Code of Ethics

102. Certain corporate finance services may create advocacy or self-review threats; however,safeguards may be available to reduce these threats to an acceptable level. Examples of such services include the following, except a. Committing the assurance client to the terms of a transaction or consummating a transaction on behalf of the client. b. Assisting a client in developing corporate strategies. c. Assisting in identifying or introducing a client to possible sources of capital that meet the client specifications or criteria. d. Providing structuring advice and assisting a client in analyzing the accounting effects of proposed transactions. Fees and Pricing

A

105. Fees calculated on a predetermined basis relating to the outcome or result of a transaction or the result of the work preformed. a. Contingent fees c. Flat sum fees b. Retainer fees d. Per diem fees

A

108. Professional fees should be a fair reflection of the value of the professional services performed for the client, taking into account: a b c d • The skill and knowledge required for the type of professional services involved Yes Yes Yes Yes • The level of training and experience of the persons necessarily engaged in performing the professional services Yes Yes Yes No • The time necessarily occupied by each person engaged in performing the professional services Yes Yes No No • The degree of responsibility that performing those services entails Yes No No No

A

110. The Rules of Conduct will ordinarily be considered to have been violated when the professional accountant represents that specific consulting services will be performed for a stated fee and it is apparent at the time of the representation that the a. Actual fee would be substantially higher. b. Actual fee would be substantially lower than the fees charged by other professional accountants for comparable services c. Fee was a competitive bid. d. Professional accountant would not be independent.

A

111. Which of the following fee arrangements would violate the Code of Professional Conduct? a. A fee based on the approval of a bank loan. b. A fee based on the outcome of a bankruptcy proceeding. c. A per hour fee that includes out-of-pocket expenses. d. A fee based on the complexity of the engagement

A

119. Publicity by individual professional accountants in public practice is acceptable provided: a b c d • It has as its object the notification to the public or such sectors of the public as are concerned,of matters of fact in a manner that is not false,misleading or deceptive Yes Yes No Yes • It is in good taste Yes Yes Yes Yes • It is professionally dignified Yes Yes Yes No • It avoids frequent repetition of, and any undue prominence being given to the name of the professional accountant in public practice Yes No No Yes

A

124. Which statement is incorrect regarding employed professional accountants? a. Employed professional accountants owe a duty of loyalty to their employer as well as to the profession, therefore there may be no time that the two will be in conflict. b. A professional accountant, particularly one having authority over others, should give due weight for the need for them to develop and hold their own judgment in accounting matters and should deal with difference of opinion in a professional way. c. When undertaking significant tasks for which a professional accountant has not had sufficient specific training or experience, he or she should not mislead the employer as to the degree of expertise or experience he or she possesses, and where appropriate,expert advice and assistance should be sought. d. A professional accountant is expected to present financial information fully, honestly and professionally and so that it will be understood in its context.-end of AT-5903 -

A

42. There is a broad range of engagements to provide a high or moderate level of assurance.Such engagements may include I. Engagements to report on a broad range of subject matters covering financial and non financial information II. Attest and direct reporting engagements III. Engagements to report internally and externally IV. Engagements in the private and public sector a. I, II, III and IV b. I, II and III c. II only d. I and II only

A

44. For assurance engagements provided to an audit client, the following should be independent of the client a b c d • The members of the assurance team Yes Yes Yes Yes • The firm Yes Yes No No • Network firms Yes No No Yes

A

48. Independence is potentially affected by I. Self-interest threat IV. Familiarity threat II. Self-review threat V. Intimidation threat III. Advocacy threat a. I, II, III, IV and V c. I, II and II b. I, II, III and IV d. I only

A

49. Occurs when a firm or a member of the assurance team could benefit from a financial interest in, or other self-interest conflict with, an assurance client. a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat

A

61. Consideration of the nature of the safeguards to be applied will be affected by matters such as the a b c d • Significance of the threat Yes Yes Yes Yes • Nature of the assurance engagement Yes Yes Yes No • Intended users of the assurance report Yes Yes No Yes • Structure of the firm Yes No No No

A

62. The safeguards available to eliminate the threats or reduce them to an acceptable level include a b c d • Safeguards created by the profession,legislation or regulation Yes Yes Yes Yes • Safeguards within the assurance client Yes Yes No No • Safeguards within the firm's own systems and procedures Yes No No Yes

A

64. Safeguards within the assurance client, include the following, except a. Professional standards and monitoring and disciplinary processes. b. The assurance client has competent employees to make managerial decisions. c. Internal procedures that ensure objective choices in commissioning non-assurance engagements. d. A corporate governance structure, such as an audit committee, that provides appropriate oversight and communications regarding a firm's services.

A

71. When a firm or a member of the assurance team holds a direct financial interest or a material indirect financial interest in the assurance client as a trustee, a self-interest threat may be created by the possible influence of the trust over the assurance client. Accordingly, such an interest cannot be held when: a. The member of the assurance team, an immediate family member of the member of the assurance team, and the firm are beneficiaries of the trust. b. The interest held by the trust in the assurance client is not material to the trust. c. The trust is not able to exercise significant influence over the assurance client. d. The member of the assurance team or the firm does not have significant influence over any investment decision involving a financial interest in the assurance client.

A

73. If a firm, or a network firm, has a direct financial interest in an audit client of the firm, the self interest threat created would be so significant no safeguard could reduce the threat to an acceptable level. The action appropriate to permit the firm to perform the engagement would be to a. Dispose of the financial interest. b. Dispose of a sufficient amount of it so that the remaining interest is no longer material. c. Either a or b. d. Neither a nor b

A

100. Which of the following threats to independence can be eliminated or reduced to an acceptable level? a. Acting for an audit client in the resolution of a dispute or litigation in such circumstances when the amounts involved are material in relation to the financial statements of the audit client. b. When a firm is asked to act in an advocacy role for an audit client in the resolution of a dispute or litigation in circumstances when the amounts involved are not material to the financial statements of the audit client. c. The appointment of a partner or an employee of the firm or network firm as General Counsel for legal affairs to an audit client. d. Both a and c. Recruiting Senior Management

B

101. The recruitment of senior management for an assurance client, such as those in a position to affect the subject of the assurance engagement may least likely create a. Self-interest threat c. Intimidation threat b. Advocacy threat d. Familiarity threat Corporate Finance and Similar Activities

B

121. Which of the following is acceptable? a. A professional accountant invited a potential client to attend training courses or seminars conducted for the assistance of staff. b. Job specification that gives some detail as to one or more of the services provided to clients by the professional accountant in public practice was communicated to the public through the classified ads section of a newspaper. c. A professional accountant in public practice indicated in his stationery that he is a tax expert. d. A professional accountant developed a website that contains self-laudatory statements designed to solicit clients.

B

122. Professional accountant who author books or articles on professional subjects, may state a b c d • His or her name Yes Yes Yes Yes • Professional qualifications Yes Yes Yes No • Name of organization Yes Yes No No • Information as to the services his or her firm provide Yes No No No

B

45. For assurance engagements provided to clients that are not audit clients, when the report isnot expressly restricted for use by identified users, the following should be independent of theclient a b c d • The members of the assurance team Yes Yes Yes Yes • The firm Yes Yes No No • Network firms Yes No No Yes

B

47. The firm should be independent of the client in the following engagements a b c d • Assurance engagements provided to an audit client Yes Yes Yes Yes • Assurance engagements provided to clients that are not audit clients, when the report is not expressly restricted for use by identified users Yes Yes No No • Assurance engagements provided to clients that are not audit clients, when the assurance report is expressly restricted for use by identified users Yes No No Yes

B

52. Occurs when any product or judgment of a previous assurance engagement or nonassurance engagement needs to be re-evaluated in reaching conclusions on the assurance engagement or when a member of the assurance team was previously a director or officer of the assurance client, or was an employee in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement. a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat

B

58. Intimidation threat a. Is not a threat to independence. b. Occurs when a member of the assurance team may be deterred from acting objectively and exercising professional skepticism by threats, actual or perceived, from the directors,officers or employees of an assurance client. c. Occurs when, by virtue of a close relationship with an assurance client, its directors,officers or employees, a firm or a member of the assurance team becomes too sympathetic to the client's interests. d. Occurs when a firm, or a member of the assurance team, promotes, or may be perceived to promote, an assurance client's position or opinion to the point that objectivity may, or may be perceived to be, compromised.

B

65. Safeguards within the firm's own systems and procedures, include the following, except a. Firm leadership that stresses the importance of independence and the expectation that members of assurance teams will act in the public interest. b. External review of a firm's quality control system. c. Policies and procedures to implement and monitor quality control of assurance engagements. d. Policies and procedures that will enable the identification of interests or relationships between the firm or members of the assurance team and assurance clients.

B

67. Which of the following is incorrect regarding engagement period? a. The period of the engagement starts when the assurance team begins to perform assurance services and ends when the assurance report is issued, except when the assurance engagement is of a recurring nature. b. If the assurance engagement is expected to recur, the period of the assurance engagement ends with the notification by either party that the professional relationship has terminated or the issuance of the final assurance report, whichever is earlier. c. In the case of an audit engagement, the engagement period includes the period covered by the financial statements reported on by the firm. d. When an entity becomes an audit client during or after the period covered by the financial statements that the firm will report on, the firm should consider whether any threats to independence may be created by previous services provided to the audit client. Application of Principles to Specific Situations Financial Interests -Provisions applicable to all assurance clients

B

77. Family and personal relationships between a member of the assurance team and a director,an officer or certain employees, depending on their role, of the assurance client, least likely create a. Self-interest threat c. Intimidation threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat

B

79. A director, an officer or an employee of the assurance client in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement has been a member of the assurance team or partner of the firm. This situation least likely create a. Self-interest threat c. Intimidation threat b. Advocacy threat d. Familiarity threat

B

84. Which statement is incorrect regarding long association of senior personnel with audit clients that are listed entities? a. Using the same lead engagement partner on an audit over a prolonged period may create a familiarity threat. b. The lead engagement partner should be rotated after a pre-defined period, normally no more than seven (7) years. c. A partner rotating after a pre-defined period should not resume the lead engagement partner role until a further period of time, normally two years, has elapsed. d. When audit client becomes a listed entity the length of time the lead engagement partner has served the audit client in that capacity should be considered in determining when the partner should rotated.

B

85. The partner may continue to serve as the lead engagement partner before rotating off the engagement for how many years after audit client becomes a listed entity? a. One year c. Three years b. Two years d. Four years

B

90. If the firm is involved in the preparation of accounting records or financial statements and those financial statements are subsequently the subject matter of an audit engagement of the firm, this will most likely create a. Self-interest threat c. Intimidation threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat Preparing Accounting Records and Financial Statements -Audit Clients that are not Listed Entities

B

95. If the valuation services involves the valuation of matters material to the financial statements and the valuation involves a significant degree of subjectivity, the self-review threat created(choose the incorrect one) a. Could not be reduced to an acceptable level by the application of any safeguard. b. Could be reduced to an acceptable level by the application of safeguards. c. Such valuation services should not be provided. d. The assurance team should withdraw from the audit engagement, if the team opted to perform the valuation services.

B

97. The provision of services by a firm or network firm to an audit client that involve the design and implementation of financial information technology systems that are used to generate information forming part of a client's financial statements may most likely create a. Self-interest threat c. Intimidation threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat

B

98. Which of the following is least likely considered to create a threat to independence? a. The provision of services by a firm or network firm to an audit client which involve either the design or the implementation of financial information technology systems that are used to generate information forming part of a client's financial statements. b. The provision of services in connection with the assessment, design and implementation of internal accounting controls and risk management controls. c. The lending of staff by a firm, or network firm, to an audit client when the individual is in a position to influence the preparation of a client's accounts or financial statements. d. The provision of litigation support services to an audit client, which include the estimation of the possible outcome and thereby affects the amounts or disclosures to be reflected in the financial statements. Provision of Legal Services to Audit Clients

B

104. A client company has not paid its 2003 audit fees. According to the Code of Professional Conduct, for the auditor to be considered independent with respect to the 2004 audit, the 2003 audit fees must be paid before the a. 2003 report is issued c. 2004 report is issued b. 2004 field work is started d. 2005 field work is started

C

106. Which of the following is least likely to create a threat to independence? a. The fees generated by the assurance client represent a large proportion of the revenue of an individual partner. b. The firm charges a contingent fee to an assurance client. c. Accepting gifts or hospitality, the value of which is clearly insignificant, from an assurance client. d. When litigation takes place, or appears likely, between the firm or a member of the assurance team and the assurance client.

C

120. Which of the following is not acceptable? a. An appointment of a professional accountant in a matter of national importance was publicized. b. A professional accountant writes a letter to another professional accountant seeking employment or professional business. c. A professional accountant is listed in a directory that could reasonably be regarded as a promotional advertisement for those listed therein. d. A professional accountant who authored an article on professional subject, stated his name and professional qualifications and gave the name of his organization

C

46. For assurance engagements provided to clients that are not audit clients, when the assurance report is expressly restricted for use by identified users, the following should be independent of the client a b c d • The members of the assurance team Yes Yes Yes Yes • The firm Yes Yes No No • Network firms Yes No No Yes

C

54. Occurs when a firm, or a member of the assurance team, promotes, or may be perceived top romote, an assurance client's position or opinion to the point that objectivity may, or may be perceived to be, compromised. Such may be the case if a firm or a member of the assurance team were to subordinate their judgment to that of the client. a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat

C

60. When threats to independence that are not clearly insignificant are identified, the following are appropriate, except a. Professional judgment is used to determine the appropriate safeguards to eliminate threats to independence or to reduce them to an acceptable level. b. In situations when no safeguards are available to reduce the threat to an acceptable level,the only possible actions are to eliminate the activities or interest creating the threat, or to refuse to accept or continue the assurance engagement. c. When the firm decides to accept or continue the assurance engagement, the not be documented provided the threats identified were eliminated. d. The evaluation of the significance of any threats to independence and the safeguards necessary to reduce any threats to an acceptable level, takes into account the public interest.

C

69. If a member of the assurance team, or their immediate family member receives, by way of, for example, an inheritance, gift or, as a result of a merger, a direct financial interest or a material indirect financial interest in the assurance client, a self-interest threat would be created. The following safeguards should be applied to eliminate the threat or reduce it to an acceptable level: a. Disposing of the financial interest at the earliest practical date. b. Removing the member of the assurance team from the assurance engagement. c. Either a or b. d. Neither a nor b

C

70. When a member of the assurance team knows that his or her close family member has a direct financial interest or a material indirect financial interest in the assurance client, a self interest threat may be created. Safeguards least likely include: a. The close family member disposing of all or a sufficient portion of the financial interest at the earliest practical date. b. Discussing the matter with those charged with governance, such as the audit committee. c. Involving a professional accountant who took part in the assurance engagement to review the work done by the member of the assurance team with the close family relationship or otherwise advise as necessary. d. Removing the individual from the assurance engagement.

C

80. If a member of the assurance team, partner or former partner of the firm has joined the assurance client, the significance of the self-interest, familiarity or intimidation threats created is least likely affected by a. The position the individual has taken at the assurance client. b. The amount of any involvement the individual will have with the assurance team. c. The length of time that the individual was a member of the assurance team or firm. d. The former position of the individual within the assurance team or firm. Recent Service with Assurance Clients

C

81. A former officer, director or employee of the assurance client serves as a member of the assurance team. This situation will least likely create a. Self-interest threat c. Intimidation threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat Serving as an Officer or Director on the Board of Assurance Clients

C

83. Using the same senior personnel on an assurance engagement over a long period of time may create a familiarity threat. The significance of the threat will least likely depend upon a. The length of time that the individual has been a member of the assurance team. b. The role of the individual on the assurance team. c. The structure of the client. d. The nature of the assurance engagement. Long Association of Senior Personnel with Assurance Clients -Audit Clients that are Listed Entities

C

86. While the lead engagement partner should be rotated after such a pre-defined period, some degree of flexibility over timing of rotation may be necessary in certain circumstances.Examples of such circumstances include: a. Situations when the lead engagement partner's continuity is especially important to the audit client, for example, when there will be major changes to the audit client's structure that would otherwise coincide with the rotation of the lead engagement partner. b. Situations when, due to the size of the firm, rotation is not possible or does not constitute an appropriate safeguard. c. Both a and b. d. Neither a nor b. Provision of Non-Assurance Services to Assurance Clients

C

92. The safeguards necessary to reduce the threat, created by providing accounting and bookkeeping services to an audit client that is not a listed entity, to an acceptable level might include the following, except a. Making arrangements so such services are not performed by a member of the assurance team. b. Implementing policies and procedures to prohibit the individual providing such services from making any managerial decisions on behalf of the audit client. c. Requiring the source data for the accounting entries to be originated by the assurance team. d. Obtaining audit client approval for any proposed journal entries or other changes affecting the financial statements. Preparing Accounting Records and Financial Statements -Audit Clients that are Listed Entities

C

103. Which of the following is not likely to create a threat to independence? a. The total fees generated by an assurance client represent a large proportion of a firm's total fees. b. Fees due from an assurance client for professional services remain unpaid for a longtime. c. A firm obtains an assurance engagement at a significantly lower fee level than that charged by the predecessor firm, or quoted by other firms. d. A court or other public authority established fees.

D

107. Which statement is incorrect regarding Professional Competence and Responsibilities Regarding the Use of Non-Accountants? a. Professional accountants in public practice should refrain from agreeing to perform professional services which they are not competent to carry out. b. If a professional accountant does not have the competence to perform a specific part of the professional service, technical advice may be sought from experts. c. In situations wherein a professional accountant sought technical advice from experts,although the professional accountant is relying on the technical competence of the expert,the knowledge of the ethical requirements cannot be automatically assumed. d. If at any time the professional accountant is not satisfied that proper ethical behavior can be respected or assured, the engagement should not be accepted unless the engagement has commenced in which case the auditor is allowed to finish the engagement

D

109. Which statement is incorrect regarding professional fees? a. Professional fees should normally be computed on the basis of appropriate rates per hour or per day for the time of each person engaged in performing professional services. b. The appropriate rates should be based on the fundamental premise that the organization and conduct of the professional accountant in public practice and the services provided to clients are well planned, controlled and managed. c. It is for each professional accountant in public practice to determine the appropriate rates. d. It is not proper for a professional accountant in public practice to charge a client a lower fee than has previously been charged for similar services

D

112. Which of the following actions by a professional accountant in public practice will not result in violation of the Code of Ethics regarding commissions? a. Accepting commission for referring a client to a third party. b. Accepting commission for the referral of the products or services of others. c. Receipt of referral fees by the referring accountant when no services are performed by the referring accountant. d. Entering into an arrangement for the purchase of the whole or part of an accounting practice requiring payments to individuals formerly engaged in the practice or payments to their heirs or estates

D

113. Which statement is incorrect regarding activities incompatible with the practice of public accountancy? a. A professional accountant in public practice should not concurrently engage in any business, occupation or activity which impairs or might impair integrity, objectivity or independence, or the good reputation of the profession. b. A professional accountant in public practice should not concurrently engage in any business, occupation or activity which would be incompatible with the rendering of professional services. c. The rendering of two or more types of professional services concurrently does by itself impair integrity, objectivity or independence d. The simultaneous engagement in another business, occupation or activity unrelated to professional services which has the effect of not allowing the professional accountant in public practice properly to conduct a professional practice in accordance with the fundamental ethical principles of the accountancy profession should be regarded as inconsistent with the practice of public accountancy

D

114. Which statement is incorrect regarding clients' monies? a. The professional accountants in public practice should not hold client's; monies if there is reason to believe that they were obtained from, or are to be used for, illegal activities. b. A professional accountant in public practice should maintain one or more bank accounts for clients' monies. c. Monies may only be drawn from the client account on the instructions of the client. d. Fees due from a client may be drawn from client's monies without the need of notifying the client.

D

115. Which statement is incorrect regarding relations with other professional accountants in public practice? a. Professional accountants in public practice should only undertake the services which they can expect to complete with professional competence. b. The wishes of the client should be paramount in the choice of professional advisers,whether or not special skills are involved. c. When a professional accountant in public practice is asked to provide services or advice,inquiries should be made as to whether the prospective client has an existing accountant. d. The receiving accountant may express any criticism of the professional services of the existing accountant without giving the latter an opportunity to provide all relevant information.

D

116. Communication between the receiving accountant and existing accountant is not intended a. To protect a professional accountant in public practice from accepting an appointment in circumstances where all the pertinent facts are not known. b. To protect the minority proprietors of a business who may not be fully informed of the circumstances in which the change is proposed. c. To protect the interests of the existing accountant when the proposed change arises from,or is an attempt to interfere with, the conscientious exercise of the existing accountant's duty to act as an independent professional. d. To restrict the client's freedom to choose their professional advisers and to change to others.

D

117. The existing accountant, on receipt of the communication from the proposed professional accountant in public practice, should not a. Reply, preferably in writing, advising whether there are any professional reasons why the proposed professional accountant in public practice should not accept the appointment. b. Ensure that the client has given permission to give details of this information to the proposed professional accountant in public practice. c. Report the fact, that the permission is not granted, to the proposed professional accountant in public practice. d. Disclose all information needed by the proposed professional accountant in public practice to be able to decide whether or not to accept the appointment, if permission is not granted.

D

41. Whether a particular engagement is an assurance engagement will depend upon whether itexhibits all the following elements, including :I. A three party relationship involving a professional accountant, a responsible party, and anintended user II. A subject matter III. A suitable criteria IV. An engagement process V. A conclusion a. I, II, III, IV and V c. I, II, and III b. I, II, III and V d. I, II, III and IV

D

43. Not all engagements performed by professional accountants are assurance engagements. Other engagements frequently performed by professional accountants that are not assurance engagements include the following, except: a. Agreed-upon procedures b. Compilation of financial or other information c. Management consulting d. Examination of prospective financial information

D

50. Examples of circumstances that may create self-interest threat include a. Contingent fees relating to assurance engagements. b. A direct financial interest or material indirect financial interest in an assurance client. c. A loan or guarantee to or from an assurance client or any of its directors or officers. d. All of the above.

D

51. Which of the following least likely create "self-interest threat" a. Undue dependence on total fees from an assurance client. b. Concern about the possibility of losing the engagement. c. Having a close business relationship with an assurance client. d. Pressure to reduce inappropriately the extent of work performed in order to reduce fees

D

53. Examples of circumstances that may create self-review threat least likely include a. Preparation of original data used to generate financial statements or preparation of other records that are the subject matter of the assurance engagement. b. A member of the assurance team being, or having recently been, an employee of the assurance client in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement. c. Performing services for an assurance client that directly affect the subject matter of the assurance engagement. d. Potential employment with an assurance client

D

56. Occurs when, by virtue of a close relationship with an assurance client, its directors, officers or employees, a firm or a member of the assurance team becomes too sympathetic to the client's interests. a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat

D

57. Examples of circumstances that may create familiarity threat least likely include a. A member of the assurance team having an immediate family member or close family member who is a director or officer of the assurance client. b. A member of the assurance team having an immediate family member or close family member who, as an employee of the assurance client, is in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement. c. A former partner of the firm being a director, officer of the assurance client or an employee in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement. d. Dealing in, or being a promoter of, share or other securities in an assurance client.

D

59. Which of the following is not likely a threat to independence? a. Acting as an advocate on behalf of an assurance client in litigation or in resolving disputes with third parties. b. Long association of a senior member of the assurance team with the assurance client. c. Threat of replacement over a disagreement with the application of an accounting principle. d. Owning immaterial indirect financial interest in an audit client.

D

63. Safeguards created by the profession, legislation or regulation, include the following, except a. Educational, training and experience requirements for entry into the profession. b. Continuing education requirements. c. Legislation governing the independence requirements of the firm. d. Policies and procedures that emphasize the assurance client's commitment to fair financial reporting.

D

66. When the safeguards available are insufficient to eliminate the threats to independence or to reduce them to an acceptable level,or when a firm chooses not to eliminate the activities or interest creating the threat, the only course of action available will be the a. Issuance of an adverse opinion. b. Issuance of qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion. c. Issuance of unqualified opinion with explanatory paragraph. d. Refusal to perform, or withdrawal from, the assurance engagement.

D

72. An inadvertent violation of the Independence rules as it relates to a financial interest in an assurance client would not impair the independence of the firm, the network firm or a member of the assurance team when: a. The firm, and the network firm, has established policies and procedures that require all professionals to report promptly to the firm any breaches resulting from the purchase,inheritance or other acquisition of a financial interest in the assurance client. b. The firm, and the network firm, promptly notifies the professional that the financial interest should be disposed of. c. The disposal occurs at the earliest practical date after identification of the issue, or the professional is removed from the assurance team. d. All of the above.Financial Interests -Provisions applicable to audit clients

D

74. The following self-interest threat created would be so significant no safeguard could reduce the threat to an acceptable level, except a. If a firm, or a network firm, has a direct financial interest in an audit client of the firm. b. If a firm, or a network firm, has a material indirect financial interest in an audit client of the firm. c. If a firm, or a network firm, has a material financial interest in an entity that has a controlling interest in an audit client. d. If the retirement benefit plan of a firm, or network firm, has a financial interest in an audit client Loans and Guarantees

D

75. The following loans and guarantees would not create a threat to independence, except a. A loan from, or a guarantee thereof by, an assurance client that is a bank or a similar institution, to the firm, provided the loan is made under normal lending procedures, terms and requirements and the loan is immaterial to both the firm and the assurance client. b. A loan from, or a guarantee thereof by, an assurance client that is a bank or a similar institution, to a member of the assurance team or their immediate family, provided the loan is made under normal lending procedures, terms and requirements. c. Deposits made by, or brokerage accounts of, a firm or a member of the assurance team with an assurance client that is a bank, broker or similar institution, provided the depositor account is held under normal commercial terms. d. If the firm, or a member of the assurance team, makes a loan to an assurance client, that is not a bank or similar institution, or guarantees such an assurance client's borrowing. Close Business Relationship with Assurance Clients

D

76. Examples of close business relationships that may create self-interest and intimidation threat least likely include a. Having a material financial interest in a joint venture with the assurance client or a controlling owner, director, officer or other individual who performs senior managerial functions for that client. b. Arrangements to combine one or more services or products of the firm with one or more services or products of the assurance client and to market the package with reference to both parties. c. Distribution or marketing arrangements under which the firm acts as a distributor or marketer of the assurance client's products or services, or the assurance client acts as the distributor or marketer of the products or services of the firm. d. The purchase of goods and services from an assurance client by the firm(or from an audit client by a network firm) or a member of the assurance team, provided the transaction is in the normal course of business and on an arm's length basis. Family and Personal Relationships

D

78. An inadvertent violation of the rules on family and personal relationships would not impair the independence of a firm or a member of the assurance team when: a. The firm has established policies and procedures that require all professionals to report promptly to the firm any breaches resulting from changes in the employment status of their immediate or close family members or other personal relationships that create threats to independence. b. Either the responsibilities of the assurance team are re-structured so that the professional does not deal with matters that are within the responsibility of the person with whom he or she is related or has a personal relationship, or, if this is not possible, the firm promptly removes the professional from the assurance engagement. c. Additional care is given to reviewing the work of the professional. d. All of the above.Employment with Assurance Clients

D

82. Which of the following will least likely impair independence? a. An immediate family member of a member of the assurance team is a director, an officer or an employee of the assurance client in a position to exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter of the assurance engagement. b. A member of the assurance team participates in the assurance engagement while knowing, or having reason to believe, that he or she is to, or may, join the assurance client some time in the future. c. A partner or employee of the firm serves as an officer or as a director on the board of an assurance client. d. A partner or employee of the firm or a network firm serves as Company Secretary for an audit client, the duties and functions undertaken are limited to those of a routine and formal administrative nature as such as the preparation of minutes and maintenance of statutory returns. Long Association of Senior Personnel with Assurance Clients -General Provisions

D

88. If firm, or network firm, personnel providing such assistance make management decisions,the self-review threat created could not be reduced to an acceptable level by any safeguards.Examples of such managerial decisions include the following, except a. Determining or changing journal entries, or the classifications for accounts or transactions or other accounting records without obtaining the approval of the audit clients b. Authorizing or approving transactions. c. Preparing source documents or originating data (including decisions on evaluationassumptions), or making changes to such documents or data. d. Assisting an audit client in resolving account reconciliation problems.

D

89. These following services are considered to be a normal part of the audit process and do not,under circumstances, threaten independence, except a. Analyzing and accumulating information for regulatory reporting. b. Assisting in the preparation of consolidated financial statements. c. Drafting disclosure items. d. Having custody of an assurance client's assets. Preparing Accounting Records and Financial Statements -General Provisions

D

91. The firm, or a network firm, may provide an audit client that is not a listed entity with accounting and bookkeeping services, including payroll services, of a routine or mechanical nature, provided any self-review threat created is reduced to an acceptable level. Examples of such services least likely include: a. Recording transactions for which the audit client has determined or approved the appropriate account classification. b. Posting coded transactions to the audit client's general ledger. c. Preparing financial statements based on information in the trial balance. d. Determining and posting journal entries without obtaining the approval of the audit client.

D

93. The provision of accounting and bookkeeping services of a routine or mechanical nature to divisions or subsidiaries of listed audit clients would not be seen as impairing independence with respect to the audit client provided that the following conditions are met, except a. The services do not involve the exercise of judgment. b. The divisions or subsidiaries for which the service is provided are collectively immaterial to the audit client. c. The services provided are collectively immaterial to the division or subsidiary. d. The fees to the firm, or network firm, from such services are collectively significant. Preparing Accounting Records and Financial Statements -Emergency Situations

D

94. The provision of accounting and bookkeeping services to audit clients in emergency or other unusual situations, when it is impractical for the audit client to make other arrangements,would not be considered to pose an unacceptable threat to independence provided: a. The firm, or network firm, does not assume any managerial role or make any managerial decisions. b. The audit client accepts responsibility for the results of the work. c. Personnel providing the services are not members of the assurance team. d. All of the above. Valuation Services

D

96. The following would not generally create a significant threat to independence, except a. When a firm, or a network firm, performs a valuation service for an audit client for the purposes of making a filing or return to a tax authority. b. The firm provides formal taxation opinions and assistance in the resolution of tax disputes to an audit client. c. The firm renders internal services involving an extension of the procedures required to conduct an audit in accordance with Philippine Standards on Auditing to an audit client. d. When the firm, or a network firm, provides assistance in the performance of a client's internal audit activities or undertakes the outsourcing of some of the activities. Provision of IT Systems Services to Audit Clients

D

99. Legal services are defined as a. The making of assumptions with regard to future developments, the application of certain methodologies and techniques, and the combination of both in order to compute a certain value, or range of values, for an asset, a liability or for a business as a whole. b. A broad range of services, including compliance, planning, provision of formal taxation opinions and assistance in the resolution of tax disputes. c. May include such activities as acting as an expert witness, calculating estimated damages or other amounts that might become receivable or payable as the result of litigation or other legal dispute, and assistance with document management and retrieval in relation to a dispute or litigation. d. Any services for which the person providing the services must either be admitted to practice before the Courts of the jurisdiction in which such services are to be provided, or have the required legal training to practice law.

D

118. Which of the following is true regarding advertising and solicitation? a. Advertising, but not solicitation, by individual professional accountants in public practice is permitted in the Philippines. b. It is clearly desirable that the public should be aware of the range of services available from a professional accountant. c. Solicitation, but not advertising, by individual professional accountants in public practice is permitted in the Philippines. d. A professional accountant in public practice in the Philippines, where advertising is prohibited, may advertise in a newspaper or magazine published in a country where advertising is permitted.

b

123. A professional accountant may invite the following to attend training courses or seminars conducted for the assistance of staff a b c d • Clients Yes Yes No No • Staff Yes Yes Yes Yes • Other professional accountants Yes Yes No No • Potential clients Yes No Yes No

b

55. A CPA-lawyer, acting as a legal counsel to one of his audit client, is an example of a. Self-interest threat c. Advocacy threat b. Self-review threat d. Familiarity threat

c