Chapter 14: Assessing Skin, Hair, and Nails

A golden yellow pigment that is heavily keratinized and is found in subcutaneous fat is called what?

Carotene Explanation: Carotene is a golden yellow pigment that exists in subcutaneous fat and in heavily keratinized areas such as the palms and soles.

Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves, sebaceous glands, lymphatic vessels, hair follicles, and sweat glands?

Dermis Explanation: The second layer, the dermis, functions as support for the epidermis. The dermis contains blood vessels, nerves, sebaceous glands, lymphatic vessels, hair follicles, and sweat glands, which support the nutritional needs of the epidermis and provide support for its protective function. the top layer of the skin is the dermis layer outermost skin layer, and serves as the body's first line of defense against pathogens, chemical irritants, and moisture loss. The subcutaneous layer provides insulation, storage of caloric reserves, and cushioning against external forces. Composed mainly of fat and loose connective tissue, it also contributes to the skin's mobility. The connective layer is a distracter to the question.

A client seeks medical attention for the skin lesion shown. What should the nurse document as this type of lesion?

Wheal Explanation: A wheal is an elevated mass with transient borders that is often irregular. A papule is an elevated, palpable, solid mass, with a circumscribed border and less than 0.5 cm in size. A pustule is a pus-filled vesicle or bulla. An erosion is a loss of superficial epidermis that does not extend to the dermis.

A client recovering from a burn injury is told by the health care provider that hair will no longer grow on the body part that was burned. When the client questions why this is true, the nurse will base the response on what physiological event that occurred as a result of the burn?

Destruction of hair follicles located in the dermis layer. Explanation: Damage to hair follicles located in the dermis layer of the skin would result in the body's inability to regrow hair on burn damaged areas. The remaining options suggest correct information but none are associated with the regrowth of hair after a burn.

During the integument health history, the nurse asks the client about both current and previous prescription medications, immunizations, and diagnosed illnesses. What is the primary benefit derived from the data provided by this questioning?

Existence of systemic diseases that have skin manifestations Explanation: One purpose of the integumentary health history is to identify systemic diseases that have skin manifestations. Questions to determine systemic diseases that the client may have include asking about prescribed medications, immunizations, and diagnosed illnesses. Such a history would provide little information regarding health promotion care, or risks for skin cancer or skin ulcer formation.

Which of the following assessment findings most likely constitutes a secondary skin lesion?

Keloid formation at the site of an old incision Explanation: A secondary lesion emerges from an existing primary lesion, such as the keloids that can emerge from the site of a healed wound. Acne and the lesions associated with psoriasis and herpes do not meet this criterion.

A nurse cares for a client with a stage II pressure ulcer on the right hip. The nurse anticipates finding what type of appearance to the skin over this area?

Broken with the presence of a blister Explanation: A stage I pressure ulcer is red in color but without skin breakdown. A stage II pressure ulcer results in a superficial skin loss of the epidermis alone or the dermis also. Stage III pressure ulcers involve the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue. In stage IV, the muscle, bone, and other supportive tissue may be involved. A Stage II pressure ulcer is a partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. This wound may also present as an intact or open/ruptured, serum-filled blister. A Stage I pressure ulcer has intact skin with non-blanchable redness of a localized area usually over a bony prominence. A Stage III pressure ulcer has full-thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, or muscle is not exposed. A Stage IV pressure ulcer has full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Slough or eschar may be present on some parts of the wound bed.

A nurse assesses a client for past history of nail problems. The nurse should ask questions about which of these conditions?

Psoriasis, fungal infections, trauma Explanation: Additional nail problems include psoriasis, fungal infections, and trauma. Vitiligo, vitamin deficiency, eczema, melanoma, and herpes zoster are skin conditions. Hirsutism and alopecia are hair conditions. Vitamin deficiencies and chemotherapy can cause problems with many body systems.

A young man comes to the clinic with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows, which has come and gone for several years. It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure. Examination reveals scabbing and crusting with some silvery scales. The nurse also notices small "pits" in the nails. What would account for these findings?

Psoriasis Explanation: This is a classic presentation of plaque psoriasis. Eczema is usually over the flexor surfaces and does not scale, whereas psoriasis affects the extensor surfaces. Pityriasis usually is limited to the trunk and proximal extremities. Tinea has a much finer scale associated with it, almost like powder, and is found in dark and moist areas.

Mrs. Anderson presents with an itchy raised rash that appears and disappears in various locations. Each lesion lasts for many minutes. Which most likely accounts for this rash?

Urticaria or hives Explanation: This is a typical case of urticaria. The most unusual aspect of this condition is that the lesions move from place to place. This would be distinctly unusual for the other causes listed.

The nurse is preparing to examine the skin of an adult client with a diagnosis of herpes simplex. The nurse plans to measure the client's symptomatic lesions and measure the size of the client's

vesicles. Explanation: Vesicles are circumscribed elevated, palpable masses containing serous fluid. Vesicles are less than 0.5 cm. Examples of vesicles include herpes simplex/zoster, varicella (chickenpox), poison ivy, and second-degree burn.

When documenting that a client has freckles, the appropriate term to use is

macules Explanation: Macules are skin discolorations that are flat, circumscribed, discolored, and less than 1 cm in diameter. An example of a macule is a freckle. A macule is a flat, nonpalpable skin color change that may manifest as brown, white, tan, red, or purple. Freckles and port wine birthmarks are examples of a macule. A circumscribed elevated mass containing fluid is called a vesicle or bulla, depending on its size. A nodule is a solid, palpable mass. A papule is an elevated, palpable, solid mass that is smaller in diameter than a nodule.

A nurse is instructing a client on how to assess himself for herpes simplex lesions by their configuration. Which configuration should the nurse tell the client to look for?

Clustered Explanation: In a clustered configuration, lesions are grouped together; an example is herpes simplex. In a linear configuration, the lesion is a straight line, such as in a scratch or streak due to dermatographism. In an annular configuration, the lesion is circular; an example is tinea corporis. In a discrete configuration, the lesions are individual and distinct; an example is multiple nevi. In an annular configuration, the lesion is circular; an example is tinea corporis. In a discrete configuration, the lesions are individual and distinct; an example is multiple nevi. In a confluent configuration, smaller lesions run together to form a larger lesion; an example is tinea versicolor. In a clustered configuration, lesions are grouped together; an example is herpes simplex.

The nurse is beginning the examination of the skin of a 25-year-old teacher. She previously visited the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. The previous clinician had a strong suspicion that the client has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a client with hypothyroidism?

Dry and rough Explanation: A client with hypothyroidism is expected to have dry and rough skin. This is a good example of how the skin can give clues to systemic diseases.

A client presents to the health care clinic with reports of new onset of generalized hair loss for the past 2 months. The client denies the use of any new shampoos or other hair care products and claims not to be taking any new medications. The nurse should ask the client questions related to the onset of which disease process?

Hypothyroidism Explanation: Generalized hair loss can be a finding in hypothyroidism. None of the other conditions listed is associated with generalized hair loss. Diabetes is a problem with glucose regulation. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory process in the large intestines. Cushing disease can result in female facial hair growth.

An adult client is having his skin assessed. The client tells the nurse he has been a heavy smoker for the last 40 years. The client has clubbing of the fingernails. What does this finding tell the nurse?

The client has chronic hypoxia Explanation: Clubbing of the nails indicates chronic hypoxia. Clubbing is identified when the angle of the nail to the finger is more than 160 degrees. Melanoma does not present with the symptom of clubbing. The scenario described does not give enough information to indicate that the client has COPD or asthma.

The apocrine glands are dormant until puberty and are concentrated in the axillae, the perineum, and the

areola of the breast. Explanation: The apocrine glands are associated with hair follicles in the axillae, perineum, and areola of the breast. Apocrine glands are small and non-functional until puberty at which time they are activated and secrete a milky sweat.

An adult male client visits the outpatient center and tells the nurse that he has been experiencing patchy hair loss. The nurse should further assess the client for:

symptoms of stress. Explanation: Patchy hair loss may accompany infections, stress, hairstyles that put stress on hair roots, and some types of chemotherapy.

Short, pale, and fine hair that is present over much of the body is termed

vellus. Explanation: Vellus hair (peach fuzz) is short, pale, fine, and present over much of the body.

A nurse observes the presence of hirsutism on a female client. The nurse should perform further assessment on this client for findings associated with which disease process?

Cushing's disease Explanation: Hirsutism, or facial hair on females, is a characteristic of Cushing's disease and results from an imbalance of adrenal hormones. Iron deficiency anemia is associated with spoon-shaped nails but not with excessive hair. Carcinoma of the skin causes lesions but not facial hair. Lupus erythematosus causes patchy hair loss but does not cause excessive facial hair.

A nurse cares for a client of Asian descent and notices that the client sweats very little and produces no body odor. What is an appropriate action by the nurse in regards to this finding?

Document the findings in the client's record as normal Explanation: Asians and Native Americans have fewer sweat glands than Caucasians and therefore produce less sweat and less body odor. Changes in sensation are not caused by alterations in sweat glands but are a circulation issue. Cystic fibrosis is an alteration in the exocrine glands that causes the production of thick mucus, especially in the lungs. Use of antiperspirants would be needed for excessive sweating, not a lack of sweating.

A client has a lesion as shown on the sacrum. For which health problem should the nurse expect this client to be assessed?

Osteomyelitis Explanation: This is a diagram of a stage IV pressure ulcer. Stage IV ulcers can extend into muscle and/or supporting structures, making osteomyelitis possible. This ulcer does not increase the client's risk for developing osteopenia, osteoporosis, or osteoarthritis.

What light should the nurse use to inspect a lesion on the thigh of a client for the presence of fungus?

Wood's light Explanation: The nurse should inspect the lesion under Wood's light to confirm the presence of fungus on the lesion. Wood's light is an ultraviolet light filtered through a special glass that shows a blue-green fluorescence if the lesion is due to fungal infection. The lesion can be inspected in sunlight and artificial light, but it may not indicate the type of infection in the lesion. Lesions cannot be inspected properly using a flashlight.