Chapter 21- Final Exam
What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid? A. bursa B.canaliculi C. ganglion D. osteocytes
Bursa
The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement? A. circumduction B. plantar flexion C. supination D. eversion
B. plantar flexion
Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology? A. cassette cover B. C-arm cover C. Mayo stand cover D. impervious stockinette
C. Mayo stand cover
The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the: A. thoracic cage B. sternal notch C. rotator cuff D. pelvic girdle
C. Rotator cuff
Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure? A. ACL repair B. arthroscopy C. amputation D. arthroplasty
C. amputation
Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis? A. ilium B. ischium C. femur D. pubis
C. femur
Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems? A. fiber-optic light source B. powered shaving system C. camera unit D. video monitor/screen
B. powered shaving system
The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones? A. humerus B. scapula C. sternum D. clavicle
B. scapula
Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs? A. cylinder B. spica C. short leg D. long leg
B. spica
What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons? A. groove B. tubercle C. fossa D. condyle
B. tubercle
What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets? A. osteoarthritis B. osteochondrosis C. osteomalacia D. osteomyelitis
C. osteomalacia
Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone? A. nylon (Nurolon) B. stainless steel C. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) D. polyester (Ethibond)
C. polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint? A. femoroacetabular B. acromioclavicular C. temporomandibular D. patellofemoral
C. temporomandibular
Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?
Calcium
Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Putti-Platt B. Colles' C. Bankart D. Bristow
Colles'
The elbow is categorized as which type of joint? A. coxarthrosis B. amphiarthrosis C. diarthrosis D. synarthrosis
Diarthrosis
What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty? A. Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick. B. Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues. C. collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps. D. Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating
Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging? A. comminuted B. avulsion C. oblique D. greenstick
Greenstick
Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum? A. greater trochanter B. neck C. head D. lesser trochanter
Head
Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation? A. CT scan B. MRI scan C. arthrography D. bone scan
MRI
Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes. TRUE FALSE
True
Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones. TRUE FALSE
True
Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection. TRUE FALSE
True
Where is the area of active bone growth? A. diaphysis B. epiphyseal plate C. medullary canal D. cortex
epiphyseal plate
Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint A. temporomandibular B. atlantoaxial C. patellofemoral D. femoroacetabular
femoroacetabular
Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?
femur
How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis? three two eight five
five
The term C-arm refers to a(n): A. fluoroscopic machine B. casting technique C. extremity deformity D. OR table positioning device
fluoroscopy machine
Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture? A. Andrews table B. Wilson frame C. fracture table D. vacuum beanbag
fracture table
Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"? A. genu varum B. tallipes varus C. hallus valgus D. coxa valga
genu varum
Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a: A. depth gauge B. reamer C. guide pin D. pilot drill
guide pins
Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity? A. humerus B. ulna C. radius D. femur
humerus
Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses? A. Gigli saw B. Brun curette C. suction brush attachment D. intramedullary reamer
intramedullary reamer
What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up? A. genu valgum B. joint mice C. ganglion cysts D. bunions
joint mice
In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found
knee
A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)? A. acromioclavicular (bone spur) B. bicipital groove (tendon) C. rotator cuff (muscles) D. labrum (cartilage)
labrum (cartilage)
What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur A. Freer elevator B. antibiotic irrigation C. lap sponges D. pulse lavage
lap sponges
Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?
over 65 years old
Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin? A. complex B. subluxation C. greenstick D. luxation
subluxation
The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint? A. synarthrosis B. amphiarthrosis C. coxarthrosis D. diarthrosis
synarthrosis
Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone?
tibia
What is the MOST common cause of bone fractures? A. poor nutrition B. trauma C. osteoporosis D. osteosarcoma
trauma
Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position? A. Andrews table B. beach chair positioner C. vacuum beanbag D. Wilson frame
vacuum beanbag
Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?
calcaneus
What is the medical term for spongy bone? A. cancellous B. cranial C. cuboid D. cortical
cancellous
Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures? A. Gelpi B. Adson-Beckman C. Charnley D. Weitlaner
charnley
Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone? A. humerus B. scapula C. clavicle D. sternum
clavicle
Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures? A. compartmental syndrome B. malunion C. avascular necrosis D. delayed union
compartmental syndrome
Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity? A. cranial B. cancellous C. cuboid D. cortica
cortical
What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee? A. lubrication B. stability C. cushioning D. nutrition
cushioning
Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee? A. anterior cruciate B. posterior cruciate C. lateral collateral D. medial collateral
A. anterior cruciate
All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT: A. body exhaust suit B. electric stimulator C. CPM machine D. TNS unit
A. body exhaust suit
A common system for instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS comma which stands for: A. dynamic hip screw B. definitive hip support C. derotational hip stabilizer D. dislocated hip surgery
A. dynamic hip screw
Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed? A. manufacturer B. facility policies C. AAMI D. OSHA
A. manufacturer
Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral: A. nails B. plates C. screws D. rods
A. nails
Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow? A. overproduction of immunoglobulins B. human leukocyte antigen C. serum urate D. serum phosphorus
A. overproduction of immunoglobulins
Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT: A. quadricompartmental B. unicompartmental C. tricompartmental D. bicompartmental
A. quadricompartmental
What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint? A. trochanter B. acetabulum C. tuberosity D. acromium
Acetabulum
Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body
Achilles
Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon? A. Bennett retractor B. Lowman bone holder C. beaver knife handle D. Lambotte osteotome
B. Lowman bone holder
In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support? A. inflammation B. callus formation C. cellular proliferation D. remodeling
B. callus formation
Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes? A. alligator B. cobra C. rat tooth D. duck bill
B. cobra
In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone? A. irregular only B. flat and irregular C. long and short D. sesamoid only
B. flat and irregular
Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm? A. Andrews table B. fracture table C. Wilson frame D. vacuum beanbag
B. fracture table
Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion? A. coracoclavicular B. glenohumeral C. sternoclavicular D. acromioclavicular
B. glenohumeral
The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis? A. saddle B. gliding C. hinge D. pivot
B. gliding
Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the: A. foot B. great toe C. wrist D. hip
B. great toe
Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are: A. congenital deformities B. malignant neoplasms C. structural osteocyte components D. benign neoplasms
D. benign neoplasms
What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove? A. fascia B. periosteum C. marrow D. cartilage
D. cartilage
What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture? A. arthroscopy B. open reduction internal fixation C. carpal tunnel release D. external fixation
D. external fixation
Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization? A. heredity B. exercise C. nutrition D. hormonal
D. hormonal
Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis? A. nitrous oxide B. carbon dioxide C. normal saline D. lactated Ringer's
D. lactated Ringer's
Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low? A. human growth B. follicle stimulating C. estrogen D. parathyroid
D. parathyroid
Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are: A. indications for Bankart repair B. normal outcomes of total shoulder repair C. treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy D. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty
D. serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty
What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion? A. exostosis B. arthrosis C. varum D. osteoclast
Exostosis
What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?
Exsanguinations
Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed. TRUE FALSE
FALSE
Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices? A. CDC B. EPA C. AAMI D. FDA
FDA
There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated. TRUE FALSE
False
All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT: A. moderate impingement syndrome B. chronic arthritis pain C. humeral shaft fracture D. osteonecrosis of humeral head
Moderate impingement syndrome
Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection? A. external fixator application for Colles' fracture B. percutaneous pinning of simple fracture C. closed with cast application for greenstick fracture D. open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
Open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later? A. osteomyelitis B. osteoclasts C. osteophytes D. osteoarthritis
Osteomyelitis
What type of bone is the patella?
Sesamoid
All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT: A. bioabsorbable screws B.staples C.Steinman pins D. bone screws with spiked washers
Steinman pins
Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline A. flexion B. supination C. abduction D. adduction
abduction
Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo: A. open reduction, internal fixation B. external fixation C. acromioplasty D. total shoulder arthroplasty
acromioplasty
Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture? A. transverse ( ~ ) B. back slash ( / ) C. asterisk ( * ) D. spiral ( S )
asterisk (*)
Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of: A. radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies B. insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation C. connections for hip movement D. autografts for ACL repair
autografts for ACL repair
Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures? A. spinal needle B. blunt probe C. powered shaver D. trocar cannula
blunt probe
What is polymethyl methycrylate?
bone cement
Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure? A. triple arthrodesis B. bunionectomy C. below knee amputation (BKA) D. above knee amputation (AKA)
bunionectomy
Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT? A.both upper and lower extremity = 1 hour B. lower extremity = 1 hour; upper extremity = 1 1/2 hours C. both upper and lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours D. lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour
lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour
What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection? A. enosteum B. articular cartilage C. synovial membrane D. periosteum
periosteum
Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope? A. powered shaver B. camera head C. inflow and outflow tubing D. light cord
powered shaver
In which anatomical structure is the patella contained A. patellar tendon B. quadriceps tendon C. posterior cruciate ligament D. anterior cruciate ligament
quadriceps tendon
Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture? A. radius B. humerus C. scapula D. ulna
radius
Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty? A. pulse lavage, reamer, implant trial, rasp B. implant trial, rasp, reamer, pulse lavage C. rasp, implant trial, pulse lavage, reamer D. reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial
reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial
Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body? A. arthralgia B. rheumatoid arthritis C. osteoarthritis D. derangement
rheumatoid arthritis
Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone? A. short B. long C. flat D. irregular
short
Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI? A. impervious apron under gown B. space suit or body exhaust suits C. high-efficiency particulate air masks D. additional sterile sleeves
space suit or body exhaust suits