Chapter 11 - Network Performance and Recovery

What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate? a. A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients. b. A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers. c. A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service. d. A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations.

A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.

What makes up the first 6 bits of the 8-bit DiffServ field? a. Priority Code Point (PCP) b. Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) c. Class of Service (CoS) d. Forward Error Correction (FEC)

Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP)

How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment? a. It protects against electrical surges. b. It shields equipment from lightning damage. c. It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage. d. It filters line noise from incoming power.

It filters line noise from incoming power.

A network TAP serves what purpose on a network? a. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports. b. It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis. c. It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network. d. It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection.

It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.

What 3-bit field in a 802.1Q tag is modified to set a frame's Class of Service (CoS)? a. EtherType b. CRC checksum c. Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID) d. Priority Code Point (PCP)

Priority Code Point (PCP)

When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream? a. assured forwarding b. prioritized forwarding c. scaled forwarding d. expedited forwarding

expedited forwarding

A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme? a. incremental backup b. differential backup c. full backup d. versioned backup

incremental backup

Which type of backup scheme only covers data that has changed since the last backup? a. full backup b. incremental backup c. differential backup d. snapshot backup

incremental backup

When a device handles electrical signals improperly, usually resulting from a bad NIC, it is referred to by what term below? a. ghost b. jabber c. talker d. blabber

jabber

What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur? a. estimated time to failure (ETTF) b. product cycle lifetime (PCL) c. maximum time available (MTA) d. mean time between failures (MTBF)

mean time between failures (MTBF)

Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair? a. mean time to repair (MTTR) b. mean time to restore (MTTR) c. mean field replacement time (MFRT) d. mean restoration time (MRT)

mean time to repair (MTTR)

Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below? a. jabbers b. giants c. ghosts d. runts

runts

You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use? a. uptime b. show runtime c. lastboot d. display stats

uptime

When using SNMP with TLS, what port do agents receive requests on? a. 161 b. 162 c. 10161 d. 10162

10161

If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day? a. .4 seconds b. 8 seconds c. 1 minute, 26 seconds d. 14 minutes, 23 seconds

8 seconds

A highly available server is available what percentage of the time? a. 90% b. 99% c. 99.99% d. 99.999%

99.999%

The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard? a. IEEE 802.3af b. IEEE 802.1cd c. IEEE 802.3ad d. IEEE 802.3bd

IEEE 802.3ad

What Storage Area Network (SAN) protocol runs on top of TCP, and can be used on an existing twisted-pair Ethernet network, while maintaining low cost? a. Fibre Channel (FC) b. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) c. Internet SCSI (iSCSI) d. InfiniBand (IB)

Internet SCSI (iSCSI)

At what point is a packet considered to be a giant? a. It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size. b. It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes. c. It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large. d. It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added.

It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size.

A differential backup covers what data on a system? a. It includes all data every time it is performed. b. It includes only data that has changed since the last backup. c. It includes data that has changed since the last full backup. d. It includes data that has changed since the last incremental backup.

It includes data that has changed since the last full backup.

What is distributed switching? a. It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch. b. It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group. c. It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches. d. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.

It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.

What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command? a. The NMS sends a request for data to the agent on a managed device. b. The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database. c. The NMS requests a list of all active SNMP traps on the system. d. The NMS walks through a list of given SNMP hosts.

The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.

The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term? a. load balancing b. clustering c. link aggregating d. server overloading

clustering

Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following? a. object identifier (OID) b. TCP/UDP port c. process ID d. inode number

object identifier (OID)

Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery? a. standby UPS b. online UPS c. line conditioning UPS d. surge UPS

online UPS

When Comcast was found to be interfering with BitTorrent traffic, what method was being used? a. Comcast was creating access lists that blocked known BitTorrent trackers. b. Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set. c. Comcast used DNS poisoning to prevent clients from talking to other BitTorrent users. d. Comcast used IP spoofing to impersonate other BitTorrent clients, then dropped traffic.

Comcast was interjecting TCP segments with the RST (reset) field set.

Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration? a. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance. b. In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance. c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data. d. In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks.

In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance.

What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do? a. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address. b. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address. c. It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name. d. It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources.

It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.

In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal? a. The preservation of critical data. b. The continuation of business. c. The management of damage. d. The protection of infrastructure.

The continuation of business.

When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate? a. The message is an error condition on the system. b. The message is a warning condition on the system. c. The message is an emergency situation on the system. d. The message represents debug information.

The message is an emergency situation on the system.