Chapter 13

Which type of unipolar neuron in the figure serves as a pain receptor

12.2

Typical spinal nerves have ____ connections to the spinal cord

2

The adult brain represents only ____ of the total body weight. A) 2% B) 5% C) 10% D) 12% E) 20%

2%

11. The resting membrane potential in neurons ranges from: A) +5 to 100 mV B) ñ25 to ñ70 mV C) ñ40 to ñ90 mV D) ñ90 to 5 mV E) None of these choices

40-90

Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to A) remove a neurotransmitter B) stop a spatial summation C) continue a temporal summation D) inhibit a presynaptic potential E) excite a presynaptic potential

A

Meningeal Branch is...

A division of a spinal nerve; Reenters vertebral cavity through intervertebral foramens; Serves the vertebrae, vertebral ligaments, meninges, and the spinal cord blood vessels

Which type of axons has the largest diameter? A) A fibers B) B fibers C) C fibers D) A and B fibers E) B and C fibers

A fibers

Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than the parasympathetic division.

A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber has many axon collaterals (branches) and synapses with 20 or more postganglionic neurons, whereas a parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapses with only 4 or 5 postganglionic neurons. The sympathetic neurotransmitter, norepinephrine is broken down more slowly than acetylcholine, so postganglionic cells are stimulated longer. The sympathetic division also stimulates release of catecholamines (mostly epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla, thus enhancing the sympathetic effects via the endocrine system. Also, more visceral effectors have receptors for catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine) than for acetylcholine

Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons, fascicles, and entire nerve in the correct order? A) endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium B) endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium C) perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium D) epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium

A) Endoneurium --> Perineurium --> Epineurium

Both the gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus are ________ tracts found in the ______ white column of the spinal cord. A) ascending; posterior B) descending; anterior C) ascending; anterior D) descending; posterior E) descending; lateral

A) Ascending ; Posterior

Which of the following types of tracts are used to conduct nerve impulses between gyri within the same cerebral hemisphere? A) Association tracts B) Commissural tracts C) Projection tracts D) Mammillothalamic tracts E) Stria medullaris

A) Association tracts (In the same hemisphere) Gyrus --Association Tracts--Gyrus

Which of the following spinal nerves DOES NOT travel through an intervertebral foramen to reach its destination? A) cervical spinal nerve 1 B) thoracic spinal nerve 12 C) lumbar spinal nerve 2 D) sacral spinal nerve 1 E) cervical spinal nerve 7

A) Cervical Spinal Nerve 1

This type of neural circuit consists of a single presynaptic neuron synapsing with several postsynaptic neurons. A) Diverging circuit B) Converging circuit C) Reverberating circuit D) Parallel after-discharge circuit E) Normal circuit

A) Diverging circuit

In the process of spatial summation, ______ are added together and _____ are subtracted from that total to determine whether _____ will be created at the trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron. A) EPSPs; IPSPs; action potentials B) IPSPs; EPSPs; action potentials C) EPSPs; IPSPs; graded potentials D) IPSPs; action potentials; EPSPs E) EPSPs; action potentials; IPSPs

A) EPSPs; IPSPs; action potentials

Which nerve supplies the inferior mesenteric ganglion with preganglionic neurons? A) Lumbar splanchnic nerve B) Lesser splanchnic nerve C) Greater splanchnic nerve D) Cardiac accelerator E) Phrenic nerve

A) Lumbar splanchnic nerve

If the pathway shown in the diagram is a sympathetic division pathway, which neurotransmitter acts at the effector? A) Norepinephrine B) Acetylcholine C) Epinephrine D) Dopamine E) Serotonin

A) Norepinephrine

Postganglionic neurons from the otic ganglion supply the A) parotid gland. B) heart. C) lungs. D) liver. E) ureter.

A) Parotid gland

Which disorder is characterized by the digits becoming ischemic after exposure to cold or emotional stress? A) Raynaud's phenomenon B) Autonomic dysreflexia C) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy D) Diabetic neuropathy E) Horner's Syndrome

A) Raynaud's Phenomenon

One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _______________. A) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands B) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands C) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle D) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle E) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only

A) Skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

*What type of nervous system pathway is shown between the ____ and a muscle? A) Somatic motor pathway B) Somatic sensory pathway C) Autonomic motor pathway D) Autonomic sensory pathway E) None of these choices

A) Somatic Motor pathway

Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation? A) receptor -sensory neuron - integrating center - motor neuron - effector B) receptor - motor neuron - integrating center - sensory neuron - effector C) effector - sensory neuron - integrating center - motor neuron - receptor D) integrating center - receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector E) receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector - integrating center

A) receptor - sensory neuron - integrating center - motor neuron - effector

A postganglionic neuron in the ANS A) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell. B) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway. C) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord. D) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves. E) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.

A) releases neurotransmitters that bind to the effect cells

What type of NT is used by the somatic motor pathway (muscle)

Acetylcholine

Which neurotransmitter is released at the autonomic ganglion by the preganglionic neuron in the diagram? A) Norepinephrine B) Acetylcholine C) Epinephrine D) Dopamine E) Serotonin

Acetylcholine

Muscle Stretches (2)

Agonist muscle contracts Antagonist Muscle Relaxes

Tendon Stretches Excessively (2)

Agonist muscle relaxes Antagonist Muscle contracts

Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division? A) Increased heart rate B) Airway constriction C) Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract D) Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat E) Increased blood glucose level

Airway constriction is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division

The medial lemniscus is a band of white matter that extends through 1. the medulla oblongata. 2. the pons. 3. the midbrain. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) both 2 & 3 E) 1, 2 & 3

All - medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system? A) Sensory function B) Integrative function C) Motor function D) All are functions of the nervous system

All are functions

Interoceptors are found in A) blood vessels B) visceral organs C) muscles D) all of these choices E) none of these choices

All of the choices

Which of the following terms is used to describe a type of synapse? A) Axodendritic B) Axosomatic C) Axoaxonic D) None of these choices E) All of these choices

All of these

Which of the following nuclei are found in the pons? A) Pontine nuclei B) Apneustic area C) Pneumotaxic area D) All of these choices E) None of these choices

All! Pons consists of : pontine nuclei apneustic area pneumotaxic area

Which of the following describes a function of cerebrospinal fluid? 1. Mechanical protection 2. pH homeostasis 3. Circulation A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) Both 1 and 2 E) All of these choices

All: mechanical protection pH homeostasis Circulation

A common type of disabling senile dementia that affects about 11% of the population over 65 and results in loss of reasoning and ability to care for oneself, is called A) agnosia. B) prosopagnosia. C) Alzheimer disease. D) transient ischemic attack syndrome. E) amylotrophic lateral sclerosis

Alzheimer's Disease

Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors, explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?

Ans: Norepinephrine and epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells and stimulate an increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta blockers are antagonists of norepinephrine and epinephrine meaning that beta blockers can bind and block their effects, leading to a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction and lowering of blood pressure

The motor axons of the accessory nerve originate in: A) Nuclei of medulla B) Inferior cerebral peduncle C) Anterior gray horn of first 5 segments of the cervical region of the spinal cord D) Superior and inferior ganglia

Anterior grey horn of the first five segments of the cervical region of the spinal cord

Which of the following glands is directly controlled by hormones produced by the hypothalamus? A) Posterior pituitary gland B) Anterior pituitary gland C) Thymus gland D) Pancreas E) Pineal gland

Anterior pituitary gland

Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed through these fingerlike projections found in the dural venous sinuses. A) Choroid plexuses B) Microvilli C) Arachnoid villi D) Dural villi E) Lemnisci

Arachnoid villi

49. Which neurotransmitter is released by the preganglionic neuron at the autonomic ganglion in the diagram? A) Norepinephrine B) Acetylcholine C) Epinephrine D) Dopamine E) Serotonin

B) ACh

**47. Which neurotransmitter is released at the gland by the preganglionic neuron in the diagram? A) Norepinephrine B) Acetylcholine C) Epinephrine D) Dopamine E) Serotonin

B) Acetylcholine

**48. If the pathway shown in the diagram is a parasympathetic division pathway, which neurotransmitter acts at the effector? A) Norepinephrine B) Acetylcholine C) Epinephrine D) Dopamine E) Serotonin

B) Acetylcholine

Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? A) Decreased heart rate B) Airway dilation C) Decreased pupil diameter D) Increased secretion of digestive juices E) Increased gastric motility

B) Airway dilation

Preganglionic neurons are supplied to the submandibular ganglion by which cranial nerve? A) Cranial nerve III B) Cranial nerve VII C) Cranial nerve IX D) Cranial nerve X E) None of these choices

B) Cranial Nerve VII

Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of dermatomes? A) Can be used clinically to determine area of spinal cord damage B) Each dermatome is only served by a single spinal nerve C) Complete anesthesia of a single dermatome often requires blocking three adjacent spinal nerves D) Dermatomes are designated based on the cranial or spinal nerve that serves that area of the skin E) The dermatome serving the face is supplied by the trigeminal cranial nerve

B) Each dermatome is only served by a single spinal nerve - false because it can be MANY nerves

The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla possess this type of receptor which makes them responsive to the ACh released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons. A) muscarinic receptors B) nicotinic receptors C) β1-adrenergic D) β2-adrenergic

B) Nicotinic receptors

Which division of ANS innervates the sweat glands and the hair follicles? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic C) Neither division innervates these effectors D) Both divisions innervate these effectors

B) SYmpathetic

Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS? A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic C) Somatic nervous system D) Autonomic ganglia E) Craniosacral division

B) Sympathetic

In temporal summation, a single presynaptic neuron stimulates the creation of action potentials in a postsynaptic neuron when it A) stops firing long enough to allow the postsynaptic neuron to recover. B) fires at a fast enough rate that the sum of EPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron moves above threshold. C) fires at a steady rate that allows the postsynaptic neuron to return to resting potential. D) recruits other presynaptic neurons to begin to fire. E) runs out of neurotransmitter.

B) fires at a fast enough rate that the sum of EPSPs in the postsynaptic neuron moves above threshold

The central sulcus of the cerebrum separates the A) two cerebral hemispheres. B) frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. C) frontal lobe from the temporal lobe. D) parietal lobe from the temporal lobe. E) temporal lobe from the occipital lobe.

B) frontal from the parietal lobe

Which of the following neurotransmitters are used in virtually all of the inhibitory synapses found in the spinal cord? A) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine B) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine C) epinephrine and norepinephrine D) serotonin and melatonin E) glutamate and aspartate

B) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine

A neurotransmitter that binds to an ionotropic receptor that contains a chloride channel would be classified as an A) inhibitory neurotransmitter and would produce an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. B) inhibitory neurotransmitter and would produce an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. C) excitatory neurotransmitter and would produce an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. D) excitatory neurotransmitter and would produce an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron. E) excitatory neuropeptide and would hyperpolarize the postsynaptic neuron

B) inhibitory neurotransmitter and would produce an IPSP in the postsynaptic neuron.

Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to chemical binding and is found in dendrites of some sensory receptors like pain receptors, and in the dendrites and cell bodies of interneurons and motor neurons. A) leakage channel B) ligand-gated channels C) mechanically gated channels D) voltage-gated channels E) pressure-sensitive channel

B) ligand gated channel

Which of the following types of electrical signals allow rapid long-distance communication within the nervous system? A) resting potential B) nerve action potential C) muscle action potential D) graded potential E) long-term potentiation

B) nerve action potential

Brain waves that generally appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity are called A) alpha waves. B) beta waves. C) theta waves. D) delta waves. E) P waves.

Beta waves

This type of brain wave occurs at regular intervals when a person is awake but not when a person is sleeping. A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Theta waves D) Delta waves. E) All of the selections are correct

Beta waves

This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body. A) Multipolar neuron B) Bipolar neuron C) Unipolar neuron D) Purkinje cell E) Renshaw cell

Bipolar

This protects the brain by preventing the movement of harmful substances and pathogens from the blood into the brain tissue. A) Dura mater B) Arachnoid mater C) Cerebrospinal fluid D) Blood brain barrier E) All of these choices

Blood brain barrier

Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by 1. increasing activities in effector tissue. 2. decreasing activities in effector tissue. 3. changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) Both 1 and 2 E) None of these choices

Both 1 and 2 Increase AND decrease activities in effector tissue

With respect to neurons, the term ìnerve fiberî refers to A) an axon. B) a dendrite C) a Nissl body. D) both axons and dendrites. E) all of these choices

Both axons and dendrites

Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain? A) Brain stem B) Cerebrum C) Cerebellum D) Diencephalon E) Dura mater

Brain stem

Chromatolysis refers to A) break up of lysosomes after neural injury. B) Wallerian degeneration after neural injury. C) plasticity of neuron. D) break up of Nissl bodies after neural injury. E) none of these choices

Break up of Nissl bodies after neural injury

Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for speech? A) Broca's area B) Primary gustatory area C) Common integrative area D) Prefrontal cortex area E) Primary somatosensory area

Broca's area

IPSP stands for A) inhibitory presynaptic summation potential B) inhibitory postsynaptic summation potential C) inhibitory postsynaptic potential D) inhibitory presynaptic potential. E) none of these choices

C

Which of the following types of cells display the property of electrical excitability? A) Muscle cells B) Neurons C) All of these choices D) None of these choices

C) All

The brain and spinal cord develop from the ______ neural tube. A) mesodermal B) endodermal C) ectodermal D) cranial E) caudal

C) Ectodermal

Catechol-O-methyltransferase is an enzyme that performs which of the following functions in the ANS? A) Inactivates ACh in a synapse. B) Activates ACh in a synapse. C) Inactivates norepinephrine in a synapse. D) Activates norepinephrine in a synapse. E) Promotes uptake of norepinephrine back into the synaptic knob.

C) Inactivates norepinephrine in a synapse.

Which nerve from the cervical plexus causes contraction of the diaphragm? A) Lesser occipital B) Transverse cervical C) Phrenic D) Anse cervicalis E) Supraclavicular

C) Phrenic

Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebellum? A) bipolar neuron B) multipolar neuron C) Purkinje cells D) unipolar neuron E) pyramidal cells

C) Purkinje cells

Which disorder is characterized by spontaneous pain, painful hypersensitivity to light touch, and excessive coldness and sweating in the affected area? A) Raynaud's phenomenon B) Autonomic dysreflexia C) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy D) Diabetic neuropathy E) Horner's Syndrome

C) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy

When the summed total of postsynaptic potentials rises above threshold, creation of action potentials occurs A) in the synaptic cleft. B) in the dendrites. C) at the trigger zone. D) in the neuron nucleus. E) in the neuroplasm

C) at the trigger zone

The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch by A) saltatory conduction. B) continuous conduction of graded potentials. C) changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers. D) propagation action potential in both directions. E) modifying the length of the refractory period The nervous system can distinguish between a light touch and a heavier touch by A) saltatory conduction. B) continuous conduction of graded potentials. C) changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers. D) propagation action potential in both directions. E) modifying the length of the refractory period

C) changing the frequency of impulses sent to sensory centers.

In an action potential, the current that flows down the axon of a neuron is generated by the movement of ______ across the membrane. A) electrons B) protons C) ions D) free radicals E) neutrons

C) ions

Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are found on cardiac muscle fibers where their activation stimulates increased force and rate of contraction of the heart? A) α1-adrenergic B) α2-adrenergic C) β1-adrenergic D) β2-adrenergic E) β3-adrenergic

C) β1-adrenergic

What is the largest nerve arising from the lumbar plexus? A) Supraclavicular B) Musculocutaneous C) Femoral D) Tibial E) Obturator

C)Femoral

CHAPTER 12

CHAPTER 12

CHAPTER 13

CHAPTER 13

CHAPTER 15

CHAPTER 15

Which ganglion supplies the stomach with postganglionic neurons? A) Middle cervical ganglion B) Inferior cervical ganglion C) Celiac ganglion D) Inferior mesenteric ganglion E) Ciliary ganglion

Celiac Region (Think celiac disease -- stomach issues)

The superior mesenteric ganglion receives nervous input from the A) lesser splanchnic nerve. B) least splanchnic nerve. C) celiac ganglion. D) inferior mesenteric ganglion. E) lumbar splanchnic nerve.

Celiac ganglion

The largest autonomic plexus is called the A) superior mesenteric plexus. B) renal plexus. C) cardiac plexus. D) celiac plexus. E) hypogastric plexus.

Celiac plexus

Which regions of the spinal cord contain enlargements?

Cervical region and Lumbar region

These are networks of capillaries found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain that produce cerebrospinal fluid. A) Choroid plexuses B) Lateral apertures C) Interventricular foramina D) Brachial plexuses E) Aqueduct of the midbrain

Choroid plexuses

Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion? A) Celiac ganglion B) Ciliary ganglion C) Superior mesenteric ganglion D) Inferior mesenteric ganglion E) All are prevertebral ganglia

Ciliary ganglion

An injury to what nerve causes foot drop?

Common fibular nerve (injury)

Which of the following structures conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum? A) Association tracts B) Corpus callosum C) Projection tracts D) Pyramids E) Sulci

Corpus Callosum

Together the lentiform and caudate nuclei are known as the A) globus pallidus. B) putamen. C) medial geniculate nucleus. D) corpus striatum. E) internal capsule

Corpus Striatum

Which of the following meninges has two layers? A) Spinal dura mater B) Cranial dura mater C) Spinal arachnoid mater D) Cranial arachnoid mater E) All of these choices

Cranial Dura Mater

Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information coming from the nasal cavity to the olfactory area of the cerebrum? A) cranial nerve I B) cranial nerve V C) cranial nerve VI D) cranial nerve VIII E) cranial nerve X

Cranial nerve I

Plasticity means A) ability to regenerate after being damaged. B) sending a signal through a converging circuit. C) signal transmission at a synapse. D) ability to change based on experience. E) ability to stretch and recoil without damage

D) Ability to change based on experience

Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons? A) Pituitary gland B) Hypothalamus C) Pancreas D) Adrenal gland E) Thyroid gland

D) Adrenal gland

Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system? A) Somatic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Enteric nervous system D) All of these choices

D) All of these choices

Stimulation of these areas of the hypothalamus would result in decreased heart rate, lower blood pressure, constriction of the pupils, and increased digestive activity. A) posterior and lateral areas B) posterior and medial areas C) anterior and lateral areas D) anterior and medial areas E) any area of the hypothalamus

D) Anterior and Medial areas

These three areas of gray matter found in each cerebral hemisphere are important in helping to control the initiation and termination of skeletal muscle movements. A) red nuclei B) vestibular nuclei C) lateral olivary nuclei D) basal nuclei E) autonomic ganglia

D) Basal nuclei

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the longer lasting and more widespread effects observed with sympathetic activation versus parasympathetic activation? A) Norepinephrine is more slowly removed from synapses than ACh. B) Additional norepinephrine is released from the adrenal gland. C) Greater divergence occurs in sympathetic neural pathways. D) Blood flow to hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs.

D) Blood flow to hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs

During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel, 1. the inactivation gate is open. 2. the activation gate is closed. 3. the channel is permeable to Na+. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) both 1 and 2 are true. E) all of these choices are true

D) Both 1& 2 inactivation gate is open activation gate is closed

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the spinothalamic tract? A) Begins in the spinal cord B) Terminates in the thalamus C) Found in the white matter of the spinal cord D) Carries motor information down the cord E) Is composed of multiple axons carrying information in the spinal cord

D) Carries motor information down the cord

Parasympathetic innervation of the liver occurs through A) cranial nerve III. B) cranial nerve VII. C) cranial nerve IX. D) cranial nerve X. E) pelvic splanchnic nerve

D) Cranial nerve X

Damage to this portion of the limbic system results in loss of memory of recent events and difficulty committing anything new to memory. A) amygdala B) dentate gyrus C) cingulate gyrus D) hippocampus E) septal nuclei

D) Hippocampus

This lobe of the cerebrum is found deep to the other four lobes and thus cannot be observed from the surface. A) occipital lobe B) temporal lobe C) parietal lobe D) insula E) corpus callosum

D) Insula

Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors? A) Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors B) Muscarinic and somatic receptors C) Adrenergic and somatic receptors D) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors E) Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors

D) Nicotinic and Muscarinic receptors

The postganglionic cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons are located in the: A) carotid body B) inferior ganglion C) superior ganglion D) otic ganglion

D) Otic ganglion

The cell bodies of the sensory neurons that carry information from the periphery to the spinal cord are located in the A) anterior white commissure. B) central canal. C) lateral gray horn. D) posterior root ganglion. E) posterior gray horn

D) Posterior Root Ganglion

Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the ìfight-or-flightî response? A) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases. B) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict. C) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use. D) The pupils of the eyes dilate. E) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.

D) The pupils of the eyes dilate.

A postsynaptic neuron responds to neurotransmitters released by a presynaptic neuron by creating A) EPSPs B) water-filled channels in its membrane C) IPSPs D) either EPSPs or IPSPs E) All the choices are correct

D) either EPSP or IPSP

Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS? A) cerebrum B) cerebellulum C) thalamus D) hypothalamus E) pituitary

D) hypothalamus

The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into A) somatic and sympathetic divisions. B) somatic and parasympathetic divisions. C) enteric and somatic divisions. D) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. E) voluntary and involuntary divisions.

D) sympathetic and parasympathetic

When a depolarizing graded potential makes the axon membrane depolarize to threshold, A) ligand-gated Ca+2 channels close rapidly. B) voltage-gated Ca+2 channels open rapidly. C) ligand-gated Na+ channels close rapidly. D) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly. E) none of these choices occur.

D) voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly.

Brain waves that appear during deep sleep are called A) alpha waves. B) beta waves. C) theta waves. D) delta waves. E) P waves

Delta waves (Girls, who pledge delta, sleep peacefully on bid day_

Indirect Pathway (4)

Descending Pathway Brainstem = origin Governs automatic movement Regulates muscle tone, posture, and balance

Direct Pathway (4)

Descending pathway Motor cerebral cortex = origin of the nerve impulses causes precise, voluntary movement of skeletal muscle

Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus? A) Raynaud's phenomenon B) Autonomic dysreflexia C) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy D) Diabetic neuropathy E) Horner's Syndrome

Diabetic Neuropathy

Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus? A) Cerebellum B) Brain stem C) Cerebrum D) Diencephalon E) Dura mater

Diencephalon

Which of the types of circuits is commonly used to send sensory signals to multiple areas of the brain

Diverging

Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.

Drugs can modify neurotransmitter effects by: 1) stimulating or inhibiting their synthesis, 2) enhancing or blocking their release, 3) activating or blocking their receptor, and 4) stimulating or inhibiting their removal

Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS? A) Preganglionic stimulation B) Biganglion excitation C) Multi-autonomic output D) Bipolar innervation E) Dual innervation

Dual innervation

Schwann's cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system A) when neurons are injured. B) during fetal development. C) after birth. D) only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells. E) during the early onset of Alzheimer's disease.

During fetal development

Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.

During the fight-or-flight response, vasodilation occurs in those vessels serving the heart and skeletal muscles crucial to fight or flight. In contrast, vasoconstriction occurs in those vessels serving areas less vital to fighting/fleeing like skin, digestive organs, and the urinary system. The changes in blood vessel diameter are induced by activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS.

A polarized cell A) has a charge imbalance across its membrane. B) includes most cells of the body. C) exhibits a membrane potential. D) includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential. E) All of these choices are correct.

E) All of these

Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited mutation, injury or disease? A) Raynaud's phenomenon B) Autonomic dysreflexia C) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy D) Diabetic neuropathy E) Horner's Syndrome

E) Horner's Syndrome

Autonomic tone is regulated by the A) medulla oblongata. B) cerebellum. C) cerebrum. D) vermis. E) hypothalamus.

E) Hypothalamus

Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct? A) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve. B) Has myelinated axons. C) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway. D) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord. E) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.

E) It does not form map junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia

Which of the following nerves provides innervation for the external genitals? A) Cranial nerve III B) Cranial nerve VII C) Cranial nerve IX D) Cranial nerve X E) Pelvic splanchnic nerve

E) Pelvic splanchnic nerve

Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion? A) Ciliary ganglion B) Pterygopalatine ganglion C) Submandibular ganglion D) Otic ganglion E) All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia

E) all are parasympathetic terminal ganglia

Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for sensing body touch and temperature? A) Broca's area B) Primary visual area C) Common integrative area D) Prefrontal cortex area E) Primary somatosensory area

E) primary somatosensory area

Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue where their activation stimulates heat production? A) α1-adrenergic B) α2-adrenergic C) β1-adrenergic D) β2-adrenergic E) β3-adrenergic

E) β3-adrenergic

Reciprocal Innervation (2)

Effector Muscle is stimulated Opposing muscle is inhibited

Which of the following is NOT considered a small molecule neurotransmitter? A) Acetylcholine B) Biogenic amines C) Purines D) Endorphins E) Serotonin

Endorphins are big nts

True or False: Winged scapula is the result of a nerve that affects the interosseous muscles

False

This extension of the dura mater separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum. A) Falx cerebri B) Falx cerebelli C) Tentorium cerebelli D) Tentorium cerebri E) None of these choices

Falx cerebri

Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that is located mainly in white matter and helps maintain the appropriate chemical environment for generation of nerve impulses?

Fibrous astrocytes

This portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance. A) Tentorium cerebelli B) Anterior lobe C) Posterior lobe D) Flocculonodular lobe E) Transverse fissure

Flocculonodular lobe

What in involved in memory and intellect?

Frontal Lobe

Which of the following is a nucleus found in the medulla oblongata that receives sensory information associated with touch, pressure and vibration? A) Tectum B) Superior colliculus C) Substantia nigra D) Pontine nucleus E) Gracile nucleus

Gracile Nucleus

These are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk. A) Lumbar splanchnic nerve B) Greater splanchnic nerve C) Inferior cervical ganglion D) White rami communicantes E) Gray rami communicantes

Gray rami communicantes

This type of nervous tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglial cells. A) Gray matter B) White matter C) Nissl bodies D) Ganglia E) Nuclei

Grey matter

During brain development, the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because A) the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter. B) the cerebrum grows faster than the dura mater. C) the hypothalamus is larger than the epithalamus. D) the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter. E) the lobes of the cerebrum are not symmetrical.

Grey matter grows faster than the underlying white matter and results in the gyri of the cerebrum forming

What region does the superior cervical ganglion primarily serve?

Head

Hand preference when writing or throwing is an example of A) cranial nerve damage. B) hemispheric lateralization. C) damage to the olfactory nerve. D) damage to the Broca's area. E) None of these choices.

Hemispheric lateralization

This autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera. A) Inferior mesenteric plexus B) Renal plexus C) Celiac plexus D) Hypogastric plexus E) Superior mesenteric plexus

Hypogastric plexus

Which of the following cranial nerves control movements of the eyeball? A) II, III and IV B) I, V and X C) III, IX and V D) III, IV and VI E) X, XI and XII

III, IV, and VI

Which is NOT a purely motor nerve? A) VI B) IX C) XI D) XII

IX is not purely a motor nerve, but VI, XI, and XII are purely motor nerves

This structure carries sensory information coming from proprioceptors found in the trunk and limbs into the cerebellum. A) Inferior cerebellar peduncle B) Middle cerebellar peduncle C) Superior cerebellar peduncle D) Anterior lobe E) Posterior lobe

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

This structure in the brain contains centers responsible for the startle reflex in response to loud sounds. A) Superior colliculus B) Inferior colliculus C) Pontine nucleus D) Medial lemniscus E) Arbor vitae

Inferior colliculus

Which of the following is NOT a type of channel used in production of electrical signals in neurons? A) Leakage channel B) Voltage-gated channel C) Ligand-gated channel D) Mechanically gated channel E) Ion-gated channel

Ion gated channels

Na+/K+ñATPase is considered to be an electrogenic pump because A) it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential. B) the sodium ions are negatively charged. C) it exhibits low permeability. D) both it contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential and the sodium ions are negatively charged. E) all of these choices

It contributes to the negativity of the resting membrane potential

During childbirth, anesthesia is administered into the epidural space of the spinal column between which vertebrae?

L4 ad L5

Which of the following is a fluid-filled cavity located in each hemisphere of the cerebrum? A) Lateral ventricle B) Septum pellucidum C) Fourth ventricle D) Third ventricle E) Corpus callosum

Lateral ventricle

Name the type of membrane channel that randomly opens and closes and is found in dendrites, cell bodies, and axons of all types of neurons. A) leak channel B) ligand-gated channel C) mechanically gated channel D) voltage-gated channel E) pressure-sensitive channel

Leak channel

A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the A) septum pellucidum. B) transverse fissure. C) tentorium cerebelli. D) corpus callosum. E) longitudinal fissure

Longitudinal fissure

A depolarizing graded potential A) makes the membrane more polarized. B) makes the membrane less polarized. C) is considered a type of action potential. D) is the last part of an action potential. E) is seen when the cell approaches threshold

Makes the membrane less polarized

Ipsalateral, intersegmental spinal somatic reflex controls....

Many flexor and extensor muscles on the SAME side of the body as the sensor

20. Medullary nuclei are 1. masses of gray matter in the medulla oblongata. 2. masses of white matter in the medulla oblongata. 3. decussations of the pyramids. A) 1 only. B) 2 only. C) 3 only. D) Both 1 and 2. E) None of these choices

Masses of grey matter in the medulla oblongata

Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch, pressure, vibration, or tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear, and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin. A) leakage channel B) ligand-gated channels C) mechanically gated channels D) voltage-gated channels E) temperature-sensitive channel

Mechanically gated channel

Patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication. After taking the medication, the patient's muscle spasms ceased, but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength. In addition, the patient's resting heart rate has increased. Explain the effects of the medication the patient received.

Medications that block the action of acetylcholine are described as anticholinergic. Since ACh stimulates skeletal muscles to contract, blocking ACh should help reduce muscle spasms. In high enough doses, the medication might prevent the normal contraction of skeletal muscles and could, perhaps, cause a flaccid paralysis. Heart rate increases because ACh usually slows heart rate so a drug that blocks ACh's effect would lead to increased heart rate. Perhaps a medication that specifically blocked nicotinic receptors would eliminate the muscle spasms without causing increased heart rate.

In what portion of the brain does the hypoglossal nucleus originate? A) Medulla oblongata B) Hypothalamus C) Cerebrum D) Cerebellum

Medulla oblongata

Which of the following regions of the brain contains the inferior olivary nucleus? A) Pons B) Medulla oblongata C) Pyramids D) Hypothalamus E) Midbrain

Medullar oblongata

This brain vesicle gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. A) Prosencephalon B) Mesencephalon C) Rhombencephalon D) Telencephalon E) Myelencephalon

Mesencephalon

What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?

Neurogenesis in adults is limited by: 1) Inhibitory influences from neuroglia, mainly from oligodendrocytes, and 2) the absence of growth-stimulating cues present during fetal development

An electroencephalogram (EEG) measures brain waves primarily generated by A) neurons in the pons. B) neurons in the medulla oblongata. C) neurons in the thalamus. D) neurons in the cerebral cortex. E) neurons in the cerebellum.

Neurons on the cerebral cortex

List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse

Neurotransmitters can be removed by: 1) diffusion 2) enzymatic degradation 3) uptake by cells

. Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons? A) mitochondria B) nucleus C) Nissl body D) Golgi apparatus E) nucleolus

Nissl Bodies

The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are A) nicotine and adrenaline. B) muscarine and acetylcholine. C) norepinephrine and muscarine. D) norepinephrine and acetylcholine. E) somatostatin and nicotine.

Norepinephrine and Acetylcholine

These ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the parotid salivary glands. A) Ciliary ganglia B) Pterygopalatine ganglia C) Submandibular ganglia D) Otic ganglia E) None of these choices

Otic ganglia

Acetylcholine is released by _____________ postganglionic neurons and is removed from the synaptic cleft at a ______ rate than norepinephrine. A) sympathetic; slower B) sympathetic; faster C) parasympathetic; slower D) parasympathetic; faster E) both parasympathetic and sympathetic; slower

Parasympathetic; faster

This region of the brain contains pneumotaxic and apneustic areas that help control respiration. A) Spinal cord B) Midbrain C) Pons D) Thalamus E) Cerebellum

Pons

Proprioception -->

Posterior white column

What is involved in judgment, ethics, and consciousness?

Prefrontal cortex

Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon? A) Somatic motor neurons B) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons C) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons D) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons E) Somatosensory neurons

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for conscious movements of the body? A) Broca's area B) Primary visual area C) Somatosensory association area D) Primary motor area E) Primary somatosensory area

Primary Motor Area

Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for vision? A) Broca's area B) Primary visual area C) Common integrative area D) Primary olfactory area E) Primary somatosensory are

Primary visual area

13.7

Reflex Art with only one synapse in the CNS

During this period, a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus A) Latent period B) Absolute refractory period C) Relative refractory period D) All of these choices E) None of these choices

Relative refractory period

This is a netlike region of white and gray matter that extends throughout the brainstem and functions to help maintain consciousness. A) Cuneate nucleus B) Gracile nucleus C) Medial lemniscus D) Reticular formation E) Decussation of pyramids

Reticular formation (without the reticular formation, you might lose consciousness and see aliens)

Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that forms and maintains the myelin sheath around CNS axons

Schwann cells

Hearing your cell phone ring in an otherwise quiet lecture hall is an example of which of the following types of nervous system functions? A) Sensory function B) Integrative function C) Motor function D) More than one of the types of nervous system functions E) None of the types of nervous system functions

Sensory

Posterior Root Function

Sensory neuron information to CNA

What are purely motor nerves?

Six Eleven and Twelve

The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling A) exocrine glands. B) skeletal muscle. C) cardiac muscle. D) smooth muscle. E) endocrine glands.

Skeletal muscle

Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.

Spatial summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at different locations in the membrane of a postsynaptic cell at the same time. This typically occurs when multiple presynaptic neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron and fire simultaneously. Temporal summation is summation of postsynaptic potentials in response to stimuli that occur at the same location in the membrane of the postsynaptic cell but at different times. This typically occurs when one presynaptic neuron fires in rapid succession leading to a summing of the resulting EPSPs, which then triggers the generation of action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron as it moves above threshold.

Which of the following is a nucleus found in the midbrain that releases dopamine? A) Substantia nigra B) Inferior olivary nucleus C) Inferior colliculus D) Cerebral peduncle E) Apneustic area

Substantia Nigra

This region of the brain serves as the major relay station for most sensory impulses that reach the primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex from the spinal cord and brain stem. A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Epithalamus D) Pons E) Midbrain

Thalamus

Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia

The axon may 1) synapse with postganglionic neurons in the first ganglion it reaches, 2) ascend or descend to higher or lower ganglia via sympathetic chains, or 3) continue without synapsing through sympathetic trunk ganglia to end at a prevertebral ganglion and synapse with postganglionic neurons there. 4) also pass, without synapsing, through the sympathetic trunk ganglion and a prevertebral ganglion and then extend to chromaffin cells of the adrenal medullae that are functionally similar to sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells

The major factors that lead to creation of resting potential are: 1) unequal distribution of ions across the plasma membrane, 2) inability of most anions to leave the cell, and 3) the electrogenic nature of the Na+,K+ -ATPase

Describe the potential roles that autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine perform in the ANS. Be sure to describe the types of postsynaptic effector cells including their receptors that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine release from autonomic neurons.

The neuron could be a preganglionic neuron in either division of the ANS, a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron, or one of a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons (innervating sweat glands). The postsynaptic cell must possess either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors in order to respond to acetylcholine. This effector cell could be a postganglionic neuron of either division, a parasympathetic visceral effector, or one of the few sympathetic effectors stimulated by cholinergic neurons

Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

The sympathetic division acts to prepare the body for maximal skeletal muscle activity to either fight or flee a perceived threat. Some of the changes stimulated by sympathetic activation include: 1) increased heart rate and contractions, 2) shunting blood away from the digestive organs to the lungs, liver, heart and skeletal muscles allowing these organs to increase function, 3) bronchodilation leads increased O2 delivery to the blood, and 4) liver also releases more glucose. These changes increase blood oxygen and glucose to provide the body cells with the ability to increase ATP production. The parasympathetic system tends to return the body to normality, and to prepare the body to acquire energy. For instance, the parasympathetic division stimulates increased blood flow to digestive, reproductive and urinary organs. More digestion and defecation occurs, sexual activity can be supported, and urine production is increased. Decreased heart rate and blood pressure also occur.

Brain waves that appear in adults and children during periods of emotional stress are called A) alpha waves. B) beta waves. C) theta waves. D) delta waves. E) P waves.

Theta waves (girls are emotionally stressed when their bid card reads theta)

. Which of the following statements best describes the structure of the blood-brain barrier that provides its functional characteristics? A) Processes of astrocytes wrap tightly around capillaries in the brain. B) Tight junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain. C) Gap junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain. D) Spot desmosomes tightly link capillary endothelial cells together. E) The basement membrane of capillaries in the brain contains extremely small pores.

Tight junctions seal tightly the endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain

Blood flows to the brain through the ________ arteries and away from the brain through the _______ vein. A) internal carotid and vertebral; internal jugular B) external carotid and vertebral; external jugular C) internal jugular and vertebral; internal carotid D) internal carotid and axillary; internal jugular E) external jugular and axillary; external jugular

To the brain: internal carotid and vertebral arteries Away from the brain: internal jugular vein

Cranial nerve V is also known as the _______________ nerve. A) trochlear B) oculomotor C) trigeminal D) vagus E) abducens

Trigeminal

Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for regulating visceral activity? A) Oculomotor B) Trigeminal C) Spinal accessory D) Facial E) Vagus

Vagus

Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to changes in membrane potential and is located in axons of all types of neurons. A) leakage channel B) ligand-gated channels C) mechanically gated channels D) voltage-gated channels E) temperature-sensitive channel

Voltage- gated channels

Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that produces and assists in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid

ependymal cells

Briefly describe the events that occur during the depolarizing phase of an action potential.

Voltage-gated Na+ channels open rapidly allowing Na+ to rush into the cell driven by both the electrical and chemical gradient. The inward rush of Na+ causes the membrane potential to become less negative, resulting in depolarization.

Pyramids are A) gray matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata. B) white matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata. C) gray matter protrusions found on the pons. D) white matter protrusions found on the pons. E) a network of white and gray matter found in the medulla oblongata.

White matter protrusions found on the medulla oblongata

Posterior Ramus is _________ that _____________

a spinal nerve branch that serves deep muscles and the skin of the posterior surface of the trunk

Which of the following types of neurons have one axon and one dendrite emerging from the cell body and are found in the retina of the eye, inner ear, and olfactory region of the brain

bipolar

Cerebrospinal fluid carries small amounts of chemicals like glucose from the ______ to neurons and neuroglia. A) interstitial fluid B) bile C) intracellular fluid D) arachnoid space E) blood

blood

Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus? A) Hunger B) Thirst C) Blood calcium concentration D) Emotional behavior E) Body temperature

blood calcium concentration

Wallerian degeneration refers to A) degeneration of the proximal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. B) degeneration of the distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury. C) break of Nissl bodies after neural injury. D) plasticity of neuron. E) none of these choices

degeneration of the distal end of axon and myelin sheath after neural injury.

This portion of the limbic system lies between the hippocampus and the parahippocampus gyrus. A) dentate gyrus B) septal nuclei C) cingulate gyrus D) olfactory bulbs E) amygdala

dentate gyrus

An excitatory neurotransmitter _________ the postsynaptic membrane. A) depolarizes B) repolarizes C) hyperpolarizes D) does not affect the polarity of E) moves across channels in

depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane

The area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNA via one pair of spinal nerve is called

dermatome

Intercostal Nerves

don't enter a plexus, directly connects to its structures; AKA thoracic nerves

Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of A) chemical synapses B) electrical synapses C) ligand-gated channels D) voltage-gated channels E) mechanically-gated channels

electrical synapses

Which of the following regions of the brain contain the pineal gland? A) Thalamus B) Cerebellum C) Hypothalamus D) Cerebrum E) Epithalalmus

epithalamus

Which of the following cranial nerves is primarily responsible for changing facial expressions? A) Oculomotor B) Trigeminal C) Spinal accessory D) Facial E) Vagus

facial (VII)

True or false: The vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve functions in hearing while the cochlear branch is involved in equilibrium.

false

Beta waves are:

found during awake periods appear during sensory input appear during mental activity

Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS? A) Ganglia primarily found in the head B) Stimulates sweat glands C) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls D) Short preganglionic neurons E) Thoracolumbar output

ganglia primarily found in the head

Patients with damage in the left hemisphere often exhibit aphasia (inability to use or comprehend words). This is an example of A) apraxia. B) delirium. C) cerebral lacerations. D) hemispheric lateralization. E) decussations.

hemispheric lateralization

Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that removes debris and acts as a phagocyte

microglial cells

Sensory Receptor in a reflex arc

monitors body conditions

Descending Tract

motor information carrier

Which of the following types of neurons is the most common type of neuron found in the brain and spinal cord

multipolar neuron

Endoneuriums are present in which axons

myelinated AND unmyelinated

Saltatory conduction A) can occur in unmyelinated axons B) happens due to an even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels C) encodes only action potentials that are initiated in response to pain. D) occurs in unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage-gated Na+ channels E) occurs only in myelinated axons

only occurs in myelinated axons

Which type of circuit is involved in solving mathematical problems

parallel

The cerebellar cortex consists of folia, which are A) parallel folds of white matter. B) found in the vermis only. C) portions of the pyramids. D) parallel folds of gray matter. E) used in the RAS system.

parallel folds of grey matter

Spinal reflexes that use muscle spindles and tendon organs as sensors DO NOT

protect spinal nerves

Which of the labeled cells in the diagram is a neuroglial cell that is located mainly in gray matter and helps maintain the appropriate chemical environment for generation of nerve impulses

protoplasmic astrocyte

Which of the following is NOT a nucleus found in the thalamus? A) Anterior nucleus B) Medial nucleus C) Red nucleus D) Reticular nucleus E) Lateral geniculate nucleus

red nucleus

Which type of circuit is used to lengthen the output signal in physiological processes like regulation of the breathing pattern

reverberating

Integration

summing of IPSPs and EPSPs; Found in grey matter of spinal cord

Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS? A) Long preganglionic neurons B) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls C) Vagus nerve output D) Ganglia found near visceral effectors E) Sacral spinal cord output

synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls

Denticulate Ligament

thickening of pia mater

A severed obturator nerve will lead into paralysis of which region of the body...

thigh

This is a narrow fluid-filled cavity found along the midline superior to the hypothalamus and between the right and left halves of the thalamus. A) Lateral ventricle B) Septum pellucidum C) Third ventricle D) Fourth ventricle E) Fifth ventricle

third ventricle

Median Nerve Palsy

trauma to the Median Nerve

Ascending Tract

white matter of spinal cord; carries sensory information