Chapter 36: Inflammatory and Structural Heart Disorders ?'s

When caring for a patient with mitral valve stenosis, it is most important that the nurse assess for a. diastolic murmur. b. peripheral edema. c. shortness of breath on exertion. d. right upper quadrant tenderness.

ANS: C The pressure gradient changes in mitral stenosis lead to fluid backup into the lungs, resulting in hypoxemia and dyspnea. The other findings also may be associated with mitral valve disease but are not indicators of possible hypoxemia, which is a priority. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

A 72-year-old man with a history of aortic stenosis is admitted to the emergency department. He reports severe left-sided chest pressure radiating to the jaw. Which medication, if ordered by the health care provider, should the nurse question? A. Aspirin B. Oxygen C. Nitroglycerin D. Morphine sulfate

C. Nitroglycerin (Nitroglycerin Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine sulfate are all commonly used to treat acute chest pain suspected to be caused by myocardial ischemia. However, nitroglycerin should be used cautiously or avoided in patients with aortic stenosis as a significant reduction in blood pressure may occur. Chest pain can worsen because of a drop in blood pressure.)

The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which observation would indicate that the procedure was effective? 1. Muffled heart sounds 2. A rise in blood pressure 3. Jugular venous distention 4. Client expressions of dyspnea

2. A rise in blood pressure

.A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pericarditis. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestation that differentiates pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary problems? 1. Anterior chest pain 2. Pericardial friction rub 3. Weakness and irritability 4. Chest pain that worsens on inspiration

2. Pericardial friction rub

The nurse is monitoring a client with acute pericarditis for signs of cardiac tamponade. Which assessment finding indicates the presence of this complication? 1. Flat neck veins 2. A pulse rate of 60 beats/minute 3. Muffled or distant heart sounds 4. Wheezing on auscultation of the lungs

3. Muffled or distant heart sounds

A client is being discharged from the hospital after being treated for infective endocarditis. The nurse should provide the client with which discharge instruction? 1. Take acetaminophen if the chest pain worsens. 2. Take antibiotics until the chest pain is fully resolved. 3. Use a firm-bristle toothbrush and floss vigorously to prevent cavities. 4. Notify all health care providers (HCPs) of the history of infective endocarditis before any invasive procedures.

4 Notify all health care providers (HCPs) of the history of infective endocarditis before any invasive procedures.

Which admission order written by the health care provider for a patient admitted with infective endocarditis (IE) and a fever would be a priority for the nurse to implement? a. Administer ceftriaxone 1 g IV. b. Order blood cultures drawn from two sites. c. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) PRN for fever. d. Arrange for a transesophageal echocardiogram.

ANS: B Treatment of the IE with antibiotics should be started as quickly as possible, but it is essential to obtain blood cultures before starting antibiotic therapy to obtain accurate sensitivity results. The echocardiogram and acetaminophen administration also should be implemented rapidly, but the blood cultures (and then administration of the antibiotic) have the highest priority. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

A 21-yr-old woman is scheduled for percutaneous transluminal balloon valvuloplasty to treat mitral stenosis. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the advantages of valvuloplasty over valve replacement to the patient? a. Biologic valves will require immunosuppressive drugs after surgery. b. Mechanical mitral valves need to be replaced sooner than biologic valves. c. Lifelong anticoagulant therapy is needed after mechanical valve replacement. d. Ongoing cardiac care by a health care provider is not necessary after valvuloplasty.

ANS: C Long-term anticoagulation therapy is needed after mechanical valve replacement, and this would restrict decisions about career and childbearing in this patient. Mechanical valves are durable and last longer than biologic valves. All valve repair procedures are palliative, not curative, and require lifelong health care. Biologic valves do not activate the immune system and immunosuppressive therapy is not needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The home health nurse is visiting a 30-yr-old patient recovering from rheumatic fever without carditis. The nurse establishes the nursing diagnosis of ineffective health maintenance related to lack of knowledge regarding long-term management of rheumatic fever when the patient makes which statement? a. "I will need prophylactic antibiotic therapy for 5 years." b. "I can take aspirin or ibuprofen (Motrin) to relieve my joint pain." c. "I will be immune to future episodes of rheumatic fever after this infection." d. "I should call the health care provider if I am fatigued or have difficulty breathing."

ANS: C Patients with a history of rheumatic fever are more susceptible to a second episode. Patients with rheumatic fever without carditis require prophylaxis until age 20 years and for a minimum of 5 years. The other patient statements are correct and would not support the nursing diagnosis of ineffective health maintenance. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The home health nurse is visiting a client who has had a mechanical valve replacement for severe mitral valve stenosis. Which statement by the client reflects an understanding of specific postoperative care after this surgery? 1. "I need to count my pulse every day." 2. "I have to do deep-breathing exercises every 2 hours." 3. "I need to throw away my straight razor and buy an electric razor." 4. "I have to go to the bathroom frequently because of my medication."

3 "I need to throw away my straight razor and buy an electric razor."

The registered nurse (RN) is educating a new nurse about aortic regurgitation. Which statement by the new nurse indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "Failure of the aortic valve to close completely allows blood to flow retrograde through the aorta to the left ventricle." 2. "Failure of the aortic valve to close completely allows blood to flow retrograde through the left ventricle to the left atrium." 3. "Failure of the aortic valve to close completely allows blood to flow retrograde through the right ventricle to the right atrium." 4. "Failure of the aortic valve to close completely allows blood to flow retrograde through the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle."

1 Rationale: The aortic valve separates the aorta from the left ventricle.

The registered nurse (RN) is educating a new nurse on mitral stenosis. Which statement by the new nurse indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "Left ventricle to aorta narrowing will impede flow of blood." 2."Left atrium to left ventricle narrowing will impede flow of blood." 3."Right atrium to right ventricle narrowing will impede flow of blood." 4."Right ventricle to pulmonary artery narrowing will impede flow of blood."

2 Rationale: The mitral valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle.

108.A client with no history of cardiovascular disease comes to the ambulatory clinic with flulike symptoms. The client suddenly complains of chest pain. Which question should best help the nurse discriminate pain caused by a noncardiac problem? 1. "Can you describe the pain to me?" 2. "Have you ever had this pain before?" 3. "Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?" 4. "Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?"

3. "Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?"

A community health nurse is presenting an educational event and is addressing several health problems, including rheumatic heart disease. What should the nurse describe as the most effective way to prevent rheumatic heart disease? A) Recognizing and promptly treating streptococcal infections B) Prophylactic use of calcium channel blockers in high-risk populations C) Adhering closely to the recommended child immunization schedule D) Smoking cessation

A Group A streptococcus can cause rheumatic heart fever, resulting in rheumatic endocarditis. Being aware of signs and symptoms of streptococcal infections, identifying them quickly, and treating them promptly, are the best preventative techniques for rheumatic endocarditis. Smoking cessation, immunizations, and calcium channel blockers will not prevent rheumatic heart disease.

A patient with mitral valve prolapse is admitted for a scheduled bronchoscopy to investigate recent hemoptysis. The physician has ordered gentamicin to be taken before the procedure. What is the rationale for this? A) To prevent bacterial endocarditis B) To prevent hospital-acquired pneumonia C) To minimize the need for antibiotic use during the procedure D) To decrease the need for surgical asepsis

A Feedback: Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for high-risk patients immediately before and sometimes after the following invasive procedures, such as bronchoscopy. Gentamicin would not be given to prevent pneumonia, to avoid antibiotic use during the procedure, or to decrease the need for surgical asepsis.

An older adult patient has been diagnosed with aortic regurgitation. What change in blood flow should the nurse expect to see on this patients echocardiogram? A. Blood to flow back from the aorta to the left ventricle B. Obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle C. Blood to flow back from the left atrium to the left ventricle D. Obstruction of blood from the left atrium to left ventricle

A Feedback: Aortic regurgitation occurs when the aortic valve does not completely close, and blood flows back to the left ventricle from the aorta during diastole. Aortic regurgitation does not cause obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle, blood to flow back from the left atrium to the left ventricle, or obstruction of blood from the left atrium to left ventricle.

39. A cardiac surgery patients new onset of signs and symptoms is suggestive of cardiac tamponade. As a member of the interdisciplinary team, what is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Prepare to assist with pericardiocentesis. B) Reposition the patient into a prone position. C) Administer a dose of metoprolol. D) Administer a bolus of normal saline

A Feedback: Cardiac tamponade requires immediate pericardiocentesis. Beta-blockers and fluid boluses will not relieve the pressure on the heart and prone positioning would likely exacerbate symptoms.

The nurse on the hospitals infection control committee is looking into two cases of hospital-acquired infective endocarditis among a specific classification of patients. What classification of patients would be at greatest risk for hospital-acquired endocarditis? A) Hemodialysis patients B) Patients on immunoglobulins C) Patients who undergo intermittent urinary catheterization D) Children under the age of 12

A Feedback: Hospital-acquired infective endocarditis occurs most often in patients with debilitating disease or indwelling catheters and in patients who are receiving hemodialysis or prolonged IV fluid or antibiotic therapy. Patients taking immunosuppressive medications or corticosteroids are more susceptible to fungal endocarditis. Patients on immunoglobulins, those who need in and out catheterization, and children are not at increased risk for nosocomial infective endocarditis.

A patient has been diagnosed with a valvular disorder. The patient tells the nurse that he has read about numerous treatment options, including valvuloplasty. What should the nurse teach the patient about valvuloplasty? A) For some patients, valvuloplasty can be done in a cardiac catheterization laboratory. B) Valvuloplasty is a dangerous procedure, but it has excellent potential if it goes well. C) Valvuloplasty is open heart surgery, but this is very safe these days and normally requires only an overnight hospital stay. D) Its prudent to get a second opinion before deciding to have valvuloplasty.

A Feedback: Some valvuloplasty procedures do not require general anesthesia or cardiopulmonary bypass and can be performed in a cardiac catheterization laboratory or hybrid room. Open heart surgery is not required and the procedure does not carry exceptional risks that would designate it as being dangerous. Normally there is no need for the nurse to advocate for a second opinion.

The patient has just returned to the floor after balloon valvuloplasty of the aortic valve and the nurse is planning appropriate assessments. The nurse should know that complications following this procedure include what? Select all that apply. A) Emboli B) Mitral valve damage C) Ventricular dysrhythmia D) Atrial-septal defect E) Plaque formation

A, B, C Feedback: Possible complications include aortic regurgitation, emboli, ventricular perforation, rupture of the aortic valve annulus, ventricular dysrhythmia, mitral valve damage, and bleeding from the catheter insertion sites. Atrial-septal defect and plaque formation are not complications of a balloon valvuloplasty.

Most individuals who have mitral valve prolapse never have any symptoms, although this is not the case for every patient. What symptoms might a patient have with mitral valve prolapse? Select all that apply. A) Anxiety B) Fatigue C) Shoulder pain D) Tachypnea E) Palpitations

A, B, E Feedback: Most people who have mitral valve prolapse never have symptoms. A few have symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, dizziness, syncope, palpitations, chest pain, and anxiety. Hyperpnea and shoulder pain are not characteristic symptoms of mitral valve prolapse.

When caring for a patient with infective endocarditis, the nurse will assess the patient for which vascular manifestations (SATA)? A. Osler's nodes B. Janeway's lesions C. Splinter hemorrhages D. Subcutaneous nodules E. Erythema marginatum lesions

A. Osler's nodes B. Janeway's lesions C. Splinter hemorrhages (Osler's nodes, Janeway's lesions, and splinter hemorrhages are all vascular manifestations of infective endocarditis. Subcutaneous nodules and erythema marginatum lesions occur with rheumatic fever.)

The nurse is teaching a community group about preventing rheumatic fever. What information should the nurse include? A. Prompt recognition and treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis B. Completion of 4 to 6 days of antibiotic therapy for infective endocarditis of respiratory infections in children born with heart defects C. Avoidance of respiratory infections in children who have rheumatoid arthritis D. Requesting antibiotics before dental surgery for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis

A. Prompt recognition and treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis (The nurse should emphasize the need for prompt and adequate treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis infection, which can lead to the complication of rheumatic fever.)

While admitting a patient with pericarditis, the nurse will assess for what manifestations of this disorder? A. Pulsus paradoxus B. Prolonged PR intervals C. Widened pulse pressure D. Clubbing of the fingers

A. Pulsus paradoxus (Pericarditis can lead to cardiac tamponade, an emergency situation. Pulsus paradoxus greater than 10 mm Hg is a sign of cardiac tamponade that should be assessed at least every 4 hours in a patient with pericarditis. Prolonged PR intervals occur with first-degree AV block. Widened pulse pressure occurs with valvular heart disease. Clubbing of fingers may occur in subacute forms of infective endocarditis and valvular heart disease.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with aortic stenosis. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse would be most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of chest pressure when ambulating. b. A loud systolic murmur is heard along the right sternal border. c. A thrill is palpated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border. d. The point of maximum impulse (PMI) is at the left midclavicular line.

ANS: A Chest pressure (or pain) occurring with aortic stenosis is caused by cardiac ischemia, and reporting this information would be a priority. A systolic murmur and thrill are expected in a patient with aortic stenosis. A PMI at the left midclavicular line is normal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

While caring for a patient with aortic stenosis, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to decreased coronary blood flow. An appropriate nursing intervention for this patient would be to a. promote rest to decrease myocardial oxygen demand. b. teach the patient about the need for anticoagulant therapy. c. teach the patient to use sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. d. raise the head of the bed 60 degrees to decrease venous return.

ANS: A Rest is recommended to balance myocardial oxygen supply and demand and to decrease chest pain. The patient with aortic stenosis requires higher preload to maintain cardiac output, so nitroglycerin and measures to decrease venous return are contraindicated. Anticoagulation is not recommended unless the patient has atrial fibrillation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

Two days after an acute myocardial infarction (MI), a patient complains of stabbing chest pain that increases with a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the heart sounds. b. Check the patient's temperature. c. Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Notify the patient's health care provider.

ANS: A The patient's clinical manifestations and history are consistent with pericarditis, and the first action by the nurse should be to listen for a pericardial friction rub. Checking the temperature and notifying the health care provider are also appropriate actions but would not be done before listening for a rub. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not very effective for pericarditis pain, and an analgesic would not be given before assessment of a new symptom. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

A patient with rheumatic fever has subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, and polyarthritis. The patient reports that discomfort in the joints prevents favorite activities such as taking a daily walk and working on sewing projects. Based on these findings, which nursing diagnosis statement would be appropriate? a. Activity intolerance related to arthralgia b. Anxiety related to permanent joint fixation c. Altered body image related to polyarthritis d. Social isolation related to pain and swelling

ANS: A The patient's joint pain will lead to difficulty with activity. Although acute joint pain will be a problem for this patient, joint inflammation is a temporary clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever and is not associated with permanent joint changes. This patient did not provide any data to support a diagnosis of social isolation, anxiety, or altered body image. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

When planning care for a patient hospitalized with a streptococcal infective endocarditis (IE), which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include? a. Arrange for placement of a long-term IV catheter. b. Monitor labs for levels of streptococcal antibodies. c. Teach the importance of completing all oral antibiotics. d. Encourage the patient to begin regular aerobic exercise.

ANS: A Treatment for IE involves 4 to 6 weeks of IV antibiotic therapy to eradicate the bacteria, which will require a long-term IV catheter such as a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line. Rest periods and limiting physical activity to a moderate level are recommended during the treatment for IE. Oral antibiotics are not effective in eradicating the infective bacteria that cause IE. Blood cultures, rather than antibody levels, are used to monitor the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A patient is admitted to the hospital with possible acute pericarditis. The nurse should plan to teach the patient about the purpose of a. blood cultures. b. echocardiography. c. cardiac catheterization. d. 24-hour Holter monitor.

ANS: B Echocardiograms are useful in detecting the presence of the pericardial effusions associated with pericarditis. Blood cultures are not indicated unless the patient has evidence of sepsis. Cardiac catheterization and 24-hour Holter monitor are not diagnostic procedures for pericarditis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse is caring for a 64-yr-old patient admitted with mitral valve regurgitation. Which information obtained by the nurse when assessing the patient should be communicated to the health care provider immediately? a. The patient has 4+ peripheral edema. b. The patient has diffuse bilateral crackles. c. The patient has a loud systolic murmur across the precordium. d. The patient has a palpable thrill felt over the left anterior chest.

ANS: B Crackles that are audible throughout the lungs indicate that the patient is experiencing severe left ventricular failure with pulmonary congestion and needs immediate interventions such as diuretics. A systolic murmur and palpable thrill would be expected in a patient with mitral regurgitation. Although 4+ peripheral edema indicates a need for a change in therapy, it does not need to be addressed urgently. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of decreased cardiac output related to valvular insufficiency for the patient with infective endocarditis (IE) based on which assessment finding(s)? a. Fever, chills, and diaphoresis b. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr c. Petechiae on the inside of the mouth and conjunctiva d. Increase in heart rate of 15 beats/minute with walking

ANS: B Decreased renal perfusion caused by inadequate cardiac output will lead to decreased urine output. Petechiae, fever, chills, and diaphoresis are symptoms of IE but are not caused by decreased cardiac output. An increase in pulse rate of 15 beats/min is normal with exercise. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

After receiving change-of-shift report on four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with rheumatic fever who has sharp chest pain with a deep breath b. Patient with acute aortic regurgitation whose blood pressure is 86/54 mm Hg c. Patient with infective endocarditis who has a murmur and splinter hemorrhages d. Patient with dilated cardiomyopathy who has bilateral crackles at the lung bases

ANS: B Hypotension in patients with acute aortic regurgitation may indicate cardiogenic shock. The nurse should immediately assess this patient for other findings such as dyspnea, chest pain or tachycardia. The findings in the other patients are typical of their diagnoses and do not indicate a need for urgent assessment and intervention. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse is assessing a patient with myocarditis before giving the scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Leukocytosis b. Irregular pulse c. Generalized myalgia d. Complaint of fatigue

ANS: B Myocarditis predisposes the heart to digoxin-associated dysrhythmias and toxicity. The other findings are common symptoms of myocarditis and there is no urgent need to report these. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

During the assessment of a young adult patient with infective endocarditis (IE), the nurse would expect to find a. substernal chest pressure. b. a new regurgitant murmur. c. a pruritic rash on the chest. d. involuntary muscle movement.

ANS: B New regurgitant murmurs occur in IE because vegetations on the valves prevent valve closure. Substernal chest discomfort, rashes, and involuntary muscle movement are clinical manifestations of other cardiac disorders such as angina and rheumatic fever. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)

To assess the patient with pericarditis for evidence of a pericardial friction rub, the nurse should a. listen for a rumbling, low-pitched, systolic murmur over the left anterior chest. b. auscultate with the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the lower left sternal border. c. ask the patient to cough during auscultation to distinguish the sound from a pleural friction rub. d. feel the precordial area with the palm of the hand to detect vibrations with cardiac contraction.

ANS: B Pericardial friction rubs are best heard with the diaphragm at the lower left sternal border. The nurse should ask the patient to hold his or her breath during auscultation to distinguish the sounds from a pleural friction rub. Friction rubs are not typically low pitched or rumbling and are not confined to systole. Rubs are not assessed by palpation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)

Which assessment finding in a patient who is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE) is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aching b. Sudden onset right flank pain c. Janeway's lesions on the palms d. Temperature 100.7°F (38.1°C)

ANS: B Sudden onset of flank pain indicates possible embolization to the kidney and may require diagnostic testing such as a renal arteriogram and interventions to improve renal perfusion. The other findings are typically found in IE but do not require any new interventions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse suspects cardiac tamponade in a patient who has acute pericarditis. To assess for the presence of pulsus paradoxus, the nurse should a. subtract the diastolic blood pressure from the systolic blood pressure. b. note when Korotkoff sounds are auscultated during both inspiration and expiration. c. check the electrocardiogram (ECG) for variations in rate during the respiratory cycle. d. listen for a pericardial friction rub that persists when the patient is instructed to stop breathing.

ANS: B Pulsus paradoxus exists when there is a gap of greater than 10 mm Hg between when Korotkoff sounds can be heard during only expiration and when they can be heard throughout the respiratory cycle. The other methods described would not be useful in determining the presence of pulsus paradoxus. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse is admitting a patient with possible rheumatic fever. Which question on the admission health history focuses on a pertinent risk factor for rheumatic fever? a. "Do you use any illegal IV drugs?" b. "Have you had a recent sore throat?" c. "Have you injured your chest in the last few weeks?" d. "Do you have a family history of congenital heart disease?"

ANS: B Rheumatic fever occurs as a result of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal infection. Although illicit IV drug use should be discussed with the patient before discharge, it is not a risk factor for rheumatic fever, and it would not be as pertinent when admitting the patient. Family history is not a risk factor for rheumatic fever. Chest injury would cause musculoskeletal chest pain rather than rheumatic fever. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

When developing a community health program to decrease the incidence of rheumatic fever, which action should the community health nurse include? a. Vaccinate high-risk groups in the community with streptococcal vaccine. b. Teach community members to seek treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis. c. Teach about the importance of monitoring temperature when sore throats occur. d. Teach about prophylactic antibiotics to those with a family history of rheumatic fever.

ANS: B The incidence of rheumatic fever is decreased by treatment of streptococcal infections with antibiotics. Family history is not a risk factor for rheumatic fever. There is no immunization that is effective in decreasing the incidence of rheumatic fever. Teaching about monitoring temperature will not decrease the incidence of rheumatic fever. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

After receiving information about four patients during change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with acute pericarditis who has a pericardial friction rub b. Patient who has just returned to the unit after balloon valvuloplasty c. Patient who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and a heart rate of 116 d. Patient with a mitral valve replacement who has an anticoagulant scheduled

ANS: B The patient who has just arrived after balloon valvuloplasty will need assessment for complications such as bleeding and hypotension. The information about the other patients is consistent with their diagnoses and does not indicate any complications or need for urgent assessment or intervention. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

During discharge teaching with an older patient who had a mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve, the nurse must instruct the patient on the a. use of daily aspirin for anticoagulation. b. correct method for taking the radial pulse. c. need for frequent laboratory blood testing. d. need to avoid any physical activity for 1 month.

ANS: C Anticoagulation with warfarin (Coumadin) is needed for a patient with mechanical valves to prevent clotting on the valve. This will require frequent international normalized ratio testing. Daily aspirin use will not be effective in reducing the risk for clots on the valve. Monitoring of the radial pulse is not necessary after valve replacement. Patients should resume activities of daily living as tolerated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

Which action by the nurse will determine if the therapies ordered for a patient with chronic constrictive pericarditis are most effective? a. Assess for the presence of a paradoxical pulse. b. Monitor for changes in the patient's sedimentation rate. c. Assess for the presence of jugular venous distention (JVD). d. Check the electrocardiogram (ECG) for ST segment changes.

ANS: C Because the most common finding on physical examination for a patient with chronic constrictive pericarditis is jugular venous distention, a decrease in JVD indicates improvement. Paradoxical pulse, ST segment ECG changes, and changes in sedimentation rates occur with acute pericarditis but are not expected in chronic constrictive pericarditis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse will plan discharge teaching about prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures for which patient? a. Patient admitted with a large acute myocardial infarction b. Patient being discharged after an exacerbation of heart failure c. Patient who had a mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve d. Patient being treated for rheumatic fever after a streptococcal infection

ANS: C Current American Heart Association guidelines recommend the use of prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures for patients with prosthetic valves to prevent infective endocarditis (IE). The other patients are not at risk for IE. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

When caring for a patient with infective endocarditis of the tricuspid valve, the nurse should monitor the patient for the development of a. flank pain. b. splenomegaly. c. shortness of breath. d. mental status changes.

ANS: C Embolization from the tricuspid valve would cause symptoms of pulmonary embolus. Flank pain, changes in mental status, and splenomegaly would be associated with embolization from the left-sided valves. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when assessing a patient with acute pericarditis should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. Pulsus paradoxus 8 mm Hg b. Blood pressure (BP) of 168/94 mm Hg c. Jugular venous distention (JVD) to jaw level d. Level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with a deep breath

ANS: C The JVD indicates that the patient may have developed cardiac tamponade and may need rapid intervention to maintain adequate cardiac output. Hypertension would not be associated with complications of pericarditis, and the BP is not high enough to indicate that there is any immediate need to call the health care provider. A pulsus paradoxus of 8 mm Hg is normal. Level 6/10 chest pain should be treated but is not unusual with pericarditis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

A patient recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis and complains of level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with deep breathing. Which prescribed PRN medication will be the most appropriate for the nurse to give? a. Fentanyl 1 mg IV c. b. IV morphine sulfate 4 mg Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg d. Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg

ANS: C The pain associated with pericarditis is caused by inflammation, so nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (e.g., ibuprofen) are most effective. Opioid analgesics and acetaminophen are not very effective for the pain associated with pericarditis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

While caring for a 23-yr-old patient with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) without valvular regurgitation, the nurse determines that discharge teaching has been effective when the patient states that it will be necessary to a. take antibiotics before any dental appointments. b. limit physical activity to avoid stressing the heart. c. avoid over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that contain stimulants. d. take an aspirin a day to prevent clots from forming on the valve.

ANS: C Use of stimulant drugs should be avoided by patients with MVP because they may exacerbate symptoms. Daily aspirin and restricted physical activity are not needed by patients with mild MVP. Antibiotic prophylaxis is needed for patients with MVP with regurgitation but will not be necessary for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse obtains a health history from an older patient with a prosthetic mitral valve who has symptoms of infective endocarditis (IE). Which question by the nurse is most focused on identifying a risk factor for IE? a. "Do you have a history of a heart attack?" b. "Is there a family history of endocarditis?" c. "Have you had any recent immunizations?" d. "Have you had dental work done recently?"

ANS: D Dental procedures place the patient with a prosthetic mitral valve at risk for IE. Myocardial infarction, immunizations, and a family history of endocarditis are not risk factors for IE. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse has identified a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to inflammatory process for a patient with acute pericarditis. An appropriate intervention by the nurse for this problem is to a. teach the patient to take deep, slow breaths to control the pain. b. force fluids to 3000 mL/day to decrease fever and inflammation. c. provide a fresh ice bag every hour for the patient to place on the chest. d. place the patient in Fowler's position, leaning forward on the overbed table.

ANS: D Sitting upright and leaning forward frequently will decrease the pain associated with pericarditis. Forcing fluids will not decrease the inflammation or pain. Taking deep breaths will tend to increase pericardial pain. Ice does not decrease this type of inflammation and pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse is caring for a patient with mitral regurgitation. Referring to the figure below, where should the nurse listen to best hear a murmur typical of mitral regurgitation? a. 1st sternal b. 2nd sternal c. 4th sternal d. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line.

ANS: D Sounds from the mitral valve are best heard at the apex of the heart, fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)

Which action could the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) trained as electrocardiogram (ECG) technicians working on the cardiac unit? a. Select the best lead for monitoring a patient with an admission diagnosis of Dressler syndrome. b. Obtain a list of herbal medications used at home while admitting a new patient with pericarditis. c. Teach about the need to monitor the weight daily for a patient who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. d. Watch the heart monitor for changes in rhythm while a patient who had a valve replacement ambulates.

ANS: D Under the supervision of registered nurses (RNs), UAPs check the patient's cardiac monitor and obtain information about changes in heart rate and rhythm with exercise. Teaching and obtaining information about home medications (prescribed or complementary) and selecting the best leads for monitoring patients require more critical thinking and should be done by the RN. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A patient has been admitted to the medical unit with signs and symptoms suggestive of endocarditis. The physicians choice of antibiotics would be primarily based on what diagnostic test? A) Echocardiography B) Blood cultures C) Cardiac aspiration D) Complete blood count

Ans: B Feedback: To help determine the causative organisms and the most effective antibiotic treatment for the patient, blood cultures are taken. A CBC can help establish the degree and stage of infection, but not the causative microorganism. Echocardiography cannot indicate the microorganisms causing the infection. Cardiac aspiration is not a diagnostic test.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pericarditis. What nursing management should be instituted to minimize complications? A) The nurse keeps the patient isolated to prevent nosocomial infections. B) The nurse encourages coughing and deep breathing. C) The nurse helps the patient with activities until the pain and fever subside. D) The nurse encourages increased fluid intake until the infection resolves.

Ans: C Feedback: To minimize complications, the nurse helps the patient with activity restrictions until the pain and fever subside. As the patients condition improves, the nurse encourages gradual increases of activity. Actions to minimize complications of acute pericarditis do not include keeping the patient isolated. Due to pain, coughing and deep breathing are not normally encouraged. An increase in fluid intake is not always necessary.

A patient with mitral valve stenosis is receiving health education at an outpatient clinic. To minimize the patients symptoms, the nurse should teach the patient to do which of the following? A) Eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. B) Avoid activities that cause an increased heart rate. C) Avoid large crowds and public events. D) Perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.

B Patients with mitral stenosis are advised to avoid strenuous activities, competitive sports, and pregnancy, all of which increase heart rate. Infection prevention is important, but avoiding crowds is not usually necessary. Deep breathing and coughing are not likely to prevent exacerbations of symptoms and increased protein intake is not necessary.

The nurse is auscultating the breath sounds of a patient with pericarditis. What finding is most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Wheezes B) Friction rub C) Fine crackles D) Coarse crackles

B Feedback: A pericardial friction rub is diagnostic of pericarditis. Crackles are associated with pulmonary edema and fluid accumulation, whereas wheezes signal airway constriction; neither of these occurs with pericarditis

The staff educator is presenting a workshop on valvular disorders. When discussing the pathophysiology of aortic regurgitation the educator points out the need to emphasize that aortic regurgitation causes what? A) Cardiac tamponade B) Left ventricular hypertrophy C) Right-sided heart failure D) Ventricular insufficiency

B Feedback: Aortic regurgitation eventually causes left ventricular hypertrophy. In aortic regurgitation, blood from the aorta returns to the left ventricle during diastole in addition to the blood normally delivered by the left atrium. The left ventricle dilates, trying to accommodate the increased volume of blood. Aortic regurgitation does not cause cardiac tamponade, right-sided heart failure, or ventricular insufficiency.

The nurse is caring for a patient with mitral stenosis who is scheduled for a balloon valvuloplasty. The patient tells the nurse that he is unsure why the surgeon did not opt to replace his damaged valve rather than repairing it. What is an advantage of valvuloplasty that the nurse should cite? A. The procedure can be performed on an outpatient basis in a physicians office. B. Repaired valves tend to function longer than replaced valves. C. The procedure is not associated with a risk for infection. D. Lower doses of antirejection drugs are required than with valve replacement.

B Feedback: In general, valves that undergo valvuloplasty function longer than prosthetic valve replacements and patients do not require continuous anticoagulation. Valvuloplasty carries a risk of infection, like all surgical procedures, and it is not performed in a physicians office. Antirejection drugs are unnecessary because foreign tissue is not introduced.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled to undergo mechanical valve replacement. Patient education should include which of the following? A) Use of patient-controlled analgesia B) Long-term anticoagulant therapy C) Steroid therapy D) Use of IV diuretics

B Feedback: Mechanical valves necessitate long-term use of required anticoagulants. Diuretics and steroids are not indicated and patient-controlled analgesia may or may be not be used in the immediate postoperative period.

A patient newly admitted to the telemetry unit is experiencing progressive fatigue, hemoptysis, and dyspnea. Diagnostic testing has revealed that these signs and symptoms are attributable to pulmonary venous hypertension. What valvular disorder should the nurse anticipate being diagnosed in this patient? A. Aortic regurgitation B. Mitral stenosis C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Aortic stenosis

B Feedback: The first symptom of mitral stenosis is often dyspnea on exertion as a result of pulmonary venous hypertension. Symptoms usually develop after the valve opening is reduced by one-third to one-half its usual size. Patients are likely to show progressive fatigue as a result of low cardiac output. The enlarged left atrium may create pressure on the left bronchial tree, resulting in a dry cough or wheezing. Patients may expectorate blood (i.e., hemoptysis) or experience palpitations, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), and repeated respiratory infections. Pulmonary venous hypertension is not typically caused by aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, or aortic stenosis.

A patient with pericarditis has just been admitted to the CCU. The nurse planning the patients care should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A. Anxiety related to pericarditis B. Acute pain related to pericarditis C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to pericarditis D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pericarditis

B Feedback: The most characteristic symptom of pericarditis is chest pain, although pain also may be located beneath the clavicle, in the neck, or in the left trapezius (scapula) region. The pain or discomfort usually remains fairly constant, but it may worsen with deep inspiration and when lying down or turning. Anxiety is highly plausible and should be addressed, but chest pain is a nearly certain accompaniment to the disease. Breathing and tissue perfusion are likely to be at risk, but pain is certain, especially in the early stages of treatment.

The patient had a history of rheumatic fever and has been diagnosed with mitral valve stenosis. The patient is planning to have a biologic valve replacement. What protective mechanisms should the nurse teach the patient about using after the valve replacement? A. Long-term anticoagulation therapy B. Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental care C. Exercise plan to increase cardiac tolerance D. Take β-adrenergic blockers to control palpitations.

B. Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental care (The patient will need to use antibiotic prophylaxis for dental care to prevent endocarditis. Long-term anticoagulation therapy is not used with biologic valve replacement unless the patient has atrial fibrillation. An exercise plan to increase cardiac tolerance is needed for a patient with heart failure. Taking β-adrenergic blockers to control palpitations is prescribed for mitral valve prolapse, not valve replacement)

The nurse conducts a complete physical assessment on a patient admitted with infective endocarditis. Which finding is significant? A. Respiratory rate of 18 and heart rate of 90 B. Regurgitant murmur at the mitral valve area C. Heart rate of 94 and capillary refill time of 2 seconds D. Point of maximal impulse palpable in fourth intercostal space

B. Regurgitant murmur at the mitral valve area (A regurgitant murmur of the aortic or mitral valves would indicate valvular disease, which is a complication of endocarditis. All the other findings are within normal limits.)

A patient who has undergone a valve replacement with a mechanical valve prosthesis is due to be discharged home. During discharge teaching, the nurse should discuss the importance of antibiotic prophylaxis prior to which of the following? A) Exposure to immunocompromised individuals B) Future hospital admissions C) Dental procedures D) Live vaccinations

C Feedback: Following mechanical valve replacement, antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary before dental procedures involving manipulation of gingival tissue, the periapical area of the teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa (not including routine anesthetic injections, placement of orthodontic brackets, or loss of deciduous teeth). There are no current recommendations around antibiotic prophylaxis prior to vaccination, future hospital admissions, or exposure to people who are immunosuppressed.

A patient with mitral stenosis exhibits new symptoms of a dysrhythmia. Based on the pathophysiology of this disease process, the nurse would expect the patient to exhibit what heart rhythm? A) Ventricular fibrillation (VF) B) Ventricular tachycardia (VT) C) Atrial fibrillation D) Sinus bradycardia

C Feedback: In patients with mitral valve stenosis, the pulse is weak and often irregular because of atrial fibrillation. Bradycardia, VF, and VT are not characteristic of this valvular disorder.

A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for mitral stenosis. What statement by the patient during the nurses interview is most suggestive of this valvular disorder? A) I get chest pain from time to time, but it usually resolves when I rest. B) Sometimes when Im resting, I can feel my heart skip a beat. C) Whenever I do any form of exercise I get terribly short of breath. D) My feet and ankles have gotten terribly puffy the last few weeks.

C Feedback: The first symptom of mitral stenosis is often breathing difficulty (dyspnea) on exertion as a result of pulmonary venous hypertension. Patients with mitral stenosis are likely to show progressive fatigue as a result of low cardiac output. Palpitations occur in some patients, but dyspnea is a characteristic early symptom. Peripheral edema and chest pain are atypical.

The nurse is caring for a recent immigrant who has been diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation. The nurse should know that in developing countries the most common cause of mitral valve regurgitation is what? A) A decrease in gamma globulins B) An insect bite C) Rheumatic heart disease and its sequelae D) Sepsis and its sequelae

C Feedback: The most common cause of mitral valve regurgitation in developing countries is rheumatic heart disease and its sequelae

A 25-year-old patient with a group A streptococcal pharyngitis does not want to take the antibiotics prescribed. What should the nurse tell the patient to encourage the patient to take the medications and avoid complications of the infection? A. "The complications of this infection will affect the skin, hair, and balance." B. "You will not feel well if you do not take the medicine and get over this infection." C. "Without treatment, you could get rheumatic fever, which can lead to rheumatic heart disease." D. "You may not want to take the antibiotics for this infection, but you will be sorry if you do not."

C. "Without treatment, you could get rheumatic fever, which can lead to rheumatic heart disease." (Rheumatic fever (RF) is not common because of effective use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections. Without treatment, RF can occur and lead to rheumatic heart disease, especially in young adults. The complications do not include hair or balance. Saying that the patient will not feel well or that the patient will be sorry if the antibiotics are not taken is threatening to the patient and inappropriate for the nurse to say.)

A nurse is planning discharge health education for a patient who will soon undergo placement of a mechanical valve prosthesis. What aspect of health education should the nurse prioritize in anticipation of discharge? A) The need for long-term antibiotics B) The need for 7 to 10 days of bed rest C) Strategies for preventing atherosclerosis D) Strategies for infection prevention

D Feedback: Patients with a mechanical valve prosthesis (including annuloplasty rings and other prosthetic materials used in valvuloplasty) require education to prevent infective endocarditis. Despite these infections risks, antibiotics are not used long term. Activity management is important, but extended bed rest is unnecessary. Valve replacement does not create a heightened risk for atherosclerosis.

A patient with a history rheumatic heart disease knows that she is at risk for bacterial endocarditis when undergoing invasive procedures. Prior to a scheduled cystoscopy, the nurse should ensure that the patient knows the importance of taking which of the following drugs? A) Enoxaparin (Lovenox) B)Metoprolol (Lopressor) C) Azathioprine (Imuran) D)Amoxicillin (Amoxil)

D Feedback: Although rare, bacterial endocarditis may be life-threatening. A key strategy is primary prevention in high-risk patients (i.e., those with rheumatic heart disease, mitral valve prolapse, or prosthetic heart valves). Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for high-risk patients immediately before and sometimes after certain procedures. Amoxicillin is the drug of choice. None of the other listed drugs is an antibiotic.

The nurse is caring for a patient with right ventricular hypertrophy and consequently decreased right ventricular function. What valvular disorder may have contributed to this patients diagnosis? A) Mitral valve regurgitation B) Aortic stenosis C) Aortic regurgitation D) Mitral valve stenosis

D Feedback: Because no valve protects the pulmonary veins from the backward flow of blood from the atrium, the pulmonary circulation becomes congested. As a result, the right ventricle must contract against an abnormally high pulmonary arterial pressure and is subjected to excessive strain. Eventually, the right ventricle fails. None of the other listed valvular disorders has this pathophysiological effect.

35. A patient who has recently recovered from a systemic viral infection is undergoing diagnostic testing for myocarditis. Which of the nurses assessment findings is most consistent with myocarditis? A) Sudden changes in level of consciousness (LOC) B) Peripheral edema and pulmonary edema C) Pleuritic chest pain D) Flulike symptoms

D Feedback: The most common symptoms of myocarditis are flulike. Chest pain, edema, and changes in LOC are not characteristic of myocarditis.

The nurse is teaching a patient diagnosed with aortic stenosis appropriate strategies for attempting to relieve the symptom of angina without drugs. What should the nurse teach the patient? A. To eat a small meal before taking nitroglycerin B. To drink a glass of milk before taking nitroglycerin C. To engage in 15 minutes of light exercise before taking nitroglycerin D. To rest and relax before taking nitroglycerin

D Feedback: The venous dilation that results from nitroglycerin decreases blood return to the heart, thus decreasing cardiac output and increasing the risk of syncope and decreased coronary artery blood flow. The nurse teaches the patient about the importance of attempting to relieve the symptoms of angina with rest and relaxation before taking nitroglycerin and to anticipate the potential adverse effects. Exercising, eating, and drinking are not recommended prior to using nitroglycerin.

The patient with pericarditis is complaining of chest pain. After assessment, which intervention should the nurse expect to implement to provide pain relief? A. Corticosteroids B. Morphine sulfate C. Proton pump inhibitor D. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

D. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) will control pain and inflammation. Corticosteroids are reserved for patients already taking corticosteroids for autoimmune conditions or those who do not respond to NSAIDs. Morphine is not necessary. Proton pump inhibitors are used to decrease stomach acid to avoid the risk of GI bleeding from the NSAIDs.)

Which patients are most at risk for developing infective endocarditis (select all that apply.)? a. Older woman with disseminated coccidioidomycosis b. Homeless man with history of intravenous drug abuse c. Patient with end-stage renal disease on peritoneal dialysis d. Man with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath e. Adolescent with exertional palpitations and clubbing of fingers f. Female with peripheral intravenous site for medication administration

a. Older woman with disseminated coccidioidomycosis b. Homeless man with history of intravenous drug abuse c. Patient with end-stage renal disease on peritoneal dialysis (Patients with systemic coccidioidomycosis (valley fever) are at risk of fungal endocarditis. Peritoneal dialysis requires strict sterile technique to prevent peritonitis. Intravenous drug abuse, especially if reusing or sharing needles are at risk of developing sepsis. In addition, risk for infection is increased in the elderly, homeless, and those with chronic illness. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations may be signs of endocarditis. Clubbing of the fingers indicates long-term hypoxia. Central venous catheters, not peripheral, increase risk to for infective endocarditis.)

Which manifestation of infective endocarditis is a result of fragmentation and microembolization of vegetative lesions? a. Petechiae b. Roth's spots c. Osler's nodes d. Splinter hemorrhages

a. Petechiae (Petechiae are seen as small hemorrhages in the conjunctiva, lips, and buccal mucosa and over the ankles, feet, and antecubital and popliteal areas. Roth's spots are hemorrhagic retinal lesions seen with funduscopic examination. Osler's nodes are lesions on the fingertips or toes. The cause of Roth's spots and Osler's nodes is not clear. Splinter hemorrhages are black longitudinal streaks that occur on nail beds. They may be caused by vessel damage from vasculitis or microemboli.)

Assessment of an IV cocaine user with infective endocarditis should focus on which signs and symptoms (select all that apply) a. Retinal hemorrhages b. splinter hemorrhages c. presence of Osler's nodes d. Painless nodules over bony prominences e. painless erythematous macules on the palms & soles

a. Retinal hemorrhages b. splinter hemorrhages c. presence of Osler's nodes e. painless erythematous macules on the palms & soles

Which is a priority nursing intervention for a patient during the acute phase of rheumatic fever? a. administration of antibiotics as ordered b. management of pain with opioid analgesics c. encouragement of fluid intake for hydration d. performance of frequent, active range-of motion exercises

a. administration of antibiotics as ordered (The primary goal of managing a patient with acute rheumatic fever is to control and eradicate the infecting organism. The nurse should administer antibiotics as ordered to treat the streptococcal infection and teach the patient that completion of the full course of antibiotic therapy is essential for successful treatment.)

A patient is admitted with myocarditis. While performing the initial assessment, which clinical signs and symptoms might the nurse find (SATA)? a. angina b. pleuritic chest pain c. splinter hemorrhages d. pericardial friction rub e. presence of Osler's nodes

a. angina b. pleuritic chest pain d. pericardial friction rub (Clinical manifestations of myocarditis may include early systemic manifestations (i.e., fever, fatigue, malaise, myalgias, pharyngitis, dyspnea, lymphadenopathy, and nausea and vomiting), early cardiac manifestations (i.e., pleuritic chest pain with a pericardial friction rub and effusion), and late cardiac signs (i.e., S3 heart sound, crackles, jugular venous distention [JVD], syncope, peripheral edema, and angina).)

A patient is diagnosed with mitral stenosis and new-onset atrial fibrillation. Which interventions could the nurse delegate to nursing assistant personnel (NAP) (select all that apply)? a. obtain and record daily weight b. determine apical-radial pulse rate c. observe for overt signs of bleeding d. obtain and record vital signs, including pulse oximetry e. teach the patient how to purchase a Medic Alert bracelet

a. obtain and record daily weight c. observe for overt signs of bleeding d. obtain and record vital signs, including pulse oximetry (The nurse may delegate routine procedures such as obtaining weights and vital signs. The nurse may give specific directions to the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) to observe and report obvious signs of bleeding. The nurse cannot delegate teaching, assessment, or activities that require clinical judgment. Obtaining an apical-radial pulse rate is an assessment.)

A 20-year old patient has acute infective endocarditis. While obtaining a nursing history, the nurse should ask the patient about which of the following (select all that apply) a. renal dialysis b. IV drug abuse c. recent dental work d. cardiac catheterization e. recent urinary tract infection

a. renal dialysis b. IV drug abuse c. recent dental work d. cardiac catheterization e. recent urinary tract infection (recent dental, urologic, surgical, or gynecologic procedures and history of IV drug abuse, heart disease, cardiac catheterization or surgery, renal dialysis, and infections all increase the risk of IE.)

A patient has an admitting diagnosis of acute left-sided infective endocarditis. The nurse explains to the patient that this diagnosis is best confirmed with a. two blood cultures b. a complete blood count c. a cardiac catheterization d. a transesophageal echocardiogram

a. two blood cultures (Although a complete blood cell count (CBC) will reveal a mild leukocytosis and erythrocyte sedimentation rates (ESRs) will be elevated in patients with infective endocarditis, these are nonspecific findings, and blood cultures are the primary diagnostic tool for infective endocarditis. Transesophageal echocardiograms can identify vegetations on valves but are used when blood cultures are negative, and cardiac catheterizations are used when surgical intervention is being considered.)

When teaching a patient about the long-term consequences of rheumatic fever, the nurse should discuss the possibility of a. valvular heart disease b. pulmonary hypertension c. superior vena cava syndrome d. hypertrophy of the right ventricle

a. valvular heart disease (Rheumatic heart disease is a chronic condition resulting from rheumatic fever that is characterized by scarring and deformity of the heart valves.)

What explains the measurement of pulsus paradoxus with cardiac tamponade (SATA)? a. A difference of less than 10 mm Hg occurs. b. A difference of greater than 10 mm Hg occurs. c. It is measured with an automatic sphygmomanometer. d. Rapidly inflate the cuff until you hear sounds throughout the respiratory cycle. e. Subtract the number when sounds are heard in the respiratory cycle from the number when the first Korotkoff sound during expiration is heard.

b. A difference of greater than 10 mm Hg occurs. e. Subtract the number when sounds are heard in the respiratory cycle from the number when the first Korotkoff sound during expiration is heard (Pulsus paradoxus is measured with a manually operated sphygmomanometer. The cuff is deflated slowly until the first Korotkoff sound during expiration is heard and the number is noted. The slow deflation of the cuff is continued until sounds are heard throughout the respiratory cycle and that number is subtracted from the first number. When the difference is >10 mm Hg, cardiac tamponade may be present. The difference is normally <10 mm Hg.)

The patient is admitted with angina, syncope, and dyspnea on exertion. In the assessment, the nurse notes a systolic murmur with a prominent S4. What will the nurse suspect is occurring with this patient? a. Mitral valve stenosis b. Aortic valve stenosis c. Acute mitral valve regurgitation d. Chronic mitral valve regurgitation

b. Aortic valve stenosis (Aortic valve stenosis is identified with the triad of angina, syncope, and dyspnea on exertion, as well as the systolic murmur and prominent S4 heart sound. Mitral valve stenosis manifests as exertional dyspnea, hemoptysis, fatigue, atrial fibrillation, and a diastolic murmur. Acute mitral valve regurgitation has a new systolic murmur with pulmonary edema and cardiogenic shock rapidly developing. Chronic mitral valve regurgitation is identified with weakness, fatigue, exertional dyspnea, palpitations, an S3 gallop, and holosystolic murmur.)

The patient with acute pericarditis is having a pericardiocentesis. Postoperatively what complication should the nurse monitor the patient for? a. Pneumonia b. Pneumothorax c. Myocardial infarction (MI) d. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

b. Pneumothorax (Pneumothorax may occur as a needle is inserted into the pericardial space to remove fluid for analysis and relieve cardiac pressure with pericardiocentesis. Other complications could include dysrhythmias, further cardiac tamponade, myocardial laceration, and coronary artery laceration.)

Drugs that the nurse would expect to be prescribed for patients with a mechanical valve replacement include a. oral nitrates b. anticoagulants c. atrial antidysrhythmics d. beta adrenergic blocking agents

b. anticoagulants (Patients with mechanical valves have an increased risk for thrombus formation. Therefore prophylactic anticoagulation therapy is used to prevent thrombus formation and systemic or pulmonary embolization. Nitrates are contraindicated for the patient with aortic stenosis because an adequate preload is necessary to open the stiffened aortic valve. Antidysrhythmics are used only if dysrhythmias occur, and alpha or beta adrenergic blocking agents may be used to control the HR as needed.)

A patient with acute pericarditis has markedly distended jugular veins, decreased BP, tachycardia, tachypnea, and muffled heart sounds. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms occur when a. the pericardial space is obliterated with scar tissue and thickened pericardium b. excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling c. the parietal and visceral pericardial membranes adhere to each other, preventing normal myocardial contraction d. fibrin accumulation on the visceral pericardium infiltrates into the myocardium, creating generalized myocardial dysfunction.

b. excess pericardial fluid compresses the heart and prevents adequate diastolic filling (The patient is experiencing a cardiac tamponade that consists of excess fluid in the pericardial sac, which compresses the heart and the adjoining structures, preventing normal filling and cardiac output. Fibrin accumulation, a scarred and thickened pericardium, and adherent pericardial membranes occur in chronic constrictive pericarditis.)

What accurately describes mitral valve prolapse? a. Rapid onset prevents left chamber dilation b. May be caused by pulmonary hypertension c. Buckling of valve into left atrium during ventricular systole d. Rapid development of pulmonary edema and cardiogenic shock

c. Buckling of valve into left atrium during ventricular systole (Mitral valve prolapse is the buckling of the valve leaflets into the left atrium during ventricular systole. The rapid onset that prevents left chamber dilation and the rapid development of pulmonary edema and cardiogenic shock occur with acute mitral regurgitation. Pulmonary hypertension may contribute to tricuspid valve disease.)

A mechanical prosthetic valve is most likely to be preferred over a biologic valve for valve replacement in a a. 41-year-old man with peptic ulcer disease b. a 22-year-old woman who desires to have children c. a 35-year-old man with a history of seasonal asthma d. 62-year-old woman with early Alzheimer's disease

c. a 35-year-old man with a history of seasonal asthma (Mechanical prosthetic valves require long-term anticoagulation, and this is a factor in making a decision about the type of valve to use for replacement. Patients who cannot take anticoagulant therapy, such as women of childbearing age, patients at risk for hemorrhage, or patient who may not be compliant with anticoagulation therapy, may be candidates for the less durable biologic valves.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic constrictive pericarditis. Which assessment finding reflects a more serious complication of this condition? a. fatigue b. peripheral edema c. jugular venous distention d. thickened pericardium on echocardiography

c. jugular venous distention (Cardiac tamponade is a serious complication of pericarditis. As the compression of the heart increases, decreased left atrial filling decreases cardiac output. Neck veins usually are markedly distended because of jugular venous pressure elevation.)

An RN is working with an LPN in caring for a group of patients on a cardiac telemetry unit. A patient with aortic stenosis has the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance related to fatigue and exertional dyspnea. Which of these nursing activities could be delegated to the LPN? a. explain the reason for planning frequent periods of rest b. evaluate the patient's understanding of his disease process c. monitor BP, HR, RR, and SpO2 before, during, and after ambulation d. teach the patient which activities to choose that will gradually increase endurance

c. monitor BP, HR, RR, and SpO2 before, during, and after ambulation (Monitoring VS before and after ambulation is the collection of data. Instructions should be provided to the LPN regarding what changes in these should be reported to the RN. Other actions listed are RN responsibilities.)

A patient is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal valvuloplasty. The nurse understands that this procedure is indicated for a. any patient with aortic regurgitation b. older patients with aortic regurgitation c. older patients with stenosis of any valve d. young adult patients with mild mitral valve stenosis

c. older patients with stenosis of any valve (This procedure has been used for repair of pulmonic, tricuspid, and mitral stenosis, but usually for those patients that are poor surgical risks.)

When obtaining a nursing history for a patient with myocarditis, the nurse specifically questions the patient about a. a history of CAD with or without an MI b. prior use of digoxin for treatment of cardiac problems c. recent symptoms of a viral illness, such as fever or malaise d. a recent streptococcal infection requiring treatment with penicillin

c. recent symptoms of a viral illness, such as fever or malaise (Viruses are the most common cause of myocarditis in the US, & early manifestations of myocarditis are often those of systemic viral infections. Myocarditis may also be associated with systemic inflammatory & metabolic disorders as well as with other microorganisms, drugs, or toxins. The heart has increased sensitivity to digoxin in myocarditis, and it is used very cautiously, if at all, in treatment of the condition.)

What causes a sudden onset of cardiovascular collapse? a. Mitral stenosis b. Tricuspid valve disease c. Pulmonic valve stenosis d. Acute aortic regurgitation

d. Acute aortic regurgitation (Acute aortic regurgitation causes a sudden cardiovascular collapse. With mitral valve stenosis dyspnea is a prominent symptom and embolization may result from chronic atrial fibrillation. With tricuspid and pulmonic valve diseases, stenosis occurs more often than regurgitation. Tricuspid valve stenosis results in right atrial enlargement and elevated systemic venous pressures. Pulmonic valve stenosis results in right ventricular hypertension and hypertrophy.

What describes Janeway's lesions that are manifestations of infective endocarditis? a. Hemorrhagic retinal lesions b. Black longitudinal streaks in nail beds c. Painful red or purple lesions on fingers or toes d. Flat, red, painless spots on the palms of hands and soles of feet

d. Flat, red, painless spots on the palms of hands and soles of feet (Janeway's lesions are flat, painless, small red spots found on the palms of the hands & the soles of the feet. Black streaks on the nails are splinter hemorrhages. Hemorrhagic retinal lesions are Roth's spots. Painful lesions on fingers & toes are Osler's nodes.)

What is an effect of valvular regurgitation? a. It causes a pressure gradient difference across an open valve. b. A pericardial friction rub is heard on the right sternal border of the chest. c. It leads to decreased flow of blood and hypertrophy of the preceding chamber. d. There is a backward flow of blood and volume overload in the preceding chamber.

d. There is a backward flow of blood and volume overload in the preceding chamber. (Valvular regurgitation causes a backward flow of blood and volume overload in the preceding chamber. Without treatment, eventually hypertrophy of that chamber occurs. Stenosis causes a pressure gradient difference and decreased blood flow and hypertrophy of the preceding chamber. A pericardial friction rub is not related to valvular regurgitation but would be heard at the lower left sternal border of the chest.)

When teaching a patient with endocarditis how to prevent recurrence of the infection, the nurse instructs the patient to a. start on antibiotic therapy when exposed to persons with infections b. take one aspirin a day to prevent vegetative lesions from forming around the valves c. always maintain continuous antibiotic therapy to prevent the development of any systemic infection d. obtain prophylactic antibiotic therapy before certain invasive medical or dental procedures (e.g. dental cleaning)

d. obtain prophylactic antibiotic therapy before certain invasive medical or dental procedures (e.g. dental cleaning) (Prophylactic antibiotic therapy should be initiated before invasive dental, medical, or surgical procedures to prevent recurrence of endocarditis. Continuous antibiotic therapy is indicated only in patients with implanted devices or ongoing invasive procedures. Symptoms of infection should be treated promptly, but antibiotics are not used for exposure to infection.)

Priority nursing management for a patient with myocarditis includes interventions related to a. meticulous skin care b. antibiotic prophylaxis c. tight glycemic control d. oxygenation and ventilation

d. oxygenation and ventilation (General supportive measures for management of myocarditis include interventions to improve ventilation and oxygenation (i.e., oxygen therapy, bed rest, and restricted activity).)

A patient with acute pericarditis has a nursing diagnosis of pain related to pericardial inflammation. An appropriate nursing intervention for the patient is a. administering opioids as prescribed on an around the clock schedule b. promoting progressive relaxation exercises with the use of deep, slow breathing c. positioning the patient on the right side with the head of the bed elevated 15 degrees d. positioning the patient in Fowler's position with a padded over the bed table for the patient to lean on

d. positioning the patient in Fowler's position with a padded over the bed table for the patient to lean on Rationale: (by sitting up and leaning forward. Pain is increased by lying flat. The pain has a sharp, pleuritic quality that changes with respiration, and patients take shallow breaths. Anti-inflammatory medications may also be used to help control pain, but opioids are not usually indicated.)

The most important role of the nurse in preventing rheumatic fever is to a. teach patients with infective endocarditis to adhere to antibiotic prophylaxis b. identify patients with valvular heart disease who are at risk for rheumatic fever c. encourage the use of antibiotics for treatment of all infections involving a sore throat d. promote the early diagnosis and immediate treatment of group A streptococcal pharyngitis

d. promote the early diagnosis and immediate treatment of group A streptococcal pharyngitis (Initial attacks of rheumatic fever and the development of rheumatic heart disease can be prevented by adequate treatment of group A streptococcal pharyngitis. Because streptococcal infection accounts for only about 20% of acute pharyngitis, cultures should be done to identify the organism and direct antibiotic therapy. Viral infections should not be treated with antibiotics. Prophylactic therapy is indicated in those who have valvular heart disease or have has rheumatic heart disease.)

Which clinical finding would most likely indicate decreased cardiac output in a patient with aortic valve regurgitation? a. reduction in peripheral edema and weights b. carotid venous distention and new-onset atrial fibrillation c. significant pulses paradoxus and diminished peripheral pulses d. shortness of breath on minimal exertion and a diastolic murmur

d. shortness of breath on minimal exertion and a diastolic murmur (Clinical manifestations of aortic regurgitation (AR) that indicate decreased cardiac output include severe dyspnea, chest pain, and hypotension. Other manifestations of chronic AR include water-hammer pulse (i.e., a strong, quick beat that collapses immediately), soft or absent S1, presence of S3 or S4, and soft, high-pitched diastolic murmur. A low-pitched diastolic murmur may be heard in severe AR. Early manifestations may include exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.)

A patient with aortic valve endocarditis develops dyspnea, crackles in the lungs, and restlessness. The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing a. vegetative embolization to the coronary arteries b. pulmonary embolization from valve vegetations c. nonspecific manifestations that accompany infectious diseases d. valvular incompetence with possible infectious invasion of the myocardium

d. valvular incompetence with possible infectious invasion of the myocardium (The dyspnea, crackles, and restlessness the patient is manifesting are symptoms of heart failure and decreased cardiac output (CO) that occurs in up to 80% of patients with aortic valve endocarditis as a result of aortic valve incompetence. Vegetative embolization from the aortic valve occurs throughout the arterial system and may affect any body organ. Pulmonary emboli occur in right-sided endocarditis.)

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a suspected acute pericarditis. To establish the presence of a pericardial friction rub, the nurse listens to the patient's chest a. while timing the sound with the respiratory pattern b. with the bell of the stethoscope at the apex of the heart c. with the diaphragm of the stethoscope at the lower left sternal bored of the chest d. with the diaphragm of the stethoscope to auscultate a high-pitched continuous rumbling sound

d. with the diaphragm of the stethoscope to auscultate a high-pitched continuous rumbling sound (The stethoscope diaphragm at the left sternal border is the best method to use to hear the high-pitched, grating sound of a pericardial friction rub. The sound does not radiate widely and occurs with the heartbeat.