salts.

B

30. When ATP levels are low, the relationship between ATP and creatine phosphate is that A. ATP supplies energy to synthesize creatine phosphate from creatine and phosphate. B. creatine phosphate supplies energy to regenerate ATP from ADP and phosphate. C. both have three phosphate groups. D. both are required to stimulate a muscle to contract.

B

11. A bone lengthens A. as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity. B. due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts. C. as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate. D. as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.

C

12. Osteoblasts are ______, whereas osteocytes are ______. A. bone-forming cells/ bone-dissolving cells B. mature bone cells/ bone-forming cells C. bone-forming cells/ mature bone cells D. bone-dissolving cells/ mature bone cells

C

13. The enzyme acetylecholinesterase causes acetylcholine to A. bind to actin. B. be secreted from the motor end plate. C. decompose. D. form cross-bridges.

C

14. Creatine phosphate A. causes the decomposition of ATP. B. causes the decomposition of ADP. C. supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP. D. supplies energy for the breakdown of ATP to ADP.

C

16. Articular cartilage receives oxygen and nutrients from A. a direct blood supply. B. blood vessels in underlying spongy bone. C. surrounding synovial fluid. D. chondrocytes.

C

16. Tawanda finishes a sprint and suffers great pain in her calf muscles. Her muscle cramps are most likely due to a temporary deficit of A. actin. B. myosin. C. ATP. D. ADP.

C

40. The primary curves of the vertebral column are the A. cervical and lumbar curvatures. B. cervical and thoracic curvatures. C. thoracic and sacral curvatures. D. lumbar and sacral curvatures.

C

41. In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the A. refractory period. B. relaxation period. C. latent period. D. contraction period.

C

41. Which of the following best describes the causes of common forms of arthritis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are autoimmune diseases. B. Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are caused by effects of aging. C. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease and osteoarthritis is caused by effects of aging. D. Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by effects of aging and osteoarthritis is an autoimmune disease.

C

79. Movement at the ankle that brings the foot closer to the shin is ________.

dorsiflexion

97. The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin cellular layer called ______.

endosteum

89. The muscle that covers the upper part of the cranium is the _______________.

epicranius

85. Straightening the leg at the knee is a type of movement called ______.

extension

46. The symphysis pubis is a fibrous joint.

false

47. Ossification typically completes after age 40.

false

52. A ball-and-socket joint is also called an ellipsoidal joint.

false

54. A condylar joint allows only up-and-down motion in one plane.

false

58. Rotation of the forearms so the palms face upward is called pronation.

false

60. The hip joint allows a greater freedom of movement than the shoulder joint.

false

61. The patellar ligament connects the medial condyle of the femur to the medial condyle of the tibia.

false

65. Bones in the human body are non-living.

false

66. Osteoarthritis is caused by a bacterial infection.

false

67. Arthritis is a circulatory problem.

false

70. Bone remodeling occurs as osteoblasts resorb bone tissue and osteoclasts replace the bone.

false

71. Testosterone has a stronger effect on epiphyseal plates than estrogens.

false

73. The thyroid gland secretes growth hormone.

false

75. Blood cell formation is called osteogenesis.

false

76. In the initiation of muscle fiber contraction calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, exposing active sites on actin for cross-bridge formation.

false

77. The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk.

false

78. Acetylcholine released by the myofibril crosses the synaptic cleft to bind to the motor neuron ending.

false

80. Intervertebral discs are formed of skeletal muscle.

false

81. The first cervical vertebra is the axis and the second is the atlas.

false

83. The sternum develops in three parts: the lower manubrium, middle body, and upper xiphoid.

false

88. The ischium is the anterior part of the hip bone.

false

89. The femur extends from the knee to the foot.

false

90. As a person ages, osteoblasts outnumber osteoclasts.

false

93. A laminectomy is a procedure used to treat osteoporosis that removes part of the posterior arch of a vertebra.

false

95. Lordosis is excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column.

false

104. The intervertebral discs are formed of _____________.

fibrocartilage

78. A yoga move in which a foot is grasped and the lower limb brought upwards so the foot touches the buttock is an example of ______.

flexion

103. The membranous soft spots of a newborn's skull are called ______.

fontanels

70. A _______ is a joint formed where a bony socket meets a cone-shaped bony process.

gomphosis

73. Joint capsules may be reinforced by bundles of strong, tough collagenous fibers called ______.

ligaments

87. With advancing age, ________ become less elastic as the cross-links that hold collagen molecules together break down.

ligaments

81. The movement of a limb away from the midline is ______.

abduction

82. In order to stimulate skeletal muscle fibers, motor neurons release the neurotransmitter ______.

acetylcholine

75. Fluid-filled sacs associated with synovial joints are _______.

bursae

107. The bones of the wrist collectively form the ______.

carpus

109. Peter receives a blow to the front of the knee on the soccer field and collapses. The bruised bone is the ___________.

patella

106. The shoulder is part of the _________ girdle.

pectoral

98. The tough, fibrous vascular tissue that encloses a long bone is the ______.

periosteum

82. The movement of a limb around an axis is ______.

rotation

85. The combining of a series of twitches to produce a more forceful contraction is called ______.

summation

108. The two pubic bones are connected at a joint called the pubic ____________.

symphysis

71. Limited movement occurs when forces compress the cartilaginous pad between bones at a _______________ .

symphysis

69. A __________ joins the fibula and tibia.

syndesmosis

88. Muscles that assist an agonist are called ______.

synergists

72. Most joints of the skeletal system are _________.

synovial

74. A shiny, vascular lining of loose connective tissue that forms the inner layer of the joint capsule is the _______ membrane.

synovial

1. The term "bone" can refer to A. a tissue, an organ or a type of cell. B. a tissue or an organ only. C. a tissue only D. an organ only.

A

10. A gomphosis is a ______ joint. A. fibrous B. cartilagenous C. synovial D. synchondrosis

A

11. A synchondrosis A. allows bone growth. B. equalizes pressure between vertebrae. C. includes a joint capsule. D. allows free movement.

A

27. The largest and most complex synovial joint is the A. hip joint. B. knee joint. C. elbow joint. D. shoulder joint.

B

22. Endochondral ossification ______, whereas intramembranous ossification ______. A. replaces hyaline cartilage/ replaces undifferentiated connective tissue B. forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull/ occurs in the limbs C. inhibits osteoblast activity/ activates osteoclast activity D. activates osteoclasts/ inhibits osteoblast activity

A

25. The functional connection between a neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber is a A. synapse. B. fascia. C. neuroma. D. dendrite.

A

26. Red bone marrow functions in the formation of A. red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. B. red blood cells only. C. white blood cells only. D. red and white blood cells only.

A

29. Oxygen debt in muscles may develop because of A. the inability of respiratory and circulatory systems to supply enough oxygen to skeletal muscles when used strenuously for a minute or two. B. the inability of myoglobin molecules to store enough oxygen when skeletal muscles are used strenuously for a minute or two. C. too much oxygen used in forming pyruvic acid when skeletal muscles are contracted strenuously for a minute or two. D. too high a concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere.

A

29. Which of the following is not a function of bones? A. Contraction B. Attachment for muscles C. Blood cell production D. Storage of inorganic salts

A

3. Myofibrils are composed primarily of A. actin and myosin. B. perimysium and endomysium. C. troponin and tropomyosin. D. fascia and tendons.

A

33. Movement that brings the foot farther from the shin is a(n) A. plantar flexion. B. hyperextension. C. rotation. D. dorsiflexion.

A

34. The pituitary gland is located in the A. sella turcica. B. cribriform plate. C. sphenoidal sinus. D. mandibular fossa.

A

36. The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of A. the zygomatic and temporal bones. B. the zygomatic and maxillary bones. C. the maxillary and temporal bones. D. the temporal and parietal bones.

A

38. Bacteria infecting the mucous membranes in the air cells of the mastoid process most likely spread from the A. middle ear. B. meninges. C. frontal sinus. D. maxillary sinus.

A

41. The secondary curves of the vertebral column are the A. cervical and lumbar curvatures. B. cervical and thoracic curvatures. C. thoracic and sacral curvatures. D. lumbar and sacral curvatures.

A

42. A muscle fiber exposed to a series of stimuli of increasing frequency combines individual twitches (summation) which results in A. complete sustained contraction. B. muscle tone. C. a latent period. D. flaccid muscles.

A

44. Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called A. true ribs. B. false ribs. C. floating ribs. D. vertebrochondral ribs.

A

45. Smooth muscle has ___________ and not troponin. A. calmodulin B. fibronectin C. norepinephrine D. titin

A

46. The clavicles A. provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs. B. are the strongest bones in the body. C. provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs. D. are part of the axial skeleton.

A

47. Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle A. contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly. B. contracts more slowly and relaxes more rapidly. C. contracts more rapidly and relaxes more slowly. D. contracts more rapidly and relaxes more rapidly.

A

49. Short muscle cells with centrally located nuclei are A. smooth muscle fibers. B. skeletal muscle fibers. C. cardiac muscle fibers. D. striated muscle fibers.

A

5. A suture is an example of a(n) A. fibrous joint. B. cartilagenous joint. C. synovial joint. D. plane joint.

A

50. Both acetylcholine and norepinephrine can affect A. smooth muscle contraction. B. skeletal muscle contraction. C. synthesis of actin and myosin. D. exercise tolerance.

A

50. Having extra digits is termed A. polydactyly. B. polyuria. C. polyploidy. D. polydipsia.

A

51. Which of the following are components of the pelvic girdle? A. hip bones. B. coxal bones. C. sacrum. D. all of the above.

A

52. The acetabulum is A. a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur. B. a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur. C. the prominence of the hip. D. the anterior portion of the hip bone.

A

53. Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis? A. A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones. B. A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones. C. A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones. D. A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.

A

56. The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the A. foot. B. hand. C. pelvis. D. skull.

A

58. The muscle that adducts and flexes the arm is the A. coracobrachialis. B. pectoralis minor. C. levator scapulae. D. teres major.

A

59. Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence? A. A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms. B. A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms. C. Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms. D. A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces.

A

61. The soleus is a muscle that forms part of the A. calf. B. buttocks. C. thigh. D. shoulder.

A

63. Which of the following is unique in that its insertion is to fascia and not bone? A. palmaris longus B. extensor carpi ulnaris C. flexor digitorum profundus D. extensor digitorum

A

54. Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male? A. The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller. B. The distance between the female ischial spines is greater. C. The obturator foramen is more oval in a female. D. The female iliac bones are less flared.

B

14. Bones of a synovial joint are held together by A. a synovial membrane. B. a joint capsule. C. a meniscus. D. articular cartilage.

B

14. In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in ______, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ______. A. pituitary dwarfism/ rickets B. rickets/ retardation of bone development C. excess calcium absorption/ osteomalacia D. soft bones/ rickets

B

15. The amount of oxygen liver cells require to support the conversion of lactic acid to produce glucose or glycogen is the A. refractory quantity. B. oxygen debt. C. anaerobic concentration. D. aerobic conversion.

B

17. Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross-bridges with molecules of A. ATP. B. myosin. C. troponin. D. tropomyosin.

B

2. Joints are also called A. annotations. B. articulations. C. affectations. D. affiliations.

B

20. Which one of the following is true? A. Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix. B. Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae. C. Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts. D. Osteoclasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.

B

21. Rigor mortis affects skeletal muscles a few hours after death, due to A. an increase in ATP and decreased permeability to calcium. B. a decrease in ATP and increased permeability to calcium. C. an increase in ATP. D. impulses that produce sustained contractions.

B

24. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Tropomyosin molecules move and expose specific sites on myosin filaments. B. Actin filaments slide along myosin filaments. C. Cross-bridges form between actin and the sarcolemma. D. Filaments of troponin and tropomyosin slide past one another.

B

24. Which of the following terms and descriptions is correctly paired? A. Extension-bending the leg at the knee or decreasing the angle between the upper and lower leg B. Abduction-lifting the arm horizontally to form a right angle with the side of the body or moving a part away from the midline C. Flexion-straightening parts at a joint so that the angle between them is increased D. Adduction-moving a part in a circle or returning the arm from the horizontal position to the front of the body

B

31. The hip joint has less freedom of movement than the shoulder joint because A. the joint capsule of the hip is surrounded by muscles and the shoulder is not. B. the articulating parts of the hip are closer than those of the shoulder. C. the hip joint capsule is less elastic than the shoulder. D. the hip has more supportive ligaments than the shoulder.

B

32. The axial skeleton includes A. the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles. B. the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column. C. the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges. D. the femur, tibia, and fibula.

B

34. Skeletal muscles help maintain body temperature in that A. the more active they are, the more heat is used up. B. the more active they are, the more heat is released. C. excess myosin is quickly metabolized to yield heat. D. they conserve actin and myosin in cold weather.

B

36. A myogram is A. a chart that shows how many muscle cells a neuron synapses with. B. a recording of the events of a twitch. C. a measurement of muscle tone. D. a depiction of the results of a stress test.

B

38. An example of a partial but sustained contraction is A. knee jerking. B. muscle tone. C. a twitch. D. eye blinking.

B

39. A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the A. ethmoid bone B. maxillae. C. mandible. D. vomer bone.

B

39. Artificial joints are built of A. glucosamine and chondroitin. B. silicone polymers for small joints and metals for large joints. C. silicone polymers for large joints and metals for small joints. D. proteins for small joints and carbohydrates for large joints.

B

4. Types of fibrous joints include A. synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, and diarthrotic joints. B. syndesmosis, suture, and gomphosis joints. C. synchondrosis, symphysis, and synovial joints. D. pivot, condylar, and ellipsoidal joints.

B

4. Which of the following is not found associated with spongy bone? A. Trabeculae B. Osteons C. Canaliculi D. Osteocytes

B

40. The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called A. latency. B. recruitment. C. threshold stimulation. D. sustained contraction.

B

43. A sprain involves A. inflammation of bursae. B. overstretched or torn ligaments and tendons in a joint. C. dislocation of bones in joint. D. overuse of a joint.

B

44. Smooth muscle lacks A. actin and myosin. B. transverse tubules and striations. C. myofibrils. D. nuclei and mitochondria.

B

47. The three borders of the scapula are called A. the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders. B. the superior, lateral, and medial borders. C. the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid cavity. D. the supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders.

B

48. The type of muscle cell that lacks transverse tubules, has a single nucleus, and is under involuntary control is A. skeletal muscle. B. smooth muscle. C. cardiac muscle. D. striated muscle.

B

49. The capitulum and trochlea are located A. at the proximal end of the humerus. B. at the distal end of the humerus. C. at the distal end of the ulna. D. in the hand.

B

53. Bones and muscles function as mechanical devices called A. lifts. B. levers. C. syncytia. D. ladders.

B

57. Height begins to decrease on average after age A. 25. B. 30. C. 50. D. 65.

B

59. The muscle that opposes a particular action is called the A. synergist. B. antagonist. C. agonist. D. prime mover.

B

6. Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________. A. spaces that reduce the weight of bone/ tightly packed matrix that is solid B. osteons/ trabeculae C. trabeculae/ osteons D. osteocytes/ no osteocytes

B

6. Transverse tubules A. store sodium ions for the action potential at the cell surface. B. transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior. C. store calcium ions. D. connect actin and myosin.

B

64. The triangle of auscultation, commonly used to hear sounds of respiratory organs, is located near the border of the A. pectoralis major and pectoralis minor. B. trapezius and latissimus dorsi. C. latissimus dorsi and serratus anterior. D. pectoralis major and serratus anterior.

B

66. A sign of aging of the muscular system is A. expansion of muscle fiber diameters. B. decreased supplies of myoglobin to muscles. C. excess ATP. D. increased creatine phosphate.

B

67. Regina began an exercise program six months ago, and the muscles of her upper limbs and lower limbs are more prominent. Exercise can lead to formation of new muscle by A. stimulating synthesis of myoglobin. B. stimulating skeletal muscle cells to release IL-6, which stimulates satellite cells to divide, producing more muscle cells. C. stimulating connective tissue to differentiate as muscle tissue. D. stimulating motor neurons to divide and innervate more muscle cells.

B

71. A weightlifter uses muscles so the muscles exert more than 75% of their maximum tension, this stimulates A. an increase in slow, fatigable white fibers. B. muscle fibers developing new filaments of actin and myosin. C. shrinking of skeletal muscle. D. conversion of skeletal to smooth muscle.

B

72. Fibers of muscles whose motor neurons are severed A. hypertrophy. B. may be replaced by fat or fibrous connective tissue. C. cannot ever be reinnervated. D. die as their sarcomeres are progressively eliminated.

B

9. A fibrous joint in which an interosseous ligament binds bones is a A. suture. B. syndesmosis. C. gomphosis. D. symphysis.

B

9. Muscle fibers are basically a collection of A. muscles. B. sarcomeres. C. connective tissue fibers. D. synapses.

B

16. Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation? A. Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone. B. Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone. C. Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue. D. Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.

C

17. A joint capsule is reinforced by A. tendons binding articular ends of bones together. B. articular cartilage cushioning ends of bones. C. ligaments binding articular ends of bones together. D. hyaline cartilage providing strength to the capsule walls.

C

2. All of the following are functions of bones except A. to protect certain internal organs. B. to provide a source for red and white blood cells. C. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature. D. to store inorganic salts.

C

21. It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the A. diaphysis. B. medullary cavity. C. epiphyseal plate. D. articular cartilage.

C

22. At a neuromuscular junction A. actin and myosin filaments slide past one another. B. troponin and tropomyosin exchange places. C. neurotransmitters are released. D. intercalated discs are synthesized.

C

22. Most of the joints in the ankle and wrist are A. hinge joints. B. pivot joints. C. plane joints. D. condylar joints.

C

23. A muscle end attached to a less movable or relatively fixed part is called the A. symphysis. B. articulation. C. origin. D. insertion.

C

23. The first event in muscle fiber contraction is that A. the muscle fiber membrane is stimulated and a muscle impulse travels deep into the fiber through transverse tubules. B. acetylcholine diffuses across a gap at a neuromuscular junction. C. acetylcholine is released from the end of the motor neuron. D. calcium ions diffuse from sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm and bind to troponin molecules.

C

23. The thyroid hormone thyroxine ______. A. increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate B. stimulates osteoclasts C. stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate D. removes calcium from bone

C

24. Which is true of sex hormones? A. They inhibit osteoblast activity. B. They have no effect on bone. C. They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates. D. Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females.

C

25. Exercise ______ and _______ bones. A. thickens/ elongates B. elongates/ weakens C. thickens/ strengthens D. thins/ atrophies

C

27. Arrange the following steps of muscle fiber contraction in the correct sequence. 1. The muscle impulse reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum and calcium is released. 2. Thin filaments are pulled over the thick filaments. 3. Calcium floods the sarcoplasm and binds to troponin molecules leaving active sites. 4. The impulse arrives at the synapse and travels through the transverse tubules. 5. The muscle fiber shortens and contracts. 6. Myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin, forming cross-bridges. A. 6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 B. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4, 6 C. 4, 1, 3, 6, 2, 5 D. 3, 5, 2, 1, 6, 4

C

30. Displacement of a joint is called A. bursitis. B. sprain. C. dislocation. D. arthritis.

C

31. The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle comes from which substance? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Myoglobin D. Calcium

C

32. A motor unit is A. many myofibrils in a sarcolemma. B. many motor end plates at a neuromuscular junction. C. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers connected to it. D. the functional unit of a muscle fiber.

C

32. Movements permitted by the elbow joint between the humerus and the ulna are A. adduction, flexion, and extension. B. movement in any plane. C. flexion and extension. D. rotation and circumduction.

C

33. During muscle contraction ATP supplies energy for A. creatine phosphate synthesis. B. glycogen synthesis. C. myofilament movement. D. enzyme activity.

C

33. The sternum is part of the A. pectoral girdle. B. pelvic girdle. C. axial skeleton. D. appendicular skeleton.

C

35. Activity and exercise A. make joints more vulnerable to injury. B. hasten osteoarthritis. C. keep joints functional longer. D. increase joint stiffness.

C

36. Disuse of the joints ____________ which hastens stiffening. A. causes arthritis B. causes injuries C. hampers blood flow D. degenerates cartilage

C

37. A plank position is part of a yoga/Pilates workout. The person supports the body on the floor in a prone position with the arms and feet supporting the body. It is a little like the "up" position of a push-up, held for 30 to 60 seconds. Contraction of the abdominal muscles in a plank is most likely A. isotonic. B. eccentric. C. isometric. D. concentric.

C

37. Connie recently celebrated her 45th birthday. She feels okay most of the day, but in the morning, for about a half hour after she gets out of bed, all of her joints feel stiff. This is due to A. sprains. B. torn ligaments. C. changes in collagen structure. D. nerve damage.

C

37. Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull? A. Ethmoid B. Sphenoid C. Vomer D. Frontal

C

38. Glucosamine and chondroitin are A. dietary supplements from fish skeletons. B. proteins found in joints that are taken as dietary supplements. C. dietary supplements from shells and cow cartilage. D. dietary supplements from human cadavers.

C

39. Which of the following is not true? A. Red fibers contract more slowly than white. B. Red fibers contain more myoglobin than white. C. Red fibers have fewer mitochondria than white. D. Red fibers fatigue more slowly than white.

C

4. The striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibers results from the A. transverse tubule pattern. B. sarcoplasmic reticulum network. C. sarcomere organization. D. cisternae placement.

C

43. Activities such as distance swimming and distance running are most likely to stimulate development of A. slow fatigable muscle fibers. B. fast fatigable muscle fibers. C. slow fatigue-resistant fibers. D. fast fatigue-resistant fibers.

C

43. The atlas is one of the A. lumbar vertebrae. B. thoracic vertebrae. C. cervical vertebrae. D. sacral vertebrae.

C

45. A sternal puncture is often used to obtain a sample of A. fibroblasts. B. osteoblasts. C. red bone marrow. D. yellow bone marrow.

C

48. Phalanges are A. finger bones only. B. toe bones only. C. both finger and toe bones. D. wrist and ankle bones.

C

5. Which of the following groups of bones, based on shape, is associated with an incorrect example? A. Long bones - forearm bones B. Short bones - wrist and ankle bones C. Flat bones - thigh bones D. Irregular bones - vertebrae

C

51. The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are A. intervertebral discs. B. neuromuscular junctions. C. intercalated discs. D. motor end plates.

C

54. The more movable end of a muscle is its A. origin. B. fulcrum. C. insertion. D. source.

C

55. The muscle that causes an action is the A. synergist. B. antagonist. C. agonist. D. mediator.

C

58. A compound fracture A. incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place. B. is caused by a disease. C. exposes the broken bone to the outside. D. completely breaks the bone in more than one place.

C

6. A tooth root attached to a jawbone by a periodontal ligament is a _____ . A. synchondrosis B. syndesmosis C. gomphosis D. synovial joint

C

62. Eighty-year-old Evelyn takes a bisphosphonate drug once a month to keep her bones strong. She most likely has A. polydactyly. B. osteogenesis imperfecta. C. osteoporosis. D. a hematoma.

C

63. Bisphosphonates are drugs that slow the progress of A. rickets. B. heart disease. C. osteoporosis. D. menopause.

C

64. Curvatures of the spine produce all of the following except A. lordosis. B. scoliosis. C. increased height. D. kyphosis.

C

65. A gluteal gait, in which a person walks with a waddling limp, is usually caused by a disorder of the A. gluteus maximus and gluteus medius. B. gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus. C. gluteus medius and gluteus minimus. D. gluteus maximus and tensor fasciae latae.

C

69. People with myasthenia gravis have a deficiency of A. titin molecules. B. troponin molecules. C. acetylcholine receptors D. sarcomeres.

C

8. A tendon is ______, whereas an aponeurosis is ______. A. cordlike and connects bones to bones/ a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles B. a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles/ cordlike and connects bones to bones C. cordlike and connects muscles to bones/ a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles D. a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects bones to bones/ cordlike and connects muscles to muscles

C

8. Cartilagenous joints are connected by A. synovial fluid. B. fibrous connective tissue. C. hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage. D. a joint capsule.

C

9. A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions? A. Polydactyly B. Osteoporosis C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Anemia

C

1. Functions of muscles include A. heartbeat. B. muscle tone. C. moving bones. D. all of the above.

D

1. Joints A. bind bones. B. allow bones to grow. C. enable body parts to move. D. all of the above.

D

10. A bone thickens A. as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity. B. due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts. C. as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate. D. as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.

D

10. Transverse tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum are well developed in A. smooth muscle fibers. B. skeletal muscle fibers. C. cardiac muscle fibers. D. skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers.

D

11. The functional unit of muscle contraction is A. the muscle. B. the muscle fiber. C. the myosin cross-bridge. D. the sarcomere.

D

12. Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in A. myofibrils. B. motor units. C. motor end plates. D. motor neuron endings.

D

12. Which of the following is not a type of fibrous joint? A. Syndesmosis B. Coronal suture C. Gomphosis D. Symphysis

D

13. A synovial membrane A. is very thick with many layers of cells. B. secretes serous fluid. C. secretes mucus. D. secretes synovial fluid.

D

13. Osteoclasts are A. cells that secrete bone matrix. B. mature bone cells that maintain the matrix. C. immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes. D. cells that break down bone matrix.

D

15. Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of ______ , which as a result decreases the rate of cell division of ______. A. thyroid hormones/ osteocytes in the periosteum B. growth hormone/ fat cells in the medullary cavity C. thyroid hormones/ osteoclasts in the compact bone D. growth hormone /cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate

D

18. Athletes usually experience muscle fatigue less quickly than nonathletes because they A. convert glucose to lactic acid. B. tolerate high concentrations of carbon dioxide. C. make more efficient use of ATP. D. produce less lactic acid.

D

19. At a neuromuscular junction, the muscle fiber membrane folds, forming a A. motor neuron. B. neurotransmitter. C. motor unit. D. motor end plate.

D

19. At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified? A. Birth B. 5 years C. 15 years D. 25 years

D

20. Which of the following is not a synovial joint? A. Condylar B. Ball-and-socket C. Hinge D. Symphysis

D

25. The coracohumeral ligament is associated with the A. knee joint. B. hip joint. C. elbow joint. D. shoulder joint.

D

26. Which of the following movements could occur at the hip joint? A. Abduction and adduction B. Rotation C. Flexion and extension D. All of the above

D

26. __________ degrades acetylcholine, keeping it from accumulating in the synapse. A. ATPase B. Myosinase C. Actinase D. Acetylcholinesterase

D

27. Which of the following describes the function(s) of the skeletal system? A. It interacts with muscles, providing movement. B. It stores inorganic salts. C. It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax. D. All of the above describe skeletal system functions.

D

28. The radial collateral ligament is associated with the A. hip joint. B. shoulder joint. C. knee joint. D. elbow joint.

D

29. The rotator cuff of the shoulder is composed mainly of A. adipose and epithelial tissue. B. articular cartilage. C. epithelium and loose connective tissue. D. tendons and fibrous connective tissue.

D

3. Classifying joints as synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, or diarthrotic represents A. location in the body. B. the composition of the joint. C. the number of bones that the joint affects. D. the degree of movement possible at the joint.

D

3. The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n) A. long bone. B. flat bone. C. short bone. D. irregular bone.

D

31. The number of bones in the skeletal system is A. the same for everyone. B. more for males than females. C. more for females than males. D. variable.

D

34. A movement that brings the foot closer to the shin is a(n) A. extension. B. abduction. C. plantar flexion. D. dorsiflexion.

D

35. The hard palate is composed of the A. sphenoid and ethmoid bones. B. nasal conchae and vomer bones. C. zygomatic and lacrimal bones. D. maxillary and palatine bones.

D

35. Threshold stimulus is the A. maximum stimulus required to release acetylcholine. B. minimum stimulus required to produce ATP. C. maximum stimulus required to contract a muscle. D. minimum strength of stimulation required to contract a muscle fiber.

D

40. Which of the following is an infection? A. Osteoarthritis B. A sprain C. Bursitis D. Lyme disease

D

42. In rheumatoid arthritis A. the synovial membrane becomes inflamed and thickens, forming a mass. B. articular cartilage is damaged and fibrous tissue invades. C. fibrous tissues ossify and bones fuse. D. all of the above.

D

42. Which three bones fuse to form the hip bone? A. the ilium, the femur, and the pubis. B. the ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis. C. the ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis. D. the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.

D

46. When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse A. there is a reduction in capillary networks. B. the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases. C. the muscle gets smaller. D. all of the above.

D

5. A sarcomere is best described as A. a part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B. a group of fascicles. C. a group of muscle fibers. D. a unit within a muscle fiber.

D

52. Cardiac muscle A. contracts as a syncytium. B. excites itself. C. is only in the heart. D. all of the above.

D

55. The femur A. is the longest bone in the body. B. extends from the hip to the knee. C. articulates with the patella. D. is all of the above.

D

56. A muscle that assists the agonist is a(n) A. antagonist. B. prime mover. C. mediator. D. synergist.

D

57. The buccinator muscle is in the A. buttocks. B. chest. C. bladder. D. cheek.

D

60. Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are A. fibroblasts and osteoblasts. B. chondrocytes and osteocytes. C. osteoblasts and osteoclasts. D. osteoclasts and phagocytes.

D

60. The linea alba is A. a muscle extending from the ischial spine to the coccyx and sacrum. B. a curved, broad muscle on the side of the chest. C. a muscle beneath the skull. D. a band of tough connective tissue to which abdominal wall muscles attach.

D

61. Which of the following increases the risk of developing osteoporosis? A. Low intake of dietary calcium B. Lack of physical exercise C. Family history of the condition D. All of the above

D

62. Which of the following is not a muscle of mastication? A. Medial and lateral pterygoid B. Masseter C. Temporalis D. Zygomaticus

D

68. Muscle atrophy that progresses with aging is caused by reduction in A. ATP. B. myoglobin. C. the sizes of muscle fibers. D. all of the above.

D

7. The discoloration and swelling of a muscle strain is due to A. excess myofibrils. B. separated tendons. C. severed nerves. D. ruptured blood vessels.

D

73. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome causes A. headache. B. ringing in the ears. C. clicking sound from the jaw. D. all of the above.

D

8. Articular cartilage is A. fibrocartilage. B. found only in the knees and elbows. C. elastic cartilage. D. hyaline cartilage.

D

68. ________ joints are held together by collagen-rich dense connective tissue.

Fibrous

80. A broad sheet of dense connective tissue that attaches the coverings of adjacent muscles is called an ______.

aponeurosis

102. The two divisions of the skeleton are called axial and ________.

appendicular

89. In ________, joints are inflamed, swollen, and painful.

arthritis

88. A(n) _________ is an instrument used to view the meniscus.

arthroscope

77. A _____ joint is found between a metacarpal and its adjacent phalanx.

condylar

86. The ______ ______ in the knee joint help prevent displacement of the articulating surfaces.

cruciate ligaments

99. Secretion of excess ______ hormone causes acromegaly.

growth

101. Blood cell formation is called _____________.

hematopoiesis

87. The ______ ______ at the ends of cardiac muscle cells help to join cells.

intercalated discs

83. The bodies of adjacent vertebrae are separated by ______ ______ that act as shock absorbers.

intervertebral discs

84. Muscle fatigue is most likely due to an accumulation of ______ ______.

lactic acid

81. The pigment responsible for the reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is ______.

myoglobin

100. Bone-forming cells are called ______.

osteoblasts

86. The rhythmic, wavelike motion produced by smooth muscles in tubular visceral organs is called _______.

peristalsis

76. A joint with articulating surfaces that are nearly flat is a ______ ______.

plane joint

80. Thrusting the head forward to contact an incoming soccer ball is an example of _________.

protraction

84. Moving a part backward is called ______.

retraction

105. The xiphoid process is part of the ______.

sternum

83. A forceful, sustained muscle contraction is called a ______ ______.

titanic contraction

94. Kyphosis is excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column.

true

44. The fibrous joints between the flat bones of the skull are sutures.

true

45. A synchondrosis is a cartilaginous joint.

true

48. The synovial membrane reabsorbs fluid and may help remove substances from an infected joint cavity.

true

49. Synovial fluid moistens and lubricates the cartilaginous surfaces in a joint.

true

50. A meniscus cushions articulating surfaces of bones.

true

51. Closed, fluid-filled sacs that function as cushions are called bursae.

true

53. The type of synovial joint in which only rotation may occur is a pivot joint.

true

55. A saddle joint forms between bones whose articulating surfaces have both convex and concave regions.

true

56. In a push-up, the elbow joint flexes as the person lowers.

true

57. Kicking a soccer ball is flexion of the leg at the knee joint as the foot draws back and then extension as it contacts the ball.

true

59. Moving a part away from the midline is abduction.

true

62. The elbow joint includes a hinge joint.

true

63. The hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint.

true

64. The basic structure of the knee joint permits flexion and extension.

true

65. Fibrous joints are the first to change with age.

true

66. Bones are classified as irregular, flat, short, or long.

true

67. A bone shaft is the diaphysis/ the expanded parts at the ends are the epiphyses.

true

68. Perforating canals form transverse channels in bone tissue.

true

69. If the supply of blood cells is deficient, yellow marrow may change into red marrow.

true

72. The small intestine requires vitamin D to adequately absorb calcium.

true

74. Endomysium separates individual muscle fibers from each other.

true

74. Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells, whereas osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.

true

75. A motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it controls constitute a motor unit.

true

76. The number of bones in most people is 206.

true

77. The enzyme ATPase occurs in the globular portion of myosin molecules.

true

78. The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture.

true

79. ATP is necessary for muscle relaxation.

true

79. Fontanels in the fetal skull permit some bone movement, enabling the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal during childbirth.

true

82. Most people have 24 ribs.

true

84. The pectoral girdle consists of two scapulae and two clavicles.

true

85. The deltoid tuberosity is part of the humerus.

true

86. A styloid process is part of the ulna.

true

87. The ilium is part of the pelvic girdle.

true

91. Men and women begin to lose bone at the same rate by about age 70.

true

92. Osteoporosis is more severe than osteopenia.

true

96. A young woman is in a car accident. When she regains consciousness, she notices a sharp pain in her left arm. Looking down, she sees a bone sticking out. This is a compound fracture.

true