Chapter 21-39,

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As you are assessing your pregnant patient and preparing for delivery, you recall that one stage of labor typically lasts only about 30 minutes. Which stage is this? A. Fourth stage B. Third stage C. Second stage D. First stage

. B. Third stage

A patient with an abdominal aortic aneurysm would most likely complain of: A. tearing back pain. B. altered mental status C. diffuse abdominal pain. D. palpitations.

A large puncture wound or laceration to the neck must be immediately sealed with an occlusive dressing to prevent: A. an air embolus. B. excessive bleeding. C. airway compromise. D. cervical spine injury.

As an infant's head emerges during a normal delivery, few secretions are present. As the infant's body is delivered, the infant begins to cry normally. Which of the following statements BEST describes the proper care of the infant's airway? A. No intervention is needed for the airway. Clamp and cut the cord, and warm and dry the infant. B. Use a bulb syringe to suction first the infant's mouth, then the nose. C. Use mechanical suction with a soft suction catheter to clear the infant's nose and mouth of secretions. D. To allow all secretions to drain, hold the infant with the head lower than the feet for several seconds before drying and warming the infant and cutting the umbilical cord.

As you approach a patient with severe hemorrhaging from one arm, what should you do FIRST? A. Don standard precautions before touching the patient. B. Check the patient's airway. C. Immediately elevate the arm and apply direct pressure. D. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen to manage the patient's hypoperfusion.

Dull, achy abdominal pain that is difficult to locate is called: A. visceral. B. radiating. C. parietal. D. somatic.

For assessment and documentation purposes, the abdomen is divided into: A. quadrants. B. eighths. C. thirds. D. halves.

How should you respond if your female patient is reluctant to discuss the specifics of her gynecological complaint with you? A. Respect her wishes, and transport her to the ED for a more thorough assessment. B. Tell her that you are unable to perform your duties without the requested information. C. Have her sign a refusal of treatment form. D. Insist that she provide you with the information.

If an inadequate level of oxygen is being delivered to the tissues of the patient's body, which of the following statements is NOT a possible explanation? A. The tissues of the body are already saturated with oxygen. B. The amount of oxygen being delivered by the lungs to the blood is inadequate. C. There is an inadequate level of hemoglobin in the red blood cells. D. There is an inadequate number of red blood cells.

In addition to the delivery of oxygen to the tissues of the body, what role does the blood play in tissue regulation? A. The removal of carbon dioxide and other waste products from the tissue B. The conversion of carbon dioxide into glucose and oxygen molecules C. The conservation of body heat through blood vessel dilation D. The creation of certain hormones for body regulation

In managing an open wound to the neck, what actions can you take while waiting for occlusive dressings to be obtained or opened? A. Place your gloved hand over the wound to close it off from air entry. B. Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. C. Place a standard, sterile 4 times × 4 gauze pad over the wound. D. Apply direct pressure to the open wound with two fingers.

In the process of delivering the infant, you notice that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the infant's neck. Which of the following actions is the appropriate FIRST step in managing this situation? A. Try to slip the cord over the baby's head. B. Deliver as normal, but clamp and cut the cord as soon as the delivery is complete. C. Place the mother in knee-chest position with pillows to help elevate the hips. Push the baby's head several inches back into the birth canal, and cover the cord with wet sterile dressings. D. Clamp the cord in two places, and cut between the clamps.

In your care of a patient suffering from shock due to a motor vehicle crash, which of the following is MOST critical? A. Minimizing your scene time B. Closely examining the vehicles that were involved to determine the mechanisms of injury C. Conducting a detailed secondary assessment at the scene D. Gathering information from the bystanders, family, or police officers before leaving the scene

Open wounds to the abdomen may be so large and deep that organs protrude through the wound opening. This is known as: A. an evisceration. B. an avulsion. C. a protrusion. D. a sucking abdominal wound.

Shortly after delivery of the newborn, the mother experiences a return of labor pains. This likely indicates that: A. the placenta is preparing to deliver. B. it is time for the mother to breast-feed. C. "false" labor has begun. D. the mother is bleeding.

Sickle cell anemia differs physically from general anemia in what way? A. In sickle cell anemia, the red blood cells have a sickle shape. B. In sickle cell anemia, the red blood cells lack a nucleus. C. In sickle cell anemia, the white blood cells have a sickle shape. D. In sickle cell anemia, the cells lack a normal structure and tend to be easily compressible.

Sickle cell anemia primarily affects: A. African Americans. B. children. C. middle-aged women. D. people of Mediterranean descent.

The colon is also known as the: A. large intestine. B. gallbladder. C. small intestine. D. stomach.

When air is present in the chest cavity, the injury is called a: A. pneumothorax. B. hemothorax. C. tension pneumothorax. D. sucking chest wound.

When an individual sustains blunt force trauma to the head that results in a brief disruption of the neural network without any physical evidence or lasting residual effects, this would be termed a: A. concussion. B. brain contusion. C. cerebral hematoma. D. herniation.

Which of the following figures indicates the CORRECT chest compression-to-ventilation ratio for CPR in a newborn? A. 3:1 B. 30:2 C. 5:1 D. 15:2

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of blunt trauma in pregnant patients? A. Motor vehicle accidents B. Falls C. Assaults D. Suicide attempt

Which of the following patients will most likely require a tourniquet to stop active hemorrhage? A. A 42-year-old female with spurting blood coming from her right thigh B. A 45-year-old male with dark, red blood oozing from his right arm C. An 18-year-old female with bright red hemorrhage across her forehead D. A 23-year-old male with a steady flow of blood from lacerations to his right wrist

What is the name of the structure that provides nourishment for the developing fetus in the female's uterus? A. Placenta Your answer is correct. B. Vas deferens C. Gonad D. Progesterone

A. Placenta

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. EMTs should not delay transport to determine the specific cause of abdominal pain. B. Abdominal complaints are typically easy to diagnose. C. There are few serious causes of abdominal pain. D. EMTs should determine the cause of abdominal pain before recommending transport.

Which of the following statements regarding the spinal cord is TRUE? A. The spinal cord transmits and receives neural messages to and from the brain. B. If the spinal cord is severed, the body will experience widespread vasoconstriction. C. The nerves that branch from the spinal cord at the vertebrae alternate from left to right. D. The spinal cord lacks the membranes that surround the brain.

You and your EMT partner are equally trained and have similar experience as EMTs. Your partner suggests that the patient for whom you are caring does not need to have immobilization performed. You feel differently. What would be the best course of action? A. Refer to your local protocol. B. Call your supervisor, and ask him or her to make the decision. C. Call medical direction for expert consultation. D. Do not immobilize the patient, and discuss it later.

You are managing a 27-year-old female with severe hemorrhage from her right ankle post motor vehicle collision. You are unable to stop the hemorrhage with direct pressure. What intervention should you do next? A. Immediately apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound on the patient's femur B. Apply bulky sterile dressing C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen D. Apply pressure dressing

You are on scene with a 24-year-old female car crash victim. During your assessment, she tells you that she can't feel all of her teeth. You note swelling to the jaw and misaligned teeth. Your primary concern in treating this patient is which of the following? A. Removing broken teeth from the airway B. Trend the patient's vital signs to identify signs of increased intracranial pressure C. Identifying the type of Le Fort fracture D. Obtain baseline set of vital signs

You are treating a 42-year-old male complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. You notice that he appears pale, cool, and sweaty. What is the MOST likely reason for these findings? A. Blood vessels constrict in response to sympathetic stimulation causing a decrease in blood flow to the skin. B. The patient's pain receptors are causing his vessels to expand and dilate. C. The body is attempting to rid waste products through the skin as well as the kidneys. D. Blood vessels are dilating causing inadequate gas exchange.

You arrive on scene at a motor vehicle crash where you notice that the patient has severe bleeding from her head with gray matter showing. This type of injury is: A. an open skull fracture. B. a mortal injury. C. a subdural hematoma. D. a closed head injury.

You respond to the scene of a 27-year-old female who was working on her car when she "snagged her hand on a sharp edge." She has napkins around her hand covering the wound. You uncover and note that the bleeding is slow and dark red in color. Direct pressure easily stops the bleeding. Based on this information, what is the source of her bleeding? A. Cephalic vein B. Brachial artery C. Capillary bleed D. Radial artery

Your abdominal pain patient presents with guarding. This position is described as: A. knees drawn up and hands over the abdomen. B. on the knees, leaning forward, hands on the floor supporting the body. C. sitting in a chair with the hands on the knees, leaning forward. D. flat on the back with legs extended and hands clenched over the abdomen.

Your patient is 39 weeks pregnant and complaining of contractions that are 2 minutes apart. She tells you that she needs to use the bathroom before transport. You should: A. explain that the sensation might indicate that she is close to delivery and you need to check to see whether the baby's head is in the birth canal. B. assist the patient in getting up and let her know that you will be right outside the bathroom if she needs anything. C. explain that it is not possible to allow her to go to the restroom and place her on the stretcher for transport. D. explain that it is a normal sensation that will go away as birth gets closer.

Your patient presents with signs and symptoms of shock after a motor vehicle crash. He is MOST likely in: A. hypovolemic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. anaphylactic shock. D. septic shock.

Which of the following patients will show the effects of a heat or cold emergency sooner than most other patients?

A chronically ill patient.

A newborn has a pink body but blue hands and feet one minute after birth. Which of the following is the CORRECT notation of this finding? A. A "1" for appearance Your answer is correct. B. A "1" for respiration C. A "0" for appearance D. A "0" for respiration

A. A "1" for appearance

Which of the following statements is TRUE about shock in pediatric patients? A. Children compensate for shock for a long time, then crash quickly. B. Children rarely develop shock because of their large blood volume. C. Children decompensate quickly but also recover quickly. D. Children are unable to compensate for shock.

A. Children compensate for shock for a long time, then crash quickly.

Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient? A. Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side B. Gently attempting to flex the mid-portion of the bone to check for angulation C. Seeing if you can elicit crepitus on palpation D. Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity

A. Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side

What is the number of patients that generally serves as the lower threshold for a multiple-casualty incident? A. 3 B. 15 C. 2 D. 10

A. 3

Which of the following events is LEAST likely to create a multiple-casualty incident? A. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail B. An outdoor stage collapse during a show at a state fair C. A high-speed impact between a minivan and a sedan D. An apartment complex fire with confirmed entrapment

A. A motorcycle collision with a guardrail

Which of the following BEST describes the compartment syndrome? A. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure B. A serious condition caused by the amount of equipment that must be carried in the ambulance compartments C. A life-threatening condition caused by trapping the blood flow by a fracture when the bone ends cut the blood vessels D. A non-life-threatening condition caused by orthopedic injuries in which blood flow is stopped when the bone ends compress the blood vessels

A. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure

Your patient is hypothermic. Which of the following is allowed by some, but not all, local protocols? A. Active rewarming measures B. Passive rewarming measures C. Removing wet clothing D. Applying a blanket

A. Active rewarming measures

Acute abdominal pain, sometimes called an acute abdomen, is a common condition. Which of the following is TRUE about an acute abdomen? A. Acute abdominal pain has a sudden onset. B. Medical texts list only a few causes of abdominal pain. C. There is no need for the EMT to consider abdominal pain to be life threatening. D. Most causes of an acute abdomen will be obvious.

A. Acute abdominal pain has a sudden onset.

Which age group is most heavily influenced by their peers and what their peers think? A. Adolescents B. Infants C. School age D. Toddlers

A. Adolescents

When is it appropriate to massage the patient's uterus? A. After delivery of the placenta Your answer is correct. B. Any time before delivery of the baby C. During labor D. Only when ALS providers are present

A. After delivery of the placenta

At what point should transport of the injured begin at an MCI? A. After triage has identified "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units B. After all patients have been triaged C. After all "minor" patients have been directed to a treatment area, they should be transported by ambulance to relieve congestion at the scene. D. As soon as the first ambulance arrives.

A. After triage has identified "immediate" category patients and transport has been coordinated through the treatment and transport units

Which of the following risk factors is MOST likely to be associated with a greater suicide risk among 15- to 24-year-old individuals? A. Alcohol or substance abuse B. Sudden independence C. Female gender D. Unexpected move to a new school or job

A. Alcohol or substance abuse

Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false? A. An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward and the hip would usually be flexed. B. A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose. C. Often there is lack of sensation in the limb. D. The posterior hip dislocation is the most common.

A. An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward and the hip would usually be flexed.

Which of the following is used when an airtight seal is needed? A. An occlusive dressing B. A sterile dressing C. A pressure dressing D. A hemostatic dressing

A. An occlusive dressing

At the landing zone for a medical helicopter, which of the following actions is appropriate? A. Approach the aircraft from the front, allowing the pilot to maintain visual contact. B. Approach as soon as the helicopter skids touch the ground. C. When directing the pilot's landing, facing into the wind. D. If the landing zone is not flat, approach from the uphill side.

A. Approach the aircraft from the front, allowing the pilot to maintain visual contact.

What question should you ask to determine if your female patient is experiencing an ectopic pregnancy? A. Are you sexually active? . B. What form of birth control do you use? C. How many times has you been pregnant? D. Have you ever had a miscarriage?

A. Are you sexually active?

Which of the following steps is included in the emergency care of a pediatric patient with epiglottitis? A. Avoid agitating the child with unnecessary assessment and treatment B. Suctioning the airway as needed C. Inserting an oropharyngeal airway D. Positioning the child in a supine position

A. Avoid agitating the child with unnecessary assessment and treatment

You are caring for a 29-year-old female patient who is unconscious and has reportedly overdosed on heroin. Which of the following physical findings is MOST likely to be found? A. Constricted pupils B. Dilated pupils C. Rapid, deep breathing D. Sudden, uncontrolled hypertension

A. Constricted pupils

You are at the scene of a chemical plant where a patient has been exposed to hydrofluoric acid. The plant first aid kit includes calcium gluconate for treatment of hydrofluoric acid exposure. You should: A. Contact medical control and request permission to administer the drug. B. encourage the patient to self-administer the drug. C. immediately administer the drug. D. have a plant employee administer the drug.

A. Contact medical control and request permission to administer the drug.

Which of the following must be done during patient transport? A. Continuous monitoring of the patient B. Confirmation of your field impression C. Completion of the patient care report D. Communication with medical direction

A. Continuous monitoring of the patient

Which method is the LEAST invasive and can control bleeding in MOST cases? A. Direct pressure B. Tourniquets C. Hemostatic agents D. Elevation

A. Direct pressure

Your patient was described as having hallucinations before becoming lethargic and almost unresponsive. You note that she also has a decreased respiratory effort. What type of drug is most likely causing this condition? A. Downer B. Narcotic C. Upper D. Cocaine

A. Downer

You are treating a 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this injury? A. During the secondary exam B. En route to the hospital C. Immediately D. During the primary exam

A. During the secondary exam

Which of the following statements BEST describes the reason why EMS providers should be knowledgeable about patients with special challenges? A. EMS may be called when the chronic condition worsens or a medical device fails. B. A public health function of EMS is to make routine checks of specialized medical devices. C. EMS providers are involved in routine home health care of patients with special medical challenges. D. EMTs must be able to make emergency repairs or adjustments to life-sustaining equipment.

A. EMS may be called when the chronic condition worsens or a medical device fails. Rationale Patients with special medical challenges and their families are very knowledgeable about their day-to-day care. EMS is usually called only when the preexisting condition worsens or a medical device fails.

Which of the following dispatches and coordinates EMS resources? A. Emergency Medical Dispatcher B. Medical Director C. EMS Supervisor D. Medical Dispatch Technician

A. Emergency Medical Dispatcher

Which of the following should you do when interacting with a behavioral patient? A. Encourage the patient to discuss what is troubling him or her. B. Avoid discussing what is troubling the patient. C. Limit the interaction to no more than 15 minutes. D. Lie to the patient if it assists with your assessment.

A. Encourage the patient to discuss what is troubling him or her.

Which of the following actions must be your HIGHEST priority in a rescue situation? A. Ensuring your safety and that of your partner, the patient, and bystanders B. Managing the airway, breathing, and circulation as needed C. Determining the number of patients D. Requesting additional resources

A. Ensuring your safety and that of your partner, the patient, and bystanders Rationale Safety is always the highest priority on any call, including your safety and that of your partner, the patient, and bystanders.

Your patient is a 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you do? A. Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle. B. Explain to the patient that her ankle is fractured and you must splint her ankle to prevent further injury and reduce pain. C. Explain to the patient that her ankle is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on a pillow and a cold pack applied to the injury. D. Transport the patient immediately to a trauma center, applying high-concentration oxygen en route.

A. Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle.

Which of the following is the BEST choice for blocking a highway accident scene and protecting the scene from oncoming traffic? A. Fire apparatus B. Police vehicle C. Ambulance D. EMS helicopter

A. Fire apparatus Rationale A fire vehicle is large, heavy, and highly visible. The ambulance loading area should not be exposed to oncoming traffic.

Which of the following hazmat training levels requires at least eight hours of training? A. Hazmat Operations B. Hazmat Technician C. Hazmat Specialist D. Hazmat Awareness

A. Hazmat Operations

You have been summoned to assist a search-and-rescue team in the care of a 50-year-old backcountry hiker. He was stranded overnight in freezing temperatures and is reportedly hallucinating and lethargic. What should you suspect is MOST likely to be the cause of his unusual behavior? A. He is probably suffering from hypothermia. B. He likely has low blood sugar from lack of nutrition. C. He has probably taken some mind-altering plants thinking it was food D. He probably suffered head trauma from a fall.

A. He is probably suffering from hypothermia.

Which of the following injuries is MOST likely if a pediatric patient was unrestrained during a motor vehicle collision? A. Head injuries B. Lower extremity injuries C. Lumbar injury D. Scapular injury

A. Head injuries

Which of the following is represented by the blue area of the NFPA 704 placard? A. Health hazards B. Special hazards C. Instability hazards D. Flammability hazards

A. Health hazards

Which of the following conditions is associated with a breakdown in the body's heat-regulating mechanisms and a dramatic and dangerous increase in core body temperature? A. Heat stroke B. Heat cramps C. Heat collapse D. Heat exhaustion

A. Heat stroke

A drug that is commonly used to prevent clot formation, especially in heart patients, is: A. Plavix B. Prilosec C. Premarin D. Procardia

A. Plavix

Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced. B. The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency. C. In a knee dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur. D. You should always check for a distal pulse.

A. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.

Activated charcoal is only indicated for patients who have been exposed to poisons via the: A. Ingestion route B. Absorption route C. Injection route D. Inhalation route

A. Ingestion route

Although toxic exposures can have immediate and delayed effects, what type of exposure mechanism would initially present with pulmonary findings such as tachypnea, wheezing, or inspiratory crackles? A. Inhalation B. Absorption C. Injection D. Ingestion

A. Inhalation

Which of the following is TRUE of sudden alcohol withdrawal? A. It can lead to death. B. It is the best way to manage alcohol addiction. C. Patients who quit "cold turkey" usually experience few side effects. D. Sudden withdrawal from alcohol is always fatal.

A. It can lead to death.

Which of the following statements regarding chronic alcohol abusers is TRUE? A. It is easy for the EMT to miss other medical conditions or injuries. B. Confusion and disorientation are uncommon in patients who abuse alcohol. C. The health risks related to alcohol abuse are only a concern when the patient is intoxicated. D. Indications of head injury will be obvious in patients who abuse alcohol.

A. It is easy for the EMT to miss other medical conditions or injuries.

What is the benefit of administering oxygen to a patient who is having a sickle cell crisis? A. It maximizes the oxygen-carrying capacity of the red blood cells that can carry oxygen to the tissue. B. It is largely psychological, leading patient to believe that it is helping him or her. C. It helps to prevent additional sickling of the red blood cells. D. Higher levels of oxygen in the blood help to restore sickled cells into normal cells.

A. It maximizes the oxygen-carrying capacity of the red blood cells that can carry oxygen to the tissue.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues? A. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling. B. It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury. C. It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments. D. It reduces pain.

A. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.

What should be done with reusable equipment after it has been cleaned of visible contaminants at the hospital? A. It should be disinfected. B. It should be sterilized by hospital personnel. C. It should be placed back in service. D. It should be placed in a biohazard container.

A. It should be disinfected.

Which of the following is typically helpful in assessing a younger pediatric patient? A. Let the parent hold the child when possible. B. Ask the parent to direct the child to cooperate. C. Tell the child that you need him or her to cooperate during the assessment. D. Remove the child from the parent or guardian before starting the assessment.

A. Let the parent hold the child when possible.

Which of the following structures connect bone ends, making joints more stable? A. Ligaments B. Periosteum C. Tendons D. Cartilage

A. Ligaments

Which of the following is TRUE about injuries to pediatric patients? A. Most injuries to children are caused by blunt trauma. B. Most injuries to children are unavoidable accidents. C. Most injuries to children are caused by abuse. D. Most injuries to children are caused by penetrating trauma.

A. Most injuries to children are caused by blunt trauma.

If a hearing-impaired patient is having difficulty understanding you while you are seated behind the patient in the ambulance, which of the following actions is recommended? A. Move to where the patient can see your face. B. Proceed directly to the physical assessment. C. Call the receiving facility to arrange for a sign language interpreter. D. Shout.

A. Move to where the patient can see your face.

Which of the following BEST describes the required contents of shipping papers associated with hazardous materials? A. Name of the substance, quantity, origin, and destination. B. Health hazards, flammability hazards, explosion hazards, and special hazards. C. Route of exposure, signs and symptoms, classification, and chemical structure. D. The levels of toxicity, flammability, and reactivity.

A. Name of the substance, quantity, origin, and destination.

Which of the following body areas is MOST susceptible to frostbite? A. Nose B. Posterior thighs C. Medial aspects of the upper arm D. Abdominal area

A. Nose

Which of the following conditions increases the risk of diabetes, heart attack, stroke, and sleep apnea? A. Obesity B. Hyperthyroid C. TIA D. Osteoporosis

A. Obesity

In treating open wounds to the neck or abdomen, which type of dressing is preferred? A. Occlusive dressing B. Hemostatic dressing C. Pressure dressing D. Universal dressing

A. Occlusive dressing

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Pediatric and geriatric patients are especially at risk for hypothermia. B. Hypothermia is not a risk unless the ambient temperature is at or near freezing. C. Only patients who are outdoors are at risk for a heat or cold emergency. D. Pediatric patients are physiologically well equipped to deal with extreme cold.

A. Pediatric and geriatric patients are especially at risk for hypothermia.

What should be done in the prehospital setting for a limb presentation? A. Place the mother in knee-chest position, instruct her to avoid pushing, administer oxygen, and transport without delay. B. Proceed as for a normal delivery, anticipating that it will take a little longer. C. Place one hand in the mother's vagina to try to maneuver the infant into a head-down position. D. Position the mother as for a breech delivery, and proceed with the delivery in the field.

A. Place the mother in knee-chest position, instruct her to avoid pushing, administer oxygen, and transport without delay.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about calls for patients with special challenges? A. Prehospital providers are faced with a growing number of calls for patients with special challenges. B. Only ALS providers are trained to handle calls for patients with special challenges. C. EMTs should be knowledgeable about all advanced medical devices that may be found in the home. D. Advances in medicine are decreasing the number of calls for patients with special challenges.

A. Prehospital providers are faced with a growing number of calls for patients with special challenges.

Which of the statements is TRUE about checking the temperature of a patient with suspected hypothermia? A. Presenting signs and symptoms can be used as a guideline for estimating the body temperature. B. A forehead thermometer strip can be used to obtain the core body temperature. C. An axillary temperature is a good representation of the core body temperature. D. A tympanic thermometer will give the most accurate reading of core body temperature.

A. Presenting signs and symptoms can be used as a guideline for estimating the body temperature.

What should be your FIRST phase of assessment of a patient with a behavioral emergency after you complete the scene size-up? A. Primary survey B. History and SAMPLE C. Behavioral assessment test D. Vitals

A. Primary survey

Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal stimuli, is pale in color with moist skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the BEST sequence of intervention for this patient? A. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow. B. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; and check with medical control about the need to splint the forearm injury prior to transport. C. Open the airway; assess breathing; check the carotid pulse; splint the forearm injury; immobilize the patient to a long backboard; apply high-concentration oxygen; and transport. D. Provide immediate manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine; apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask; perform a focused history and assessment; apply the cervical collar; apply a padded board splint, sling, and swathe to the forearm injury; and transport.

A. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow.

You are restraining a patient who continues to spit at you. What should you do? A. Put a surgical mask on the patient. B. Consider tightening the restraints so that they are painful. C. Restrain the patient in the prone position. D. Refuse to transport the patient.

A. Put a surgical mask on the patient.

Which of the following principles may help the MOST in ensuring the survival of a patient who is suffering from shock due to massive trauma? A. Rapid transport to an appropriate facility B. Waiting for the arrival of paramedics so that they can administer IV fluids C. Facilitating immediate transport to the local community hospital D. Starting oxygen administration at a low concentration and increasing it gradually to the desired levels to avoid hyperoxia

A. Rapid transport to an appropriate facility

Which of the following is recommended to help decrease the stress of an MCI on survivors? A. Reunite families as soon as possible. B. Reassure survivors that things are not as bad as they look at the moment. C. Encourage survivors to revisit the site of the MCI once they have recovered. D. Explain that there is no time for emotional reactions in the immediate aftermath of the event.

A. Reunite families as soon as possible.

Which of the following is the BEST type of eye protection for EMS workers at an accident scene during extrication? A. Safety goggles with a soft vinyl frame B. Regular sunglasses C. Hinged plastic helmet shield D. Prescription glasses

A. Safety goggles with a soft vinyl frame

Which of the following statements about the body's response to heat loss is TRUE? A. Shivering stops when the patient becomes severely hypothermic. B. The first response to a decrease in body temperature is vasodilation. C. The initial reaction to hypothermia is a drop in heart rate. D. The skin becomes flushed.

A. Shivering stops when the patient becomes severely hypothermic

Which of the following sector officers or supervisors is responsible for directing available ambulances to the treatment sector? A. Staging B. Transportation C. Command D. Supply

A. Staging

Which of the following bones is found in the chest? A. Sternum B. Metacarpals C. Tarsals D. Ilium

A. Sternum

Which of the following organs would likely cause severe inflammation and infection if ruptured? A. Stomach B. Liver C. Kidney D. Spleen

A. Stomach

Which of the following statements about a stress reaction is TRUE? A. Stress reactions can cause physical alterations in the patient. B. Once the stress stimulus has been removed, the stress reaction is likely to remain for some time. C. Stress reactions often have a genetic component and are more prone to occur in offspring of parents who have frequent stress reactions. D. Stress reactions have no physical manifestations.

A. Stress reactions can cause physical alterations in the patient.

Which of the following medical conditions is MOST likely to present as a psychiatric or emotional disorder? A. Stroke B. Gastroenteritis C. Emphysema D. Heart attack

A. Stroke

A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, "How much traction should I pull?" The partner's BEST reply is which of the following? A. The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds. B. Pull enough traction to give the patient some relief from the pain. C. No traction splint applied in the field pulls true traction; they must pull 20 pounds of countertraction. D. The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10% of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.

A. The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about SIDS? A. The exact cause of SIDS is unknown. B. SIDS is caused by respiratory problems. C. Infants who die of SIDS typically have a cardiac defect. D. SIDS is a known hereditary risk.

A. The exact cause of SIDS is unknown.

Which of the following is a legitimate reason for requesting air medical transport of a critical patient? A. The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground. B. The patient has health care insurance that will pay for air medical transport. C. You do not feel comfortable with critical patients. D. The weather is too bad for ground transportation.

A. The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground.

An older adult patient is exhibiting unusual behavior by asking the same questions over and over. What should you FIRST consider as a possible cause for this behavior? A. The patient may be experiencing amnesia from a recent head trauma. B. The patient may be developing a bipolar illness. C. The patient has Alzheimer's disease. D. It is not unusual for the elderly to ask the same questions, so there is no reason for concern.

A. The patient may be experiencing amnesia from a recent head trauma.

In a patient who is experiencing a situational stress reaction, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. The patient will likely be breathing fast with a rapid pulse. B. The patient can be snapped out of the reaction by a stern, loud command. C. The patient will likely be hypoxic. D. The patient may become drowsy with slurred speech.

A. The patient will likely be breathing fast with a rapid pulse.

Which of the following statements about the renal system is true? A. The urethra is shorter in the female than in the male. B. Men have urinary tract infections at least as often as women do. C. The ureters are shorter in the male than in the female. D. If one kidney fails, the individual must either receive a transplant or undergo hemodialysis regularly.

A. The urethra is shorter in the female than in the male.

You respond to a home where the parents found their 12-year-old son unconscious on the floor. A half-empty bottle of vodka is next to him. Which of the following physical findings is MOST likely? A. The patient's pulse is slow, and his blood pressure is very low. B. The patient's breathing is fast and deep. C. The patient's temperature is elevated, and his pupils are constricted. D. The patient is manic and wildly animated in his movements.

A. The patient's pulse is slow, and his blood pressure is very low.

Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. How should you position your ambulance? A. To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene B. Ahead of the collision site to avoid blocking traffic C. In the median or off the side of the road D. Immediately behind the vehicle where your patients are, to block the view of people driving by

A. To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene

What is the purpose of secondary triage? A. To reevaluate each patient's priority for treatment and transport B. To assess patients who were not immediately found in the initial response C. To conduct a comprehensive examination of all patients D. To look for secondary devices at the scene of a suspected terrorist attack

A. To reevaluate each patient's priority for treatment and transport

Which of the following organizations does NOT have recommendations for what equipment should be carried on an ambulance? A. U.S. Trial Lawyers Association B. American College of Surgeons C. American Academy of Pediatrics D. National Association of EMS Physicians E. American College of Emergency Physicians

A. U.S. Trial Lawyers Association

You have just arrived at the scene of a patient who has reportedly ingested an unknown chemical at an industrial site. You find the patient to be unconscious and not breathing. Recognizing the importance of the absence of breathing, you should immediately: A. Ventilate the patient using a bag-valve mask while ensuring the airway is clear and patent. B. Administer oxygen via a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM. C. Immediately administer mouth-to-mouth ventilations as any delay could result in permanent death. D. irrigate the mouth with sterile water, then begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

A. Ventilate the patient using a bag-valve mask while ensuring the airway is clear and patent.

What is NOT an anticipated response of survivors to the psychological stress of a disaster? A. Violence B. Anxiety C. Depression and anxiety D. Fear

A. Violence

Which of the following is the most common device used for loading the patient into the ambulance? A. Wheeled ambulance stretcher B. Folding backboard C. Scoop stretcher D. Stokes basket

A. Wheeled ambulance stretcher

Which of the following is a guideline for the treatment of chemical burns? A. When flushing with water, minimize further wound contamination by making sure the fluid runs away from the injury, not toward uninjured areas. B. Immediately flush dry chemicals off the skin with copious amounts of water to minimize the severity of the burn. C. Flush a chemical out of the eye from the corner of the eye to the bridge of the nose. D. Continue to flush the burned area with water for at least five minutes.

A. When flushing with water, minimize further wound contamination by making sure the fluid runs away from the injury, not toward uninjured areas.

When should emergency workers turn off their emergency vehicle headlights at an accident scene? A. When the lights may blind drivers of oncoming vehicles B. When responding to a 911 call C. During the day D. When you enter a school zone

A. When the lights may blind drivers of oncoming vehicles

A child who will be on a ventilator for a long period will likely have: A. a tracheostomy. B. a colonostomy. C. an ileostomy. D. a colostomy.

A. a tracheostomy.

You are delivering a stable patient to the emergency department. Hospital personnel are busy, and you have a call holding. You transfer the patient to a hospital bed and hand the patient a copy of the patient care report. This is an example of: A. abandonment. B. transfer of care. C. an OSHA violation. D. proximate cause.

A. abandonment

The right upper abdominal quadrant contains: A. the liver and gallbladder. B. the spleen and pancreas. C. part of the large intestine and the female reproductive organs. D. the appendix.

A. the liver and gallbladder.

Your unit has arrived on the scene of a private residence where the scene has been determined to be safe. According to the parents, their six-year-old son may have taken a handful of pills, thinking they were candy. You should contact medical direction or the poison control center to consider administering: A. activated charcoal. B. dilution with milk. C. syrup of ipecac. D. rinse mouth out with water.

A. activated charcoal.

Diabetes, poor nutrition, and GI bleeding are common complications of: A. alcohol abuse. B. Epilepsy. C. hypertension. D. syncope.

A. alcohol abuse.

Two-way communications equipment is required on: A. all ambulances. B. municipal ambulances. C. critical care ambulances. D. ALS ambulances.

A. all ambulances.

When transferring a patient to the ambulance, you must: A. appropriately package the patient. B. protect the patient's cervical spine. C. place the patient in the position of comfort. D. use at least three rescuers.

A. appropriately package the patient.

You are caring for a 62-year-old male patient who complains of chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. His heart rate is more than 120, and his blood pressure is 90/60. You notice some pallor and peripheral cyanosis on his cool, clammy skin. He is MOST likely suffering from: A. cardiogenic shock. B. anaphylactic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. septic shock.

A. cardiogenic shock.

Your patient has a nonprogressive but permanent impairment that affects motor control. The patient has: A. cerebral palsy. B. muscular dystrophy. C. autism. D. multiple sclerosis.

A. cerebral palsy. Rationale Cerebral palsy is a nonprogressive but permanent impairment that affects motor control. It is present at birth. Some, but not all, patients with cerebral palsy have cognitive impairment.

Your female patient has trauma to the external genitalia. For this type of call, you should always: A. consider the possibility of assault. Your answer is correct. B. fully expose the patient. C. direct the patient to document exactly what happened. D. notify law enforcement.

A. consider the possibility of assault.

patient has "the bends" following a deep sea dive. The patient's condition is likely due to: A. decompression sickness. B. severe hypothermia. C. compression injury. D. nitrogen narcosis.

A. decompression sickness.

The sterile material that is placed directly on a wound is termed the: A. dressing. B. self-adherent roller gauze. C. cravat. D. bandage.

A. dressing.

The process of removing a patient from wreckage as rapidly and safely as possible is called: A. extrication. B. rapid removal. C. extraction. D. extrapolation.

A. extrication. Rationale Extrication is the removal of a patient. You perform simple extrication every time you remove a patient from his or her home. Complex extrication is most often required at the scene of a vehicle collision when the patient is entrapped in tangled metal.

You are on scene with a 45-year-male who lacerated his hands while working in his garage. The bleeding is dark red and has a steady flow. What is the best way to manage this patient's hemorrhage? A. firmly bandaging a dressing in place. B. tourniquet application proximal to the injury site. C. elevate the extremities. D. splinting the limb and applying a cold pack.

A. firmly bandaging a dressing in place.

Poisons that enter through the eye should be treated by: A. flushing with clean water. B. flushing with eye drops. C. flushing with milk. D. flushing with 0.9% normal saline solution.

A. flushing with clean water.

Burns over a large surface area pose an increased risk of: A. hypothermia. B. COPD. C. hypertension. D. febrile seizures.

A. hypothermia.

Continual use of a wet dressing in a burn patient may cause: A. hypothermia. B. infection. C. epidermal edema. D. saline saturation.

A. hypothermia.

Kidney transplant patients spend the rest of their lives: A. on special medications to prevent rejection. B. with hyperactive immune function. C. on less frequent dialysis. D. in a wheelchair.

A. on special medications to prevent rejection.

Inadequate breathing due to body position is called: A. positional asphyxia. B. restraint apnea. C. fixed apnea. D. obstructive asphyxia.

A. positional asphyxia.

If a patient in a motor vehicle crash sustained a fairly large bruise over the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, you should be MOST concerned about: A. possible rupture of the patient's spleen. B. possible heart contusion. C. possible rupture of the patient's liver. D. possible fractures of the patient's ribs.

A. possible rupture of the patient's spleen.

When restraining a patient, you must use: A. reasonable force. B. chemical restraints. C. approved handcuffs. D. swift action.

A. reasonable force.

If a patient becomes violent, your first action should be to: A. retreat from the scene if possible. B. restrain the patient. C. call for additional resources. D. try to calm the patient.

A. retreat from the scene if possible.

Restraining a patient with autism: A. should be a last resort. B. is the best way to keep the patient calm. C. is up to the patient's parents or care provider. D. should always be done before transport.

A. should be a last resort. Rationale Being restrained is terrifying for the patient. It should be done only as a last resort.

The body loses heat primarily through breathing and the: A. skin. B. endocrine system. C. heart. D. digestive organs

A. skin.

Caffeine, amphetamine, and cocaine are examples of: A. stimulants. B. depressants. C. downers. D. inhalants.

A. stimulants.

You are called to a residence for a patient with special medical challenges. Family members tell you that the patient isn't acting normally. You should: A. take the family members' concerns seriously. B. advise the family that this is common for a patient with special medical problems. C. tell the family that they may be overreacting. D. let the family know that you will need expressed consent from the patient before you can initiate care.

A. take the family members' concerns seriously.

Your patient is in active labor and admits to abusing prescription narcotics. You should expect: A. the possible need for neonatal resuscitation. Your answer is correct. B. the newborn to be hyperactive on delivery. C. a more rapid delivery. D. an uncomplicated delivery.

A. the possible need for neonatal resuscitation.

A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is: A. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle. B. it is hard to access distal pulses after application. C. it requires three people to apply. D. you might not have a pillow on your ambulance.

A. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.

You are caring for an injured child. The child's parent asks you, "Will she be okay?" What should you tell the parent? A. "We are doing everything we can for her." B. "The next hour is critical." C. "I'm not allowed to say." D. "Of course she will be."

A. "We are doing everything we can for her."

Your partner is conducting a detailed examination of a 19-year-old female patient who is experiencing depression and an abnormal distrust of others (paranoia). Your partner is assessing the patient's abdomen by exposing it, inspecting it, and palpating it carefully. Do you consider this approach necessary? Why or why not? A. No, while a physical exam is appropriate for all patients; it should only be performed once trust and rapport has been established. B. Yes, it is important that a thorough abdominal assessment be conducted on all patients. C. No, even if the patient also had complaints of abdominal pain, this level of assessment is unnecessary. D. Yes, physical findings can disclose problems that a history cannot, so this approach is necessary.

A. No, while a physical exam is appropriate for all patients; it should only be performed once trust and rapport has been established.

At a motor vehicle accident with a single patient, the patient is screaming hysterically. You note that the patient's injuries are very minor. Who at the scene is best suited to interact with this patient? A. You, as a medical provider B. The police officer C. One of the firefighters D. One of the patient's family members

A. You, as a medical provider

2. Which of the following types of radiation has greater penetrating power than alpha radiation but is stopped by clothing or skin? A. Beta B. X-ray C. Gamma D. Neutron

A. Beta

10. Which of the following would most likely lead to a fracture without the presence of trauma? A. Brittle bone disease B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Glaucoma

A. Brittle bone disease

12. Flammable solids, substances that are dangerous when wet, and spontaneously combustible materials are: A. Class 4 materials. B. Class 2 materials. C. Class 3 materials. D. Class 1 materials.

A. Class 4 materials.

11. In which of the following areas at a hazmat incident are normal triage, stabilization, and treatment performed? A. Cold zone B. Command Post C. Warm zone D. Temperate zone

A. Cold zone

20. Which of the following terms is used for an explosive device that spreads radioactive material without a nuclear detonation? A. Dirty bomb B. Ammonium nitrate/fuel oil bomb C. Suicide bomb D. Smart bomb

A. Dirty bomb

1. Which of the following should be done FIRST if you are the first arriving unit to a suspected weapons of mass destruction incident? A. Establishing command B. Determining the exact agent or device involved C. Decontaminating patients D. Triaging all patients

A. Establishing command

15. Which of the following is NOT one of the three corners of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)? A. Grimace B. Work of breathing C. Circulation to skin D. Appearance

A. Grimace

4. Which of the following types of weapon of mass destruction is capable of the GREATEST structural damage as well as environmental contamination? A. Nuclear device B. Conventional explosive C. Improvised explosive D. Incendiary device

A. Nuclear device

17. Which of the following hazards should you MOST anticipate when the weapon is a conventional explosive? A. The presence of a secondary device B. Follow-up with a sophisticated chemical weapon C. Impending nuclear detonation D. Simultaneous biological attack

A. The presence of a secondary device

17. What is the number one cause of death in pediatric patients? A. Trauma B. Diabetes C. Sepsis D. Anaphylaxis

A. Trauma

1. For an ingested weapon to be effective, it would: A. have to survive in an acidic environment. B. require a very alkaline environment. C. have a very high pH level. D. need to deliver a lethal dose within two hours.

A. have to survive in an acidic environment.

16. An early sign of hypoxia in infants and children is: A. nasal flaring. B. cyanosis. C. slow pulse rate. D. decreased muscle tone.

A. nasal flaring.

The blood component that is responsible for the initial clotting of blood is the: A. red blood cell. B. platelet. C. white blood cell. D. plasma.

B. platelet.

17. What penetrating power do alpha particles have? A. Alpha particles have little penetrating ability. B. Alpha particles can penetrate the skin. C. Alpha particles can penetrate lead. D. Alpha particles can penetrate multiple layers of clothing.

A.Alpha particles have little penetrating ability.

2. Which of the following defines the term "hazardous material"? A.Any material that poses a threat to life, health, or property B.Any material that is radioactive C.Any material that is explosive or flammable D.Any material that is poisonous if ingested

A.Any material that poses a threat to life, health, or property

6. Which of the following is part of the appearance component of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle? A.Consolability B.Pupils C.Jaundice D.Skin color

A.Consolability

5. Which of the following is TRUE about a pediatric patient with a tracheostomy tube on a home ventilator? A.There is a high risk of infection. B.EMTs are not permitted to care for such patients. C.Parents of such patients are typically poor historians. D.Infection is rare in such patients.

A.There is a high risk of infection.

27. If a parent of your critically ill or injured pediatric patient is interfering with patient care, you should: A.have the parent removed from the patient-care area. B.contact medical direction for advice. C.refuse to treat the child further until the parent calms down. D.stop patient care and calm the parent down.

A.have the parent removed from the patient-care area.

Which of the following is a sign of severe hypothermia?

Absence of shivering.

YOu arrive on scene for an elderly patient who is weak. You notice as you enter his home that it is evident that he cannot care for himself adequately or safely. On arrival at the hospital, what should you do?

Advise the hospital of your obeservations.

Which of the following statements is true about elderly patients?

After about the age 30, organ systems lose 1% of their function per year.

Which of the following is TRUE about about a pneumothorax

An open chest wound called a sucking chest wound can pull air into the thoracic cavity.

At what body temperature does shivering typically occur?

Around 96 degrees Fahrenheit

11. When caring for a patient who fell, you should always:

Attempt to determine the cause of the fall.

By what percentage does the maternal blood volume increase by the end of pregnancy? A. Up to 60% B. Up to 48% C. About 16% D. About 25%

Emergency medical care of a patient with suspected spinal injury includes: A. using sandbags to immobilize the patient's head on the long backboard. B. palpating the cervical region for any deformities or tenderness. C. using manual cervical spine traction until a cervical collar can be applied. D. opening and maintaining the airway using the head-tilt, chin-lift method if the patient is responsive.

If a patient is in labor, what is the MOST reliable indication that delivery will happen imminently? A. Ruptured amniotic sac B. Bulging perineum C. Passing the mucus plug ("bloody show") D. Onset of contractions

If the placenta does not deliver within about 20 minutes after delivery of the newborn, you should: A. remain on scene. B. transport immediately. C. assess vitals, then decide. D. ask the mother what she prefers.

If your patient is complaining of severe abdominal pain that is sharp and can be easily localized by having the patient point to it with one hand, that type of pain is known as: A. referred. B. parietal. C. visceral. D. radicular.

Of the various physiological events that can lead to hypoperfusion, which is the MOST influential in septic shock? A. Decreased heart rate B. Vasodilation C. Reduction of blood volume D. Suppressed cardiac contractility

Patients who have had a successful kidney transplant: A. will still need dialysis. B. will be on medicines to suppress immune function. C. will have two kidneys from different donors. D. will be on medications to stimulate the immune system.

Premature babies are at high risk for: A. hyperglycemia. B. hypothermia. C. positional asphyxia. D. febrile seizures

The hole where the spinal cord exits the cranium is called the: A. tentorium cerebri. B. foramen magnum. C. vertebral foramen. D. brainstem.

The steps in immobilizing a supine patient to a long backboard include: A. not placing padding on the board, as it might move the spine out of alignment. B. securing the patient's torso to the board before securing the head. C. removing the cervical collar once the patient is immobilized on the board. D. using the logroll, a move that ideally is performed by at least two rescuers: one at the head and one at the hips.

The brownish-yellow or greenish material that can discolor the amniotic fluid is known as: A. bloody show. B. meconium. C. mucus plug. D. bile.

What is the purpose of a three-sided occlusive dressing? A. To prevent all movement of air B. To allow air to escape but not enter C. To allow free movement of air without risk of infection D. To allow air to enter but not escape

What is the rationale for some EMS systems employing "selective use of spine immobilization" by some EMS systems? A. Selective use of spinal immobilization increases health care costs B. Immobilization of some patients may not be beneficial based on mechanism of injury and assessment findings C. The spine can be effectively "cleared" in the field by prehospital providers D. Providing spinal immobilization on patients wastes valuable time on scene

What is the typical duration of pregnancy? A. 32 weeks B. 40 weeks C. 36 weeks D. 44 weeks

What type of pain is characterized as a dull or aching discomfort that is poorly localized by the patient? A. Referred B. Visceral C. Parietal D. Radicular

When treating a patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should try to: A. encourage the patient to explain to you exactly what happened. B. provide a same-sex provider to assist the patient. C. tell the patient that everything will be fine. D. have the patient take a shower before transport.

Which of the following are fragments of larger cells and crucial to the formation of clots? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. White blood cells D. Red blood cells

Which of the following findings during your primary assessment would be MOST suggestive of a brain injury? A. Difficulty in breathing B. Poor responsiveness to verbal stimuli C. Rapid, weak pulse D. Partial airway obstruction

Which of the following is TRUE about the cardiovascular system in a pediatric patient that should be considered whenever trauma causes blood loss? A. The femoral pulse is considered a peripheral pulse in an infant. B. The blood volume of a child is far less than that of an adult. C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged at a slower rate in a child. D. The right side of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.

Which of the following is an example of an open chest injury? A. Pneumothorax B. Sucking chest wound C. Commotio cordis D. Hemothorax

Which of the following is recommended for suctioning the newborn's mouth and nose? A. Yankauer catheter B. Bulb syringe C. Battery-powered suction D. French suction catheter

Which of the following mechanisms accounts for supine hypotensive syndrome? A. The weight of the enlarged uterus and fetus compresses the descending aorta, restricting blood flow to the rest of the body. B. The weight of the enlarged uterus and fetus presses on the inferior vena cava, causing inadequate blood return to the heart. C. Compression of the umbilical cord between the fetus and the uterine wall results in decreased fetal cardiac output and hypotension. D. The weight of the enlarged uterus and fetus compresses the vagus nerve, slowing the heart rate and decreasing cardiac output.

Which of the following questions is LEAST relevant in obtaining an obstetric history of a 25-year-old patient who is 26 weeks pregnant and complaining of back pain? A. Can you describe what the pain feels like? B. Are your breasts tender? C. Have you received prenatal care? D. Is this your first pregnancy?

Which of the following would be a nontraumatic cause of brain injury? A. Rapid deceleration from a head-on collision B. Severe prolonged hypotension C. Gunshot wound to the head D. Knife wound to the scalp

You are assessing a patient who has abdominal pain. During your history, you have determined that the patient receives dialysis three times a week, and you note a dialysis shunt in his left arm. How would this knowledge change your assessment of vitals on the patient? A. You would not listen to breath sounds on the left side of the body. B. You would not use the arm with the dialysis shunt to obtain a blood pressure. C. You would not assess sensory in the arm with the dialysis shunt. D. You would not evaluate the skin condition in the left arm.

You are assisting a woman in the delivery of her infant when you note that a segment of the umbilical cord is sticking out of her birth canal. What is the prehospital treatment of this condition? A. Place the mother in left lateral recumbent position, and advise her not to push. B. Instruct the patient not to push. Place the mother in knee-chest position or elevate the hips with pillows, push the baby's head several inches upward into the birth canal, and cover the exposed cord with wet sterile dressings C. Instruct the mother not to push and to "pant like a dog." Clamp the cord in two places, and cut between the clamps. Proceed with delivery. D. Deliver the infant as normal, making sure that the infant's limbs do not become entangled in the cord.

You are caring for a 19-year-old female who is complaining of vaginal bleeding. She states that she is not pregnant and is not menstruating. You should: A. recommend that the patient contact her gynecologist. B. assess for shock and transport the patient. C. inform the patient that she must be either pregnant or menstruating. D. let the patient know that the bleeding is normal.

You are on scene with a 64-year-old female who appears to have a dialysis shunt on her arm. Based on this finding, you know that the patient has A. Polycystic kidney disease B. End stage renal disease which requires dialysis C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute renal insufficiency

You are summoned to a skilled nursing facility for an elderly male with kidney disease and an indwelling urinary catheter. The staff at the facility tells you that his urinary catheter has not drained in hours. What is your BEST course of action? A. Remove the catheter immediately. B. Evaluate the patient fully, and prepare for transport to the hospital for continued care. C. Clear the blockage of the catheter by instilling a bolus of sterile saline. Your answer is not correct.D. The catheter is not in position so you should tug firmly on the catheter to properly position it.

You are treating a 29-year-old motorcycle crash victim who appears pale, cool, and diaphoretic. You suspect he sustained a traumatic brain injury based on decreased pupillary response. Based on these findings and the mechanism of injury,which of the following is the MOST appropriate method to manage this patient? A. Assess and catalog all major and minor injuries prior to transporting the patient to the hospital B. Limit on scene- time and promptly transport the patient to the hospital C. Splint all orthopedic injuries found prior to transporting the patient to the hospital D. Perform a detailed secondary assessment on the patient prior to transportation

You arrive at the home of a 65-year-old male patient with chest pain. His wife gives you a list of medications that he is taking because of previous heart attacks. One of the daily medications is aspirin. Why does the patient take daily doses of aspirin? A. He is probably taking aspirin for his arthritis. B. Aspirin helps to inhibit clot formation. C. Aspirin helps to reduce the pain of angina or heart attacks. D. Aspirin counteracts the side effects of nitroglycerin, which include headache.

At a hazardous materials incident, which of the following areas is used for triaging patients, performing necessary treatment, and stabilizing patients before transport? A. Warm zone B. Cold zone C. Hot zone D. Decon zone

B. Cold zone

You have been called to a nursing home where you find an 88-year-old female patient who is confused and combative. The staff states that this is not her normal behavior but that she has been bedridden from a previous stroke. They also report that she has had a recent urinary tract infection from an indwelling catheter. You note that her skin is flushed and warm, her pulse is 108, and her blood pressure is 80/44. You should suspect: A. hypovolemic shock. B. septic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock.

Your patient complains of epigastric pain. He took several antacids before your arrival, but they provided no relief. You should suspect: A. expired antacids. B. a cardiac problem. C. a diabetic problem. D. a low pain threshold.

Your patient is 30 weeks pregnant. She is supine in bed, complaining of dizziness. Your partner reports that the patient is hypotensive. You should suspect: A. pregnancy-induced hypertension. B. supine hypotensive syndrome. C. compensated shock. D. hypertensive crises.

Your 31-year-old male patient was just involved in a motor vehicle collision. While assessing him, you note that has an increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and pale, cool skin. Based on these findings, the patient is MOST likely in: A. physiological shock. B. compensated shock. C. irreversible shock. D. decompensated shock.

What is the maximum possible APGAR score? A. 12 B. 10 Your answer is correct. C. 15 D. 5

B. 10

You suspect that your patient is suffering from severe hypothermia. When checking for a pulse, you should check for: A. no more than 10 seconds. B. 30 to 45 seconds. C. 6 seconds. D. At least 60 seconds.

B. 30 to 45 seconds.

A normal heart rate for a 16- to 18-year-old patient is about: A. 120 to 160 beats per minute. B. 60 to 100 beats per minute. C. 50 to 90 beats per minute. D. 90 to 130 beats per minute.

B. 60 to 100 beats per minute.

Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. A fracture is any break in a bone. B. A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place. C. A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone. D. An angulated break is when the broken bone is bent at an angle.

B. A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place.

Which of the following devices may be required by a patient as a result of spinal cord paralysis? A. An implanted cardioverter-defibrillator B. A mechanical ventilator C. An implanted port D. Dialysis

B. A mechanical ventilator

Which of the following is TRUE about absorbed poisons? A. If the poison is a dry chemical, immediately flush the area with clean water. B. Absorbed poisons frequently irritate or damage the skin. C. Absorbed poisons cause local reactions at the point of contact but rarely cause systemic reactions. D. A contaminated eye should be irrigated from the corner of the eye across the bridge of the no

B. Absorbed poisons frequently irritate or damage the skin.

Your partner is reviewing the actions of activated charcoal. You tell him that activated charcoal A. Providing a laxative effect, resulting in diarrhea. B. Adheres to many poisons, reducing absorption by the body. C. Dilutes the poison prior to being absorbed by the body. D. Works well when an acid or alkali has been ingested.

B. Adheres to many poisons, reducing absorption by the body.

What is the single most important treatment for a patient suffering from inhaled poisoning? A. Identify the specific poison the patient was exposed to and ensuring all bottles, containers, or appropriate labels are transported with the patient. B. Administering high-concentration oxygen as soon as it is safely possible to do so. C. Perform a secondary assessment with vital signs. D. Transporting the patient emergency traffic to the nearest appropriate facility.

B. Administering high-concentration oxygen as soon as it is safely possible to do so.

As a general rule, what action should you take when you encounter medical technology with which you are not familiar when caring for a patient? A. Turn off the equipment in preparation for transport. B. Ask the patient and caregivers about the device. C. Disable any alarms on the equipment in preparation for transport. D. Take the equipment with the patient.

B. Ask the patient and caregivers about the device. Rationale Before making any decisions about disconnecting, powering down, or transporting unfamiliar medical technology, always ask the patient and his or her caregivers about the use of the equipment.

During supine hypotension syndrome, how does the mother's body compensate for hypotension? A. The mother's body stimulates widespread vasodilation. B. Blood flow will be directed away from the fetus. Your answer is correct. C. Blood flow will be directed to the fetus.

B. Blood flow will be directed away from the fetus.

Which of the following risk factors is the least indicative of a potential suicide attempt is? A. Having a detailed plan for suicide B. Calling 911 for help C. Recent improvements from deep depression D. Previous suicide attempts

B. Calling 911 for help

Which of the following signs of shock is useful in pediatric patients but not in adults? A. Tachycardia B. Capillary refill C. Tachypnea D. Restlessness

B. Capillary refill

A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it "pops back into place." What should your next step be? A. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient. B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient. C. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient. D. Continue splinting and report the popping sound to the triage nurse when you arrive at the hospital.

B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.

A 32-year-old female patient is exhibiting bizarre behavior and combativeness that occurred suddenly. Which one of the following is MOST likely a cause of this behavior? A. head injury B. Cocaine or amphetamines C. schizophrenia D. Narcotic or benzodiazepine overdose

B. Cocaine or amphetamines

You are summoned by law enforcement to the scene of a 52-year-old female patient. The patient appears intoxicated, and the police tell you that she has a history of alcohol abuse. The police request that you transport the patient to an alternative destination (a detoxification unit). What is your best course of action? A. Abide by the police officers' request, as they have the authority over the patient. B. Confer with your medical control, and allow them to determine the patient's destination. C. Have the patient sign a refusal for transport, and instruct the police to do the transporting. D. Ignore the request from the police, and transport the patient to the hospital.

B. Confer with your medical control, and allow them to determine the patient's destination.

You are dispatched to the scene of a construction site where a 33-year-old male has been impaled with a piece of rebar to his right anterior chest near the clavicle. The rebar is too long to allow transport of the patient. The patient is alert and seated on the ground. How should you manage this injury? A. Immediately remove the rebar being carefully B. Contact medical control and ensure someone stabilizes the object while it is gently cut to the desired length C. Stabilize the rebar and transport the patient D. Summon a surgeon to the scene to manage this situation

B. Contact medical control and ensure someone stabilizes the object while it is gently cut to the desired length

Which of the following is a common cause of chronic renal failure? A. Blocked urinary catheter B. Diabetes C. Crush injuries D. Massive multiple system trauma

B. Diabetes

Which of the following is the MOST likely hazard at a highway accident scene? A. Undeclared hazardous materials B. Distracted drivers and oncoming traffic C. Accidental needle stick D. Additional response vehicles

B. Distracted drivers and oncoming traffic

You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle that has collided with a utility pole. A power line is draped across the hood of the vehicle. Which of the following is the BEST action in this situation? A. It is safe for the patients to exit the vehicle if they are able, but it is not safe for you to approach from outside the vehicle. B. Do not approach the vehicle until the power company has advised you that the line is dead. C. You can approach the vehicle as long as the line is intact. D. It is safe for you to approach the vehicle as long as you are wearing firefighting turnout gear. Rationale Only the electric utility company can safely advise when there is no danger of injury or death from the power line.

B. Do not approach the vehicle until the power company has advised you that the line is dead. Rationale Only the electric utility company can safely advise when there is no danger of injury or death from the power line.

You arrive on scene after police arrive for a patient who has "gone crazy." The patient has locked himself in his bedroom and states that he has a knife that he will use on himself if anyone comes in. What should you do? A. Enter the room with a family member of the patient's. B. Do not enter the room until the knife is secure. C. Rush into the room and subdue the patient before he can react. D. Enter the room without the police if the patient promises to be nice.

B. Do not enter the room until the knife is secure.

You have been summoned to evaluate a 29-year-old female patient who admits to being depressed and in despair. She recently divorced her husband of ten years and then learned that she has breast cancer. She states in a quiet voice, "There's nothing to live for." What should you do? A. Since there is no apparent medical problem, you are under no obligation to continue caring for this patient. B. Do not leave the patient alone, and arrange for psychiatric evaluation immediately. C. Contact the woman's family, and have them take care of her until her depression subsides. D. Give the woman your phone number, and instruct her to call you if she feels greater depression.

B. Do not leave the patient alone, and arrange for psychiatric evaluation immediately.

In addition to OSHA, which agency develops regulations governing the response to hazardous materials incidents? A. FEMA B. EPA C. USCA D. FHMRA

B. EPA

The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries? A. Hip dislocation B. Fractured pelvis . C. Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine D. None of the above

B. Fractured pelvis

You are called to the home of a young female who is reported to be agitated and threatening her family members. The police are in the kitchen, interviewing the family members, and the patient is lying on the couch in the living room, face down with her hands under the pillow on which her head is resting. How should you proceed? A. Kneel down next to the patient while trying to coax her to sit up. B. From a safe distance, ask the patient to sit up or move to another chair, and ask one of the police officers to accompany you. C. Sit on the couch next to the patient, and gently begin interacting with her. D. Remove the patient's hands from underneath the pillow before interacting with her.

B. From a safe distance, ask the patient to sit up or move to another chair, and ask one of the police officers to accompany you.

Your patient complains of right shoulder pain. She denies trauma. Which of the following is most likely? A. Appendicitis B. Gallbladder problems C. Food poisoning D. Intestinal obstruction

B. Gallbladder problems

Which of the following is NOT a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT? A. Check the distal neurovascular function before and after splinting. B. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination. C. Splint an isolated extremity injury before moving the patient to the stretcher. D. Immobilize the site of an extremity injury from the joint above it to the joint below it.

B. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

When a patient with a behavioral disorder refuses care and transport, what would be your BEST course of action? A. Strike a bargain with the patient: Tell the patient that he or she can ride up front and blow the siren if the patient agrees to go with you. B. Give the patient an honest explanation as to why care and transportation are important in an effort to convince him or her to agree to them. C. Transport the patient anyway. He or she is suffering from dissociation from reality and will not know the difference. D. With the patient's first refusal, pack up your equipment and leave the scene immediately.

B. Give the patient an honest explanation as to why care and transportation are important in an effort to convince him or her to agree to them.

What effect does humidity have on the efficiency of evaporative heat loss? A. The effect of humidity on heat loss is unpredictable. B. Heat loss is reduced by higher humidity. C. Heat loss is increased by higher humidity. D. Heat loss is not affected by humidity.

B. Heat loss is reduced by higher humidity.

Which of the following zones designates where the hazardous materials contamination is actually present? A. Warm zone B. Hot zone C. Cold zone D. Contamination zone

B. Hot zone

You are caring for a patient who has apparently attempted suicide by taking her father's prescription drug. In addition to knowing what drug it is, its dosage, and when she took the drug, what other detail related to the drug is important? A. When the medication was prescribed to the father B. How many capsules were in the container before and after the ingestion C. Whether the medication a brand name or generic D. The expiration date on the container

B. How many capsules were in the container before and after the ingestion

trauma patients, which form of shock is the most common? A. Septic shock B. Hypovolemic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Neurogenic shock

B. Hypovolemic shock

Which of the following complications may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity? A. Converting a closed fracture to an open one B. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury C. Compromising circulation to the extremity D. All of the above

B. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the BEST way to immobilize this patient's extremities prior to transport? A. Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and PASG for the lower extremities. B. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually. C. Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard. D. Use moldable splints for the upper and lower extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures.

B. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.

What route is activated charcoal administered? A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Injection D. Sublingual

B. Ingestion

Which of the following statements BEST describes the cervix? A. It is the duct through which an egg released from the ovary travels to the uterus. B. It is the narrow, lower end, or "neck," of the uterus. Your answer is correct. C. It is the opening at the junction of the uterus and the fallopian tube. D. It is the inner lining of the uterus.

B. It is the narrow, lower end, or "neck," of the uterus.

You arrive on scene to an assault. Law enforcement has secured the scene and present a 23-year-old male with a blood soaked shirt. The patient states that the assailant "slashed at him with a box opener." You expose the chest and note a jagged cut on his left anterior chest with steady, dark red hemorrhaging. Based on this assessment finding, the wound is MOST likely which of the following? A. Avulsion B. Laceration C. Contusion D. Abrasion

B. Laceration

Which of the following is MOST common after an insect bite? A. Hemorrhage B. Localized pain or itching C. Hypotension D. Seizures

B. Localized pain or itching

Which of the following statements regarding musculoskeletal injuries is correct? A. Splints do not adequately fit the patient's extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization. B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb. C. Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient. D. All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding, leading to hypoperfusion.

B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation? A. BLS B. Medium duty C. ALS D. Type A

B. Medium duty

Which of the following is TRUE about burn management in pediatric patients? A. It is best to keep the patient exposed to minimize the risk of infection. B. Moist dressings should be used with caution. C. Pediatric patients are not prone to hypothermia due to burns. D. Always apply wet, sterile burn sheets.

B. Moist dressings should be used with caution.

When you are assessing a child's appearance in the Pediatric Assessment Triangle, what is observed in assessing the patient's tone? A. Skin color B. Muscle tone and movement C. Apparent mood or emotion D. Pitch of the voice or cry

B. Muscle tone and movement

Which of the following organizations provides extensive information on protective gear for emergency responders? A. NREMT B. NFPA C. NCIS D. NIH

B. NFPA

If it is necessary to disconnect a car's battery, which of the following cables should be cut or removed FIRST? A. Neutral B. Negative C. Red D. Positive Rationale Of the two battery cables, positive (red) and negative (black), always remove or cut the negative (black) cable first.

B. Negative Rationale Of the two battery cables, positive (red) and negative (black), always remove or cut the negative (black) cable first.

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm that patient care has been transferred appropriately at the receiving hospital? A. Speak directly to the accepting physician. B. Obtain a signature from the hospital staff member who accepts patient care. C. Document "transfer complete" on your PCR. D. Notify your dispatch that you are available.

B. Obtain a signature from the hospital staff member who accepts patient care.

When is the transfer of care at the receiving hospital completed? A. Once the patient has been transferred to a hospital bed B. Only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has accepted patient care C. As soon as the patient is physically on the hospital's property D. After completion of the hospital admissions process

B. Only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has accepted patient care

Which of the following patients should NOT be administered activated charcoal? A. Patient who has overdosed on aspirin B. Patient experiencing an altered mental status C. Patient who is currently taking antibiotics D. Patient who has overdosed on acetaminophen

B. Patient experiencing an altered mental status

Which of the following is an appropriate infection control measure to be taken at the completion of a call? A. Placing blood-saturated dressings and disposable items in regular hospital waste containers B. Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper C. Using high-level disinfection for all ambulances surfaces D. Using gel hand sanitizer to clean your hands

B. Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper

Which of the following conditions should be suspected when a patient who is at 32 weeks gestation presents with a complaint of headache, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, hypertension, and swelling of the face, hands, and feet? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Preeclampsia Your answer is correct. C. Hyperemesis gravidarum D. Gestational diabetes

B. Preeclampsia

If you are caring for a patient with a bee sting and the stinger is still present, what is the BEST way to remove it? A. Leave it in place until arrival at the hospital. B. Remove it quickly. C. Slowly and carefully remove it by hand. D. Use a specially designed tweezer device.

B. Remove it quickly.

Your patient is in severe pain stating that his discomfort radiates from his flank to his groin. You also note that the patient is feeling nauseas and cannot find a position of comfort. Based on these assessment findings, what is most likely the cause of his distress? A. GI Bleeding B. Renal colic C. Appendicitis D. Hernia

B. Renal colic

Which of the following actions should you take if you suspect that your patient is a victim of child abuse? A. Contact medical direction to report your suspicions and request direction about contacting law enforcement. B. Report your findings to law enforcement or the appropriate social services agency as well as to personnel at the receiving hospital. C. Request a social services follow-up visit for after the child has been discharged from the hospital. D. Tell the caregiver that you are obligated by law to contact law enforcement and that the caregiver needs to stay on the scene until law enforcement arrives.

B. Report your findings to law enforcement or the appropriate social services agency as well as to personnel at the receiving hospital.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of cardiac arrest in a drowning victim? A. Cardiac dysrhythmias B. Respiratory arrest C. Hypoglycemia D. Spinal trauma

B. Respiratory arrest

What is the primary risk for electrical injury patients? A. Paralysis B. Respiratory or cardiac arrest C. Massive burn injuries D. Orthopedic injuries

B. Respiratory or cardiac arrest

What written information should the driver of a vehicle carrying hazardous materials have in the driver's compartment? A. Emergency Response Guidebook B. Shipping papers C. DOT placard D. MSDS

B. Shipping papers

Which of the following actions should be taken immediately if you see the cord wrapped around the infant's neck? A. Place a single umbilical clamp on the cord, and cut on the side proximal to the infant. B. Slip the cord over the infant's shoulder right away. Your answer is correct. C. Continue to monitor the cord to ensure that the infant's limbs do not become entangled in it. D. Cut the cord in two places, and cut between the clamps.

B. Slip the cord over the infant's shoulder right away.

Which of the following is NOT considered a category of child abuse? A. Sexual abuse B. Social abuse C. Emotional abuse D. Physical abuse

B. Social abuse Rationale The three categories of abuse are sexual, physical, and emotional abuse.

Which of the following actions should you take immediately after gaining access to a patient in a vehicle? A. Perform a focused history. B. Stabilize the patient's cervical spine. C. Stabilize the vehicle. D. Request helicopter EMS.

B. Stabilize the patient's cervical spine.

Which of the following is MOST important to have immediately available in managing a drowning victim? A. Backup AED B. Suction C. A blood pressure cuff D. Nonrebreather mask

B. Suction

Which of the following statements regarding suicide is TRUE? A. Suicide occurs more frequently among married people. B. Suicide rates are high among 15- to 25-year-olds. C. The incidence of suicide is equal among males and females. D. Suicide decreases with age, occurring least often among the elderly.

B. Suicide rates are high among 15- to 25-year-olds.

Which of the following statements BEST describes how the mental status assessment of a patient with a developmental disability is different from the mental status assessment of typical patients? A. The Glasgow Coma Scale score is not valid. B. The baseline is determined by questioning the patient's regular caregiver. C. There is no way to adequately assess the patient's mental status. D. AVPU cannot be used.

B. The baseline is determined by questioning the patient's regular caregiver. Rationale The patient's regular caregiver can help you understand what is normal for the patient and how that compares to the patient's current mental status and activity.

What is the MOST likely reason medical control would direct you to forcibly restrain a patient? A. The patient has verbally threatened EMS workers. B. The patient is a danger to himself or herself. C. The patient has a life-threatening condition. D. The patient is clinically depressed.

B. The patient is a danger to himself or herself.

You are caring for a 48-year-old female patient who is exhibiting bizarre behavior and is confused. Her family reports that she has high blood pressure and is an insulin-dependent diabetic. What can you reasonably concluded from this situation? A. This type of behavior is not uncommon among diabetics. Simply instruct the family to give the patient a dose of the insulin that she is prescribed. B. The patient may be having a medical emergency secondary to the level of her blood sugar. C. This is clearly a psychiatric situation, regardless of the patient's past medical history. D. This event is probably temporary, and you should allow some time to pass before making a judgment.

B. The patient may be having a medical emergency secondary to the level of her blood sugar.

You arrive on scene to a residence where you find a 16-year-old female patient who was shocked while plugging in an appliance in the garage. Her father states that he heard the shock and saw her get "thrown to the ground." The patient is awake and alert still lying on the ground. Based on the patient's presentation, how should you manage this patient's injury? A. Withhold oxygen until you are able to perform a full assessment B. This patient should be fully immobilized C. Evaluate the source of the electrical burn prior to assessing the patient D. Immediately place an AED on the patient

B. This patient should be fully immobilized

When responding to a report of a patient with difficulty breathing, you find a man in his 60s in a hospital bed in his home. A small, round tube exits from a patient's neck, through which he is breathing. Which of the following devices does the patient MOST likely have? A. Dual lumen catheter B. Tracheostomy tube C. Endotracheal tube D. Airway catheter

B. Tracheostomy tube

Which question is the most relevant when determining how long the poison has been in the system? A. What effect is the patient experiencing from the poisoning? B. When did the poisoning occur? C. What substance was involved? D. What is the patient's weight?

B. When did the poisoning occur?

A collection of blood under the skin or in tissue that forms a mass is called: A. a blood blister B. a hematoma C. a contusion D. an ecchymosis

B. a hematoma

While you are managing your patient's airway, a family member tells you that the patient regularly takes pills for severe back pain. Given that your patient presents with signs and symptoms of overdose, your patient most likely overdosed on: A. heroin B. a prescription narcotic C. a downer D. alcohol

B. a prescription narcotic

Your 35-year-old female patient has accidentally cut her forearm with a kitchen knife. You notice that the blood is dark red and has a steady flow. The patient is concerned she may have "cut an artery." Based on this finding, you should tell her that the source is hemorrhage originates from: A. an arteriole. B. a vein. C. an artery. D. a capillary.

B. a vein.

A substance that will neutralize a poison is called: A. a dilution. B. an antidote. C. an anti-drug. D. a cure.

B. an antidote.

The LAST stage of alcohol withdrawal is delirium tremens (DTs). Remember that the DTs: A. are usually asymptomatic. B. are life threatening. C. occur acutely when the person stops drinking alcohol. D. are self-limiting.

B. are life threatening.

The part of the skeleton that is made up from the skull and spinal column is called the: A. boney skeleton. B. axial skeleton. C. torso. D. appendicular skeleton.

B. axial skeleton.

An emergency vehicle operator should: A. drive using both feet. B. be capable of keeping emotions under control. C. always drive in the center lane. D. practice evasive maneuvers regularly.

B. be capable of keeping emotions under control.

You should suspect respiratory complications in a patient with damage to the: A. coccyx. B. cervical spine. C. lumbar spine. D. sacral spine.

B. cervical spine.

Volatile chemicals are agents that can: A. slowly absorb into body tissues, causing widespread damage. B. change easily from a liquid into a gas. C. catch fire. D. change easily from a gas to a liquid.

B. change easily from a liquid into a gas.

You arrive at the scene of a 25-year-old male patient who is reportedly suffering from an acute episode of paranoia schizophrenia. On arrival, you should FIRST: A. ask everyone to stand back as you approach the patient cautiously. B. conduct a scene size-up and ensure the safety of the scene. C. engage the patient in conversation in an attempt to ground him in reality. D. agree with what the patient says, even though it may sound outrageous to you.

B. conduct a scene size-up and ensure the safety of the scene.

For a patient with a known ingestion of an acid substance, you should immediately: A. administer activated charcoal in the appropriate dosage. B. contact medical control or a poison control center. C. administer an equivalent amount of an alkali to neutralize the acid. D. administer syrup of ipecac in the appropriate dosage.

B. contact medical control or a poison control center.

To conserve your pediatric patient's body heat, you should: A. keep the patient's head covered but not the torso. B. cover the patient's head and torso. C. cover the patient's torso but not the head. D. keep the patient's head and torso exposed.

B. cover the patient's head and torso.

drowning victim who experiences morbidity: A. experienced no complications from the incident. B. has an illness that is related to the drowning incident. C. died as a result of the drowning incident. D. survived but has irreversible brain damage.

B. has an illness that is related to the drowning incident

Your pediatric patient accidentally ingested a medication that causes widespread vasodilation. This increases the patient's risk of: A. hyperthermia. B. hypothermia. C. hypertension. D. hemorrhage.

B. hypothermia.

Soft tissue injuries are sometimes dramatic but rarely: A. serious. B. life threatening. C. painful. D. preventable.

B. life threatening.

Tracheostomy tubes are prone to: A. deflation. B. obstruction. C. perforation. D. inflation.

B. obstruction.

Of the following, suicide rates are highest among: A. married couples. B. patients over 40 years of age. C. preteens. D. single men.

B. patients over 40 years of age.

Adolescent patients will not likely cooperate with you if you: A. advocate for them. B. patronize them. C. are honest with them. D. express empathy.

B. patronize them.

Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of: A. spinal fracture or injury. B. pelvic trauma/fracture. C. priapism. D. pelvic dislocation syndrome.

B. pelvic trauma/fracture.

Dialysis patients who receive dialysis at home typically receive: A. osmotic dialysis. B. peritoneal dialysis C. hemodialysis. D. in-patient dialysis.

B. peritoneal dialysis

The signs and symptoms of internal bleeding include: A. constricted pupils that are sluggish to respond. B. poor peripheral perfusion. C. dropping blood pressure as an early sign. D. slow, deep respirations.

B. poor peripheral perfusion.

Emergency Medical Dispatchers are trained to: A. administer advanced life support. B. provide prearrival medical instructions. C. review EMS encounter forms. D. provide medical direction.

B. provide prearrival medical instructions.

One of the major roles of the hematological system is to deliver oxygen to the tissues of the body. This is accomplished through the: A. platelets. B. red blood cells. C. white blood cells. D. plasma.

B. red blood cells.

The basic principal behind either hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis is to: A. balance the number of red blood cells in the blood. B. remove the waste and excess fluid from the blood. C. balance the amount of urea. D. balance the number of white blood cells in the blood.

B. remove the waste and excess fluid from the blood.

A disease of the blood that affects the shapes of the blood cells is: A. myoglobin. B. sickle cell anemia. C. leukemia. D. hematuria.

B. sickle cell anemia.

Ventilating a drowning victim too quickly or forcefully will likely cause: A. improved BVM compliance. B. significant gastric distention. C. increased cardiac output. D. anxiety in the patient.

B. significant gastric distention.

While transporting your patient to the hospital, you notice that the stretcher is not properly secured. You should: A. wait to see whether the patient notices. B. stop the ambulance and secure the stretcher. C. ask the patient what he or she wants to do. D. use your foot to stabilize the stretcher.

B. stop the ambulance and secure the stretcher.

In the renal system, the urinary bladder serves to: A. filter urine from the blood. B. store urine for later excretion C. separate the water from the filtrates of the urine. D. concentrate the urine through reabsorption.

B. store urine for later excretion

Traditional methods of treating shock will NOT be effective with: A. hypovolemic shock. B. supine hypotensive syndrome. Your answer is correct. C. hemorrhagic shock. D. anaphylaxis.

B. supine hypotensive syndrome.

Helmets worn by EMS providers should have: A. auxiliary lighting capability. B. the Star of Life on them. C. the wearer's certification level. D. dark lettering. Rationale EMS workers should be easily identified by the Star of Life on their helmet.

B. the Star of Life on them. Rationale EMS workers should be easily identified by the Star of Life on their helmet.

Knowing whether your patient has a history of alcohol abuse is important because: A. it changes the manner in which you will manage airway, breathing, and circulatory problems. B. there may be a greater safety risk with patients who abuse alcohol. C. alcohol abuse is a criminal offense in most states. D. this is information that is not normally obtained at the hospital.

B. there may be a greater safety risk with patients who abuse alcohol.

The structure containing the blood vessels that carry blood to and from the placenta is the: A. placenta. B. umbilical cord. Your answer is correct. C. amniotic sac. D. uterus.

B. umbilical cord.

Pain in the abdomen that originates from the organs is termed: A. parietal pain. B. visceral pain. C. tearing pain. D. referred pain.

B. visceral pain.

The Pediatric Assessment Triangle relies primarily on: A. percussion. B. visual assessment. C. inspection. D. palpation.

B. visual assessment.

In treating a puncture wound of the eye, it is important to bandage both eyes because: A. any light can damage both eyes in a puncture injury. B. you want to avoid sympathetic eye movement. C. you want to offer sympathetic care to the patient. D. you do not know whether the other eye is injured.

B. you want to avoid sympathetic eye movement.

When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "six Ps"? A. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pad B. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure C. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pressure D. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure This is the correct answer.

B. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure

13. Which of the following defines a multiple-casualty incident? A. A situation that requires extensive rescue efforts B. A situation that places extensive demands on personnel and equipment C. The requirement for two or more ambulances D. Three or more critically injured patients

B. A situation that places extensive demands on personnel and equipment

12. Which of the following types of radiation energy is a slow-moving particle that can travel only inches in the air and is stopped by clothing? A. Gamma B. Alpha C. X-ray D. Neutron

B. Alpha

23. Which of the following must be assessed on a hazmat team member before he or she enters the hot zone? A. Task assignment B. Baseline vitals C. Allergies D. Height and weight

B. Baseline vitals

6. Which of the following types of weapon of mass destruction causes minimal effect on structures but significant contamination of the environment? A. Biological B. Chemical C. Incendiary D. Nuclear

B. Chemical

11. You arrive on scene to the local park where you are presented with a 20-year-old male complaining of severe left shoulder pain. Patient states he fell on the ground and immediately felt a sharp pain in the shoulder. As you evaluate the shoulder, you note that the left shoulder sits lower than the right. He has intact distal pulse, motor, and sensory function but cannot move his shoulder without severe pain. Based on the assessment findings, the patient is MOST likely suffering which of the following? A. Shoulder strain B. Dislocation C. Compartment syndrome D. Distal humerus fracture

B. Dislocation

13. Which of the following particles will penetrate the skin? A. Alpha particles B. Gamma particles C. All radiological particles D. Beta particles

B. Gamma particles

22. Which of the following is an example of a rescue worker's abnormal reaction to a stressful MCI situation? A. Missing a couple of nights sleep after the incident B. Having recurrent nightmares of the MCI months later C. Loss of appetite for a couple of days after the incident D. Wanting to take off a couple of days from being physically exhausted

B. Having recurrent nightmares of the MCI months later

25. If an EMS unit is the first to respond to a multiple-casualty incident, which role does the most senior EMT assume? A. Section coordinator B. Incident commander C. Ground chief D. Scene leader

B. Incident commander

8. Which of the following statements is TRUE about self-protection at a radiological event? a. Longer exposure increases the body's defense mechanisms. b. Minimizing time in the affected area will reduce the potential for injury. c. Every person reacts differently to radiation, and duration of exposure is not a factor. d. Injury from radiation is immediate, and duration is not a factor.

B. Minimizing time in the affected area will reduce the potential for injury.

26. Which of the following is the CORRECT terminology for a situation in which the number of patients exceeds the capabilities and resources of the EMS system? A. Medical catastrophic incident B. Multiple-casualty incident C. Large-scale event D. Disaster

B. Multiple-casualty incident

18. Which of the following modifications to care should you use when caring for pediatric patients? A. Suction the airway for a longer period of time: 20 to 30 seconds. B. Place padding behind the shoulders and neck of an infant or small child to maintain neutral alignment of the neck. C. The smaller tongue of the child allows you to easily insert an oropharyngeal airway upside down and rotate it 180degrees° as you insert it. D. To prevent hyperthermia, do not cover the patient in shock with blankets.

B. Place padding behind the shoulders and neck of an infant or small child to maintain neutral alignment of the neck.

14. Which of the following has the HIGHEST priority at a hazardous materials incident? A. Providing patient care B. Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients C. Decontaminating clothing, equipment, and the vehicle D. Immediately removing patients from a hazardous area

B. Protecting the safety of all rescuers and patients

12. Which of the following is TRUE about signs of injury in pediatric patients? A Bruising is usually quickly evident. B. Signs and symptoms can be very subtle. C. Shock is rare in pediatric patients. D. Signs and symptoms are usually obvious.

B. Signs and symptoms can be very subtle.

24. Which of the following is a principal purpose of NIMS? A. To allow each department or service to establish its own terminology for incidents B. To decrease responder confusion C. To allow the fire service to provide leadership at all MCIs D. To prevent the first-arriving personnel from establishing command

B. To decrease responder confusion

4. Which of the following is a common mechanism of injury in the musculoskeletal system? A. Flexing force B. Twisting force C. Stretching force D. Transecting force

B. Twisting force

9. Your patient has a nontraumatic fracture of the left wrist. Appropriate treatment would be to: A. apply a splint and have a family member drive the patient to the ED. B. apply a splint and transport. C. place the arm in the position of comfort and transport. D. apply a splint and have the patient follow up with the primary care physician in a day or so.

B. apply a splint and transport.

21. At a hazmat incident, all EMS personnel must be staged in the: A. warm zone B. cold zone C. zone defined by the Incident Commander D. hot zone

B. cold zone

18. The most effective way to disseminate a weapon is through: A. absorption. B. inhalation. C. injection. D. ingestion.

B. inhalation.

12. The tough connective tissues that bind bone ends together at joints are termed: A. cartilage. B. ligaments. C. tendons. D. periosteum.

B. ligaments.

14. The primary reasons for splinting a bone or joint injury include: A.replacing exposed bone ends back into the extremity. B. preventing movement to reduce the chance for further injury. C.setting the bone ends back into their proper position. D.preventing swelling, which might complicate the ED

B. preventing movement to reduce the chance for further injury.

10. When you ask an adolescent patient about drug use or possible pregnancy, it is best to ask the patient: A. in front of parents. B. privately. C. in front of peers. D. in front of law enforcement.

B. privately.

16. The functions of the musculoskeletal system include: A. temperature regulation. B. providing for movement. C. protecting the body from bacteria and other foreign organisms. D. the production of hormones.

B. providing for movement.

9. Which of the following is a 24-hour resource operated by the American Chemistry Council? A.MSDS B.CHEMTREC C.CHEMTRANS D.HAZTECH

B.CHEMTREC

Your pediatric patient is showing signs and symptoms of shock. Which of the following should be done FIRST? A.Complete the patient care report. B.Conserve the patient's body heat. C.Confirm the patient's axillary temperature. D.Contact medical direction.

B.Conserve the patient's body heat.

4. No minimum training hours are required for: A.Hazardous Materials Technician. B.First Responder Awareness. C.Hazardous Materials Specialist. D.First Responder Operations

B.First Responder Awareness.

6. Which of the following agencies has developed regulations for how emergency workers deal with hazmat incidents? A.DEQ B.OSHA C.NTSB D.NREMT

B.OSHA

32. You are called at 6:00 a.m. to a private residence where the family found their 9-month-old infant in the crib and not breathing. When you examine the baby, you note that rigor mortis is present. What should you do? A.Suction the secretions. B.Turn your attention to supporting the parents. C.Transport the infant immediately. D.Tell the parents that you will save their child.

B.Turn your attention to supporting the parents.

30. In infants and children, retraction of the muscles, grunting, and cyanosis are signs of: A.hypoperfusion. B.labored breathing. C.normal breathing. D.infection.

B.labored breathing.

29. You suspect that your pediatric patient is being abused. To satisfy your legal obligation, you must: A.remain quiet to avoid committing a HIPAA violation. B.notify law enforcement or child protective services. C.press charges against the caregiver. D.email your EMS supervisor of your concerns.

B.notify law enforcement or child protective services.

In bandaging a hand wound, what important consideration is necessary?

Bandage the hand in the position of function. It is important to bandage the hand in the position of function, leaving the fingernails visible and wrapping distal to proximal.

Which of the following is TRUE about bullet wound?

Bullet wounds do not always travel a straight path.

How does the skin provide temperature regulation?

By altering the blood flow to the skin and by controlling perspiration The skin achieves temperature regulation by altering the blood flow to the skin and by controlling perspiration.

A dialysis patient with a severe electrolyte imbalance will likely develop: A. hypoglycemia. B. jaundice. C. cardiac dysrhythmias. D. headache.

A patient with abdominal pain and signs of shock should be: A. give tepid water to drink. B. placed on low-flow oxygen. C. considered a high transport priority. D. monitored for at least 15 minutes before a transport decision is made.

Abnormally high pressure within the skull is known as: A. intracranial hemorrhage. B. cerebral hypertension. C. increased intracranial pressure. D. concussive injury.

An open chest wound that pulls air into the thoracic cavity is known as what type of injury? A. Tension B. Blind C. Sucking. D. Blowing

Common mechanisms of injury for the spine include: A. flexion, when there is severe backward movement of the head. B. rotation, when the vertebrae and spinal cord are stretched and pulled apart. C. compression, when the weight of the body is driven against the head. D. extension, when there is severe forward movement of the head.

During severe external bleeding, the brain MAY suffer a lack of oxygen. Which of the following contributes most to that lack of oxygen? A. A redirection of blood flow to the site of the injury B. The vasodilation that occurs during shock C. A reduction in the number of red blood cells and blood pressure D. A reduction in the rate of breathing from shock

If the ovum implants in the fallopian tubes, the patient is at risk for: A. hypertensive crises. B. pregnancy-induced hypertension. C. ectopic pregnancy. D. supine hypotensive syndrome.

If your patient is wearing a helmet, you should leave it in place if: A. the helmet is loose enough to allow you to assess the patient's head and neck. B. the helmet has been damaged. C. there are no impending airway or breathing problems. D. the helmet is too snug to remove easily.

In which of the following patients is sickle cell crisis MOST likely? A. A 56-year-old African American male patient with jaundice and abdominal distention B. A 48-year-old male from Indonesia with chest pain and nausea C. A 19-year-old African American female with joint and abdominal pain D. A 55-year-old Asian male who has suffered a stroke

Injury to which of the following organs would be MOST likely to cause peritonitis? A. Spleen B. Lung C. Small intestine D. Ovary

Objects that are impaled into the head and interfere with transport should be: A. gently but firmly removed. B. left in place and transported in a flat-bed vehicle. C. stabilized and cut with minimal movement of the object. D. pushed through to the other side for removal.

Obtaining a thorough history from your pregnant patient will: A. prevent the mother from panicking. B. help you to rule out most complications. C. help you to anticipate possible complications. D. confirm whether ALS personnel are needed.

Recipients of kidney transplants have: A. two kidneys from different donors. B. the need to replace their donated kidney in about 20 years. C. their donor kidney in their lower abdomen instead of the retroperitoneal space. D. a restoration of normal kidney function within 1 to 2 years.

The kidneys are located: A. in the upper abdominal regions just above the diaphragm. B. in the pelvic cavity on either side of the aorta. C. in the flank regions bilaterally behind the abdominal cavity. D. on either side of the abdominal cavity near the top and next to the large intestines.

The most serious disease of the kidneys is: A. kidney stones. B. renal colic. C. renal failure. D. hemodialysis

The three sections of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) include: A. appearance. B. breathing effort. C. motor response. D. level of consciousness.

Which of the following blood vessels do you believe will cause the most significant hemorrhage if injured? A. Radial artery B. Saphenous vein C. Femoral artery D. Brachial artery

Which of the following interventions is required in a newborn who has spontaneous breathing and a heart rate greater than 100 per minute but who still has cyanotic skin? A. Suctioning with a bulb syringe B. Bag-valve-mask ventilations C. Provide blow-by oxygen D. Chest compressions

Which of the following is TRUE about a breech delivery? A. When a baby is in breech presentation, it is best to deliver before transport. B. Breech presentations are rare occurrences. C. It is the most common abnormal delivery. D. Breech presentation means that a limb is presenting first in the birth canal.

Which of the following is TRUE about peritoneal dialysis? A. Peritoneal dialysis must be done at a specialized outpatient facility. B. Peritoneal dialysis is faster than hemodialysis. C. Peritoneal dialysis can be done at the patient's home. D. There are no complications from peritoneal dialysis.

Which of the following is a function of the vascular system? A. Production of red blood cells B. Hormone production C. Transportation of gases D. Metabolism

Which of the following is likely the MOST critical associated injury of serious blunt or penetrating trauma to the face? A. Mandibular dislocation B. The entrance of blood into the digestive tract C. The threat to airway patency D. Distortion of the facial landmarks

Which of the following may indicate the need for neonatal resuscitation? A. Term delivery B. A previous C-section C. Preterm delivery D. Lack of visible meconium

Microscopically small structures in the circulatory system that supply every cell in the body are: A. arteries. B. veins. C. capillaries. D. arterioles.

C. capillaries.

Which of the following would be the BEST approach for a patient who is in shock secondary to internal bleeding? A. Provide necessary care, and transport the patient to the local surgery clinic. B. Provide necessary care while awaiting the arrival of paramedics. C. Provide necessary care while transporting the patient to a hospital that can provide surgical intervention. D. Provide necessary care, and transport the patient to the closest hospital even though it is a community hospital.

Which organ allows exchange of nutrients, wastes, and oxygen between the mother and the developing fetus? A. Fundus B. Endometrium C. Placenta D. Amniotic sac

Which patient is most likely in acute renal failure? A. 32-year-old female with polycystic kidney disease B. 57-year-old female with high blood pressure and poorly controlled diabetes C. 52-year-old male who ingested a toxic dose of aspirin D. 70-year-old male with multiple medical problems coupled with years of renal insufficiency

Why does referred pain occur? A. Because adjacent visceral structures are also involved in the disease process B. Because of patient misperception, since it is not true pain C. Because of the stimulation of associated nerve pathways D. Because the nerve endings near the origin of the pain have been destroyed

Why is visceral pain more difficult to locate than parietal pain? A. Because abdominal organs cover a greater area than the peritoneum B. Because nerve pathways from eviscera do not enter the spinal cord C. Because organs have fewer nerve sensory receptors D. Because visceral pain can be stimulated only by inflammation of the organ

You are assessing a 23-year-old female patient complaining of abdominal pain. Which finding below would lead you to believe that the patient is suffering a life-threatening emergency that requires surgery? A. Colicky, persistent pain that started nearly 2 weeks ago B. Cramping, menstrual pain C. Patient states she is in her first trimester of pregnancy with lower mid abdominal pain D. Patient states abdominal pain with associated diarrhea and nausea

You are gathering a medical history on a 74-year-old female with chest pain. She states she has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on a "blood thinner". Based on this information, which medication would you expect her to be on? A. Lebatolol B. Aspirin C. Lovenox D. Lisinopril

You have delivered a 34-week gestation infant who is active and crying. Which of the following actions is the highest priority for this infant? A. Allowing the mother to breastfeed the infant B. Suctioning the mouth and nose with a bulb syringe C. Drying the infant thoroughly and wrapping him or her in warm blankets, covering the head D. Applying high-concentration oxygen by a pediatric nonrebreather mask

You respond to the scene of an assault where you find a 26-year-old male patient with an impaled knife in the left lobe of his skull near the temporal membrane. He is alert but disoriented. How should you manage this patient's injury? A. Stabilize the knife and carefully cut the handle off to prepare for transport B. Perform a secondary assessment prior to stabilizing the knife C. Stabilize the knife with bulky dressings D. Approximate the depth of insertion and carefully remove the knife

You respond to the scene of 34-year-old male who left lower arm is bleeding profusely after an accidental amputation at the wrist while cutting planks with a circular saw. Direct pressure does not stop the bleeding so you decide to place a tourniquet on the patient's limp. Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate? A. Apply the tourniquet over the elbow joint to stop the bleeding. B. Apply the tourniquet distal to the wound. C. The tourniquet should be applied proximal to the wound but not over a joint. D. Twist the rod or windlass until the bleeding is not spurting, just flowing.

Your patient has sustained a chemical burn to her hands from a dry chemical. How is this treated in the field? A. Use baby oil to flush the injury. B. Use only sterile water to flush the patient. C. Brush off the powder before using water to flush. D. Flush the patient immediately with water.

C. Brush off the powder before using water to flush.

Which of the following indications should you use to determine whether to prepare for on-the-scene delivery? A. Determine whether the mucus plug is intact. If not, prepare for delivery. B. Check the height of the uterine fundus. If it is higher than halfway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process, prepare for delivery. C. Check the perineum for bulging or the appearance of the baby's scalp at the vaginal opening. If these findings are present, prepare for delivery. Your answer is correct. D. Check for cervical dilation. If the cervix is dilated to 8 cm or more, prepare for delivery.

C. Check the perineum for bulging or the appearance of the baby's scalp at the vaginal opening. If these findings are present, prepare for delivery.

Which of the following respiratory rate ranges is normal for a child between 1 and 3 years of age? A. 40 to 60 breaths per minute B. 25 to 50 breaths per minute C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute D. 12 to 20 breaths per minute

C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute

Which of the following physiological events generally indicates the onset of decompensated shock? A. An increase in breathing rate B. An increase in heart rate C. A drop in the patient's blood pressure D. Pale, cool, and clammy skin

C. A drop in the patient's blood pressure

Which of the following descriptions BEST characterizes heat exhaustion? A. Swelling in the hands and feet with lightheadedness on standing up too quickly B. Loss of electrolytes and buildup of lactic acid in the muscles C. A form of shock due to fluid and salt loss D. An increase in core body temperature above 104 degrees Fahrenheit

C. A form of shock due to fluid and salt loss

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause cardiogenic shock? A. A massive pulmonary embolus B. Taking too much nitroglycerin for chest pain C. A massive MI that impairs the pump function of the heart D. A drug that induces widespread vascular dilation

C. A massive MI that impairs the pump function of the heart

Which of the following is placed under the skin and functions similarly to an AED? A. Shunt B. CPAP device C. AICD D. External defibrillator

C. AICD

What is the typical duration of the FIRST stage of labor in first-time mothers? A. Less than 6 hours B. At least 24 hours C. About 16 hours Your answer is correct. D. About 2 hours

C. About 16 hours

If it is necessary to begin chest compressions on a newborn, what is the CORRECT depth of chest compression? A. Two to two and one-half inches B. About two-thirds the depth of the chest C. About one-third the depth of the chest Your answer is correct. D. One-half to one inch

C. About one-third the depth of the chest

Which of the following may be dangerous if done incorrectly or used when not indicated? A. Removing wet clothing B. Applying a thermal blanket C. Active rewarming D. Passive rewarming

C. Active rewarming

You are on scene with a 47-year-old female patient complaining of "stomach pain" but tells you that she thinks she's having a "heart attack." She states she has a history of "gall stones, high blood pressure, and kidney stones." What assessment finding would lead you to believe that the patient may be suffering a myocardial infarction? A. Non-radiating right lower quadrant pain B. Right upper quadrant pain unrelieved by position C. Acute epigastric pain D. Flank pain radiating to anterior mid abdomen

C. Acute epigastric pain

Which of the following is the appropriate action to take if there is a downed power line across a vehicle that was involved in a collision and patients are still in the vehicle? A. Hop over to the vehicle on one foot so that you do not make a complete electrical circuit. B. Advise the patients to open the car door without touching the outside of the car and then to quickly run to safety. C. Advise the patients to stay inside the vehicle until the power company arrives and turns of power. D. Attempt to remove the power line with a wooden pole or broom handle.

C. Advise the patients to stay inside the vehicle until the power company arrives and turns of power.

Which of the following accident scenes will likely require additional resources? A. An accident involving an off-duty EMS worker B. An accident involving a pediatric patient C. An accident requiring complex extrication D. An accident scene with a fatality Rationale Complex extrication requires specially trained personnel and equipment.

C. An accident requiring complex extrication Rationale Complex extrication requires specially trained personnel and equipment.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Arteries have valves that prevent backflow of blood. B. Arteries lack a middle layer of smooth muscle. C. Arteries carry blood from the heart. D. Arteries carry only oxygen-rich blood.

C. Arteries carry blood from the heart.

How many straps should a patient securing device have? A. At least one B. At least four C. At least three D. At least two

C. At least three

At what point should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be performed? A. When you arrive at the scene of the first call of your shift B. On being dispatched for your first call of the shift C. At the beginning of your shift, before your first call D. On returning to service after the first call of the shift

C. At the beginning of your shift, before your first call

In pediatric patients, which of the following is an early sign of hypoxia? A. Pulse rate below 60 B. Cyanosis C. Breathing rate greater than 60 D. Decreased LOC

C. Breathing rate greater than 60

Which of the following is done during the daily vehicle inspection? A. Using a diagnostic code reader to detect mechanical problems B. Changing the oil C. Checking door closing and latching mechanisms D. Rotating the tires

C. Checking door closing and latching mechanisms

You are caring for a middle-aged male patient who complains of sudden, sharp, cramping pain in the right upper region of his abdomen; a dull ache in his right shoulder blade; and some nausea and vomiting. He states that the pain began about 30 minutes after he ate a lobster dinner, and he rates the pain as a 7 on a scale of 10. The pain is unrelieved with antacids. What would you suspect the cause of his discomfort to be? A. Kidney stones B. Hepatitis C. Cholecystitis D. Appendicitis

C. Cholecystitis

Which of the following is typically helpful in assessing a pediatric patient? A. Let the patient know that you are in charge. B. Tell the patient to answer with "yes" or "no" only. C. Communicate with the patient at eye level. D. Ask the parent to leave the room.

C. Communicate with the patient at eye level.

Which of the following medications is a blood thinner? A. Atenolol B. Lasix C. Coumadin D. Cardizem

C. Coumadin

Which of the following statements about closed soft tissue injuries is TRUE? A. Most closed soft tissue injuries release toxins that circulate to the entire body. B. Closed soft tissue injuries are almost always trivial and heal quickly. C. Despite the maintained integrity of the skin in closed injuries, underlying tissue destruction can be significant. D. In closed soft tissue injuries, cells are often damaged, but blood vessels remain intact.

C. Despite the maintained integrity of the skin in closed injuries, underlying tissue destruction can be significant.

Adults who chronically abuse alcohol are prone to suffer from what common disease? A. COPD B. Obesity C. Diabetes D. Arthritis

C. Diabetes

Which of the following terms is used to describe the process of freeing a patient from the wreckage of a vehicle? A. Extraction B. Abstraction C. Disentanglement D. Emancipation Rationale The process of freeing a patient from the wreckage of a vehicle is called disentanglement.

C. Disentanglement Rationale The process of freeing a patient from the wreckage of a vehicle is called disentanglement.

What term is used to describe the situation in which a child is regularly threatened, yelled at, or humiliated? A. Physical abuse B. Social abuse C. Emotional abuse D. Sexual abuse

C. Emotional abuse

Which of the following is allowed of EMTs driving an emergency ambulance in MOST states? A. Driving without due regard if the patient is critical B. Speeding through school zone C. Exceeding the posted speed limit D. Proceeding through a red light without slowing

C. Exceeding the posted speed limit

Which type of poisoning most likely occurs on farms? A. Exposure to acetaminophen B. Exposure to carbon dioxide C. Exposure to a pesticide D. Exposure to a nerve agent

C. Exposure to a pesticide

Which one of the following statements is NOT true concerning a knee injury? A. Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula. B. There could be pain and tenderness. C. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur. D. Fractures can occur to the patella.

C. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

If you are involved in any aspect of extrication, what level of personal protective equipment is required? A. Your standard work uniform B. Eye protection and disposable gloves C. Full turnout gear, steel-toed boots, and a helmet D. Protective coveralls Rationale Extrication is a hazardous process that presents the possibility of both blunt and penetrating injury. Your best protection is full structural firefighting turnout gear.

C. Full turnout gear, steel-toed boots, and a helmet Rationale Extrication is a hazardous process that presents the possibility of both blunt and penetrating injury. Your best protection is full structural firefighting turnout gear.

Which of the following statements BEST describes simple access to a patient in a vehicle? A. Rescue that can be performed by EMS personnel without the assistance of the fire department B. Quick use of specialized tools that require little effort C. Gaining access without using specialized tools . D. The ability to gain access to the patient in less than 10 minutes, regardless of the type of tools required Rationale Simple access is achieved without the use of specialized tools.

C. Gaining access without using specialized tools Rationale Simple access is achieved without the use of specialized tools.

Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? A. Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center. B. Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury. C. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting. D. Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay.

C. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.

Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a pediatric patient who is significantly hypoxic? A. Diminished breath sounds B. Increased respiratory rate C. Heart rate of 58 D. SpO2 of 94%

C. Heart rate of 58

What should you include on your PCR about the restraining of an angry patient? A. How far away from the hospital you were when the procedure was executed B. How long the police were on scene before the procedure was executed C. How and why the patient was restrained D. What the patient's family said to the patient before the restraining event

C. How and why the patient was restrained

Which of these statements is TRUE about the general nature of state laws that govern emergency ambulance operations? A. You must come to a complete stop when entering an intersection against the light. B. Most states allow you to travel as fast as you want at any time. C. If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of others, you are liable for the consequences. D. You must use red lights and siren any time you are responding to a call.

C. If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of others, you are liable for the consequences.

Which of these factors is LEAST likely to increase an elderly person's risk for subtle or nonexertional hypothermia? A. Decreased body fat B. Economic concerns C. Increased food intake D. Immobility

C. Increased food intake

Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms? A. Direct force B. Sudden acceleration C. Indirect force D. Twisting motion

C. Indirect force

What is the most common route of accidental poisoning in pediatric patients? A. Injection B. Inhalation C. Ingestion D. Absorption

C. Ingestion

By which route are IV drugs abused? A. Absorption B. Inhalation C. Injection D. Ingestion

C. Injection

In which type of incident would unified command be MOST appropriate? A. An incident that involves only EMS B. More than three patients at a scene C. Involvement of different branches of public safety D. An incident that involves only fire/rescue

C. Involvement of different branches of public safety

Which of the following is MOST important to determine for a female with vaginal bleeding? A. Does the patient have a gynecologist? B. Has the patient ever had surgery? C. Is the bleeding part of the normal menstrual cycle? D. Is the bleeding worse at night?

C. Is the bleeding part of the normal menstrual cycle?

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning a pelvic wrap? A. It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity. B. You can consider its use based on mechanism of injury (MOI). C. It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock. D. It can be used if the pelvis shows instability.

C. It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.

You are at the scene of a 50-year-old female who just completed multiple cuts to her arms and chest region with a knife. The patient then threw the knife into the sewer, and she is cautioning everyone to stay away. The only other people on scene are you and several bystanders. You can see that the patient is actively bleeding. What should you do? A. Caution the bystanders to stay back as you approach the patient in an attempt to wrestle her to the ground. B. Order the patient to lie prone with arms outstretched. C. Keep the bystanders away while you wait for police to arrive. D. Recruit the help of the bystanders to "take the patient down" so that you can treat her.

C. Keep the bystanders away while you wait for police to arrive.

Which of the following is a solid abdominal organ? A. Stomach B. Gallbladder C. Liver D. Appendix

C. Liver

You have been called to the local jail for a patient who has made several superficial lacerations on the wrists. The patient has been disarmed but is still threatening to commit suicide. What should you do? A. Tell the patient that the self-inflicted wounds are not consistent with those of a person "actually trying to commit suicide." B. Minimize the patient's complaints and feelings. C. Make the lacerations on the patient's wristsyour primary concern. D. Arrange for a member of the clergy to meet the patient at the hospital.

C. Make the lacerations on the patient's wristsyour primary concern.

Which of the following is required for all rescuers who have worked at a hazmat scene? A. Diagnostic examinations B. Psychological counseling C. Medical monitoring D. Radioactive isotope injections

C. Medical monitoring

Which of the following ambulance types is built for rugged durability and large storage? A. Type III B. Light duty C. Medium duty D. Type I

C. Medium duty

Which of the following diseases is an infection of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord? A. Epilepsy B. Encephalitis C. Meningitis D. Epiglottitis

C. Meningitis

Which of the following techniques in caring for a patient with a stress reaction is LEAST helpful in managing the situation? A. Displaying a genuine, empathetic approach to the patient's concerns B. Having the patient take deep, slow breaths to help induce calm C. Moving through your assessment quickly to ease the patient's tension D. Gaining the patient's full attention by speaking to him or her in a calm voice

C. Moving through your assessment quickly to ease the patient's tension

Which of the following prevents a car door from opening during a crash? A. B-post B. Cribbing C. Nader pin D. A-post

C. Nader pin

Your EMS system requires EMTs to report suspected child abuse. Which of the following actions would meet this requirement? A. Relaying your concerns to anyone at the receiving hospital B. Documenting your suspicions on the patient care report C. Notifying the appropriate state agency of your suspicions D. Questioning the parents about your suspicions

C. Notifying the appropriate state agency of your suspicions

Which of the following BEST describes the first stage of labor? A. Loss of the mucus plug to onset of contractions B. Delivery of the infant through delivery of the placenta C. Onset of contractions to complete dilation of the cervix Your answer is correct. D. Complete dilation of the cervix to delivery of the infant

C. Onset of contractions to complete dilation of the cervix

You are assessing a 34-year-old female patient complaining of right lower quadrant pain. What is the proper technique to assess her abdomen? A. Press into the left upper quadrant with the palm of your hands B. Palpate the right lower quadrant first C. Palpate the right lower quadrant last D. Palpate deeply in order to thoroughly evaluate abnormalities in the abdomend

C. Palpate the right lower quadrant last

method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is NOT one of the six Ps? A. Paresthesia B. Pallor C. Parenthesis D. Pain

C. Parenthesis

You arrive on scene to a 54-year-old male complaining of abdominal pain. He states he does not want to go to the hospital but simply wants you to check his vital signs. As you assess your patient, which assessment finding would lead you to believe he is suffering an acute myocardial infarction? A. Flank pain radiating to the groin. B. Right upper quadrant pain unrelieved by position. C. Patient states dull, cramping pain in his mid-upper abdomen. D. Right upper quadrant pain persistent for the past 2 days

C. Patient states dull, cramping pain in his mid-upper abdomen.

A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries? A. Suspected multiple fractures of the femur, tibia, and fibula B. Possible fracture of the cervical spine C. Possible fracture of the femur D. Possible fracture of the humerus

C. Possible fracture of the femur

You respond to a shopping mall, where you find a 13-year-old male unconscious on the floor. His friends tell you that he was "huffing." He is breathing about six times a minute, with a pulse of 50. What should be your MOST immediate course of action? A. Remove him from the environment, since the gases of huffing tend to remain in the area. B. Administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. C. Protect his airway, and begin assisting his ventilations with oxygen. D. Seek permission from his parents to begin treatment.

C. Protect his airway, and begin assisting his ventilations with oxygen.

The skin serves which of the following functions? A. Respiration B. Gas exchange C. Protection D. RBC production

C. Protection

When a patient has significant blood loss, which of the following clinical findings would you expect to find that signifies the presence of shock? A. Slowed breathing and a bounding pulse B. Flushed, warm, dry skin C. Rapid heart rate D. Calm and relaxed demeanor with mental alertness and verbal responsiveness

C. Rapid heart rate

Which of the following are rescuers required to wear when working at an accident scene, day or night? A. A HEPA mask B. A level A containment suit C. Reflective clothing or safety vest D. Leather gloves

C. Reflective clothing or safety vest Rationale OSHA regulations require use of a safety vest or other reflective clothing when rescuers are working in or near traffic.

Which of the following is a common cause of acute renal failure? A. Stroke B. Fluid overload C. Shock D. Angina pectoris

C. Shock

In pediatric patients, which of the following is a sign of respiratory failure? A. Grunting B. Use of abdominal muscles C. Slow pulse rate D. Rapid breathing

C. Slow pulse rate

You face a situation in which a victim of chlorine gas poisoning is still conscious but lying on the ground, and the area surrounding him is contaminated with chlorine gas. What would be your BEST course of action? A. Wrap a water-soaked cloth around your nose and mouth, and attempt the rescue. B. Take a deep breath, and rush in to rapidly extricate the victim. C. Summon specially trained personnel wearing appropriate protective gear to rescue the victim while you try to coax the patient out of the contaminated area. D. You and your partner should take turns attempting the rescue, minimizing exposure to less than five minutes for each of you.

C. Summon specially trained personnel wearing appropriate protective gear to rescue the victim while you try to coax the patient out of the contaminated area.

Which of the following steps is included in proper emergency medical care of a patient who is in active labor in which a normal delivery is anticipated? A. Position the mother on her left side with her right hip and knee flexed. B. As the baby's shoulders begin to emerge, guide the baby gently upward to deliver the lower shoulder first. C. Support the infant's head as it delivers in the birth canal. This is the correct answer. D. Have the mother lie flat on her back and place her hands behind her knees to pull them back toward her shoulders as far as possible.

C. Support the infant's head as it delivers in the birth canal.

Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A. Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation. B. Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs. C. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles. D. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone.

C. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.

What is the term that is used to refer to a condition of an individual with a disease that is realistically expected to result in the death of the patient despite medical treatment? A. Life-threatening illness B. Chronic illness C. Terminal illness D. Acute illness

C. Terminal illness Rationale Terminal describes the condition of an individual with a disease that is realistically expected to result in the death of the patient, despite medical treatment.

You are caring for a 27-year-old male who is screaming and throwing dishes in the kitchen. The family called EMS because they are concerned about his behavior. They inform you that his father just died that day. What can you reasonably conclude? A. That the patient's behavior is extreme, and it is acceptable for a neighbor who has a prescription for antidepressants to give the patient one of the pills B. That the patient's behavior is obviously fabricated, and he should be told to settle down C. That the patient's behavior is normal in the circumstances and deserves support and monitoring D. That the patient's behavior is abnormal

C. That the patient's behavior is normal in the circumstances and deserves support and monitoring

In shock states, what general principle can be observed regarding perfusion? A. Perfusion is enhanced in shock by increased heart rate and an expansion of blood vessels to reduce resistance B. Perfusion is increased in all regions of the body C. The body preserves critical function by redirecting blood flow from the periphery to the critical organs D. Increased perfusion to the core circulation is accomplished by vasodilation in the periphery

C. The body preserves critical function by redirecting blood flow from the periphery to the critical organs

In which of the following situations should EMTs avoid any risk to their life or health at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A. The event includes only uncooperative bystanders. B. All patients can be categorized as minor or delayed. C. The event is a threat only to the environment. D. The patients involved are employees of the organization responsible for the spill.

C. The event is a threat only to the environment.

A patient having a sickle cell crisis often will complain of joint pain. What is the explanation for this complaint? A. Sickle cell disease causes microfractures in the bone ends. B. The joint pain is due to the ischemia of the extremities from the inability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen. C. The joint pain is the result of a vaso-occlusive component of the disease. D. The joint pain is the result of a loss of collagen in the joints.

C. The joint pain is the result of a vaso-occlusive component of the disease.

What is a risk of using emergency lights at night on an accident scene? A. The lights prevent EMS helicopters from landing. B. The lights may slow approaching traffic. C. The lights may temporarily blind drivers. D. The lights may frighten injured victims.

C. The lights may temporarily blind drivers.

You are caring for a 19-year-old male patient who has multiple superficial lacerations over each wrist, in different stages of healing. When you ask him what the marks are from, he states that he sustained them when he was trying to climb over a chain link fence. What should you suspect? A. The marks are from something else, as the patient has had no reason to jump over a fence. B. The marks are probably from parental abuse. C. The marks could be from multiple attempts at suicide. D. The marks are in fact from jumping over a fence.

C. The marks could be from multiple attempts at suicide.

What information should be given to the hospital staff first in providing a transfer of care report? A. Always start with the patient's age, sex, and chief complaint. B. The patient's insurance and primary physician should be provided first. C. The most important information should be provided first, such as any changes in the patient's condition. D. Start by asking the hospital staff what they want to know.

C. The most important information should be provided first, such as any changes in the patient's condition.

You are at the home of a middle-aged male patient who is exhibiting unusual behavior and acting erratic. You and your partner are standing in the doorway of the patient's bedroom while you talk with him. Which of the following observations are MOST likely to suggest imminent aggression from the patient? A. The patient is sitting on the bed, holding his head in his hands while weeping, and he asks for help. B. The patient makes eye contact with you when you speak to him. C. The patient is sitting on the bed, hands clenched into fists, and he is looking down toward the floor. D. The patient smiles at you and engages in reasonable conversation.

C. The patient is sitting on the bed, hands clenched into fists, and he is looking down toward the floor.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of triage? A. To find and treat all of a patient's injuries before moving the patient B. To treat all patients as they are discovered C. To do the most good for the greatest number of patients D. To treat the youngest, healthiest patients first

C. To do the most good for the greatest number of patients

Which of the following statements BEST explains the rationale for performing daily vehicle maintenance, performing a daily inspection, and having a routine maintenance schedule? A. To maintain the validity of the vehicle's warranty B. To lower your employer's liability insurance rates C. To increase patient safety and efficiency of response and transport D. To avoid disciplinary action and maximize the chances of merit raises

C. To increase patient safety and efficiency of response and transport

Which of the following statements BEST explains conductive heat loss? A. The transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without physical contact B. The process of a liquid or solid changing to a vapor C. Transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another through direct contact D. The process of breathing in cold air from the atmosphere

C. Transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another through direct contact

Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for medical helicopter transportation from a crash scene to a trauma center? A. Head injury with altered mental status B. Abdominal trauma with signs of shock C. Traumatic cardiac arrest D. Penetrating injury to the chest

C. Traumatic cardiac arrest

For maximum visibility at an accident scene at night, emergency vehicles should: A. Turn red/amber emergency lights off B. Turn headlights on C. Turn red/amber emergency lights on D. Turn headlights to the brightest setting Rationale Colored emergency lights should be on, and headlights should be off.

C. Turn red/amber emergency lights on Rationale Colored emergency lights should be on, and headlights should be off.Rationale A fire vehicle is large, heavy, and highly visible. The ambulance loading area should not be exposed to oncoming traffic.

Which of the following is the LEAST reliable method to detect the presence of hazardous materials? A. Asking a business owner for safety data sheets B. Looking for a placard with a four-digit UN identification number C. Using your senses D. Checking with a freight train engineer for the shipping papers of all cars in the train

C. Using your senses

Which of the following steps should you take in delivery of the placenta following a normal childbirth? A. Support the patient's uterus with one hand placed just above the pubic bone while placing gentle traction on the umbilical cord. B. Before delivery of the placenta, firmly press one or two sanitary pads over the vaginal opening to prevent the placenta from being expelled. C. When the placenta delivers spontaneously, place it in a biohazard bag for transport to the hospital. Your answer is correct. D. Gently pull the umbilical cord to help deliver the placenta. After it has been delivered, place it in a biohazard bag for transport to the hospital.

C. When the placenta delivers spontaneously, place it in a biohazard bag for transport to the hospital.

What is part of the daily vehicle inspection checklist? A. Driver's seat position. B. Electric windows C. Windshield wipers D. Exhaust system

C. Windshield wipers

While you are en route to a young male patient who is reported to be combative and despondent, your FIRST course of action should be to: A. speed up your response, as the situation has a potential for a bad outcome. B. request additional EMTs to the scene to assist with "taking down" the patient. C. alert police, and request their presence at the scene to establish its safety. D. slow your response to allow time for the patient to relax and become more cooperative.

C. alert police, and request their presence at the scene to establish its safety.

Your patient has been sexually assaulted. Law enforcement is on the scene. You should: A. withhold treatment until law enforcement has left the scene. B. ask the patient to describe exactly what happened. C. be conscious of the patient's likely need for personal space. Your answer is correct. D. expose the patient and document your findings.

C. be conscious of the patient's likely need for personal space.

The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum: A. surrounds the heart. B. surrounds the abdominal cavity. C. covers the bones. D. protects the perineum.

C. covers the bones.

The method of bleeding control that is the FIRST and MOST successful method to try is: A. the use of a pressure point. B. the application of cold. C. direct pressure. D. a tourniquet.

C. direct pressure.

You are directed to establish a rehab area at a hazmat incident. You know that this area must be: A. at least a quarter of a mile from the hot zone. B. established within the warm zone. C. easily accessible to EMS units. D. away from the media and the public.

C. easily accessible to EMS units.

An EMD is an: A. emergency medical defibrillator. B. electrical monitoring distribution. C. emergency medical dispatcher. D. electronic misting device.

C. emergency medical dispatcher.

Once a pressure dressing has been applied, the EMT should NEXT: A. place the patient on high-flow oxygen. B. obtain a baseline set of vital signs. C. ensure that bleeding is controlled. D. immediately check for a distal pulse.

C. ensure that bleeding is controlled.

When transferring the patient to the ambulance, you should: A. release the stretcher belts once loaded. B. load the patient feet first into the ambulance. C. ensure that the rear of the ambulance is safe from oncoming traffic. D. ask the patient whether he or she can step up into the ambulance.

C. ensure that the rear of the ambulance is safe from oncoming traffic.

Most dialysis patients: A. are on dialysis only temporarily. B. recover normal kidney function. C. have other underlying diseases. D. experience chronic peritonitis.

C. have other underlying diseases.

Removal of blood to artificially filter it and then return it to the circulation is termed: A. continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. B. peritoneal dialysis. C. hemodialysis. D. continuous cycle assisted peritoneal dialysis.

C. hemodialysis.

Emotionally disturbed patients commonly refuse treatment. If your patient refuses care, remember that: A. as an EMT, you have the authority to transport any patient against his or her will. B. once you have decided to transport a patient against his or her will, there is no need for law enforcement to participate. C. if a patient refuses care, you should complete a refusal of care form, then have the patient sign it and have law enforcement witness it. D. any adult over 18 years of age may refuse treatment.

C. if a patient refuses care, you should complete a refusal of care form, then have the patient sign it and have law enforcement witness it.

Hypoperfusion is: A. reduced blood volume. B. inadequate oxygen delivery to the tissue. C. inadequate blood flow to the tissue. D. reduced oxygen saturation of the blood.

C. inadequate blood flow to the tissue.

A patient with carbon monoxide poisoning was exposed by: A. absorption. B. injection. C. inhalation. D. ingestion.

C. inhalation.

Paint, Freon, and amyl nitrate are examples of poisons that are sometimes: A. mixed unintentionally, causing toxic fumes. B. contribute to most incidences of exposure to absorbed poisons. C. inhaled on purpose to get a "high." D. improperly labeled as nontoxic.

C. inhaled on purpose to get a "high."

Bystanders report that your patient was "huffing" before losing consciousness. You know that huffing is: A. snorting marijuana. B. crushing up cocaine and snorting it. C. inhaling a poison intentionally. D. crushing up acetaminophen and snorting it.

C. inhaling a poison intentionally.

Renal colic refers to: A. abdominal bleeding. B. appendicitis. C. kidney stones. . D. gallstones.

C. kidney stones.

A high, low, or irregular pulse in the drug and alcohol emergency patient: A. is common and does not make the patient's condition any more serious. B. will usually become normal with the application of high-concentration oxygen. C. makes the patient a high priority for transport. D. is not normal but should not be considered life-threatening.

C. makes the patient a high priority for transport. Your answer is correct.

Early signs of potential impending violence include: A. refusing to talk or interact with you. B. constant talking or rambling. C. nervous pacing. D. quietly sitting and crying.

C. nervous pacing.

Stocking pattern burn marks on a pediatric patient are an indication of: A. tight socks. B. hypertensive crisis. C. possible physical abuse. D. a circulatory disorder.

C. possible physical abuse.

In evaluating a behavioral patient, it is important to: A. restrain the patient if he or she is uncooperative. B. let the patient know that you are assessing his or her competency. C. remain objective. D. be commanding.

C. remain objective.

If a newborn is not breathing upon delivery, your first action should be: A. begin chest compressions and ventilations. B. begin bag-valve-mask ventilations. C. rub the newborn's back as you dry him or her. Your answer is correct. D. give blow-by oxygen.

C. rub the newborn's back as you dry him or her.

Difficulty breathing, coughing, and carbon residue in the mouth are signs of: A. carbon monoxide poisoning. B. an injected poison. C. smoke inhalation. D. insecticide exposure.

C. smoke inhalation.

The process by which an object is subjected to a chemical or physical substance that kills all microorganisms on its surface is called: A. decontamination. B. cleaning. C. sterilization. D. disinfecting.

C. sterilization. Sterilization is the process by which an object is subjected to a chemical or physical process (such as being immersed in superheated steam in an autoclave) that kills all microorganisms on the surface of an object. Generally, disinfection is used for items that will come into contact with the intact skin of a patient, such as backboards and splints. However, if the equipment will come into contact with mucous membranes or other open or internal structures, it should be sterilized.

SIDS affects patients during: A. the first 30 days of life. B. ages 1 to 3 years. C. the first year of life. D. ages 3 to 5 years.

C. the first year of life.

A victim is in the water and requires rescue. She is too far to pull to safety. You should: A. walk her through a simple swim stroke. B. tell her to control her breathing. C. throw her something that floats. D. ask her whether she struck her head.

C. throw her something that floats.

Your abdominal pain patient presents with pale, cool skin, tachycardia, and hypotension. You should first: A. perform a complete secondary assessment. B. assess orthostatic vital signs. C. treat the patient for shock. D. ask the patient about illegal drug use.

C. treat the patient for shock.

If you are the first unit on the scene of an accident on the highway, you should: A. block all traffic for other responding units. B. wait in your vehicle for additional units. C. use your vehicle to protect the scene. D. set up flares to redirect traffic.

C. use your vehicle to protect the scene.

The female reproductive structure that houses the fetus during development is the: A. cervix. B. ovary. C. uterus. Your answer is correct. D. fallopian tube.

C. uterus.

When responding to a drug or alcohol abuse emergency, you should keep in mind that: A. because of specific signs and symptoms, drug and/or alcohol emergencies are very distinct from other medical emergencies. B. most drug and alcohol abusers will easily cooperate with you. C. your safety is your first responsibility. D. a rapid response and immediate entry to the patient are vital.

C. your safety is your first responsibility.

Internal bleeding may result from a variety of causes. If you suspect that your patient has internal bleeding, you should remember that: A. internal bleeding is usually very obvious and should be identified quickly. B. head injury is more likely to cause unexplained shock than internal bleeding is. C. your suspicion of internal bleeding may be based only on the mechanism of injury. D. the two most common causes of internal bleeding are ruptured aortic aneurysm and bleeding stomach ulcers.

C. your suspicion of internal bleeding may be based only on the mechanism of injury.

Your patient has burns to the entire right arm and the right anterior chest. What is the estimated surface area involved? A. 18% B. 16% C. 13.5% D. 9.5%

C. 13.5%

Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________. A. fingertips; shoulder B. wrist; elbow C. forearm; humerus D. wrist; shoulder

C. forearm; humerus

18. Which of the following is TRUE about decisions made by the transportation unit at an MCI? A. Each ambulance should radio the receiving hospital with a detailed patient report B. High-priority patients should all be transported to the same hospital C. High-priority patients should be transported first, immediately after treatment D. Ambulatory patients may be sent to a hospital on a bus without EMS personnel.

C. High-priority patients should be transported first, immediately after treatment

14. What is the purpose of the Rule of Nines for burn injuries? A. It helps to determines the depth of the burn. B. It helps to determine the age of the burn. C. It helps to determine the surface area burned. D. It helps to determine the need for oxygen.

C. It helps to determine the surface area burned

22. Which of the following is MOST important at a terrorism incident? A.Incident stabilization B. Prosecution of perpetrators C. Life safety D .Protection of property

C. Life safety

19. You are called by law enforcement to evaluate a toddler who was found alone in an apartment. Neighbors state that the child is often left home alone. What form of abuse is this? A. Psychological abuse B. Emotional abuse C. Neglect D. Physical abuse

C. Neglect

16. Which of the following should immediately increase your suspicion of a hazardous materials incident? A. An out-of-control wildfire in a wooded area B. Fire that starts on the lowest level of a structure C. Presence of a Class 1 placard D. Smoke coming from the driver area of a vehicle involved in a head-on collision

C. Presence of a Class 1 placard

5. During which blast phase is rupture of the eardrums MOST likely? A. Secondary B. Tertiary C. Primary D. Incendiary

C. Primary

10. Which of the following types of terrorist targets should be anticipated in planning for weapons of mass destruction incidents? A. Rural areas B. Individual homes C. Schools D. Personal vehicles

C. Schools

8. A 23-year-old male sustained a musculoskeletal injury to his leg while playing organized football. He reports that his cleated foot was planted into the field when he was hit with a force that caused him to rotate. He heard a snap at this point. What mechanism of injury was applied? A. Indirect force B. Distracting force C. Twisting force D. Compression force

C. Twisting force

15. How does contamination occur in a radiation incident? A. Through exposure to a patient who has received a high-dose of X-rays B. Through exposure to X-rays C. When you come into contact with the source of radiation contamination D. From touching the skin of a patient who has radiation sickness from exposure to gamma rays

C. When you come into contact with the source of radiation contamination

4. Victims at an unexplained mass casualty incident report seeing an odd mist coming from the building's ventilation system. You should suspect: A. an explosive incident. B. a radiological incident. C. a chemical incident. D. a nuclear incident.

C. a chemical incident.

2. A fracture of a long bones that has a noticeable bend in the shaft is called: A. a misaligned fracture. B. a displaced fracture. C. an angulated fracture. D. a greenstick fracture.

C. an angulated fracture.

16. You are told that a number of victims at a terrorism event have suffered primary, secondary, and tertiary soft tissue and musculoskeletal injuries. You should suspect: A. a chemical event. B. a nuclear event. C. an explosive event. D. a biological event.

C. an explosive event.

3. You arrive on scene to a private residence where you find a 56-year-old female patient sitting in her living room complaining of pain, paresthesia and pressure in her lower right leg. She states that a few days ago she slipped on her way downstairs and has had pain in her leg ever since but has not been to the doctor. During your examination, you note that her right lower leg is pale and pulseless. Based on these findings, the patient is MOST likely experiencing what condition? A. possible sprain of her right ankle. B. deep vein thrombosis. C. compartment syndrome.

C. compartment syndrome.

8. An effective response to a terrorism event requires that rescuers: A. enter the center of the incident as quickly as possible. B. immediately transport high-priority patients. C. follow established operating guidelines. D. think of something that needs to be done and do it.

C. follow established operating guidelines.

13. A 22-year-old female patient fell while skateboarding and sustained injury to her lower left leg. She is complaining of pain near the ankle region. You notice a fair amount of swelling already, and the patient avoids weight bearing. You will treat this injury as a: A. soft tissue injury only. B. sprain. C. fracture. D. contusion.

C. fracture.

21. Applying a wet burn sheet to a pediatric burn patient increases the risk of: A. hypoxia. B. fluid retention. C. hypothermia. D. increased pain.

C. hypothermia.

14. Treatment for blast injuries at an MCI should be based on: A. patient preference. B. NIMS standards. C. local protocols. D. EMT experience.

C. local protocols.

11. The MOST common and serious injuries produced from a blast are: A. head injuries. B. severe lacerations. C. pulmonary injuries. D. oxidation.

C. pulmonary injuries.

7. A normal heart rate for a newborn is: A.80 to 120 beats per minute. B.160 to 200 beats per minute. C.120 to 160 beats per minute. D.60 to 100 beats per minute.

C.120 to 160 beats per minute.

8. Which of the following should be established FIRST at a hazardous materials incident? A.Decon units B.Triage units C.Control zones D.Patient care areas

C.Control zones

3. Which of the following is a common cause of seizures in young children but NOT in adults? A.Hypoglycemia B.Meningitis C.Fever D.Oxygen deficiency

C.Fever

23. Which of the following age groups typically do not like being separated from their parents? A. Adolescents B.School age C. Preschoolers D. Newborns

C.Preschoolers

8. A sunken fontanel may indicate that the infant: A.has a birth defect. B.has increased intracranial pressure. C.is dehydrated. D.is hypoglycemic.

C.is dehydrated.

Your unresponsive patient was injured in a boating accident. Rescuers have just removed the patient from the water. Which of the following should be your FIRSTaction?

Cervical spine protection while beginning the primary assessment.

Which of the following CANNOT be provided effectively while a drowning victim is still in the water?

Chest compression's.

You suspect that your patient has a GI bleed. She presents with tachycardia, hypotension, and pale skin. What stage of shock is she MOST likely in? A. Compensated shock B. Hypovolemic shock C. Early shock D. Decompensated shock

You respond to the scene of a 24-year-old gunshot victim and find your patient to have a decreased mental status as well as hypotension. You note absent breath sounds on the left side of his chest where you notice a puncture wound. What is this patient MOST likely suffering from? A. flail chest. B. pericardial tamponade. C. commotio cordis. D. tension pneumothorax.

Which of the following is a type of poisonous snake in the United States?

Copperhead

A patient has partial-thickness burns over 18% of his body, including both feet. Which of the following classifications do this patient's burns fall under?

Critical Burns involving the hands, feet, face, or genitalia are considered to be critical, regardless of the total body surface area involved, because of the potential loss of function.

A substance that will stop bleeding is called: A. a tourniquet. B. a pressure dressing. C. a coalescent. D. a hemostatic agent.

At what stage of shock are the efforts of EMTs likely to be MOST successful and have the GREATEST impact on a positive outcome? A. Irreversible shock B. Decompensated shock C. Refractory shock D. Compensated shock

During your primary asesssment, it is important to remember: A. that inadequate breathing may result from spinal cord damage from a thoracic spine injury. B. that the patient's skin may be cool, pale, and moist below the site of spinal cord injury and warm and dry above the site of injury. C. to open the airway of an unresponsive patient using the head-tilt, chin-lift method. D. to initiate immediate manual in-line spinal stabilization according to patient need.

How can blood transfusions help patients with sickle cell crisis? A. Blood transfusion forces the sickled cells into a phase of early destruction for replacement. B. By increasing the blood volume, the blood vessels will be dilated somewhat to relieve the crisis. C. The sickled cells are restored to their normal shape when enough normal RBCs are present in the blood. D. Blood transfusion temporarily provides adequate cell numbers and oxygen delivery to tissue.

In a patient experiencing internal bleeding into the abdomen, the best course of treatment is to: A. administer oxygen, provide fluid replacement by mouth, and provide immediate transport. B. administer oxygen, apply a compression dressing around the abdominal bleeding site, and begin transport. C. maintain the airway, administer oxygen, and wait for the arrival of paramedics. D. administer oxygen, treat for shock, and provide immediate transport.

In a patient who has recently undergone peritoneal dialysis, which of the following clinical findings is the MOST suggestive of peritonitis? A. The patient has back pain and is pacing about. B. The patient reports a gradual onset of bloody stools for more than five days. C. The patient is sitting upright with some breathing difficulty. D. The patient has a very firm or rigid abdomen.

In all forms of shock, what is the greatest consequence to the body? A. Decreased blood flow to the tissue B. Inadequate delivery of nutrients to the tissue C. Decreased removal of waste from the tissue D. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the cells

In neurogenic shock, what mechanism causes hypoperfusion? A. Nervous control necessary for the heart to continue to beat effectively is lost. B. Loss of nervous regulation results in the blood vessels contracting completely, not allowing blood to flow. C. Injury to the neurological system causes the blood vessels to leak extensively. D. Arteries that are under continuous nervous control lose their ability to maintain contraction and dilate fully, causing a drop in blood pressure.

Nerve pathways from the gallbladder share pathways that sense shoulder pain. This commonly leads to: A. hemorrhage. B. vomiting. C. radiating pain. D. referred pain

Patients who are experiencing a heart attack often complain of: A. diarrhea. B. headache. C. extremity pain. D. epigastric pain.

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs as a result of: A. massive vasodilation. B. compression of the superior vena cava. C. hypovolemic shock. D. compression of the inferior vena cava.

The possible numerical range for the Glasgow Coma Scale is: A. 3 to 10. B. 0 to 15. C. 0 to 10. D. 3 to 15.

What type of injury is likely to produce a flail segment? A. Pneumothorax B. Penetrating trauma C. Open chest wound D. Blunt trauma

When treating a patient with damage to the facial bones, you should have a high index of suspicion for: A. thoracic separation. B. aphagia. C. cranial cohesion. D. injury to the brain.

Which of the following is MOST likely to have associated spinal injury? A. Abdominal injury B. Extremity trauma C. Burn injury D. Facial trauma

Which of the following is TRUE of an explosive delivery? A. The infant is less likely to be hypothermic. B. The shoulders will be easier to deliver. C. There will be an immediate delivery of the placenta. D. There is an increased risk of fetal and maternal trauma.

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of perfusion in the adult? A. Blood pressure B. Capillary refill C. Pulse D. Mental state and alertness

Which of the following patient populations would be MOST likely to have severe bleeding from open soft tissue trauma? A. Male B. Pediatric C. Female D. Elderly

Which of the following statements BEST describes the third stage of labor? A. The amniotic sac ruptures. B. The infant is completely delivered. C. The infant's head appears at the opening of the birth canal. D. The placenta is expelled from the uterus.

Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is FALSE? A. The sickled red blood cells cannot effectively carry oxygen. B. During a sickle cell crisis, patients will often complain of severe joint pain and difficulty in breathing. C. The abnormally shaped red blood cells causes blockages within the body's smaller blood vessels. D. Sickle cell anemia can be cured with regular blood transfusions.

While assessing the abdomen of a 25-year-old female, you note that she has a large piece of glass sticking out of her right upper quadrant. What should you do? A. Place the patient in the prone position. B. Remove the glass, and apply the PASG. C. Monitor vitals and transport right away. D. Stabilize the glass, and administer oxygen.

While performing a rapid trauma assessment, you note a clear fluid leaking from the patient's ears. This indicates: A. inner ear damage. B. a punctured eardrum. C. possible damage to the sinuses. D. a possible skull fracture.

You are treating a 42-year-old male assault victim who presents with nausea, vomiting, and sharp abdominal pain. While inspecting his abdomen, you note redness to his right upper quadrant. Based on your assessment findings, the patient is MOST likely suffering from which of the following? A. traumatic hemorrhage of the spleen B. trauma to the abdominal aorta C. acute appendicitis D. traumatic hemorrhage of the liver

You have a patient with a long laceration to his thigh after falling through a roof he was working on. The bleeding is bright red and spurting, and the patient is becoming increasingly pale and disoriented. How would you characterize this bleeding? A. Venous B. Capillary C. Noncritical D. Arterial

Your patient is a 16-year-old girl who is complaining of lower abdominal pain, back pain, and heavy vaginal bleeding. After a primary assessment and receiving parental permission to transport, you place the patient in the ambulance, where you have some privacy. Her vital signs are stable. Which of the following questions is relevant and appropriate to an EMT's history-taking for this patient? A. Have you ever had sex? B. Have you ever had a sexually transmitted disease? C. What kind of birth control do you use? D. What was the day of your last menstrual period?

Your patient was unconscious for an extended period of time as a result of severe hypoglycemia. What is your primary concern for this patient? A. Memory loss B. Malnutrition C. Dehydration D. Nontraumatic brain injury

Your renal dialysis patient is having problems because he missed his last dialysis appointment. He should be transported to: A. the closest urgent care center. B. an outpatient dialysis center. C. his doctor's office. D. a hospital with renal dialysis capabilities.

What is the correct rate of assisted ventilation for an infant with a pulse? A. 40 to 60 times per minute B. 24 to 32 times per minute C. 10 to 12 times per minute D. 12 to 20 times per minute

D. 12 to 20 times per minute

Which of the following is required on the exterior of a tanker truck that is carrying hazardous cargo? A. A cargo manifest B. An NFPA 704 placard C. Shipping papers D. A DOT hazard placard

D. A DOT hazard placard

Which of the following is defined as a situation in which a patient's behavior becomes so bizarre, threatening, or dangerous that it alarms the patient or others and requires intervention? A. Abnormal behavior B. Psychosis C. Overdose D. A behavioral emergency

D. A behavioral emergency

Which of the following types of dispatches should cause you the highest concern about difficulty in accessing the patient? A. A person who slipped and fell in a grocery store B. A vehicle collision in a parking lot C. A person who fell from a first-story roof onto a driveway D. A trench collapse

D. A trench collapse

Emergency medical care for a patient who has ingested a poison includes: A. Noting the appearance of the vomitus prior to disposing of it B. Inducing vomiting as soon as possible C. Flushing the mouth of an unresponsive patient D. Administering activated charcoal, per medical direction

D. Administering activated charcoal, per medical direction

In a patient suspected of an acetaminophen overdose, it is important to determine if the patient has a history of alcohol abuse because A. The two combined often cause an allergic reaction B. Alcohol potentiates (makes worse) the toxic effects of acetaminophen C. Alcohol combined with acetaminophen produces cocaethylene, a dangerous substance D. Alcohol abusers often have damaged livers, a condition that is made worse by acetaminophen

D. Alcohol abusers often have damaged livers, a condition that is made worse by acetaminophen

Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures? A. Nerve damage B. Swelling C. Hemorrhage D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following complications should you anticipate? A. Shock B. Damage to the nerves of the lower extremities C. Damage to internal organs D. All of the above

D. All of the above

In accordance with the rule of nines, how does the head of an infant compare with the head of an adult? A. An infant's head and neck account for half the total body surface area of an adult. B. The rule of nines does not apply to infants. C. An infant's head and neck account for the same total body surface area as an adult. D. An infant's head and neck account for twice the total body surface area of an adult.

D. An infant's head and neck account for twice the total body surface area of an adult..

In a patient with uncontrolled hemorrhage due to a traumatic amputation, which of the following interventions is likely to be MOST effective? A. Application of direct pressure B. Application of pressure points C. Elevation of the extremity D. Application of a tourniquet

D. Application of a tourniquet

Your patient is 35 weeks pregnant. She states that her water has broken. Which of the following questions is MOST important? A. Have your previous pregnancies been normal? B. How many pregnancies have you had? C. When was your last OB visit? D. Are you having contractions? Your answer is correct.

D. Are you having contractions?

The therapeutic mechanism by which activated charcoal works is by: A. causing the substances in the stomach to solidify into a single, solid mass. B. increasing the motility (movement of substances) through the gastrointestinal system to expulsion. C. causing an unpleasant taste and resultant vomiting. D. Binding poisons through adsorption thus preventing poisons from being absorbed by the body.

D. Binding poisons through adsorption thus preventing poisons from being absorbed by the body.

Which of the following is NOT used on infants or children? A. OPA B. French suction catheters C. Cervical collars D. Blind finger sweep

D. Blind finger sweep

Your 28-year-old male patient presents with altered mental status, confusion, and combativeness. Based on the patient's presentation and behavior, which non-psychiatric cause should you be most concerned about when assessing and treating this patient? A. History of bipolar disorder B. History of severe anxiety C. Family who states that the patient has most recently been diagnosed with clinical depression D. Blood glucose reading below 60

D. Blood glucose reading below 60

Which of the following describes an open extremity injury? A. A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone. B. Bone ends have lacerated the soft tissues and skin from the inside. C. The joint capsule has been torn open during a dislocation. D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

During severe bleeding, which of the following structures is most sensitive to hypoxia from blood loss? A. Skeletal muscle B. Lungs C. Kidneys D. Brain

D. Brain

Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints? A. Peritoneum B. Smooth muscle C. Ligaments D. Cartilage

D. Cartilage

Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity? A. Immobilize from the shoulder to the wrist. B. Do not attempt to realign the extremity before splinting. C. Use an upper extremity traction splint. D. Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.

D. Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.

Which of the following BEST describes developmental disorders? A. They result from traumatic brain injury at any time during the lifespan. B. They result from an inability to maintain normal physical growth and maturation. C. They are a result of age-related cognitive decline. D. Chronic mental or physical disability causing significant impairment.

D. Chronic mental or physical disability causing significant impairment. Rationale The CDC defines a developmental disability as "a chronic physical and/or mental impairment causing significant impairment in the person's major life activities."

A patient who told his friend that he planned to commit suicide is refusing ambulance transportation but is agreeable to going to the hospital via a friend's private vehicle. What action should you take at this point? A. Allow the friend to transport the patient via private vehicle, but call ahead to the hospital to alert them of the patient's impending arrival B. Have your partner accompany the patient in the friend's car C. Try to encourage the patient to accompany you and, if unsuccessful, have the patient sign a refusal of care and transportation form D. Contact medical direction for assistance

D. Contact medical direction for assistance

Which of the following is TRUE regarding decompensated shock? A. Compensated shock is shock that carries the ultimate costs to the body. B. The amount of oxygen availability to the tissues is greater during decompensated shock. C. Decompensated shock is reversible, whereas compensated shock is not. D. During decompensated shock, the body can no longer compensate adequately.

D. During decompensated shock, the body can no longer compensate adequately.

Which of the following is NOT considered a standardization component in NIMS? A. Training B. Mutual aid agreements C. Preparedness exercises D. Employee compensation

D. Employee compensation

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury? A. Direct force B. Indirect force C. Twisting or rotational forces D. Extensive force

D. Extensive force

What contributes MOST to the acutely serious complications from end-stage renal disease? A. Use of medications that should be avoided B. Failure to control hypertension adequately C. Consumption of foods that should be avoided D. Failure to make regularly scheduled dialysis appointments

D. Failure to make regularly scheduled dialysis appointments

Which of the following is typically a part of the on-board, permanently mounted equipment in the ambulance? A. Oxygen tank B. Backboard C. AED D. Fixed suction unit

D. Fixed suction unit

Which of the following is the best way to assist a patient with special challenges who you suspect is being abused? A. Confront the suspected abuser. B. Wait on scene for law enforcement to arrive. C. Notify your supervisor. D. Get the patient out of the environment.

D. Get the patient out of the environment.

Where could you find the phalange bones? A. Skull and neck B. Upper extremities C. Lower extremities D. Hands and feet

D. Hands and feet

What is the highest level of training for hazmat incidents under OSHA regulations? A. Hazardous Materials Director B. Red Leader C. Material Safety Data Sheet Coordinator D. Hazardous Materials Specialist

D. Hazardous Materials Specialist

While on scene with a patient presenting with altered mental status, his friend on scene states that the patient was spraying some type of "aerosol" into a rag and "breathing through the rag." Based on this information, your patient most LIKELY inhaled poisons through which process? A. Vaping B. Puffing C. Bagging D. Huffing

D. Huffing

How will a patient with difficulty breathing likely prefer to be transported? A. Supine B. In Trendelenburg position C. In a lateral recumbent position D. In a seated position

D. In a seated position

Which of the following is NOT a general rule of splinting? A. Align long-bone injuries to anatomical position. B. Assess distal CSM. C. Expose the injury. D. In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable.

D. In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable.

Soft tissue injuries of the skin are classified as: A. simple and compound. B. first, second, and third degree. C. partial and full thickness. D. closed and open.

D. closed and open.

Your patient has a crush injury to the arm. The body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. This condition is known as: A. crushing syndrome. B. perfusing syndrome. C. fracture syndrome. D. compartment syndrome.

D. compartment syndrome.

What is the difference between sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait? A. Nothing; the two conditions are exactly the same. B. The disease is present in both cases, but symptoms appear only in sickle cell anemia. C. In sickle cell trait, the disease is present but only with mild symptoms; in sickle cell anemia, the disease could be fatal. D. In sickle cell anemia, the patient has the disease; in sickle cell trait, the patient carries the genes for the disease.

D. In sickle cell anemia, the patient has the disease; in sickle cell trait, the patient carries the genes for the disease.

Why is extra caution required during a multivehicle response? A. Probable mass casualty incident B. Probable hazardous materials incident C. Lack of area familiarity D. Increased risk of collisions at intersections

D. Increased risk of collisions at intersections

ou are assessing a patient with a behavioral disorder who appears to be slightly agitated. Which of the following can you do to help calm the patient's anxiety and avoid escalation? A. Rush the patient and restrain her. B. Have police handcuff the patient. C. Retreat to the ambulance and depart the scene. D. Keep a proper distance.

D. Keep a proper distance.

Of all the transplantable organs, which is MOST commonly transplanted? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Liver D. Kidneys

D. Kidneys

Which of the following information is provided by the EMD when the call is dispatched? A. Patient diagnosis B. Weather conditions C. Age of the caller D. Location of the call

D. Location of the call

Which of the following types of dispatch is MOST frequently associated with patient access problems? A. Cardiac patients B. Obstetric/gynecology patients C. Diabetic patients D. Motor vehicle collisions

D. Motor vehicle collisions

Which of the following concepts should you always keep in mind when operating an emergency vehicle? A. If a vehicle does not yield to your lights and sirens on a two-way street and there is oncoming traffic, pass the vehicle on the right. B. You should report any driver who does not yield to you while you are using lights and sirens. C. It is permissible to use lights and sirens during nonemergency driving to facilitate returning to your station or posting. D. Other drivers' reactions to lights and sirens can be unpredictable.

D. Other drivers' reactions to lights and sirens can be unpredictable.

Which of the following types of patients typically have an ineffective shivering response to cold? A. Pregnant patients B. Adolescent patients C. Behavioral patients D. Pediatric patients

D. Pediatric patients

What occurs when the core body temperature begins to drop from normal? A. Vasodilation B. Decreased thyroid gland activity C. Increased respiratory rate and depth D. Peripheral vasoconstriction

D. Peripheral vasoconstriction

Which of the following is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis? A. Hypothermia B. Dislodgement of the AV fistula C. Development of thrill at the AV fistula site D. Peritonitis

D. Peritonitis

Which of the following conditions is characterized by an abnormally low implantation of the placenta, which may result in premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix begins to dilate? A. Ruptured uterus B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Abruptio placentae D. Placenta previa

D. Placenta previa

A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is BEST managed by which of the following techniques? A. Using an upper extremity traction splint B. Placing two long padded board splints on either side of the extremity, extending from the shoulder to the wrist C. Using a long-arm air splint D. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body

D. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body

Which of the following is always required when you are working at an accident scene on the roadway? A. Latex examination gloves B. Full structural firefighting gear C. A uniform shirt with a reflective strip on the back D. Reflective safety wear

D. Reflective safety wear

You and your crew are treating a young female who was found unconscious in her kitchen near the back door. After a few minutes of caring for her, you feel lightheaded and dizzy. You and your crew all report the onset of headaches and some nausea. What should you do? A. Place an oxygen mask to your face and order your EMS crew out of the room while you stay and continue to treat the patient to avoid abandonment. B. Stay with the victim and wait for specially trained personnel. C. Ignore the symptoms, as they will likely pass soon. D. Retreat immediately to fresh air, taking the victim with you.

D. Retreat immediately to fresh air, taking the victim with you.

Which of the following is required to be kept on file at the site where a hazardous material is used? A. NFPA 704 placard B. Manifest C. Bill of lading D. Safety data sheet

D. Safety data sheet

Which of the following guidelines should you adhere to when setting up a landing zone for a helicopter? A. Mark each corner of the landing zone, and put a fifth warning device on the downwind side of the landing zone. B. Make sure the landing zone is 50 to 75 feet from any crashed vehicles if the helicopter is landing at the scene. C. Keep spectators 50 to 100 feet from the landing zone. D. Select an area that is a flat square with 100-foot sides for a small helicopter.

D. Select an area that is a flat square with 100-foot sides for a small helicopter.

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of a traction splint? A. Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity B. Pelvis, hip, or knee injury C. Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitch D. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

D. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

When you are able to reach a patient by rolling down a window or opening a door, it is known as what type of access? A. Easy B. Complex C. Continual D. Simple

D. Simple

The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called: A. breakilation. B. krepitus. C. crapilation. D. crepitus.

D. crepitus.

Which of the following is a proper infection control measure? A. The use of intermediate-level disinfection for reusable instruments that come into contact with mucous membranes B. The use of simple cleaning for surfaces that come into contact with intact skin, such as stethoscopes and blood pressure cuffs C. The use of high-level disinfection for routine housekeeping on surfaces such as floors and ambulance seats D. Sterilization of equipment that will be used invasively

D. Sterilization of equipment that will be used invasively

Amphetamines have what effect on the body? A. Depressant B. Sedation C. Hallucinogen D. Stimulant

D. Stimulant

Which of the following is an injury to the musculature of an extremity? A. Luxation B. Fracture C. Sprain D. Strain

D. Strain

Which one of the following definitions is NOT true? A. A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments. B. Another name for manual traction is tension. C. Joints are places where bones articulate. D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

Which of the following statements BEST defines the term "reasonable force"? A. Any force necessary to subdue a patient B. Only the force that is necessary to handcuff a patient C. The force that is required to restrain a cooperative patient D. The minimum force needed to keep the patient from hurting someone

D. The minimum force needed to keep the patient from hurting someone

Your 25-year-old patient is not interacting with either his family or responders. He stares blankly without answering any of your questions. There are no threats to his airway or breathing. What is MOST likely occurring? A. The patient is delusional. B. The patient is experiencing a hallucination. C. The patient has a thought disorder. D. The patient is catatonic.

D. The patient is catatonic.

Which of the following confirms the presence of a hazardous material? A. Fire B. The presence of storage tanks at a scene C. A liquid leaking from a tanker truck D. The presence of an NFPA 704 placard

D. The presence of an NFPA 704 placard

Why does a patient in shock secondary to blood loss develop pale, cool, and clammy skin? A. The blood has lost some of its red blood cells, which give the blood (and skin) the red color. B. Blood flow is being redirected to the periphery of the body to combat the heat load. C. The patient's body is using all available energy to combat the blood loss, so sweating is to expected. D. The sympathetic nervous system limits peripheral circulation.

D. The sympathetic nervous system limits peripheral circulation.

Which of the following is TRUE about multiple-birth deliveries? A. The newborns will likely be of above-average weight. B. Hypothermia is unlikely with multiple-birth newborns. C. There is a lower risk for neonatal complications. D. There is a greater risk for neonatal complications.

D. There is a greater risk for neonatal complications.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about pregnancy-related changes in the mother's cardiovascular system? A. The blood volume decreases. B. There is an increased lung capacity. C. There is a decreased oxygen demand. D. There is an increased oxygen demand.

D. There is an increased oxygen demand.

Which of the following is TRUE about crossovers on highways? A. They are the safest way to turn around. B. They require a police escort. C. Ambulances are not permitted to use them. D. They can be dangerous.

D. They can be dangerous.

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation? A. Modu-van B. Rescue squad C. Type A D. Type I

D. Type I

Which of the following is TRUE about your actions when driving an ambulance to an emergency call? A. Continue to use the siren if you become stuck in traffic. B. You can assume that other drivers will yield the right of way. C. You should use the air horn when the car in front of you does not pull over. D. You must exercise due regard for the safety of others.

D. You must exercise due regard for the safety of others.

An ambulance is: A. a fire department transport unit. B. a vehicle staffed with at least one paramedic. C. any vehicle that is capable of transporting a nonambulatory patient. D. a medically equipped emergency vehicle and communications unit.

D. a medically equipped emergency vehicle and communications unit.

Disregarding certain traffic laws while responding to an emergency is: A. permitted only when a critical patient is on board. B. legal only for municipal employees. C. against the law. D. a privilege granted under law.

D. a privilege granted under law.

In order for the pediatric patient's parents to be calm, you should: A. promise them that everything will be fine. B. demonstrate your authority. C. separate them from the child. D. also be calm.

D. also be calm.

In a patient who is experiencing tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, and tremors, you should suspect: A. an aspirin overdose. B. a benzodiazepine overdose. C. a narcotic overdose. D. an antidepressant overdose.

D. an antidepressant overdose.

If you have any doubts about whether a home ventilator is working, you should immediately: A. disable the alarms. B. change the PEEP, rate, inspiratory time and expiratory time, and FiO2 settings. C. look for a reset button or unplug and then plug in the power cord. D. begin bag-valve-mask ventilations while you have the patient's caregiver try to troubleshoot the ventilator.

D. begin bag-valve-mask ventilations while you have the patient's caregiver try to troubleshoot the ventilator. Rationale Do not allow the patient to have inadequate ventilation while you try to determine the problem with the machine. The first priority is to ensure that the patient is breathing.

Shock is typically caused by a problem with the heart, fluid volume, or: A. age of the patient. B. cerebral hypoxia. C. core temperature. D. blood vessels.

D. blood vessels

The first priority to treat a patient exposed to dry lime powder is to: A. soak the affected area with copious amounts of warm water. B. neutralizing the chemical with the appropriate substance. C. leaving the patient's clothing and jewelry on so that these items can be decontaminated also. D. brushing any dry chemicals or solid toxins from the patient's skin.

D. brushing any dry chemicals or solid toxins from the patient's skin.

One of the MOST common psychiatric conditions is characterized by deep feelings of sadness, worthlessness, and discouragement. This condition is known as: A. schizophrenia. B. bipolar disorder. C. phobia. D. depression.

D. depression.

You respond to the scene of a dialysis clinic where you presented with a 64-year-old male patient with blood soaked bandages noted around his right arm at the site of his A-V fistula. How should you manage this patient's hemorrhage? A. Immediately place the patient on high-flow oxygen then treat the hemorrhage B. Immediately place a tourniquet directly on the A-V fistula C. Place tourniquet as close to the A-V fistula as possible D. direct pressure on the A-V fistula with elevation

D. direct pressure on the A-V fistula with elevation

The skin is the largest organ of the body. It is composed of three layers, including the: A. superior dermis. B. sebaceous layer. C. subdermis. D. epidermis.

D. epidermis.

Problems with the kidneys can sometimes present with pain to the: A. neck. B. feet. C. chest. D. flank.

D. flank.

You are transporting a conscious patient with chest pain to the hospital. You should always: A. ask the patient whether he has a living will. B. attach the AED to the patient. C. direct the patient to take aspirin. D. have the AED immediately available.

D. have the AED immediately available.

Ideally, EMS units at an accident scene should be parked: A. at least 100 yards from the scene. B. facing oncoming traffic. C. upstream. D. in a "safe zone."

D. in a "safe zone."

A pediatric patient has extensive burn injuries. Rescuers have applied a wet burn sheet. You know that this likely: A. increases the risk of infection. B. decreases the risk of hypothermia. C. eliminates the patient's pain. D. increases the risk of hypothermia

D. increases the risk of hypothermia

After delivery of the placenta, you observe an unusual amount of heavy bleeding. You should: A. apply the PASG. B. ask the mother to stop breast-feeding. C. pack the vagina with gauze. D. massage the uterus. Your answer is correct.

D. massage the uterus.

The term used for the delivery of oxygen and nutrients from the blood through the thin capillary walls into the cells and the removal of carbon dioxide and other waste products from the cells is: A. blood pressure. B. circulation. C. pulse pressure. D. perfusion.

D. perfusion.

Shortly after you sustain a minor injury, such as a cut in the skin, you notice a white substance (pus) emanating from the wound. This substance consists of: A. red blood cells that are transparent when outside the plasma. B. water that normally surrounds the cells of the tissue. C. a massive number of microorganisms that are leaking from the tissue. D. plasma containing a massive number of white blood cells.

D. plasma containing a massive number of white blood cells.

Your pregnant patient is contracting. You have determined that delivery is imminent. You should: A. determine the mother's preference. B. transport immediately. C. do nothing until ALS personnel arrive. D. prepare to deliver on scene.

D. prepare to deliver on scene.

Pain that is felt in regions other than the one where the source of the pain lies is called: A. regional pain. B. phantom pain. C. translocation pain. D. referred pain..

D. referred pain.

Sometimes bright red, spurting blood slows remarkably just after injury. This can be explained by: A. a rapid reduction in blood volume. B. rapid clotting mechanisms. C. collapse of the vein. D. reflexive contraction of the artery due to the injury itself.

D. reflexive contraction of the artery due to the injury itself.

The abdominal region between the abdomen and the back is called the: A. superior cavity. B. mediastinum. C. anterior space. D. retroperitoneal space.

D. retroperitoneal space.

When interacting with a behavioral patient, you should: A. restrain the patient right away. B. play along with the patient's hallucinations. C. be aggressive and commanding. D. speak clearly and calmly.

D. speak clearly and calmly.

Emergency vehicle operators are NOT permitted to: A. disregard traffic signals. B. park in a no-parking zone. Your answer is not correct. C. cross a double yellow line. D. speed through a school zone.

D. speed through a school zone.

You have arrived on the scene of a child with reported difficulty breathing. The patient is a four-year-old male who is sitting on the floor, putting together a puzzle with his mother. One of the FIRST things you notice is that the child is grunting with each expiration. This finding indicates: A. sinus drainage. B. that he is absorbed in play and there is no medical emergency. C. that he is not toilet trained. D. that he is in the early stages of respiratory distress.

D. that he is in the early stages of respiratory distress.

The severity of external bleeding is best determined by: A. the location of the injury on the body. B. whether the type of injury that occurred is an incision, a puncture, or a laceration. C. the size of the patient. D. the amount of blood loss.

D. the amount of blood loss.

In caring for a patient who has taken PCP, it is important to remember that: A. PCP causes the same types of signs and symptoms as narcotics. B. the drug is expensive and difficult to manufacture. C. the effects of PCP are subtle and difficult to detect in the patient. D. the drug has mind-altering effects.

D. the drug has mind-altering effects.

Rough handling of a hypothermic patient may lead to: A. hypertension. B. spontaneous fractures. C. tachycardia. D. ventricular fibrillation.

D. ventricular fibrillation.

Field decontamination takes place in the: A. cold zone. B. hot zone. C. safe zone. D. warm zone.

D. warm zone.

You suspect that your patient has deep frostbite. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you expect? A. Rapid development of blisters B. Normal skin color returning quickly after rewarming C. Skin that remains soft but is cold to the touch D. White, waxy-appearing skin

D. White, waxy-appearing skin

1. You are caring for a 62-year-old male patient who slipped on the ice and sustained a closed fracture to his forearm. He complains of pain in that area, and you see a noticeable deformity. As you prepare to splint his arm, what should you do FIRST? A. Move the patient to the stretcher before splinting. B. Apply the splint to the joints above and below the fracture site. C. Apply rapid traction to reduce angulation. D. Assess the circulation, sensation, and movement of that

D. Assess the circulation, sensation, and movement of that

15. Your training has prepared you to recognize a potential hazardous material and request additional resources. This describes what level of training? A. Operations B. EMS C. Civilian D. Awareness

D. Awareness

13. Which of the following is a common physiological reaction to a nerve agent? A.Tachycardia B.Hypertension C.Pupillary dilation D.Excessive salivation

D. Excessive salivation

9. Which of the following findings is LEAST likely following radiation exposure? A. Appetite loss B. Weight loss C. Sores in the throat and mouth D.Hypertension

D. Hypertension

7. Which of the following is the most plausible form of terrorism on the basis of the ability to be obtained and used effectively? A. Radiological B. Nuclear C. Biological D. Incendiary

D. Incendiary

19. Which warning placard is diamond-shaped and divided into four smaller diamonds? A. Material data safety sheets (MSDS) B. Bill of lading C. DOT hazard label D. NFPA 704 system

D. NFPA 704 system

1. Which of the following is the BEST description of a safety data sheet (SDS)? A. Papers that must accompany hazardous materials during transport B. A resource book published by the U.S. Department of Transportation for referencing hazardous materials C. A placard that must be attached to a fixed container of hazardous materials D. Papers kept on-site with hazardous chemicals

D. Papers kept on-site with hazardous chemicals

What is the correct procedure and order for a water rescue? A. Throw, tow, and reach B. Go, throw, and tow C. Tow, reach, and throw D. Reach, throw, and tow

D. Reach, throw, and tow

21. Which of the following is an explosive device that is intended to be detonated after rescuers have entered the scene? A. Backup device B. Tertiary device C. Incendiary device D. Secondary device

D. Secondary device

11. You are evaluating an 18-month-old child who presents with a history of fever, diarrhea, and vomiting. Her radial pulse is weak in comparison with her carotid pulse. Her respirations are 30 with adequate depth. What is the primary problem for which you will treat this patient? A. Mild dehydration B. Hypoglycemia C. Respiratory failure D. Shock

D. Shock

6. What should be applied to provide stability for an upper humerus injury? A. Pressure bandage B. Straight arm splint C. Traction splint D. Sling and swathe

D. Sling and swathe

17. Which of the following do rescuers MOST commonly experience as a result of an MCI? A. Physical injury B. Physical incapacitation C. Psychological breakdown D. Stress

D. Stress

13. Which of the following is TRUE about infants? A. They typically breathe through the mouth. B. Hyperextension of the neck is needed to open the airway. C. The chest wall is more rigid than that in adults. D. They typically breathe through the nose.

D. They typically breathe through the nose.

19. A weapon of mass destruction would most likely fall into what hazmat category? A. Oxidizers B. Corrosive substances C. Organic peroxides D. Toxic and infectious substances

D. Toxic and infectious substances

20. Which of the following is the MOST likely assignment for an EMT team at an MCI? A. Public information officier B. Rehab supervisor C. Logistics D. Triage

D. Triage

5. You are treating a 54-year-old male patient who has deformity and pain to his right midshaft femur. Which complication poses the most immediate life threat? A. infection B. severe pain C. inability to ambulate D. associated hemorrhage

D. associated hemorrhage

20. Your unconscious infant has a complete airway obstruction. You should: A. alternate back blows and chest thrusts. B. sweep out the obstruction with a gloved fingers. C. administer abdominal thrusts. D. begin chest compressions.

D. begin chest compressions.

15. Guidelines for splinting long bone injuries include: A. assessing the radial pulse for a lower extremity injury. B. having the patient bend the leg at the knee to check motor function. C. using the sharp point of your badge pin on the bottom of the patient's foot to check sensation. D. immobilizing the hand or foot in the position of function.

D. immobilizing the hand or foot in the position of function.

3. Your municipality's water supply has been contaminated by a possible terrorist attack. This poses a possible health danger through: A. oxidation. B. absorption. C. inhalation. D. ingestion.

D. ingestion.

7. In fracture management, once you have applied rigid splinting material and have secured the material to the extremity, the next step is to: A. move the patient to the stretcher, ensuring that the injured extremity is not manipulated. B. pad the voids. C. apply traction to reduce any angulation. D. reassess the distal pulse and the patient's sensory and motor functions.

D. reassess the distal pulse and the patient's sensory and motor functions.

26. Which of the following pediatric patients would likely required immediate ventilatory assistance? A.A patient with hypertension B.A patient with elevated pulse and flushed skin C.A patient with nasal flaring D.A patient with a slow pulse and altered mental status

D.A patient with a slow pulse and altered mental status

28. Which of the following most likely indicates respiratory failure in a pediatric patient? A.An irregular pulse in a pediatric patient B.A pulse of 190 beats per minute C.A bounding pulse in a pediatric patient D.A pulse of 40 beats per minute

D.A pulse of 40 beats per minute

10. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about MCI triage? A.No interventions are performed during primary triage. B.CPR is begun on patients without breathing and a pulse if there are no injuries that are obviously incompatible with life. C.It is inappropriate for EMTs to assign "walking wounded" patients to assist more seriously injured patients. D.During primary triage, you should open a patient's airway and control severe bleeding.

D.During primary triage, you should open a patient's airway and control severe bleeding.

9. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate about trauma in infants and children? A. The leading cause of trauma deaths in children is child abuse. B. Hypovolemia from head trauma does not occur in children. C. The leading cause of injuries in children is penetrating trauma. D. Early signs of shock can be subtle in children.

D.Early signs of shock can be subtle in children.

3. Which of the following should make the EMT consider the likelihood of a hazardous materials incident? A.An accident involving a car and a pedestrian B.Calls involving children C.A car fire D.Multiple patients with similar complaints

D.Multiple patients with similar complaints

25. You are inserting an OPA into a small child's airway. What is the preferred technique that you should use? A.360 degree reverse twist B.The same technique as with adults C.180 degree reverse twist D.Straight insertion technique with a tongue depressor

D.Straight insertion technique with a tongue depressor

24. Who is the best source of patient history information for an older adolescent patient? A.The parents B.The patient's friends C.The school nurse D.The patient

D.The patient

22. Some patients with special challenges have which of the following to maintain an open airway? A.Peg tube B.Foley catheter C.G-tube D.Tracheostomy tube

D.Tracheostomy tube

5. What medical term is used to describe a process for prioritizing patients for treatment and transport on the basis of the severity of their conditions? A.Grading B.Classification C.Selection D.Triage

D.Triage

31. An infant is defined as: A.6 months to 1 year. B.1 year to 3 years. C.birth to 30 days. D.birth to one year.

D.birth to one year.

2. Wind and wet clothing increase the pediatric patient's risk of: A.hyperthermia. B.hypoxia. C.hypotension. D.hypothermia.

D.hypothermia.

4. When treating a pediatric patient, you should NEVER: A.initiate any treatment without parental consent. B.assume that the patient is being honest. C.do anything that causes pain. D.lie to the patient.

D.lie to the patient.

7. If arriving units are not needed right away, they should wait in the: A.treatment area. B.transportation area. C.triage area. D.staging area.

D.staging area.

Which age-related respiratory changes should you antipate in a 72 year old patient?

Decreased lung elasticity and tidal volume.

6. Which of the following should the EMT do in communicating with an elderly patient?

Determine how the patient would like to be addressed

Your elderly patient is confused. You should:

Determine whether this is new or normal for the patient.

You notice that an elderly patient needs some assistance in cleaning her home and making meals. What should you do?

Notify the reciving hospital and appropriate social service agencies of your obervations.

Which of the following is often a precipitating factor in adolescent and adult drowning?

Drug or alcohol use.

3. What do elderly patients often fear about going to the hospital?

Dying in the hospita

9. When caring for an elderly patient, it is important to remember that:

Elderly patients should be addressed directly and with respect

What is the term for a disruption in the body's normal physiological processes from some element in the patient's natural surroundings?

Environmental Emergency

Which of the following occurs when the body perspires or gets wet?

Evaporation

By which of the following mechanisms can the body lose body heat?

Evaporation of perspiration.

5. Which of the following is TRUE about elderly patients?

Even a minor fall can result in spinal injury or long bone fracture

12. There are three broad categories of elder abuse: physical, psychological, and

Financial.

You are caring for a hypothermic patient who was found outdoors. Once you have determined the scene is safe, which of the following is your?

Getting the patient out of the cold environment.

You are caring for a 15-year-old female who has sustained a laceration to her lower arm. It is spurting bright red blood uncontrollably. What personal protective equipment would be MOST preferred in managing this wound?

Gloves and a face shield The risk of body fluid exposure is great, and full protection of the eyes, mouth, nose, and hands is necessary.

A man is spending a day fishing in an area where temperatures are over 90 degrees Fahrenheit. Which of the following conditions would be MOST l ikely to increase his risk of a heat-related emergency?

Having a few beers while fishing.

What of the following is the LEAST severe form of heat-related injury?

Heat Cramps.

Your patient has a large bump on the forehead from being hit by a baseball. What type of injury is this?

Hematoma A hematoma is similar to a contusion except that it usually involves damage to a larger blood vessel and a larger amount of tissue. It is characterized by a large lump with bluish discoloration caused by blood collecting beneath the skin.

Which of the following combinations of findings makes a patient with a potential with a related emergency the HIGHEST priority for transport?

Hot skin and altered mental status.

1. Which of the following occurs in elderly patients as a result of age-related changes in physiology?

Increased incidence of pneumonia

When performing active rewarming,

Not delay transport.

Which of the following BEST describes an open chest wall injuries?

Knife wound to the left anterior chest

10. In most states, if EMTs suspect that a patient is being abused, they are obligated to:

Notify the authorities.

7. What is the meaning of the term "chronic illness"?

Long-term illness, progressing gradually

A patient who was injured by lightning is awake on your arrival but is not able to hear what you are saying. He can talk and is frightened because he does not know what happened. The patient was in a picnic area at a park and was thrown several feet to the ground when the lightning struck near him. Which of the following steps has the HIGHEST priority in this patient's assessment and treatment?

Maintain in-line cervical stabilization, and perform a rapid secondary assessment. This patient may have additional injuries. You must complete your assessment before performing additional treatment. There is no indication from the primary assessment (the patient is able to talk to you) that he needs immediate high flow-oxygen.

2. Your elderly patient has a history of dementia. This means that the patient likely has problems with:

Memory deterioration

Which of the following statements is TRUE about insect bites and stings?

Most insect bites and stings are considered minor unless a patient has an allergic reaction.

Which of the following is the HIGHEST priority in managing a patient with a heat-related emergency?

Move the patient to a cool environment.

If you must try to pull a victim in the water to safety with your hand, how should be positioned?

On your stomach.

Which of the following interventions is indicated for all hypothermic

Passive rewarming.

You are preparing to transport an elderly patient from his home to the hospital after a fall injury. You offer to lock all the doors for the patient. This is an example of:

Patient advocacy.

Which of the following injuries is virtually always the result of penetrating chest trauma?

Pericardial tamponade

Which of the following changes occurs in the cardiovascular system as a result of the aging process?

Peripheral artery disease.

Withholding food or medical care from an elderly person is a form of:

Physical abuse.

Which of the following conditions is characterized by an abnormally low implantation of the placenta, which may result in premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix begins to dilate? . Ruptured uterus B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Abruptio placentae D. Placenta previa

Placenta previa

The "silent treatment" is a form of:

Psychological abuse.

Which of the following is a recognized form of elder abuse?

Psychological abuse.

8. Which of the following is recommended to increase safety at an elderly patient's home?

Reduce tripping hazards

A 38-year-old male is in the water and requires rescue. Which of the following would be BEST to extend to him to pull him to safety?

Rope

What is typically the GREATEST source of heat for the body?

Shivering.

Which of the following organs is most likely to bleed significantly if injured?

Spleen Solid organs pose a greater risk of blood lost than hollow organs do. The spleen is a solid organ.

You are caring for a 46-year-old female who accidentally sustained burns to her left hand up to the wrist from boiling water. You arrive moments after the incident. Of the following, which should you do FIRST?

Stop the burning process Your first priority is to stop the burning process then remove any constricting jewelry.

You arrive on scene for an elderly patient with an unkown illness. There are family members at the patient's side. Which of the following should you do first?

Talk to the patient.

You are preparing to transport an elderly patient to the hospital. The patient states, "who will take care of my dog?" How might you ease the patient's anxiety?

Tell the patient that you can call someone for her.

During an environmental emergency, patients who are under the influence of alcohol:

Tend to be affected more rapidly and severely.

You have just applied a bandage over a dressing that was used to cover an open laceration to the forearm. You now reassess the PMS findings and discern that there is no longer a distal pulse, and the patient says that his hand is "tingling." What could be the reason for this finding?

The bandage was applied too tightly. If the bandage is too tight, the circumferential pressure that is caused may be enough to block distal blood flow. A dressing should be bandaged snugly enough to hold the dressing in place and contribute to the stoppage of bleeding but not so tightly that it impairs all distal blood flow.

Which of the following statements about puncture wounds is correct?

The course or depth of the trajectory of the object that caused the puncture cannot be known with certainty. The course or depth of the trajectory of the object that caused the puncture cannot be known with certainty.

4. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

The elderly patient's diminished gag reflex makes the person vulnerable to aspiration.

You may encounter airway resistance as you ventilate a drowning victim. This means that:

The patient is difficult to ventilate with the BVM.

Which of the following signs is a characteristic of early or superficial frostbite?

The skin changing color and feeling numb to the patient.

Which of the following descriptions BEST characterizes deep frostbite?

The tissue becomes frozen.

Which of the following factors is MOST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia?

The use of certain drugs.

19. Which of the following characteristics do chemical, biological, and radiological weapons of mass destruction share? a. They are all identified by a pungent, acidic smell. b. They can be difficult for EMS personnel to detect.

a. They can be difficult for EMS personnel to detect.

9. "Blast lung" is a consequence of: a. a high-energy overpressurization wave. b. blunt trauma. c. penetrating shrapnel injuries. d. thermal burns.

a. a high-energy overpressurization wave.

21. Dissemination of a weapon of mass destruction refers to: a. spreading the weapon. b. manufacturing the weapon. c. digesting the weapon. d. dismantling the weapon.

a. spreading the weapon.

When a large flap of tissue is traumatically removed, this condition is called:

an avulsion. A segment of skin that is detached or minimally attached is an avulsion.

Severe abdominal trauma and blood loss may cause signs and symptoms of which include:

an increased heart rate.

Your patient suffered a severe electrical burn injury. In your emergency care, you should always:

assess for an entrance and an exit wound. To care for an electrical burn injury, the EMT should (1) never attempt to remove a patient from an electrical source unless the EMT is trained and equipped to do so, (2) never touch a patient who is still in contact with the electrical source, (3) administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm, (4) monitor the patient for cardiac arrest, (5) assess the patient for muscle tenderness with or without twitching and any seizure activity, (6) always assess for an entrance and exit burn injury, and (7) transport the patient as soon as possible.

12. Which of the following types of weapon ignites certain elements that burn rapidly, causing violent air displacement? a. Biological b. Explosive c, Conflagration d. Radioactive

b. Explosive

2. Which of the following are victims of a terrorist event likely to experience, regardless of the type of incident? a. Thermal harm b. Psychological harm c. Mechanical harm d. Asphyxiation injury

b. Psychological harm

22. Which of the following routes of biological agent exposure has the potential to cause more infection than any other route? a. Bloodborne b. Respiratory c. Gastrointestinal d. Transdermal

b. Respiratory

You are performing a secondary assessment on your 19-year-old trauma patient. What assessment finding MOST likely indicates a closed head injury?

bruising noted to the posterior aspect behind his right ear Bruising to the head or neck indicates possible injury to the cervical spine or brain. Blood in the mouth, nose, or ears may also be present.

20. Which of the following is one characteristic that distinguishes a terrorism event from most other mass casualty incidents? a. A terrorism event will tax local resources. b. A terrorism event may be dangerous for rescuers. c. A terrorism event is also a crime scene. d. A terrorism event will likely involve multiple patients.

c. A terrorism event is also a crime scene.

5. Into which of the following categories of hazardous materials do weapons of mass destruction commonly fall? a. Flammable solids, materials that are dangerous when wet, or materials that are spontaneously combustible b. Organic peroxides c. Toxic and flammable gases d. Corrosives

c. Toxic and flammable gases

6. Thermal injury would MOST likely be due to: a. a biological event. b. a nuclear event. c. an explosive event. d. a radiological event.

c. an explosive event.

14. Injuries received during the secondary blast phase are caused by: a. personnel displacement. b. overpressurization wave. c. blast projectiles. d. heat or burn injuries.

c. blast projectiles.

15. CBRNE agents include: a. commercial agents. b. condemned agents. c. chemical agents. d. clandestine agents.

c. chemical agents.

7. When treating thermal injuries at a terrorism incident, the EMT should: a. follow FEMA blast injury protocols. b. ensure that all patients are evaluated by ALS personnel. c. follow local protocols. d. treat all injuries during transport.

c. follow local protocols.

10. Safety at a terrorism event is based on time, distance, and: a. clothing. b. age. c. shielding. d. duration.

c. shielding.

18. A zoonotic disease: a. affects animals only. b. can only be spread through close contact. c. can cross from animals to humans. d. affects humans only.

can cross from animals to humans.

For a young child with isolated genital injuries, you should:

consider the possibility of abuse and treat the child with sensitivity. This situation requires exceptional diplomacy and gentle inquiry to explore the possibility of sexual abuse.

3. Who is responsible for perimeter control at a terrorism incident? a. EMS personnel b. Fire department personnel c. FEMA personnel d. Law enforcement personnel

d. Law enforcement personnel

11. What is the EMT's FIRST priority during a terrorist event? a. Crowd control b. Patient care c. Triage d. Personal safety

d. Personal safety

The layer of skin that contains blood vessels, nerves, and specialized structures is the:

dermis. The dermis is the layer of skin that contains nerves, vessels, and specialized structures.

When a patient who sustained blunt trauma to the chest wall has two or more rib fractures in two or more places, this is called a:

flail chest.

You are called to the scene of a metal fabrication plant where you are presented with a 30-year-old male patient complaining of bilateral severe eye pain. Upon examination, you notice both eyes are red and irritated. Patient states that one of dyes he was working with splashed into his eyes. How would you manage this patient's injury?

irrigate both eyes with copious amounts of water for at least 20 minutes or until you arrive at the medical facility. The first step in managing a burn victim is to stop the burning process. For patients with burns to the eye, irrigating with copious amounts of water for 20 minutes or until arrival at the hospital is the appropriate way to manage the injury. If only one eye is burned, irrigate in such a way that it does not expose the unaffected eye.

When caring for a patient with an impaled object in the abdomen, EMT should:

leave the impaled object in place and stabilize it with bulky dressings.

Burns involving the airway often lead to:

respiratory compromise. Without an intact airway, the patient will be unable to ventilate or oxygenate. The result of this will be cellular hypoxemia and death.

A life-threatening injury to the thorax should be found and managed during:

the primary assessment.

The MOST common type of trauma that the body sustains is:

soft tissue injuries. Soft tissue injuries are by far the most common form of trauma. Millions of patients present to emergency departments annually with soft tissue wounds.

The first step in burn management is to:

stop the burning process The burning process is a life threat and should be stopped immediately.

Which layer of the skin provides shock absorption and insulation?

subcutaneous The subcutaneous layer is just below the dermis layer and provides shock absorption and insulation by way of adipose tissue.

Internal abdominal injuries can be severe because:

there are several major organs and blood vessels in the abdomen.

16. Proper shielding at an MCI incident includes: a. wearing the proper gear. b. waiting until it is safe to enter the scene. c. staying a safe distance away. d. ensuring that adequate resources are responding.

wearing the proper gear.

In caring for an amputated part, it is important to:

wrap the part in sterile gauze and keep it cool. Wrap the part in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, and keep it cool, avoiding freezing.

Part of the assessment of a thermal burn is to calculate the percentage of the body surface area that has been burned. Your patient has burns to her anterior torso and the anterior surface of her right arm. What is the estimated percentage of body surface burned?

22.5% The anterior torso is 9 + 9, and an entire arm would be 9, but only the anterior surface of the patient's arm (about 1/2) is burned, so that would be 4.5%. Therefore 9 + 9 + 4.5 = 22.5%.

What is the correct management of a patient with a flail chest and inadequate breathing?

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