CIS 228 Midterm Review

6. Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? 2

- At least one network interface that is connected and operational - Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device

102. Fill in the blank. In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ________ router.

virtual

41. A switch is participating in a VTP domain and configured as a VTP server. The switch needs to propagate vlan 10 (used by the Manufacturing department) through out the VTP domain, but does not have any directly connected hosts using that particular vlan. Which configuration would satisfy this requirement?

vlan 10 name Manufacturing exit

15. What capability is provided by the use of application-specific integrated circuits in Cisco multilayer switches?

Forwarding IP packets independent of the CPU

103. Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?

It is Cisco proprietary.

54. In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? choose two

- Learning - Forwarding

82. Which two protocols are used to implement EtherChannel? (Choose two.) - Link Aggregation Control Protocol - Spanning Tree Protocol - Port Aggregation Protocol - Cisco Discovery Protocol - Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol

- Link Aggregation Control Protocol - Port Aggregation Protocol

65. Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

- MAC address - extended system ID - bridge priority

57. Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

- MST

68. Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

- RSTP - STP

17. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network admin wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the admin use for this purpose? Choose 2

- Show startup-config - Show running-config

7. What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur? 2 part answer

- The deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs - The division of access layer switch connections between them

70. To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

- The root bridge BID. - The role of the ports in all VLANs.

48. Given the configuration shown below, which two statements are true? choose two switch(vlan)# vtp version 2 switch(vlan)# vtp mode server switch(vlan)# vtp domain Cisco switch(vlan)# vtp password mypassword

- This switch can create, modify, and delete all vlans within the Cisco domain - This switch can send and receive advertisements from only the Cisco domain

49. Which two VTP parameters must be identical on all switches in the network in order to participate in the same VTP domain? choose two

- VTP domain name - VTP domain password

25. What are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-of-band management?

- a connection that uses the AUX port - a connection that uses the console port

39. Which two events will cause the VTP revision number on a VTP server to change? choose two

- adding vlans - changing the VTP domain name

12. Which type of information is displayed by the *show ip protocols* command that is issued from a router command prompt? 2

- configured routing protocols - networks that the router is advertising

27. In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two functional parts of the network are combined to form a collapsed core design? Choose two

- distribution layer - core layer

21. Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? Choose two

- failover capabilities - redundant power supplies

2. What are 3 access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network?

- forwarding rate - port density - power over ethernet

8. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium?

- increased flexibility - reduced costs

11. What are two functions of a router?

- it determines the best path to send packets - It connects multiple ip networks

67. Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.) (think generally)

- redundant links between Layer 2 switches - removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches

98. Which three options must match in order to establish an EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose three.)

- speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel - VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel - duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel

19. What are two expected features of modern enterprise networks? Choose two

- support for critical applications - support for converged network traffic

30. Which three actions can cause problems with a VTP implementation? choose three

- using non-cisco - using a non-trunk link to connect switches - using lowercase on one switch and uppercase on another switch for domain names

31. Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? choose two

- when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch - on links that should not be trunking

64. Match the spanning-tree feature with the protocol type. (Not all options are used.) Options: 1. PVST+ 2. RSTP 3. MSTP 4. Rapid PVST+ 5. MST matches: - Proprietary per vlan implementation of IEEE 802.1w - Cisco implementation of IEEE 802.1D - Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D - IEEE standard that reduces the number of STP instances

1. PVST+ = Cisco implementation of IEEE 802.1D 2. RSTP =Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D 3. MSTP = IEEE standard that reduces the number of STP instances 4. Rapid PVST+ = Proprietary per VLAN implementation of IEEE 802.1w

20. Match the purpose to the related configuration item (not all options are used): 1. assignment of IP address to interface 2. hostname 3. routing protocols 4. passwords Options: Identification Encapsulation Security Connectivity Access remote networks

1. connectivity 2. identification 3. access remote networks 4. security

34. Match the DTP mode with its function (not all options are used): 1. passively waits for the neighbor to initiate trunking 2. requires manual configuration of trunking or non-trunking 3. actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk 4. permanent trunking mode

1. dynamic auto 2. negotiate 3. dynamic desirable 4. trunk

74. Which spanning tree standard supports only one root bridge so that traffic from all VLANs flows over the same path? (number)

802.1D

51. Image. See other side for the question then find the correct answer 'hidden' in the gibberish below: Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. G/1/1 and g1/2 are not assigned to their respective vlans. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur.

A network administrator is configuring inter-vlan routing. However, the communication between vlan 10 and vlan 20 fails. Based on the output of the *show vlan* command, what is the cause of the problem?

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A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

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A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for vlans 15, 30, and 45. according to the *show running-config* command output. PCs on vlan 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0/24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on vlan 30 in the 172.16.30.0/24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?

97. Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.

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After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in Router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on vlan 20 report that they are unable to reach users on vlan 30. What is causing the problem?

55. Which Cisco switch feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a port is mistakenly connected to another switch?

BPDU guard

61. What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.

37. How are IP addressing designs affected by vlan implementations?

Each vlan must have a different network number

5. When a Cisco IOS device is being selected or upgraded, which option indicates the capabilities of the Cisco IOS device?

Feature set

87. Which statement describes a characteristic of EtherChannel?

It is made by combining multiple physical links that are seen as one link between two switches.

44. What is a characteristic of a routed port on a layer 3 switch?

It is not assigned to a vlan

3. What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection

83. What is the purpose of HSRP?

It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.

66. A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

Link types are determined automatically.

36. What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-vlan routing?

Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implemenations

23. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches? - They are modular switches. - New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through. - They are best used as distribution layer switches. - They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through

77. What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.

13. In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

On a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility

56. What is an advantage of PVST+?

PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing

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Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

46. How is traffic routed between multiple vlans on a multilayer switch?

Traffic is routed via internal vlan interfaces

96. A network administrator would like to ensure that router R1 is always elected the active router for an HSRP group. Which set of commands would ensure the required results?

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0 R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1 R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 255 R1(config-if)# standby 1 preempt R1(config-if)# no shutdown

10. A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Redundant paths can be available without causing logical layer 2 loops.

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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby briefcommand on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?

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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2 would help performance. After making the configuration, the administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network administrator make? (Choose two.)

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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the show etherchannel summary command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?

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Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

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Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

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Refer to the exhibit. Communication between the vlans is not occurring. What could be the issue?

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Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to communicate with server 1. The network admin issues the *show interfaces trunk* command to begin troubleshooting. What conclusion can be made based on the output of this command?

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Refer to the exhibit. The switch does the routing for the hosts that connect to vlan 5. If the PC accesses a web server from the internet, at what point will a vlan number be added to the frame?

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Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?

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Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the output of the show standby command?

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Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

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Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

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Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

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Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

42. Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?

S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate

93. An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches? - S1-on and S2-active - S1-passive and S2-passive - S1-on and S2-passive - S1-passive and S2-active

S1-passive and S2-active

79. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active*

91. What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?

Shut down each of the affected interfaces.

75. What port type is used to interconnect switches in a switch stack?

StackWise

40. What is a characteristic of VTP? choose one - Switches in VTP client mode store VLAN information in NVRAM. - Switches in VTP transparent mode forward VTP advertisements. - Switches in VTP server mode cannot be updated by switches in VTP client mode. - Switches in VTP transparent mode revert back to VTP server mode after a reboot.

Switches in VTP transparent mode forward VTP advertisements

1. A network tech needs to connect a PC to a Cisco network device for initial configuration. What is required to perform this device configuration?

Terminal emulation client

88. What is a requirement to configure a trunking EtherChannel between two switches?

The allowed range of VLANs must be the same on both switches.

45. What happens to switch ports after the vlan to which they are assigned is deleted?

The ports stop communicating with the attached devices

14. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

The use of the building switch block approach

18. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

They are cloud managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches

28. What is the function of ASICs in a multilayer switch?

They streamline forwarding of IP packets in a multilayer switch by bypassing the CPU

43. While configuring inter-vlan routing on a multilayer switch, a network adm issues the *no switchport* command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?

To create a routed port for a single network

73. What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

VLAN ID

92. Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support Ipv4 LANs?

VRRPv2

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Which command was issued on a Cisco switch that resulted in the exhibited output?

4.* A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?

a modular router

22. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network

84. What is an advantage of using LACP?

allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links

60. Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

edge ports

72. Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

forwarding

29. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of? (what does it help provide)

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches

33. Where is the vlan.dat file stored on a switch?

in flash memory

63. If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge? 1

lowest MAC address

80. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. The spanning-tree _________________________________ global configuration command is used to enable Rapid

mode rapid-pvst

59. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

prevents layer 2 loops

26. What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?

rack unit

35. On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN information stored?

running config file

32. Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport

62. Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0

94. Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.