Chapter 31: Care of Patients with Dysrhythmias

A client is admitted with a myocardial infarction and new-onset atrial fibrillation. While auscultating the heart, the nurse notes an irregular heart rate and hears an extra heart sound at the apex after the S2 that remains constant throughout the respiratory cycle. The nurse should document these findings as: 1. Heart rate irregular with S3. 2. Heart rate irregular with S4. 3. Heart rate irregular with aortic regurgitation. 4. Heart rate irregular with mitral stenosis.

1. An S3 heart sound occurs early in diastole as the mitral and tricuspid valves open and blood rushes into the ventricles. To distinguish an S3 from a physiologic S2 split, a split S2 occurs during inspiration and S3 remains constant during the respiratory cycle. Its pitch is softer and best heard with the bell at the apex and it is one of the fi rst clinical findings in left ventricular failure. An S4 is heard in late diastole when atrial contraction pumps volume into a stiff, noncompliant ventricle. An S4 is not heard in a client with atrial fi brillation because there is no atrial contraction. Murmurs are sounds created by turbulent blood flow through an incompetent or stenotic valve

A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Midsternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave

ANS: A Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the client's myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain. Increased urinary output and mild orthostatic hypotension are not life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require immediate intervention. The P wave touching the T wave indicates significant tachycardia and would be assessed to determine the underlying rhythm and cause; this is an important assessment but is not as critical as chest pain, which indicates cardiac cell death.

A client admitted to a telemetry unit with a new diagnosis of atrial fibrillation (AF) tells the nurse, "I feel fine, there's nothing wrong with me." Which nursing response is appropriate? A."AF can cause clots to form from irregular blood flow in the heart." B."AF is a condition we must admit no matter what." C."AF leads to death of the heart muscle." D."AF can cause cardiac output to increase."

ANS: A Many times, clients are found to have atrial fibrillation and they may be asymptomatic. While some clients do live with long-term atrial fibrillation, they need to be anticoagulated to decrease the risk of embolus formation due to the irregular cardiac rhythm. AF does not cause death of the heart muscle, nor does it cause the cardiac output to increase. Cardiac output will decrease due to the shortened filling time in the atria, which contributes to the development of heart failure due to altered conduction. Clients with AF are not automatically admitted.

A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Minimize or abstain from caffeine." b. "Lie on your side until the attack subsides." c. "Use your oxygen when you experience PACs." d. "Take amiodarone daily to prevent PACs."

ANS: A PACs usually have no hemodynamic consequences. For a client experiencing infrequent PACs, the nurse would explore possible lifestyle causes, such as excessive caffeine intake and stress. Lying on the side will not prevent or resolve PACs. Oxygen is not necessary. Although medications may be needed to control symptomatic dysrhythmias, for infrequent PACs, the client first would try lifestyle changes to control them.

A nurse is teaching a client who has premature ectopic beats. Which education would the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management c. Avoiding vagal stimulation d. Adverse effects of medications e. Foods high in potassium f. Types of aerobic exercise

ANS: A, B, D A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms would be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances. While exercise is beneficial, aerobic exercise is not specifically linked to this client's educational needs.

A nurse cares for a client with congestive heart failure who has a regular cardiac rhythm of 128 beats/min. For which physiologic alterations would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease in cardiac output b. Increase in cardiac output c. Decrease in blood pressure d. Increase in blood pressure e. Decrease in urine output f. Increase in urine output

ANS: A, C, E Elevated heart rates in a healthy client initially cause blood pressure and cardiac output to increase. However, in a client who has congestive heart failure or a client with long-term tachycardia, ventricular filling time, cardiac output, and blood pressure eventually decrease. As cardiac output and blood pressure decrease, urine output will fall.

A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication would the nurse expect to find on this client's medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition? a. Sotalol b. Warfarin c. Atropine d. Lidocaine

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation puts clients at risk for developing emboli. Clients at risk for emboli are treated with anticoagulants, such as heparin, enoxaparin, or warfarin. Sotalol, atropine, and lidocaine are not appropriate for preventing this complication.

A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification would the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. "Make certain that your bath water is warm." b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement." c. "Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day." d. "Avoid strenuous exercise such as running."

ANS: B Bearing down strenuously during a bowel movement is one type of Valsalva maneuver, which stimulates the vagus nerve and results in slowing of the heart rate. Such a response is not desirable in a person who has bradycardia. The other instructions are not appropriate for this condition.

A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation would alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity

ANS: B Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance.

A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. What action would the nurse take prior to the cardioversion? a. Administer intravenous adenosine. b. Turn off oxygen therapy. c. Ensure that a tongue blade is available. d. Position the client on the left side.

ANS: B For safety during cardioversion, the nurse would turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire. The other interventions are not appropriate for a cardioversion. The client would be placed in a supine position.

A nurse cares for a client with an intravenous temporary pacemaker for bradycardia. The nurse observes the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS complex on the client's electrocardiogram. What action would the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous diltiazem. b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. d. Assess capillary refill and temperature.

ANS: B In temporary pacing, the wires are threaded onto the epicardial surface of the heart and exit through the chest wall. The pacemaker spike would be followed immediately by a QRS complex. Pacing spikes seen without subsequent QRS complexes imply loss of capture. If there is no capture, then there is no ventricular depolarization and contraction. The nurse would assess for cardiac output via vital signs and level of consciousness. The other interventions would not determine if the client is tolerating the loss of capture.

The nurse is caring for a client on the medical-surgical unit who suddenly becomes unresponsive and has no pulse. The cardiac monitor shows the rhythm below: After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, what action would the nurse take next? a. Perform a pericardial thump. b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Start an 18-gauge intravenous line. d. Ask the client's family about code status.

ANS: B The client's rhythm is ventricular fibrillation. This is a lethal rhythm that is best treated with immediate defibrillation. While the nurse is waiting for the defibrillator to arrive, the nurse would start CPR. A pericardial thump is not a treatment for ventricular fibrillation. If the client does not already have an IV, other members of the team can insert one after defibrillation. The client's code status would already be known by the nurse prior to this event.

A nurse administers prescribed adenosine to a client. Which response would the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis

ANS: C Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia with long pauses, nausea, or vomiting. Adenosine has no impact on intraocular pressure nor does it pause increased heart rate or hypertensive crisis.

A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What intervention would the nurse implement to address this client's concerns? a. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 L per nasal cannula. b. Provide the client with a sleeping pill to stimulate rest. c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. d. Ask assistive personnel (AP) to help bathe the client.

ANS: C Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse would schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue. The other interventions will not assist the client with performing self-care activities and there is no indication for oxygen.

The nurse asks a client who has experienced ventricular dysrhythmias about substance abuse. The client asks, "Why do you want to know if I use cocaine?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "Substance abuse puts clients at risk for many health issues." b. "The hospital requires that I ask you about cocaine use." c. "Clients who use cocaine are at risk for fatal dysrhythmias." d. "We can provide services for cessation of substance abuse."

ANS: C Clients who use cocaine or illicit inhalants are particularly at risk for potentially fatal dysrhythmias. The other responses do not adequately address the client's question.

A nurse performs an admission assessment on a 75-year-old client with multiple chronic diseases. The client's blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg and oxygen saturation is 94% on 2 L per nasal cannula. The nurse assesses the client's rhythm on the cardiac monitor and observes the reading shown below: What action would the nurse take first? a. Begin external temporary pacing. b. Assess peripheral pulse strength. c. Ask the client what medications he or she takes. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

ANS: C This client is stable and therefore does not require any intervention except to determine the cause of the bradycardia. Bradycardia is often caused by medications. Clients who have multiple chronic diseases are often on multiple medications that can interact with each other. The nurse would assess the client's current medications first. Pacing is not necessary. Peripheral pulses are assessed with a full assessment since this client is stable. Atropine is not needed.

A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How would the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The client's chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

ANS: D Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization. This finding on an electrocardiograph tracing is not an indication of hyperkalemia, ventricular tachycardia, or disconnection of leads.

While suctioning a client with a tracheostomy, the client becomes diaphoretic and nauseous and the heart rate decreases to 37 beats/min. What is the priority nursing action? A. Continue to clear the airway. B. Stop suctioning the patient. C. Administer atropine. D. Call the health care provider immediately.

B

The primary health care provider prescribes warfarin for a client with atrial fibrillation. Which client statement indicates that additional education is needed? A. "I need to go to the clinic once a week to have my blood level checked." B. "If my stools turn black, I will be sure to call my primary health care provider." C. "I'm glad I don't need to change my diet. Salads are my favorite food." D. "I need to stop taking my herbal supplement."

C

A client in the telemetry unit is on a cardiac monitor. The monitor technician alerts the nurse that there are no ECG complexes, and the alarm is sounding. What is the first action by the nurse? A. Suspend the alarm. B. Call the emergency response team. C. Press the record button to get an ECG strip. D. Assess the client and check lead placement.

D

When working in a clinical setting, which dysrhythmia does the nurse identify as most common? A.Atrial fibrillation B.Sinus tachycardia C.Sinus bradycardia D.Ventricular fibrillation

ANS: A Rationale: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common dysrhythmia seen in clinical practice. It can impair quality of life and cause considerable morbidity and mortality, largely related to clotting concerns such as embolic stroke, deep venous thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE).

A nurse supervises an assistive personnel (AP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement would the nurse provide to the AP related to this procedure? a. "Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed." b. "Add gel to the electrodes prior to applying them." c. "Place the electrodes on the posterior chest." d. "Turn off oxygen prior to monitoring the client."

ANS: A To ensure the best signal transmission, the skin would be clean and hairs clipped. Electrodes would be placed on the anterior chest, and no additional gel is needed. Oxygen has no impact on electrocardiographic monitoring.

A nurse cares for a client who is on a cardiac monitor. The monitor displayed the rhythm shown below: What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation. b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip. c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator. d. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

ANS: A Ventricular tachycardia occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 beats/min or more. Ventricular tachycardia is a potentially lethal dysrhythmia. The nurse would first assess if the client is alert, breathing, and has a pulse. If this client is pulseless, then the nurse would call a Code Blue and begin CPR. The treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia is defibrillation. If the client has a pulse, then cardioversion would be indicated. Amiodarone is an appropriate antidysrhythmic, but it is not the first action.

A nurse teaches a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which instructions would the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers." b. "Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings." c. "If you feel weak, apply pressure over your generator." d. "Have your pacemaker turned off before having magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)." e. "Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks."

ANS: A, B, E The client would not submerge in water until the site has healed; after the incision is healed, the client may take showers or baths without concern for the pacemaker. The client would be instructed to report changes in heart rate or rhythm, such as rates lower than the pacemaker setting or greater than 100 beats/min. The client would be advised of restrictions on physical activity for 8 weeks to allow the pacemaker to settle in place. The client would never apply pressure over the generator and would avoid tight clothing. The client would never have MRI because, whether turned on or off, the pacemaker contains metal. The client would be advised to inform all health care providers that he or she has a pacemaker.

A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily. b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery. c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy. d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease. Other risk factors include hypertension (HTN), previous ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA) or other thromboembolic event, diabetes mellitus, heart failure, obesity, hyperthyroidism, chronic kidney disease, excessive alcohol use, and mitral valve disease. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation.

After teaching a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I would wear a snug-fitting shirt over the ICD." b. "I will avoid sources of strong electromagnetic fields." c. "I would participate in a strenuous exercise program." d. "Now I can discontinue my antidysrhythmic medication."

ANS: B The client being discharged with an ICD is instructed to avoid strong sources of electromagnetic fields, such as devices emitting microwaves (not microwave ovens); transformers; radio, television, and radar transmitters; large electrical generators; metal detectors, including handheld security devices at airports; antitheft devices; arc welding equipment; and sources of 60-cycle (Hz) interference. Also avoid leaning directly over the alternator of a running motor of a car or boat. Clients would avoid tight clothing, which could cause irritation over the ICD generator. The client would be encouraged to exercise but would not engage in strenuous activities that cause the heart rate to meet or exceed the ICD cutoff point because the ICD can discharge inappropriately. The client would continue all prescribed medications.

A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse to perform prior to defibrillating this client? a. Make sure that the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 J. d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed.

ANS: D To avoid injury, the rescuer commands that all personnel clear contact with the client or the bed and ensures their compliance before delivery of the shock. Defibrillation is done in asynchronous mode. Equipment would not be tested before a client is defibrillated because this is an emergency procedure; equipment would be checked on a routine basis. Defibrillation takes priority over any medications.

A nurse on a cardiac unit is caring for a client who is on telemetry. The nurse recognizes the client's heart rate is 46/min and notifies the provider. Which of the following prescriptions might be appropriate for this client? A. Defibrillation B. Pacemaker insertion C. Synchronized cardioversion D. Administration of IV lidocaine

A. Defibrillation is used when a client has ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. B. CORRECT: A client who has bradycardia is a candidate for a pacemaker to increase his heart rate. C. Synchronized cardioversion is used when a client has a dysrhythmia such as atrial fibrillation, supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), or ventricular tachycardia with pulse. D. The administration of IV lidocaine is used in clients who have a pulseless ventricular dysrhythmia to stimulate cardiac electrical function.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client with a cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information would be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge? a. Medication orders for home b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences

ANS: A The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information might be used to plan care, but not as the priority.

A telemetry nurse assesses a client who has a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment would the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability

ANS: C A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse would assess for level of consciousness, dizziness, confusion, syncope, chest pain, shortness of breath. Although the other assessments would be completed, the nurse would assess the client's neurologic status next.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with an anterior myocardial infarction 2 days ago. Upon assessment, the nurse identifies a new systolic murmur at the apex. The nurse should first: 1. Assess for changes in vital signs. 2. Draw an arterial blood gas. 3. Evaluate heart sounds with the client leaning forward. 4. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram.

1. Infarction of the papillary muscles is a potential complication of an MI causing ineffective closure of the mitral valve during systole. Mitral regurgitation results when the left ventricle contracts and blood flows backward into the left atrium, which is heard at the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line. The murmur worsens during expiration and in the supine or left-side position. Vital sign changes will reflect the severity of the sudden drop in cardiac output: decrease in blood pressure, increase in heart rate, and increase in respirations. A 12-lead ECG views the electrical activity of the heart; an echocardiogram views valve function.

While caring for a client who has sustained a myocardial infarction (MI), the nurse notes eight premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) in 1 minute on the cardiac monitor. The client is receiving an I.V. infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) and oxygen at 2 L/minute. The nurse's first course of action should be to: 1. Increase the I.V. infusion rate. 2. Notify the physician promptly. 3. Increase the oxygen concentration. 4. Administer a prescribed analgesic.

2. PVCs are often a precursor of life-threatening arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fi brillation. An occasional PVC is not considered dangerous, but if PVCs occur at a rate greater than fi ve or six per minute in the post-MI client, the physician should be notifi ed immediately. More than six PVCs per minute is considered serious and usually calls for decreasing ventricular irritability by administering medications such as lidocaine hydrochloride. Increasing the I.V. infusion rate would not decrease the number of PVCs. Increasing the oxygen concentration should not be the nurse's fi rst course of action; rather, the nurse should notify the physician promptly. Administering a prescribed analgesic would not decrease ventricular irritability.

The nurse is assessing a client who has had a myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse notes the cardiac rhythm shown on the electrocardiogram strip below. The nurse identifies this rhythm as which of the following? 1. Atrial fibrillation. 2. Ventricular tachycardia. 3. Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). 4. Third-degree heart block.

3. PVCs are characterized by a QRS of longer than 0.10 seconds and by a wide, notched, or slurred QRS complex. There is no P wave related to the QRS complex, and the T wave is usually inverted.

A client has chest pain rated at 8 on a 10 point visual analog scale. The 12-lead electrocardiogram reveals ST elevation in the inferior leads and Troponin levels are elevated. What is the highest priority for nursing management of this client at this time? 1. Monitor daily weights and urine output. 2. Permit unrestricted visitation by family and friends. 3. Provide client education on medications and diet. 4. Reduce pain and myocardial oxygen demand.

4. Nursing management for a client with a myocardial infarction should focus on pain management and decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. Fluid status should be closely monitored. Client education should begin once the client is stable and amenable to teaching. Visitation should be based on client comfort and maintaining a calm environment.

The nurse is assessing a client who has had a myocardial infarction. The nurse notes the cardiac rhythm shown on the electrocardiogram strip below. The nurse identifies this rhythm as which of the following? 1. Atrial fibrillation. 2. Ventricular tachycardia. 3. Premature ventricular contractions. 4. Sinus tachycardia.

4. Sinus tachycardia is characterized by normal conduction and a regular rhythm, but with a rate exceeding 100 bpm. A P wave precedes each QRS, and the QRS is usually normal.

A nurse on a cardiac unit is caring for a group of dients. The nurse should recognize which of the following clients as being at risk for the development of a dysrhythmia? (Select all that apply.) A. A client who has metabolic alkalosis B. A client who has a blood potassium level of 4.3 mEg/L C. A client who has an Sa02 of 96% D. A client who has COPD E. A client who underwent stent placement in a coronary artery

A. CORRECT: A client who has an acid-base imbalance such as metabolic alkalosis is at risk for a dysrhythmia. B. A blood potassium of 4.3 mEg/L is within the expected reference range and does not increase the risk of a dysrhythmia. C. SaOz of 96% is within the expected reference range and does not increase the risk of a dysrhythmia. D. CORRECT: A client who has lung disease, such as COPD, is at risk for a dysthythmia. E. CORRECT: A client who has cardiac disease and underwent a stent placement is at risk for a dysrhythmia.

A nurse is caring for a client who experienced defibrillation. Which of the following should be included in the documentation of this procedure? (Select all that apply.) A. Follow-up ECG B. Energy settings used C. IV fluid intake D. Urinary output E. Skin condition under electrodes

A. CORRECT: The client's ECG rhythm is documented following the procedure. B. CORRECT: Energy settings used during the procedure are documented. C. IV fluid intake is not documented during defibrillation. D. Urinary output is not documented during defibrillation. E. CORRECT: The condition of the client's skin where electrodes were placed is documented.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is to undergo a scheduled electrical cardioversion. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider? (Review the data below for additional client information.) MAR Ferrous sulfate 200 mg PO 0800 and 2000 Diazepam 2 mg PO 0800 and 2000 Isosorbide 2.5 mg PO 4 times a day AC and HS VITAL SIGNS 0800 Т99° F (37.2° C) Blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg Heart rate 88/min and irregular Respirations 20/min HISTORY AND PHYSICAL Bariatric surgery 10 years ago Dyspnea with exertion for 3 years Atrial fibrillation began 3 years ago Client reports taking the following medications for the past 6 weeks: iron supplement, multivitamin, antilipemic, and nitroglycerin A. Respiratory history B. Vital signs C. Medication history D. Medications to be administered

A. Client who have a dysrhythmia often have a history of lung disease, which can make them candidates for cardioversion. B. Client who have a dysrhythmia might have an irregular pulse, which can make them candidates for cardioversion. C. CORRECT: Because the client has a history of atrial fibrillation, it is recommended the client take anticoagulant therapy for 4 to 6 weeks prior to cardioversion to prevent clot dislodgement. The nurse should contact the provider regarding this safety concern. D. Client who have a dysrhythmia often have a history of cardiac disease and angina, which can make them candidates for cardioversion.

A newly licensed nurse is observing a cardioversion procedure and hears the team leader call out, "Stand clear." This statement indicates which of the following events is occurring? A. The cardioverter is being charged to the appropriate setting. B. The team should initiate CPR due to pulseless electrical activity. C. Team members cannot be in contact with equipment connected to the client. D. A time-out is being called to verify correct protocols.

A. The cardioverter is charged prior to the delivery of the shock during cardioversion. B. The team leader calls out "Initiate CPR" when members of the team are to begin CPR. C. CORRECT: A safety concern for personnel performing cardioversion is to "stand clear" of the client and equipment connected to the client when a shock is delivered to prevent them from also receiving a shock. D. A "time-out is called by personnel during a procedure to verify that proper protocols are being followed.

The nurse is caring for a client with episodes of spontaneous sustained ventricular tachycardia (VT) who is to have an implantable cardioverter/defibrillator placed. What is the priority nursing action? A.Assess client for ability to cope with discomfort and fear B.Provide teaching regarding electromagnetic interference C.Prepare client for transport to electrophysiology laboratory D.Monitor for dysrhythmias, bleeding, and cardiac tamponade

ANS: A Before the procedure is undertaken, the client must be assessed via a psychological profile for the ability to cope with discomfort and fear associated with internal defibrillation ICD. Once that is accomplished, other actions listed can be taken.

After assessing a client who is receiving an amiodarone intravenous infusion for unstable ventricular tachycardia, the nurse documents the findings and compares these with the previous assessment findings: Vital Signs Time: 08:00 Temperature: 98° F (36.7° C) Heart rate: 68 beats/min Blood pressure: 135/60 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 96% Oxygen therapy: 2L nasal cannula Time: 10:00 Temperature: 98.2° F (36.8° C) Heart rate: 50 beats/min Blood pressure: 132/57 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 16 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 95% Oxygen therapy: 2 L nasal cannula Nursing Assessment Time: 08:00 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: normal sinus rhythm. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Time: 10:00 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: sinus bradycardia. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Client voids 420 mL of clear yellow urine. Based on the assessments, what action would the nurse take? a. Stop the infusion and flush the IV. b. Slow the amiodarone infusion rate. c. Adminis

ANS: B Amiodarone lengthens the absolute refractory period and prolongs repolarization and the action potential duration (and heart rate), so IV administration of amiodarone may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) block. The correct action for the nurse to take at this time is to slow the infusion, because the client is asymptomatic and no evidence reveals AV block that might require pacing. Abruptly ceasing th medication could allow fatal dysrhythmias to occur. The administration of IV fluids and encouragement of coughing and deep-breathing exercises are not indicated, and will not increase the client's heart rate.

A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiogram (ECG) and observes the reading shown below: How would the nurse document this client's ECG strip? a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs) d. Sinus rhythm with premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

ANS: D Sinus rhythm with PVCs has an underlying regular sinus rhythm with ventricular depolarization that sometimes precede atrial depolarization. The PVC would exhibit as a widened QRS without a preceding p wave. Ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation rhythms would not have sinus beats present. Premature atrial contractions are atrial contractions initiated from another region of the atria before the sinus node initiates atrial depolarization.