Chapter 20: Assessment of Respiratory Function

The nurse is caring for clients on the neurological unit. Which triad of neurological mechanisms does the nurse identify as most responsible when there is abnormality in ventilation control?

Aortic arch, pons, and CO2 receptor sites Explanation: Several mechanisms control ventilation. The respiratory center in the medulla oblongata and pons control rate and depth of respirations. The central chemo receptors in the medulla and peripheral chemo receptors in the aortic arch also provide a mechanism for detecting abnormalities and signal changes to alter the pH and levels of oxygen in the blood. The other options have an incorrect piece of the triad.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary disorder. What observation by the nurse is indicative of a very late symptom of hypoxia?

Cyanosis Explanation: Cyanosis, a bluish coloring of the skin, is a very late indicator of hypoxia. The presence or absence of cyanosis is determined by the amount of unoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood. Cyanosis appears when there is at least 5 g/dL of unoxygenated hemoglobin.

High or increased compliance occurs in which disease process?

Emphysema Explanation: High or increased compliance occurs if the lungs have lost their elasticity and the thorax is overdistended, as in emphysema. Conditions associated with decreased compliance include pneumothorax, pleural effusion, and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

A patient with sinus congestion points to a location on the inside of his eye as the area of pain. The nurse documents that the patient is complaining of pain in which sinus?

Ethmoid Explanation: The ethmoidal sinuses are located between the eyes and behind the nose. Inflammation and swelling block drainage into the nose; eventually an infection results.

What would the instructor tell the students purulent fluid indicates?

Infection Explanation: A small amount of fluid lies between the visceral and parietal pleurae. When excess fluid or air accumulates, the physician aspirates it from the pleural space by inserting a needle into the chest wall. This procedure, called thoracentesis, is performed with local anesthesia. Thoracentesis also may be used to obtain a sample of pleural fluid or a biopsy specimen from the pleural wall for diagnostic purposes such as a culture, sensitivity, or microscopic examination. Purulent fluid is the recommended diagnosis for infection. Serous fluid may be associated with cancer, inflammatory conditions, or heart failure.

A patient describes his chest pain as knife-like on inspiration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Pleurisy Explanation: Pleuritic pain from irritation of the parietal pleura is sharp and seems to "catch" on inspiration. Some patients describe the pain as being "stabbed by a knife." Chest pain associated with the other conditions may be dull, aching, and persistent.

The nurse is caring for a client who is to undergo a thoracentesis. In preparation for the procedure, the nurse places the client in which position?

Sitting on the edge of the bed Explanation: If possible, it is best to place the client upright or sitting on the edge of the bed with the feet supported and arms and head on a padded over-the-bed table. Other positions in which the client could be placed include straddling a chair with arms and head resting on the back of the chair, or lying on the unaffected side with the head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees (if the client is unable to assume a sitting position).

For which reason does gas exchange decrease in older adults?

The alveolar walls contain fewer capillaries. Explanation: Although the number of alveoli remains stable with age, the alveolar walls become thinner and contain fewer capillaries, resulting in decreased gas exchange. The lungs also lose elasticity and become stiffer. Elasticity of lungs does not increase with age, and the number of alveoli does not decrease with age.

The nurse is caring for a client with an exacerbation of COPD and scheduled for pulmonary function studies using a spirometer. Which client statement would the nurse clarify?

"I will breathe in through my mouth and out through my nose." Explanation: The nurse would clarify the client's statement of improper breathing technique. During a pulmonary function test using a spirometer, a nose clip prevents air from escaping through the client's nose when blowing into the spirometer. All other statements are correct.

A nurse would question the accuracy of a pulse oximetry evaluation in which of the following conditions?

A client experiencing hypothermia Explanation: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin. The reading is referred to as SpO2. A probe or sensor is attached to the fingertip, forehead, earlobe, or bridge of the nose. Values less than 85% indicate that the tissues are not receiving enough oxygen. SpO2 values obtained by pulse oximetry are unreliable in states of low perfusion such as hypothermia.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse assesses the client for tactile fremitus by completing which action?

Asking the client to repeat "ninety-nine" as the nurse's hands move down the client's thorax Explanation: While the nurse is assessing for tactile fremitus, the client is asked to repeat "ninety-nine" or "one, two, three," or "eee, eee, eee" as the nurse's hands move down the client's thorax. Vibrations are detected with the palmar surfaces of the fingers and hands, or the ulnar aspect of the extended hands, on the thorax. The hand(s) are moved in sequence down the thorax, and corresponding areas of the thorax are compared. Asking the client to say "one, two, three" while auscultating the lungs is not the proper technique to assess for tactile fremitus. The nurse assesses for anterior respiratory excursion by placing the thumbs along the costal margin of the chest wall and instructing the client to inhale deeply. The nurse assesses for diaphragmatic excursion by instructing the client to take a deep breath and hold it while the diaphragm is percussed.

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis would be expected to have which type of respiratory pattern?

Kussmaul respirations Explanation: Kussmaul respirations are seen in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis. In Cheyne-Stokes respiration, rate and depth increase, then decrease until apnea occurs. Biot's respiration is characterized by periods of normal breathing (3 to 4 breaths) followed by a varying period of apnea (usually 10 to 60 seconds).

The nurse is caring for a client who is in respiratory distress. The physician orders arterial blood gases (ABGs) to determine various factors related to blood oxygenation. What site can ABGs be obtained from?

A puncture at the radial artery Explanation: ABGs determine the blood's pH, oxygen-carrying capacity, levels of oxygen, CO2, and bicarbonate ion. Blood gas samples are obtained through an arterial puncture at the radial, brachial, or femoral artery. A client also may have an indwelling arterial catheter from which arterial samples are obtained. Blood gas samples are not obtained from the pleural surfaces or trachea and bronchi.

Which is a true statement regarding air pressure variances?

Air is drawn through the trachea and bronchi into the alveoli during inspiration. Explanation: Air flows from a region of higher pressure to a region of lower pressure. During inspiration, movement of the diaphragm and other muscles of respiration enlarge the thoracic cavity, thereby lowering the pressure inside the thorax to a level below that of atmospheric pressure.

The nurse is caring for a critically ill client in the ICU. The nurse documents the client's respiratory rate as bradypnea. The nurse recognizes that bradypnea is associated with which condition?

Increased intracranial pressure Explanation: Bradypnea is associated with increased intracranial pressure, brain injury, and drug overdose. Respirations are slower than the normal rate (<10 breaths/min), with normal depth and regular rhythm. Tachypnea is commonly seen in clients with pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and metabolic acidosis.

A Black client with asthma seeks emergency care for acute respiratory distress. Because of this client's dark skin, the nurse should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the:

mucous membranes. Explanation: Skin color doesn't affect the mucous membranes. Therefore, the nurse can assess for cyanosis by inspecting the client's mucous membranes. The lips, nail beds, and earlobes are less-reliable indicators of cyanosis because they're affected by skin color.

You are caring for a client admitted with chronic bronchitis. The client is having difficulty breathing, and the family asks you what causes this difficulty. What would be your best response?

"Conditions such as chronic bronchitis cause thickening of the bronchial mucosa so it makes it harder to breathe." Explanation: Conditions that may alter bronchial diameter and affect airway resistance include contraction of bronchial smooth muscle (e.g., asthma); thickening of bronchial mucosa (e.g., chronic bronchitis); airway obstruction by mucus, a tumor, or a foreign body; and loss of lung elasticity (e.g., emphysema). Option A is incorrect, not all chronic diseases make it hard to breathe. Option B is incorrect; not all chronic respiratory diseases caused scarring in the lung. Option C is incorrect; this response negates the families question and belittles their concern.

The nurse is interviewing a patient who says he has a dry, irritating cough that is not "bringing anything up." What medication should the nurse question the patient about taking?

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Explanation: Common causes of cough include asthma, gastrointestinal reflux disease, infection, aspiration, and side effects of medications, such as angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. The other medications listed are not associated with causing a cough

A client arrives at the physician's office stating dyspnea; a productive cough for thick, green sputum; respirations of 28 breaths/minute, and a temperature of 102.8° F. The nurse auscultates the lung fields, which reveal poor air exchange in the right middle lobe. The nurse suspects a right middle lobe pneumonia. To be consistent with this anticipated diagnosis, which sound, heard over the chest wall when percussing, is anticipated?

Dull Explanation: A dull percussed sound, heard over the chest wall, is indicative of little or no air movement in that area of the lung. Lung consolidation such as in pneumonia or fluid accumulation produces the dull sound. A tympanic sound is a high-pitched sound commonly heard over the stomach or bowel. A resonant sound is noted over normal lung tissue. A hyper resonant sound is an abnormal lower pitched sound that occurs when free air exists in disease processes such as pneumothorax.

A physician has ordered that a client with suspected lung cancer undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The nurse explains the benefits of this study to the client. What is the reason the client with suspected lung cancer would undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

MRI can view soft tissues and can help stage cancers. Explanation: MRI uses magnetic fields and radiofrequency signals to produce a detailed diagnostic image. MRI can visualize soft tissues, characterize nodules, and help stage carcinomas. The other options describe different studies.

A nurse is instructing the client on the normal sensations that can occur when contrast medium is infused during pulmonary angiography. Which client statement demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

"I will feel warm and may have chest pain" Explanation: During a pulmonary angiography, a contrast medium is injected into the femoral circulation. When the medium is infused, the client will feel warm and flushed, with a possibility of chest pain. The client will feel pressure when the catheter is inserted. The client does not typically feel light-headed or nauseated during this procedure.

A nurse understands that a safe but low level of oxygen saturation provides for adequate tissue saturation while allowing no reserve for situations that threaten ventilation. What is a safe but low oxygen saturation level for a patient?

95% Explanation: Normal SpO2 values are more than 95%. Values less than 90% indicate that the tissues are not receiving enough oxygen, in which case further evaluation is needed.

A client has recently been diagnosed with malignant lung cancer. The nurse is calculating the client's smoking history in pack-years. The client reports smoking two packs of cigarettes a day for the past 11 years. The nurse correctly documents the client's pack-years as

22. Explanation: Smoking history is usually expressed in pack-years, which is the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day times the number of years the patient smoked. In this situation, the client's pack-years is 22 (2 × 11). It is important to find out whether the client is still smoking or when the client quit smoking.

Inspection of a patient's skin color is part of the assessment of the integumentary system. Cyanosis, which is a late indicator of hypoxia, is present when the unoxygenated hemoglobin level is:

5 g/dL Explanation: Normal hemoglobin is approximately 15 g/dL. Cyanosis appears when a full one-third of the hemoglobin is deoxygenated.

A nurse working in the radiology clinic is assisting with a client after an unusual arterial procedure. What assessment should the nurse notify the health care provider about?

Absent distal pulses Explanation: When monitoring clients after a pulmonary angiography, nurses must notify the health care provider about diminished or absent distal pulses, cool skin temperature in the affected limb, and poor capillary refill. When the contrast medium is infused, the client will sense a warm, flushed feeling.

A patient visited a health care clinic for treatment of upper respiratory tract congestion, fatigue, and sputum production that was rust-colored. Which of the following diagnoses is likely based on this history and inspection of the sputum?

An infection with pneumococcal pneumonia Explanation: Sputum that is rust colored suggests infection with pneumococcal pneumonia. Bronchiectasis and a lung abscess usually are associated with purulent thick and yellow-green sputum. Bronchitis usually yields a small amount of purulent sputum.

The nurse auscultated a patient's middle lobe of the lungs for abnormal breath sounds. To do this, the nurse placed the stethoscope on the:

Anterior surface of the right side of the chest, between the fourth and fifth rib. Explanation: The middle lobe of the lung is only found on the right side of the thorax and can only be assessed anteriorly. It is located at the fourth rib, at the right sternal border and extends to the fifth rib, in the midaxillary line.

The nurse assessed a 28-year-old woman who was experiencing dyspnea severe enough to make her seek medical attention. The history revealed no prior cardiac problems and the presence of symptoms for 6 months' duration. On assessment, the nurse noted the presence of both inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. Based on this data, which of the following diagnoses is likely?

Asthma Explanation: The presence of both inspiratory and expiratory wheezing usually signifies asthma if the individual does not have heart failure. Sudden dyspnea is an indicator of the other choices.

Which is a deformity of the chest that occurs as a result of overinflation of the lungs?

Barrel chest Explanation: A barrel chest occurs as a result of overinflation of the lungs. The anteroposterior diameter of the thorax increases. Funnel chest occurs when a depression occurs in the lower portion of the sternum, which may result in murmurs. Pigeon chest occurs as a result of displacement of the sternum, resulting in an increase in the anteroposterior diameter. Kyphoscoliosis is characterized by elevation of the scapula and a corresponding S-shaped spine. This deformity limits lung expansion within the thorax.

A hospitalized client with terminal heart failure is nearing the end of life. The nurse observes which of the following breathing patterns?

Cheyne-Stokes breathing is characterized by a regular cycle where the rate and depth of breathing increase, then decrease until apnea occurs. The duration of apnea varies but progresses in length. This breathing pattern is associated with heart failure, damage to the respiratory center in the brain, or both.

A client appears to be breathing faster than during the last assessment. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

Count the rate of respirations. Explanation: Observing the rate and depth of respiration is an important aspect of a nursing assessment. The normal adult resting respiratory rate is 12 to 18 breaths per minute. Tachypnea is rapid breathing with a rate greater than 24 breaths per minute. An increase in the rate of respirations needs further investigation and must be reported.

The nurse is assessing the lungs of a patient diagnosed with pulmonary edema. Which of the following would be expected upon auscultation?

Crackles at lung bases Explanation: A patient with pulmonary edema would be expected to have crackles in the lung bases, and possible wheezes. Egophony may occur in patients diagnosed with pleural effusion. Absent breath sounds occurs in pneumothorax. Bronchial breath sounds occur in consolidation, such as pneumonia.

A son brings his father into the clinic, stating that his father's color has changed to bluish around the mouth. The father is confused, with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute and scattered crackles throughout. The son states this condition just occurred within the last hour. Which of the following factors indicates that the client's condition has lasted for more than 1 hour?

Cyanosis Explanation: The client's appearance may give clues to respiratory status. Cyanosis, a bluish coloring of the skin, is a very late indicator of hypoxia. The presence of cyanosis is from decreased unoxygenated hemoglobin. In the presence of a pulmonary condition, cyanosis is assessed by observing the color of the tongue and lips.

For air to enter the lungs (process of ventilation), the intrapulmonary pressure must be less than atmospheric pressure so air can be pulled inward. Select the movement of respiratory muscles that makes this happen during inspiration.

Diaphragm contracts and elongates the chest cavity. Explanation: The diaphragm contracts during inspiration and pulls the lungs in a downward and forward direction. The abdomen appears to enlarge because the abdominal contents are being compressed by the diaphragm. With inspiration, the diaphragmatic pull elongates the chest cavity, and the external intercostal muscles (located between and along the lower borders of the ribs) contract to raise the ribs, which expands the anteroposterior diameter. The effect of these movements is to decrease the intrapulmonary pressure.

Which of the following clinical manifestations should a nurse monitor for during a pulmonary angiography, which indicates an allergic reaction to the contrast medium?

Difficulty in breathing Explanation: Nurses must determine if the client has any allergies, particularly to iodine, shellfish, or contrast dye. During the procedure, the nurse should check for signs and symptoms of allergic reactions to the contrast medium, such as itching, hives, or difficulty in breathing. The nurses inspects for hematoma, absent distal pulses, after the procedure. When the contrast medium is infused, an urge to cough is often a sensation experienced by the client.

A nurse is preparing a client for bronchoscopy. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client?

Do not eat or drink for 6 hours before the procedure. Explanation: Bronchoscopy involves visualization of the trachea and bronchial tree. To prevent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs, the nurse should instruct the client not to eat or drink anything for approximately 6 hours before the procedure. It isn't necessary for the client to avoid walking, talking, or coughing.

The Family Nurse Practitioner is performing a physical examination of a client. The Nurse Practitioner examines the client's anterior, posterior, and lateral chest walls. What is the Nurse Practitioner assessing?

Evidence of muscle weakness Explanation: The nurse examines the anterior, posterior, and lateral chest walls to check for lesions, symmetry, deformities, skin color, and evidence of muscle weakness or weight loss. The nurse examines the posterior pharynx and tonsils with a tongue blade and light to detect any difficulty in swallowing or hoarseness. The nurse inspects and gently palpates the trachea to assess the placement and deviation from the midline.

A client with sinus congestion complains of discomfort when the nurse is palpating the supraorbital ridges. What sinus is the client referring?

Frontal Explanation: The nurse may palpate the frontal and maxillary sinuses for tenderness. Using the thumbs, the nurse applies gentle pressure in an upward fashion at the supraorbital ridges (frontal sinuses) and in the cheek area adjacent to the nose (maxillary sinuses). The ethmoidal sinuses are located between the nose and eyes. The sphenoidal sinuses are behind the nose between the eyes.

You are assessing the respiratory system of a client just admitted to your unit. What do you know to assess in addition to the physical and functional issues related to breathing?

How these issues affect the client's quality of life Explanation: Assessment of the respiratory system includes obtaining information about physical and functional issues related to breathing. It also means clarifying how these issues may affect the client's quality of life.

A nurse is concerned that a client may develop postoperative atelectasis. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate if this complication occurs?

Impaired gas exchange Explanation: Airflow is decreased with atelectasis, which is a bronchial obstruction from collapsed lung tissue. If there is an obstruction, there is limited or no gas exchange in this area. Impaired gas exchange is thus the most likely nursing diagnosis with atelectasis.

What is the primary function of the larynx?

Producing sound Explanation: The larynx, or voice box, is a cartilaginous framework between the pharynx and trachea. Its primary function is to produce sound. While the larynx assists in protecting the lower airway, this is mainly the function of the epiglottis. Facilitating coughing is a secondary function of the larynx. Preventing infection is the main function of the tonsils and adenoids.

Which respiratory volume is the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal exhalation?

Inspiratory reserve volume Explanation: Inspiratory reserve volume is normally 3000 mL. Tidal volume is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath. Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled forcibly after a normal exhalation. Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximum exhalation.

A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who has a history of a respiratory infection. Which documentation, completed by the nurse, indicates the resolution of the infection? Select all that apply.

Lung fields documented as clear in the bases. Palpable vibrations over the chest wall when the client speaks. Decreased fremitus when the client speaks "99." Bronchovesicular sounds heard over the upper lung fields. Explanation: To determine if the client's respiratory infection has resolved, the nurse should assess the client's normal respiratory status. Lungs will return to clear breath sounds. Palpable vibrations will be felt, as there is no blockage in the transmission. A client with consolidation of a lobe of the lung from pneumonia has increased tactile fremitus over that lobe. A decreased fremitus would indicate resolution of infection Bronchovesicular sounds will be noted over the upper lung fields. An increased fremitus is noted as the client speaks "99." Dull percussed sounds indicate an area of consolidation.

A client has a nursing diagnosis of "ineffective airway clearance" as a result of excessive secretions. An appropriate outcome for this client would be which of the following?

Lungs are clear on auscultation. Explanation: Assessment of lung sounds includes auscultation for airflow through the bronchial tree. The nurse evaluates for fluid or solid obstruction in the lung. When airflow is decreased, as with fluid or secretions, adventitious sounds may be auscultated. Often crackles are heard with fluid in the airways

Upon palpation of the sinus area, what would the nurse identify as a normal finding?

No tenderness during palpation Explanation: Sinus assessment involves using the thumbs to apply gentle pressure in an upward fashion at the sinuses. Tenderness suggests inflammation. The sinuses can be inspected by transillumination, where a light is passed through the sinuses. If the light fails to penetrate, the cavity contains fluid.

A patient comes to the emergency department complaining of a knifelike pain when taking a deep breath. What does this type of pain likely indicate to the nurse?

Pleurisy Explanation: Pleuritic pain from irritation of the parietal pleura is sharp and seems to "catch" on inspiration; patients often describe it as being "like the stabbing of a knife." In carcinoma, the pain may be dull and persistent because the cancer has invaded the chest wall, mediastinum, or spine.

The nurse is taking a respiratory history for a patient who has come into the clinic with a chronic cough. What information should the nurse obtain from this patient? (Select all that apply.)

Previous history of lung disease in the patient or family Occupational and environmental influences Previous history of smoking Explanation: Risk factors associated with respiratory disease include smoking, exposure to allergens and environmental pollutants, and exposure to certain recreational and occupational hazards. Financial ability and social support are not pertinent to a chronic cough.

A patient exhibited signs of an altered ventilation-perfusion ratio. The nurse is aware that adequate ventilation but impaired perfusion exists when the patient has which of the following conditions?

Pulmonary embolism Explanation: When a blood clot exists in a pulmonary vessel (embolus), impaired perfusion results. However, ventilation is adequate. With the other choices, ventilation is impaired but perfusion is adequate.

Which of the following is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2)?

Pulse oximetry Explanation: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring SaO2. Measurements of blood pH of arterial oxygen and carbon dioxide tensions are obtained when managing patients with respiratory problems and adjusting oxygen therapy as needed. This is an invasive procedure. Pulmonary function testing assesses respiratory function and determines the extent of dysfunction. Sputum studies are done to identify if any pathogenic organisms or malignant cells are in the sputum.

A client with chronic bronchitis is admitted to the health facility. Auscultation of the lungs reveals low-pitched, rumbling sounds. What breath sound should the nurse document?

Rhonchi Explanation: Rhonchi or sonorous wheezes are deep, low-pitched, rumbling sounds heard usually on expiration. The etiology of rhonchi is associated with chronic bronchitis. Rales or crackles are soft, high-pitched sounds. A venous hum is a blood flow humming sound. Bronchovesicular sound is an intermediate pitch with expiration and inspiration.

A client arrives at the physician's office stating 2 days of febrile illness, dyspnea, and cough. Upon assisting the client into a gown, the nurse notes that the client's sternum is depressed, especially on inspiration. Crackles are noted in the bases of the lung fields. Based on inspection, which will the nurse document?

The client has a funnel chest. Explanation: The question asks for a documentation based on inspection. A funnel chest, known as pectus excavatum, has the sternum depressed from the second intercostal space, and it is more pronounced on inspiration. The nurse would not diagnose chronic respiratory disease or pneumonia. The client would also not prescribe a cough suppressant.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with asthma. While performing the shift assessment, the nurse auscultates breath sounds including sibilant wheezes, which are continuous musical sounds. What characteristics describe sibilant wheezes?

They can be heard during inspiration and expiration. Explanation: Sibilant or hissing or whistling wheezes are continuous musical sounds that can be heard during inspiration and expiration. They result from air passing through narrowed or partially obstructed air passages and are heard in clients with increased secretions. The crackling or grating sounds heard during inspiration or expiration are friction rubs. They occur when the pleural surfaces are inflamed.

Which term refers to the volume of air inhaled or exhaled during each respiratory cycle?

Tidal volume Explanation: Tidal volume refers to the volume of air inhaled or exhaled during each respiratory cycle when breathing normally. Normal tidal volume ranges from 400 to 700 ml. Vital capacity refers to the total volume of air that can be exhaled during a slow, maximal expiration after maximal inspiration. Functional residual capacity refers to the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration. Maximal voluntary ventilation is the greatest volume of air expired in 1 minute with maximal voluntary effort.

A nurse is discussing squamous epithelial cells lining each alveolus, which consist of different types of cells. Which type of alveolar cells produce surfactant?

Type II cells Explanation: There are three types of alveolar cells. Type I and type II cells make up the alveolar epithelium. Type I cells account for 95% of the alveolar surface area and serve as a barrier between the air and the alveolar surface; type II cells account for only 5% of this area, but are responsible for producing type I cells and surfactant. Surfactant reduces surface tension, thereby improving overall lung function. Alveolar macrophages, the third type of alveolar cells, are phagocytic cells that ingest foreign matter and, as a result, provide an important defense mechanism. The epithelium of the alveoli does not contain Type IV cells.

A nurse assesses a client's respiratory status. Which observation indicates that the client is having difficulty breathing?

Use of accessory muscles Explanation: The use of accessory muscles for respiration indicates the client is having difficulty breathing. Diaphragmatic and pursed-lip breathing are two controlled breathing techniques that help the client conserve energy.

A nurse caring for a patient with a pulmonary embolism understands that a high ventilation-perfusion ratio may exist. What does this mean for the patient?

Ventilation exceeds perfusion. Explanation: A high ventilation-perfusion rate means that ventilation exceeds perfusion, causing dead space. The alveoli do not have an adequate blood supply for gas exchange to occur. This is characteristic of a variety of disorders, including pulmonary emboli, pulmonary infarction, and cardiogenic shock.

What is the purpose of the vascular and ciliated mucous lining of the nasal cavities?

Warm and humidify inspired air Explanation: The vascular and ciliated mucous lining of the nasal cavities warms and humidifies inspired air. It is the function of the cilia alone to move mucus in the nasal cavities and filter the inspired air.

The nurse is caring for a client with a decrease in airway diameter causing airway resistance. The client experiences coughing and mucus production. Upon lung assessment, which adventitious breath sounds are anticipated?

Wheezes Explanation: A decrease in airway diameter, such as in asthma, produces breath sounds of wheezes. Wheezes are a whistling type of sound relating to the narrowing on the airway. A wheeze can have a high-pitched or low-pitched quality. Crackles, also noted as rales, are crackling or rattling sounds signifying fluid or exudate in the lung fields. Rhonchi are a course rattling sound similar to snoring usually caused by secretion in the bronchial tree. Rubs are secretions that can be heard in the large airway.

The nurse is performing chest auscultation for a patient with asthma. How does the nurse describe the high-pitched, sibilant, musical sounds that are heard?

Wheezes Explanation: Sibilant wheezes are continuous, musical, high-pitched, whistle-like sounds heard during inspiration and expiration caused by air passing through narrowed or partially obstructed airways; they may clear with coughing. Crackles, formerly called rales, are soft, high-pitched, discontinuous popping sounds that occur during inspiration (while usually heard on inspiration, they may also be heard on expiration); they may or may not be cleared by coughing. Rhonchi, or sonorous wheezes, are deep, low-pitched rumbling sounds heard primarily during expiration; they are caused by air moving through narrowed tracheobronchial passages.

A client has been newly diagnosed with emphysema. The nurse should explain to the client that by definition, ventilation:

is breathing air in and out of the lungs. Explanation: Ventilation is the actual movement of air in and out of the respiratory tract. Diffusion is the exchange of oxygen and CO2 through the alveolar-capillary membrane. Pulmonary perfusion refers to the provision of blood supply to the lungs. A mechanical ventilator assists patients who are unable to breathe on their own.

Pink, frothy sputum may be an indication of

pulmonary edema. Explanation: Profuse frothy, pink material, often welling up into the throat, may indicate pulmonary edema. Foul-smelling sputum and bad breath may indicate a lung abscess, bronchiectasis, or an infection caused by fusospirochetal or other anaerobic organisms.