Clinical Science II: Exam 4
A client asks the nurse how dipivefrin (Propine) will decrease their IOP. Which information should the nurse provide? A. The prescription will dilate the pupil increasing the outflow of the aqueous humor. B. The prescription will lower IOP by enhancing the outflow of aqueous humor. C. The prescription will decrease the production of aqueous humor. D. The prescriptions act by decreasing the production of aqueous humor by the ciliary body.
A
A client asks why they cannot take a glucocorticoid pill for their dermatitis instead of using a lotion. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client? A. Topical glucocorticoids are most effective for controlling inflammation B. Topical glucocorticoids have minimal adverse effects C. Topical glucocorticoids are most effective in reducing pain D. Topical glucocorticoids are the most effective for curing dermatitis
A
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking alendronate to treat postmenopausal osteoporosis. The nurse should explain to the client that this medication increases bone mass by which of the following actions? Decreases activity of osteoclasts Increases calcium excretion Promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus Reduces action of osteoblasts
A
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for methotrexate. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following AD? Bone marrow depression Thrombocythemia Double Vision Constipation
A
M48. Which information should the nurse include in the education for the parent of a child with rickets? A. Spend at least 20 minutes/day in the sunlight. B. Be sure to take brand name, not generic, vitamin D. C. Avoid dairy products while taking vitamin D. D. Take your vitamin D on an empty stomach.
A
Which classification of drugs should the nurse anticipate to be administered for a client requiring an eye exam? A. Mydriatics B. Beta-adrenergic blockers C. Vasoconstrictors D. Prostaglandins
A
Which classification of prescription should the nurse plan to administer to the client experiencing a closed angle glaucoma attack? A. Osmotic diuretics B. Prostaglandin analogs C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
A
Which condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed beta-adrenergic blocker ophthalmic drops for the treatment of glaucoma? A. Asthma B. Diabetes mellitus C. Duodenal ulcer D. Pancreatitis
A
Which describes the primary mechanism of action of beta-adrenergic blockers for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma? A. Reduce production of aqueous humor B. Constrict the pupil C. Dilate the pupil to increase outflow D. Increase the outflow of aqueous humor
A
Which findings should the nurse discuss with the prescriber prior to administering a client prescribed brinzolamide (Azopt)? A. The client is allergic to sulfa B. The client has a history of atopic dermatitis C. The client's father had a myocardial infarction at age 35 D. The client is a vegetarian
A
Which information should the nurse include in the teaching for the parent of a child with head lice? A. "Remove all nits from the hair shaft with a nit comb or a fine-tooth comb." B. "Your child should be fine now just watch your child for a reinfection." C. "Dispose of all the bedding in a sealed plastic bag." D. "Cutting your child's hair will make it easier to treat."
A
Which is responsible for the secretion of aqueous humor? Question content area bottom Part 1 A. Ciliary body B. Anterior chamber C. Canal of Schlemm D. Posterior chamber
A
Which is the next step in the process of vitamin D activation after the dietary products are consumed? A. Cholecalciferol is synthesized B. Calcifediol is formed C. Calcitriol is formed D. Calcium is absorbed in the small intestine
A
Which level of potency does the topical corticosteroid dexamethasone have? A. Low B. Very high C. High D. Medium
A
Which statement made by a client prescribed 0.1% tacrolimus (Protopic) for treatment of severe atopic dermatitis indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I am at increased risk for skin cancer because I am using this drug." B. "I could use this for my 1-year-old who also has atopic dermatitis." C. "I can use this ointment on an as needed basis for as long as I need." D. "I cannot use this ointment on my face."
A
Which history should the nurse anticipate for a young child who is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Family history of asthma B. Allergy to soaps and lotions C. Family history of cardiac disease D. Prematurity E. Illicit drug use in the mother during pregnancy
AB
Which prescriptions increase the client's risk for gout? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Aspirin B. Thiazide diuretics C. Acetaminophen D. Cyclosporine E. Aminoglycosides
ABC
M50: Which information should the nurse provide the client that asks how glaucoma develops? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "Having diabetes is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma." B. "Glaucoma exists when the pressure in your eye is high enough to cause optic nerve damage." C. "High blood pressure can certainly lead to the development of glaucoma." D. "A history of hyperthyroidism is a risk factor in the development of glaucoma." E. "Drugs like antihistamines and antidepressants can contribute to glaucoma."
ABCE
The nurse has completed medication education for a client prescribed allopurinol (Zyloprim). Which client statements indicate an understanding of the information? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "It may take a few days or weeks for me to get the full effect of this medication." B. "I should not drink alcohol while taking this drug." C. "If I develop a skin rash, I should contact the prescriber." D. "I should not crush this medication." E. "I should take this medication with food."
ABCE
Which classification of prescription should the nurse evaluate the client for that is experiencing psoriasis? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Beta blockers B. NSAIDs C. Tetracyclines D. Antifungals E. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
ABCE
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed denosumab (Prolia)? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "I will administer your prescription in the form of an injection." B. "You may feel more fatigued than usual when taking this prescription." C. "Be certain to keep your appointments for follow-up." D. "Do not take any kind of calcium supplement or vitamin D supplement while taking this drug." E. "We must monitor your cholesterol while you are taking this drug."
ABCE
Which should the nurse anticipate to be included in the treatment of advanced osteoarthritis? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Acetaminophen B. Topical ointments C. Tramadol D. Biological response modifiers E. Intraarticular corticosteroids
ABCE
Which statements made by a client prescribed bisphosphonate for treatment of osteoporosis require education? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "It will take at least 4 years for the maximum effect of the prescription to occur." B. "The bone density improvement will rapidly disappear if I stop taking this prescription." C. "I still need to eat foods high in phosphorus." D. "I should spend 15 to 20 minutes in the sun on most days." E. "The medication I took to correct my vitamin D deficiency was in preparation for this new treatment."
AC
A nurse is teaching a client about calcitonin-salmon intranasal spray to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include?Select all.. Report rash or itching Deliver two sprays to each nostril Prime the pump before the first dose Report nasal irritation Hold the pump horizontally
ACD
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed (Fosamax). Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the information? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "I cannot lie down for at least 30 minutes after taking the prescription." B. "Milk will help with the absorption of this medication." C. "I should call my healthcare provider if I experience heartburn." D. "I must take this with a full glass of water." E. "The prescription can be taken with or without food."
ACD
Which conditions should the nurse associate with the development of hypocalcemia despite normal dietary intake? Select all that apply. A. Malabsorption syndrome B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Chronic kidney disease D. Excessive vomiting E. Multiple blood transfusions
ACDE
ATI: MuscoSkeletal A nurse should instruct a client who is taking alendronate to monitor for which of the following Adverse effects? SATA Jaw pain Drowsiness Blurred vision Tinnitus Muscle pain
ACE
M49: Which should the nurse include in the client education about the structure and function of the skin? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. The outermost layer of the epidermis serves as the major waterproof barrier to the environment. B. The epidermis provides a foundation for the accessory structures such as hair and nails. C. The amount of subcutaneous tissue varies and is determined by nutritional status and heredity. D. Most receptor nerve endings, oil glands, sweat glands, and blood vessels are found within the subcutaneous fat. E. The deepest epidermal layer provides new cells.
ACE
Which describes the mechanism of action of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Increases bone density B. Increase calcium levels in the bone C. Decrease bone resorption D. Inhibit synthesis of microtubules E. Increase bone mass
ACE
Which information should the nurse provide a client that has been prescribed tretinoin (Avita) for treatment of acne? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "It will take several weeks for you to see improvement in your skin." B. "You should continue using your over-the-counter oil drying medication until you start to see effects from this prescription." C. "Mild sun exposure will help this medication work more effectively." D. "You will likely notice redness and scaling of your skin while using this medication." E. "Continue to take the tetracycline previously prescribed for your cystic acne."
AD
Which nonpharmacological interventions should the nurse recommend for a client prescribed topical metronidazole (MetroGel) for rosacea? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "Avoid drinking alcohol." B. "Spend some time in the sun each day." C. "Avoid eating spicy foods." D. "Drink your coffee at room temperature." E. "Keep the temperature in your home warmer."
AD
Which testing should the nurse schedule the client for 2 months after pharmacotherapy has begun to treat open angle glaucoma? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Visual field changes B. Dilation of the pupils C. Light refraction D. Intraocular pressure E. Slit lamp exam
AD
The nurse is discussing the adverse effects of Phototherapy with ultraviolet-A (PUVA) therapy with a client experiencing psoriasis. Which symptoms should the nurse include in the discussion? A. Nausea B. Depression C. Weight loss D. Headache E. Skin sensitivity
ADE
Which statements indicate a client understands the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "My eye cannot drain the fluid that it produces." B. "One of the first signs of this is pain behind my eyes." C. "My type of glaucoma is a medical emergency." D. "This is a gradual process; it may take years to develop." E. "This is the most common kind of glaucoma."
ADE
Which is most often associated with otitis media? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Allergies B. Asthma C. Colds D. Lower respiratory infections E. Auditory tube irritations
AE
The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed topical scabicide. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will leave the treatment on longer to make sure it is effective." B. "I will monitor the area daily for the next few weeks." C. "I can expect some redness to occur." D. "I need to sign a consent for this medication."
B
The nurse has taught the client with osteoporosis about how to manage the illness. Which statement by the client indicates that additional teaching is necessary? A. "I will walk for 30 minutes every day." B. "I will take my calcium when I wake up." C. "I will drink milk regularly." D. "I will avoid drinking alcohol."
B
Which area of the structure of the skin is responsible for the sensation of itching? A. Stratum basale B. Dermis C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis
B
Which best describes open-angle glaucoma? A. Accompanied by eye pain. B. Bilateral with a slow onset. C. Less common than closed-angle glaucoma. D. Unilateral with a rapid onset.
B
Which finding is an adverse effect of prostaglandins, such as latanoprost (Xaltan)? A. Hypotension B. Eye pain C. Nausea D. Tachycardia
B
Which is a characteristic of dermatitis? A. Swelling of nasal tissues B. Pruritus C. Flaky, silver scales D. Small papules
B
Which is an important function of calcium? A. Regulate acid-base balance B. Regulate nerve transmission C. Improve glucose absorption D. Increase energy
B
Which is the most important symptom that the nurse should instruct the client prescribed a bisphosphonate to immediately to report the healthcare provider? A. Metallic taste B. Jaw pain C. Diarrhea D. Headache
B
Which of the following is a therapeutic action of raloxifene? Bocks the effects of estrogen on endometrial tissue Mimics the effects of estrogen on bone tissue Stimulates secretion of parathyroid Hormone Stimulates menstruation
B
Which supplies and replaces skin cells in the epidermis? A. Dermis basale B. Stratum basale C. Stratum lucidum D. Melanocytes
B
Which symptoms associated with an adverse effect of alendronate (Fosamax) should the nurse instruct the client to report? A. Flushed skin B. Muscle spasms C. Ringing in the ears D. Visual changes
B
A nurse is presenting community education for a group of patients with osteoarthritis. The nurse gives which information regarding the goals of pharmacotherapy for osteoarthritis? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "Prescriptions for osteoarthritis help to prevent development of rheumatoid arthritis." B. "Prescriptions are given to help reduce the pain of osteoarthritis." C. "Some of the prescriptions for osteoarthritis focus on reducing inflammation." D. "There are prescriptions that can prevent the development of osteoarthritis." E. "Antibiotics are given to treat common infections caused by osteoarthritis."
BC
Which conditions support the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pulmonary disease D. Pericarditis E. Chronic kidney disease
BC
Which pharmacological effects are used to prevent hyperuricemia for a client with gout? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Break down the uric acid B. Inhibit the formation of uric acid C. Excrete the uric acid D. Convert uric acid to a less toxic form E. Eliminate the uric acid
BCD
Which statements made by a client indicates that they may be experiencing closed angle glaucoma? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "My vision has gotten worse over time." B. "I have a headache that will not go away." C. "I see hallows around bright lights." D. "I have been experiencing a dull pain in my eyes." E. "My eyes are so blood shot."
BCDE
The nurse is preparing to provide education for a client prescribed Raloxifene. Which common adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Flu like symptoms B. Leg cramps C. Hot flashes D. Peripheral edema E. Weight gain
BCE
Which interventions for the treatment of a client with a severe sunburn should the nurse anticipate? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Benzophenone B. Topical anesthetics C. PO analgesics D. Zinc oxide E. Hydration
BCE
Which types of dermatitis commonly respond to topical pharmacotherapy? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Acne B. Contact C. Atopic D. Psoriasis E. Seborrheic
BCE
nurse is teaching a client about raloxifene. Which of the following information should the nurse include? SATA Perform a breast self examination twice per month Increase psychical activity by taking walks Use contraceptive if there is any possibility of pregnancy Take the drug on an empty stomach Increased intake of calcium and Vitamin D
BCE
Which should the nurse monitor the client for that has experienced a significant systemic absorption of Timolol (Betimol)? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Blurred vision B. Dysrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Hypotension E. Hyperglycemia
BD
Which describe the goals of pharmacotherapy for a client with rheumatoid arthritis? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Increase rheumatoid factors B. Reduce pain C. Prevent fractures D. Minimalize disability E. Control inflammation
BDE
Which instructions should the nurse provide to the parents of children in an elementary school which is experiencing an outbreak of lice and body mites? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "Obtain over-the-counter antiparasitic lotion and apply according to label directions." B. "Look for small bugs in your children's hair or small objects attached to the hair shaft." C. "Look for bugs between fingers, under the arms, and in the pubic area." D. "Open the windows and doors of your house and let fresh air blow through to eliminate lice and mites in the home." E. "If lice or mites are found, stuffed animals should be washed or sealed in an airtight bag for 2 weeks."
BE
A client asks the nurse what swimmer's ear is. Which information should the nurse include in the discussion? A. "There is fluid in the vestibule of the inner ear." B. "The infection is behind the tympanic membrane." C. "It is an inflammation of your external auditory canal." D. "The fluid is trapped in the middle ear."
C
A client being treated for acne asks the nurse why they are prescribed doxycycline. Which response should the nurse provide? A. "The prescription will prevent an infection." B. "Your acne looks infected." C. "The prescription will lessen the inflammation." D. "Your acne contains bacteria."
C
A client has been advised to use an over-the-counter acne product that contains benzoyl peroxide and salicylic acid. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Many people find this medication makes their acne worse." B. "Gently wash your face within a few hours of applying this product." C. "Test this product on a small area of skin for 3 days before applying to your face." D. "Do not take aspirin while using this product."
C
A client prescribed ultraviolet (UV) light therapy for a skin condition states to the nurse "This treatment is so expensive, I think I will go to the tanning salon instead." Which information should the nurse provide the client? A. "That will only work if your tanning salon has a particular type of bed." B. "A tanning bed emits the same UV light that is used for therapy." C. "The light therapy you require should be closely monitored." D. "Your insurance should pay for your treatments."
C
A client tells the nurse that the timolol (Timoptic) eyedrops their sting their eyes. Which response should the nurse provide the client? A. "Your eyedrops may have expired; check the date." B. "You should flush your eyes immediately with saline." C. "This is a normal and expected effect of the drops." D. "Hold the next dose and contact your healthcare provider."
C
A nurse is teaching a client about raloxifene therapy to prevent osteoporosis. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following indications of an adverse reaction to this drug? Loss of hair Numbess of the fingertips Calf pain Blisters on mucus membranes
C
Alendronate is contraindicated for administration to client who have which of the following conditions? Heart Failure Fish protein allergy Inability to sit upright Tuberculosis
C
Clients who have contracted head lice in the nursing home are prescribed lindane (Kwell). Which medical diagnosis should the nurse be concerned about when administering lindane? A. Hypothyroidism B. Diabetes mellitus C. Seizures D. Stroke
C
The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed timolol (Timoptic). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I will restrict my caffeine to one cup of coffee per day." B. "I will store my drops in the refrigerator and make sure it is room temperature before instilling the drops." C. "I understand I may experience blurred vision after administering the prescription." D. "I will discontinue the drops if my eyes appear reddened."
C
The nurse has provided discharge teaching for a client prescribed a mydriatic drug. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "I will not drive until this drug wears off." B. "I may have periods of blurry vision for several days." C. "I will use artificial tears if my eyes feel dry." D. "I will wear sunglasses while I am outside."
C
The nurse has provided education to a client prescribed Adalimumab (Humira). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? A. "I will store the prescription in the refrigerator." B. "I will stop using echinacea." C. "I will practice drawing up the prescription in a syringe." D. "I am glad I do not have to take the prescription daily."
C
The nurse is preparing to provide education for a client prescribed sodium hyaluronate (Hyalgan). Which information should the nurse plan on including in the instructions? A. "You will need to return to the clinical every 3 months." B. "Sodium hyaluronate is a synthetic fluid that is injected around your joints." C. "This will help prevent friction of the joints." D. "You will be receiving one injection a month."
C
The nurse reviewing the records of a client notes a prescription for tretinoin (Avita). Which question should the nurse include in the assessment? A. "Is your rosacea getting better?" B. "Have you noticed the lesions healing?" C. "Is your acne clearing up?" D. "Have you noticed your eczema is clearing up?"
C
Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate for a client diagnosed with rosacea? A. Red plaques B. Greasy scales C. Small papules D. Inflammatory pustules
C
Which information should the nurse provide the client prescribed cycloplegic eye drops prior to an eye examination? A. The drugs will dilate the pupil and lubricate the eye to provide additional comfort during the examination. B. The drops will dilate the pupil so that the physician can better visualize the retina during examination. C. The drops dilate the pupil and paralyze the ciliary muscle to prevent the lens from moving during examination. D. The drops will paralyze the muscles that move the eye so that examination can take place.
C
Which initial technique should the nurse use to facilitate the removal of cerumen? A. A sterile cotton-tipped applicator to remove cerumen B. Flush with warm water C. Instill an earwax softener D. Instill 2% acetic acid in each ear
C
Which is a contributing factor to the symptoms of gout? A. Cartilage loss in the joints. B. Decrease in uric acid in the blood. C. Buildup of uric acid in the blood. D. An increase in the excretion of uric acid.
C
Which response should the nurse provide the client that asks how skin cells are replaced? A. "The stratum germinativum supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost." B. "The dermis supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost." C. "The epidermis supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost." D. "The stratum corneum supplies new cells after older cells have been damaged or lost."
C
Which should the nurse plan to administer to a client that requires the enhancement of tear production? A. Cetirizine ophthalmic (Zerviate) B. Topical corticosteroid C. Lifitegrast (Xiidra) D. Olopatadine (Patanol)
C
Which statement should the nurse include in a client's education when discussing calcium supplementation? A. "The vitamin D supplement can be taken separately." B. "This drug may cause insomnia." C. "Take your calcium with a meal." D. "Take the calcium on an empty stomach."
C
Which symptom does the nurse anticipate for a client that has experienced systemic absorption of a cholinergic eye drops? A. Bradycardia B. Tremors C. Salivation D. Hypotension
C
Which treatment should the nurse anticipate for a client with tinea capitis? A. Clotrimazole B. Permethrin C. Undecylenic acid D. Acyclovir
C
Which assessment findings should the nurse anticipate for the client that has overdosed on vitamin D? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Abdominal cramping B. Muscle twitching C. Vomiting D. Fatigue E. Excessive thirst
CDE
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking etanercept for RA. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following indications of a serious AE? Excessive Salivation Increased Thirst Blood in the urine Shortness of breath
D
A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for calcium citrate about manifestation of hypercalcemia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching? Muscle twitching Laryngospasm Paresthesia Vomiting
D
The nurse has provided client education about the treatment for open-angle glaucoma. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? A. "I can stop the eyedrops when the glaucoma has resolved." B. "The eyedrops are only required if I feel discomfort in my eyes." C. "The strength of the prescription will continue to be increased." D. "I will have to use eyedrops for the rest of my life."
D
Which area of a client's body should the nurse prepare to assess that is diagnosed with tinea unguium? A. Scalp B. Feet C. Pubic area D. Nails
D
Which assessment finding indicates the pharmacological treatment for the client with open angle glaucoma is therapeutic? A. IOP of 32 mmHg B. Absence of headaches C. Decreased photophobia D. Improved visual acuity
D
Which assessment is the best to determine the effectiveness of bisphosphonate therapy for a client with osteoporosis? A. Normal serum calcium levels B. Absence of bone pain C. Absence of fractures D. Bone density scan
D
Which assessment should the nurse include in the treatment plan for a client receiving calcium intravenously (IV)? A. Serum glucose levels. B. Level of consciousness. C. Serum potassium levels. D. Intravenous (IV) site.
D
Which describes the mechanism of action of prostaglandin analogs used for the treatment of intraocular pressure? A. Produce miosis, constriction of the pupil, and contraction of the ciliary muscle B. Decreasing the production of aqueous humor by the ciliary body C. Decrease the formation of aqueous humor by reducing the plasma volume D. Enhance the outflow of aqueous humor
D
Which describes the primary function of the dermis? A. Insulates the body B. Provides energy C. Forms a protective a barrier against foreign matter D. Provides foundation for hair and nails
D
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed eye drops for glaucoma? A. Instill the drops into the conjunctival sack and lacrimal duct area B. Avoid wearing contact lenses until treatment is completed C. Hold pressure for 5 minutes to prevent leakage into the nasopharynx D. Keep the lights dim after administration to avoid light sensitivity
D
Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client with psoriasis vulgaris? A. Appears after a streptococcal infection and will resolve spontaneously. B. Average onset is 50 years of age. C. About 20% of clients will also have arthritis. D. This type of psoriasis requires long- term treatment.
D
Which instructions should the nurse include in the education for a client has lice infestation of the eyelids? A. "The systemic effect of the lotion you are using on your hair will kill these lice, so no specific treatment is necessary." B. "These lice should be pulled off manually." C. "Dilute the permethrin lotion with water before applying it to your eyelids." D. "Apply a thin coat of petroleum jelly to your eyelashes once a day for a week."
D
Which is the nurse's primary concern for a client with a low calcium level? A. Hypoglycemia B. Depression C. Bone fractures D. Seizures
D
Which should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the primary treatment of mastoiditis? A. Wax softener B. Antifungal agent C. Corticosteroid D. Antibiotic
D
Which should the nurse plan to administer to a client to restore their calcium balance? A. Calcium supplements and dark green, leafy vegetables B. Calcium supplements and milk products C. Calcium supplements and potassium D. Calcium supplements and vitamin D
D
Which statement made by a client supports their diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis? A. "I have a great deal of stiffness in the morning." B. "My muscles feel very weak." C. "I experience numbness in my joints." D. "My attacks occur at night."
D
Which testing should the nurse instruct the client receives hydroxychloroquine sulfate (Plaquenil) to do on a regular basis? A. Hearing tests B. Blood pressure C. Serum glucose D. Eye exams
D
Which information should the nurse provide for a client prescribed permethrin (Nix) for the treatment of body mites? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. "Make certain you get the 1% lotion." B. "You should leave the lotion on your body for 10 minutes." C. "You should expect almost immediate relief from the itching." D. "You may feel some stinging or tingling while the lotion is being used." E. "You should not use this medication if you are sensitive to chrysanthemums."
DE
Which measurements of intraocular pressure should the nurse recognize requires pharmacological intervention? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. A single reading of 14 mmHg B. A consistent reading trending between 15 and 16 mmHg. C. A single reading of 19 mmHg. D. Readings consistently higher than 21 mmHg. E. A single reading of 32 mmHg.
DE
Which structures contain aqueous humor? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. A. Fovea B. Sclera C. Conjunctiva D. Anterior chamber E. Posterior chamber
DE
