CompTIA CertMaster Learn Network+ Modules 1-6

A company is planning to restructure its network into multiple subnets to improve security and manageability. The network needs to support four departments: Sales, Marketing, HR, and IT. Each department requires its own subnet. Additionally, the company wants to reserve two subnets for future expansion. How many subnets are required in total? A. 6 B. 8 C. 2 D. 4

A

A company is upgrading its legacy network infrastructure. The existing network is based on 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet with a mix of hubs and switches. The IT manager wants to improve network performance while maintaining compatibility with older devices that only support 10 Mbps Ethernet interfaces. What feature should the IT manager ensure the new network devices support to maintain compatibility with older devices? A. Autonegotiation B. Higher frequency signaling C. Use of hubs instead of switches D. Full-duplex transmissions

A

A cybersecurity analyst is investigating a series of suspicious network activities that have been flagged by the intrusion detection system. The analyst notices a pattern of packets that have unusually large sizes, which could indicate an attempt to exploit vulnerabilities through fragmentation attacks. To further analyze these packets and identify potential threats, the analyst decides to examine the IPv4 datagram headers of the captured packets. Which field in the IPv4 datagram header should the analyst focus on to determine the size of these packets and assess the risk of fragmentation attacks? A. Total Length field B. Fragment Offset field C. Time to Live (TTL) field D. Identification field

A

A network administrator is troubleshooting a network issue in a multi-interface device that operates both an Ethernet and a Wi-Fi connection. The administrator discovers that despite both interfaces having a valid IPv6 link local address, there seems to be confusion about where packets should be routed for local network operations. What should the administrator check to resolve this issue? A. The zone indices appended to the link local addresses B. The subnet masks of the interfaces C. The encryption settings of the interfaces D. The global unicast addresses of the interfaces

A

A network administrator is trying to figure out which switch will be rooted in a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) setup Which of the following would determine the root? A. Lowest ID B. BPDU C. Highest ID D. DPs

A

A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues in a network and uses the traceroute command to diagnose the problem. The traceroute output shows that packets are being sent through an unexpected path that includes the same routers multiple times. What does this indicate, and what should the engineer check first? A. This indicates a potential routing loop; the engineer should check the routing configurations on the involved routers. B. This indicates excessive route summarization; the engineer should check the summarization boundaries. C. This indicates a well-optimized network; the engineer should check for any unused routes. D. This indicates a split horizon issue; the engineer should check if split horizon is disabled.

A

A network technician is researching standards for the physical and data link layer. Which standard, developed to implement the functions of the physical and data link layers of the OSI model, is the most important? A. 802.3 B. 802.1D C. 802.11 D. 802.1X

A

A systems administrator wants to ensure that port numbers are being appropriately assigned for each type of network application. What layer of the OSI model should the administrator be reviewing to ensure these actions are taken? A. Transport B. Session C. Network D. Application

A

An administrator ran a command and determined that the FQDN of a client is forbes.sales.realty.com. What is the hostname of the client? A. forbes B. com C. sales D. realty

A

During a network upgrade, a system administrator switches to a new DNS server. After the change, the administrator receives reports that some clients are experiencing intermittent domain name resolution failures. What is the MOST likely cause of these intermittent issues? A. Clients are still configured with the old DNS server addresses. B. The network cables connecting to the new DNS server are faulty. C. The clients' network adapters are malfunctioning. D. The new DNS server is overloaded.

A

During a network upgrade, you are consulting with a small business owner who is deciding between using T568A or T568B for their new Ethernet infrastructure. The business is located in a residential area, and the owner plans to use the network for both business and personal devices. The owner is seeking your advice on which standard to choose. Based on the business owner's situation, what would you recommend? A. Choose T568A because it is mandated by the residential cabling standard. B. Choose T568A because it is cheaper to implement than T568B. C. Choose T568B because it is more secure than T568A. D. Choose T568B because it offers higher data transfer speeds.

A

What does a failure to ping the loopback address indicate? A. The need to reinstall the network protocol stack B. A security issue such as a switch port security issue C. A configuration error with the host's IP address D. A faulty network adapter or adapter driver

A

What does it indicate if an LED fails to light up or does not light in sequence during a wire map test? A. There is a problem with the cable and/or termination. B. The cable is of high quality. C. The cable is shielded. D. The cable length is too long.

A

What does the first half of a MAC address represent? A. The manufacturer's unique identifier B. The network segment identifier C. The IP address of the device D. The serial number of the device

A

What is a key difference between an appliance firewall and a router firewall? A. An appliance firewall performs only the function of a firewall. B. A router firewall is not a hardware-based solution. C. A router firewall cannot monitor traffic. D. An appliance firewall can handle more traffic.

A

What is a key feature of an advanced services router? A. It provides network edge connectivity over Carrier Ethernet networks. B. It only supports wired connections. C. It can only connect to legacy networks. D. It lacks support for specialized processors.

A

What is a likely cause of cyclic redundancy check (CRC) errors? A. Interference affecting the signal quality B. Low network traffic C. A stable and strong signal D. Identical duplex settings on connected devices

A

What is the primary purpose of twisting the pairs in an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable? A. To reduce external interference and crosstalk B. To color-code the cable for easier identification C. To make the cable more flexible D. To increase the cable's thickness

A

What is the purpose of the detection phase in a PoE switch? A. To identify whether the connected device is PoE-enabled and determine its power consumption B. To test the strength of the Ethernet cable C. To encrypt the data being transmitted to the device D. To determine the optimal data transmission rate

A

What is the range of VLAN IDs (VIDs) defined by the IEEE 802.1Q standard? A. 1 to 4,094 B. 1 to 65,536 C. 1 to 100 D. 1 to 1,024

A

What is the role of routers in handling broadcast traffic? A. Routers do not forward broadcast traffic, except under specially configured circumstances. B. Routers convert broadcast traffic into unicast traffic for efficient delivery. C. Routers forward broadcast traffic by default. D. Routers ignore broadcast traffic entirely.

A

What mark is given to plenum-rated data cable under the US National Electrical Code (NEC)? A. CMP/MMP B. CMG/MMG C. CMR/MPR D. CM/MP

A

What must be allocated to a DHCP server to ensure proper functionality? A. A static IP address B. A dynamic IP address C. A DHCP client ID D. A subnet mask only

A

What should you check if a remote IP address cannot be contacted? A. The default gateway parameter on the local host B. The IP address of the local host C. The network protocol stack installation D. The IP configuration of other hosts on the same subnet

A

Which of the following is a characteristic of a hierarchical star topology? A. It is designed in a hierarchy and can be combined with a star topology. B. It relies on a decentralized approach to manage network traffic. C. It connects all nodes directly to each other without a central device. D. It uses a single interface for all network connections.

A

Which of the following is a correct statement about the installation of rack-mounted appliances? A. Appliances can be screwed directly into the rack if there is little need for maintenance. B. Non-standard components cannot be installed in racks under any circumstances. C. Appliances should always be installed on the topmost rack for easy access. D. All appliances must be installed using rail kits for safety reasons.

A

Which of the following routing protocols uses a metric composed of administrator weighted bandwidth and delay elements? A. EIGRP B. RIP C. OSPF D. BGP

A

Which packet does the DHCP client use to accept an IP address offer from the DHCP server? A. DHCPREQUEST B. DHCPDISCOVER C. DHCPOFFER D. DHCPACK

A

Which statement best describes the role of ICMPv6 in IPv6 networks? A. It is used for error messaging supporting ND and MLD. B. It encrypts data packets for secure communication. C. It is primarily used for routing packets over the Internet. D. It assigns routable IPv6 addresses to hosts.

A

Which type of conductor wire is typically used for cables that run behind walls or through ducts? A. Solid B. Stranded C. Fiber optic D. Coaxial

A

Which type of optical fiber is normally used to connect two buildings that are several kilometers apart? A. Single-mode fiber B. Multi-mode fiber C. Coaxial cable D. Shielded twisted pair

A

Why are all ports on a hub considered to be in the same collision domain? A. Because hubs repeat signals to all ports, sharing the same bandwidth and media access B. Because hubs use a special protocol to prevent collisions from occurring C. Because hubs are typically used in networks that do not experience collisions D. Because hubs can intelligently direct traffic to avoid collisions

A

You are analyzing a TCP session teardown in a network capture. You notice that after a period of data transfer, the client sends a FIN packet to the server. The server responds with an ACK packet and, after a short delay, sends a FIN packet to the client. The client then sends an ACK packet to the server. What is the final state of the client after this exchange? A. TIME-WAIT B. CLOSE-WAIT C. ESTABLISHED D. LAST-ACK

A

You are leading a team responsible for the network cabling of a large corporate building. After completing the installation, you plan to ensure that the network meets TIA/EIA 568 Category 6A compliance. Your team has access to various tools, but you want to choose the most appropriate one to certify that the installation exceeds the required performance characteristics for parameters such as attenuation and crosstalk. Which tool should you select for this task? A. A high-end cable certifier B. A simple multimeter C. A wireless signal strength meter D. A basic cable continuity tester

A

You are tasked with configuring a new switch to ensure that a specific port, GigabitEthernet 0/3, is only used by a device with a known MAC address for security reasons. Which of the following steps and commands are necessary to achieve this? A. Enter interface configuration mode for GigabitEthernet 0/3, enable port security, and then specify the allowed MAC address. B. Set the switch port to trunk mode and specify the allowed VLANs. C. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch to track the device's MAC address. D. Directly specify the allowed MAC address in the global configuration mode.

A

You are tasked with installing structured cable from a bulk spool in a new office building. You need to ensure that the cable runs from the telecommunications closet to multiple work areas. Which of the following steps is crucial to ensure a successful installation? A. Pulling the cable through conduits or wall spaces, avoiding excessive bends and proximity to electrical power cables B. Running the cable directly over fluorescent lights to minimize the distance covered C. Bundling as many cables as possible, regardless of their destination, to speed up the installation process D. Cutting the cable into predetermined lengths before routing it through the building

A

You have been called in to troubleshoot a connectivity problem on a newly installed Windows Server system. The system is operating satisfactorily and is able to communicate with other systems on the local network. However it is unable to access any systems on other segments of the corporate network. You suspect that the default gateway parameter for the system has not been configured or may be configured incorrectly. Which of the following utilities are you MOST likely to use to view the system's default gateway information? A. ipconfig B. netstat C. ifconfig D. ping

A

You receive reports from several departments that users are experiencing intermittent network connectivity issues: slow internet speeds, inability to access network drives, and occasional disconnect from the email server. Given the symptoms and the fact that they are affecting multiple departments, you decide to troubleshoot the issue. What is the BEST approach to begin troubleshooting the connectivity issues? A. Methodically prove the functionality of each component in the network system, starting from the user access layer and moving towards the core network infrastructure. B. Check the organization's internet usage policy to ensure no department is exceeding its bandwidth allocation. C. Restart all user devices in the affected departments to see if the issues resolve themselves. D. Send a memo to all employees asking them to refrain from using the Internet for non-work related activities to reduce network load.

A

When troubleshooting a problem, which of the following are typical solutions? (Select three.) A. Repair B. Accept C. Escalate D. Ignore E. Replace F. Postpone G. Outsource

A, B, E

Which of the following statements accurately describe characteristics of the decimal numbering system? (Select two.) A. Each digit can have one of ten possible values. B. Each digit can have one of two possible values. C. A digit positioned to the left of another has 10 times the value of the digit to the right. D. Each digit represents a power of 2. E. It is primarily used for representing binary data.

A, C

Consider the following IPv6 address: FE80:0000:0000:0055:0000:0000:000A:AB00 Which of the following are valid shortened forms of this address? (Select two.) A. FE80::55:0000:0000:A:AB00 B. FE80::55::A:AB C. FE80::0055::000A:AB D. FE80::55::A:AB00 E. FE80:0000:0000:0055::000A:AB00

A, E

When performing subnet calculations, what should you remember? (Select two.) A. Memorize the decimal values for the number of bits set to 1 in an octet within a mask. B. Subnet calculations are unnecessary if you use DHCP. C. Always use the same subnet mask for every subnet to simplify calculations. D. The subnet mask can be any random set of numbers as long as it looks complex. E. Think in terms of the number of mask bits.

A, E

You are a network administrator troubleshooting an issue where a client computer is not properly receiving and handling different types of network traffic. You suspect that the problem lies with the de-multiplexing process at the Transport layer of the OSI model. Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely indicate a problem with the de-multiplexing process at the receiving host? (Select two.) A. The client computer receives a VoIP packet and correctly processes it as audio data. B. The client computer is experiencing slow network speeds due to congestion. C. The client computer is unable to establish a connection to the web server on port 80. D. The client computer is not receiving any packets from the network. E. The client computer receives an email data packet but processes it as web traffic.

A, E

A company experiences intermittent network issues where clients occasionally lose network connectivity and report IP conflicts. After a quick review, it's found that the DHCP scope is nearly exhausted, and there are many temporary devices connecting and disconnecting from the network. What action should the network administrator take to mitigate these issues? A. Implement MAC address filtering to restrict network access. B. Create a new scope with enough addresses and reduce the lease period. C. Disable DHCP and use static IP addresses for all devices. D. Increase the DHCP lease time to ensure stability.

B

A company tasks its network specialist with configuring a steel shelving system for patch panels, switches and routers, and server devices. What is the name of this system? A. Change Management B. Rack C. Floor Plan D. Wiring Diagram

B

A freelance photographer is setting up a home office. They need to connect a desktop, a laptop, a network printer, and occasionally, guests' devices to the Internet and to each other for file sharing and printing. Which type of network is MOST suitable for this scenario? A. PAN (Personal Area Network) B. SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) Network C. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) D. CAN (Campus Area Network)

B

A network administrator is configuring a new network with multiple VLANs. To facilitate communication between these VLANs, the administrator decides to use a Layer 3 switch in the core network. The administrator plans to assign each VLAN a Switched Virtual Interface (SVI) to act as its default gateway. What is a key benefit of using SVIs on a Layer 3 switch for inter-VLAN routing in this scenario? A. SVIs provide a dedicated physical connection for each VLAN. B. SVIs allow for efficient routing between VLANs without leaving the switch. C. SVIs enable the use of external routers for each VLAN. D. SVIs require less configuration than traditional routing protocols.

B

A network administrator notices that communication to a particular node in a star topology network consistently fails. The node is located at a significant distance from the central switch, further than any other node on the network. The administrator suspects that the distance may be causing signal degradation. What is the MOST appropriate solution to resolve this issue? A. Increase the bandwidth of the central switch. B. Use a repeater to strengthen the signal over the extended distance. C. Replace the switch with a hub to increase signal strength. D. Implement a mesh topology for the entire network.

B

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a new network segment for the marketing department. The department requires its own VLAN (VLAN50) to segregate its traffic from the rest of the company. The network consists of a Layer 3 switch and multiple Layer 2 switches. The engineer decides to use an SVI for VLAN routing. Which of the following commands should the engineer use to configure the SVI for VLAN50 on the Layer 3 switch? A. switchport mode access vlan 50 B. interface VLAN50 ip address 192.168.50.1 255.255.255.0 C. vlan 50 D. interface G0/1.50 encapsulation dot1Q 50

B

A small office is transitioning from IPv4 to IPv6 to accommodate an increasing number of devices and to prepare for future expansion. The network administrator decides to use Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for simplicity and ease of management. After enabling IPv6 and SLAAC on the network router, some devices are not able to access the Internet, while others are working fine. What could be the reason some devices are facing connectivity issues? A. SLAAC is incompatible with small office networks. B. The devices facing connectivity issues do not support IPv6. C. The router is not configured to send Router Advertisements (RAs) periodically. D. The internet service provider does not support IPv6.

B

A university's IT department is tasked with connecting two campus buildings with a high-speed data link to support current and future network traffic. They are 3km apart, and there is an existing SMF cable. They want to maximize the use of this fiber strand to support multiple high-speed data channels services including internet, video, and secure admin data transfers. Given the above, what WDM solution should they use? A. Deploy Simplex Wavelength Division Multiplexing (SWDM) for its advanced single-direction data transmission capabilities. B. Utilize Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) to support up to 16 channels on the existing infrastructure. C. Utilize Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) to ensure maximum scalability and support for future growth. D. Implement Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BiDi) for its simplicity and cost-effectiveness.

B

After configuring a new router in the network, a network administrator notices that some devices are unable to access external websites. The administrator verifies that the devices have the correct IP configuration, including the new router as their default gateway. What could be the reason for this connectivity issue? A. The new router is using an incorrect routing protocol. B. The new router has a misconfigured default route. C. The devices are not using the correct DNS server. D. The devices have an incorrect subnet mask configured.

B

As a network engineer, you are tasked with troubleshooting intermittent network issues that have been reported by users in your organization. You suspect that some of the Ethernet frames being transmitted across the network might be corrupted. To confirm your suspicion, you decide to utilize a tool that analyzes Ethernet frames for errors. Specifically, you want to focus on the integrity of the frames by examining a particular field within them. Which field should you instruct the tool to analyze for detecting potential frame corruption? A. Start Frame Delimiter (SFD) B. Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) C. EtherType D. Preamble

B

In the Routing Information Protocol (RIP), how does a router determine the optimal path to a given destination network? A. The path with the least amount of traffic B. The path with the lowest hop count C. The path with the highest bandwidth D. The path with the lowest latency

B

One of your employees, working from home, reports that they can no longer access her email via the Outlook client, which keeps displaying a "server not found" error. However, the employee can access their email through the web interface without any issues. What should the employee check first to troubleshoot the issue on their computer? A. The VPN connection to her company's network B. The DNS cache on her computer C. The physical connection of her home router D. The Outlook client's account settings

B

What distinguishes a managed switch from an unmanaged switch in a network environment? A. An unmanaged switch supports high-speed backplanes and expandable capacity, while a managed switch does not. B. A managed switch allows for configuration of its settings, whereas an unmanaged switch operates with fixed settings and cannot be configured. C. Managed switches are exclusively used in SOHO networks, whereas unmanaged switches are used in corporate networks. D. A managed switch cannot be added to the network without extensive configuration, while an unmanaged switch can operate without any configuration.

B

What does ingress and egress traffic filtering refer to? A. Encrypting data entering and leaving a network B. Controlling both inbound and outbound network traffic C. Monitoring internet usage and bandwidth D. Filtering both internal and external emails

B

What happens to the packets returned from the Internet in a PAT configuration? A. They are broadcast to all internal hosts. B. They undergo reverse mapping to insert the original IP address and port number. C. They are stored in a buffer until the correct host requests them. D. They are discarded if they do not match an existing port mapping.

B

What is a major drawback of using static routes in a network? A. They reduce the overall security of the network. B. They can become problematic if the network topology changes frequently. C. They automatically adjust to network topology changes. D. They require minimal CPU resources on the router.

B

What is contained within the error checking field of an Ethernet frame? A. The frame payload B. A 32-bit checksum known as a Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) C. The preamble and Start Frame Delimiter (SFD) D. The frame length

B

What is the MOST significant disadvantage of using copper cabling for networking? A. High attenuation over long distances B. Low data transmission speeds C. Immunity to electromagnetic interference D. Difficulty of installation

B

What is the consequence of a network loop causing a broadcast storm? A. Increased network security B. Network becomes unresponsive due to high utilization C. Improved network performance D. Decreased CPU utilization in switches

B

What is the length of the network ID portion in an IPv6 address? A. 128 bits B. 64 bits C. 32 bits D. 48 bits

B

What is the maximum amount of untwisting allowed for Cat 6 cables during termination? A. 0.5 inches (1.27 cm) B. 0.375 inches (1 cm) C. 1 inch (2.54 cm) D. 2 inches (5.08 cm)

B

What is the primary difference between modular and fixed switches? A. Fixed switches allow for configuration of settings, while modular switches operate with fixed settings. B. Fixed switches have a set number of ports that cannot be changed, whereas modular switches can be configured with different numbers and types of ports. C. Modular switches cannot be connected together, whereas fixed switches can form a switch stack. D. Modular switches are designed for desktop use, while fixed switches are rack-mounted.

B

What is the primary purpose of using Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM)? A. To increase the IPv4 address space B. To maximize address space usage within a private network C. To simplify the information Internet routers need to locate IP networks D. To decrease the complexity of network design

B

What is the purpose of the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) as indicated by the protocol type value 1? A. Tunneling packets across an intermediate network B. Status messaging and connectivity testing C. Encapsulating security payload D. Exchanging information about paths to remote networks

B

What is the role of the IP helper address in the context of DHCP relay? A. To filter requests from unauthorized clients B. To specify the DHCP server's IP address to which broadcast messages are forwarded C. To assign IP addresses to DHCP clients D. To increase the DHCP lease time for clients

B

What is the significance of a link-local address in IPv6? A. It is used for routing packets over the Internet. B. It must always be configured on an interface. C. It is only necessary for devices acting as routers. D. It is an optional configuration for improved network security.

B

What issue arises when a host has an incorrect subnet mask that is longer than it should be? A. The host's IP address is automatically changed. B. The host misroutes its replies, thinking communicating hosts are on a different subnet. C. The host correctly routes its replies without any issues. D. The host cannot receive any communications.

B

When trying to access the website www.example.org, which DNS server type is contacted first to begin the process of resolving the website's IP address? A. Root DNS server B. Local DNS server C. Authoritative DNS server D. TLD DNS server

B

When verifying a solution to a reported problem, what is the primary goal? A. To implement additional features unrelated to the problem B. To validate that the solution fixes the reported problem without affecting the system's overall functionality C. To change the system's configuration settings D. To ensure the system functions faster than before

B

Which feature is most likely to be supported by routers designed for medium to large networks? A. No support for virtual private networks (VPNs) B. Plug-in cards for WAN interfaces C. Limited to four Ethernet ports D. Basic firewall capabilities only

B

Which of the following best describes BGP's convergence time? A. BGP does not converge B. Slow C. Instantaneous D. Fast

B

Which of the following is a use case for UDP? A. Reliable database updates B. Real-time voice or video applications C. File transfer requiring data integrity D. Secure financial transactions

B

Which of the following statements correctly describes the wiring configuration for T568A termination? A. The orange pair is wired to pins 1 and 2. B. The green pair is wired to pins 1 and 2. C. The blue pair is wired to pins 3 and 6. D. The brown pair is wired to pins 3 and 6.

B

Which protocol performs functions in IPv6 similar to ARP and ICMP in IPv4? A. DHCPv6 B. Neighbor Discovery (ND) Protocol C. SLAAC D. TCP

B

You are configuring a network monitoring tool to filter and analyze traffic based on the type of data being transmitted over the network. You need to ensure that the tool captures all traffic related to web browsing activities. Given that web browsing typically uses HTTP and HTTPS protocols, which operate over TCP, what value should you configure the tool to filter on in the IPv4 datagram header? A. Protocol field value of 17 B. Protocol field value of 6 C. Protocol field value of 1 D. Protocol field value of 2

B

You are monitoring network traffic and notice that ARP requests for a specific IP address are receiving responses from two different MAC addresses. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue, and how should you proceed to troubleshoot it? A. There may be a duplicate MAC address issue; use a protocol analyzer to examine ARP traffic more closely. B. The IP address is configured on a virtual machine and its host; reassign the IP address to only one device. C. This is a normal occurrence in networks with multiple access points; no action is needed. D. The network switch is malfunctioning; replace the switch immediately.

B

You are setting up a new website and have updated the DNS records to point to the new server's IP address. However, when you try to access the website by its domain name, you are directed to the old server. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? A. The HOSTS file on your computer has a static entry for the old server. B. The DNS records have not yet propagated. C. The new server's firewall is blocking incoming requests. D. The website's SSL certificate is invalid.

B

You are setting up a small office network with several computers, a printer, and a network storage device. All devices are connected to a single switch. You want to ensure that each device can communicate with the others on the network. To facilitate this communication, you need to consider the type of addressing that is used at the Data Link layer. What type of address is used at the Data Link layer to ensure each device can communicate with the others on the same network segment? A. Port numbers assigned by the network applications B. MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface C. Hostnames configured by the network administrator D. IP addresses assigned by a DHCP server

B

You have just connected a new computer to your network. The network uses static IP addressing. You find that the computer can communicate with hosts on the same subnet, but not with hosts on a different subnet. No other computers are having issues. Which of the following configuration values would you MOST likely need to change? A. Subnet mask B. Default gateway C. DNS server D. IP address

B

You need to configure a Cisco RFC 1542-compliant router to forward any received DHCP frames to the appropriate subnet. The remote DHCP server's address is 172.16.30.1. Which of the following commands would you use to configure the router? A. host 172.16.30.1 B. ip helper-address 172.16.30.1 C. ip address dhcp 172.16.30.1 D. ifconfig 172.16.30.1

B

You want to implement a fault-tolerant topology as you connect routers on your wide area network. Which of the following topologies BEST meets your requirements? A. Bus B. Mesh C. Ring D. Star

B

Your company has recently expanded its network to include a new branch office. You are tasked with configuring the network to ensure that traffic from the new branch office can reach the Internet, even though specific routes to external destinations have not been configured yet. Which of the following routing configurations would BEST achieve this? A. Configure a static route for the internal network only. B. Configure a default route pointing to the ISP's router. C. Configure a static route for each external destination. D. Do not configure any routes; let the routers learn the paths dynamically.

B

Which of the following factors can adversely affect network throughput? (Select two.) A. The color of the Ethernet cables B. Link distance C. Interference (noise) D. The brand of network routers used E. Encoding schemes

B, C

Which of the following layers are part of the four-layer hierarchy of the Internet model? (Select two.) A. Presentation Layer B. Application Layer C. Internet Layer D. Physical Layer E. Session Layer

B, C

You maintain the network for an industrial manufacturing company. A short-circuit of a switch in the server room starts an electrical fire. Which of the following should you use to suppress the fire? (Select two.) A. Water-Based (Wet-Pipe) Sprinkler System B. Clean Agent Fire Suppression System (such as FM-200/HFC-227) C. Dry-Pipe Sprinkler System D. Class C Fire Extinguisher E. CO2 Fire Extinguisher

B, D

A company has two DHCP servers set up for redundancy and fault tolerance in a network that spans multiple subnets. The network administrators want to ensure that if one DHCP server fails, the other can take over without causing IP address conflicts among the client devices. Which of the following configurations should the network administrators implement to achieve this goal? A. Set up one DHCP server to assign IP addresses to odd-numbered subnets and the other to even-numbered subnets. B. Configure both DHCP servers with identical scopes and settings to ensure continuity. C. Implement DHCP failover by configuring one server as the primary and the other as the secondary with shared scope information. D. Assign static IP addresses to all client devices, eliminating the need for DHCP servers.

C

A network administrator who has been notified about a potential IP conflict on the network. The administrator decides to inspect the ARP cache on the router closest to the reported issue to identify any duplicate IP addresses. Which command should the network administrator use to view the ARP cache on the router? A. arp -a B. ip neigh show C. show arp D. show ip route

C

A network technician wants to create efficiencies in network traffic by implementing a device which applies microsegmentation by establishing a point-to-point link between any two network nodes. Which of the following should they implement? A. Access Point B. Hub C. Layer 2 switch D.Bridge

C

A rapidly growing tech startup is preparing to move its operations to a larger office space to accommodate its expanding team. The new office will have a significantly larger number of employees connecting to the network, including a mix of in-office and remote workers. The startup's IT team is tasked with ensuring that the network infrastructure supports seamless connectivity, robust security for sensitive data, and efficient management of internet traffic. Considering these requirements, what aspect of an edge router should the IT team focus on when selecting a device for their new office? A. Energy efficiency and low power consumption B. Maximum throughput for internal LAN traffic C. Ability to support a high number of simultaneous VPN connections D. Integrated support for legacy communication protocols

C

A university is setting up a new network infrastructure for its campus. The network design needs to accommodate four different subnets for the Administration, Library, Dormitories, and Laboratories. The requirements for the number of IP addresses for each subnet are as follows: Administration requires 30 IP addresses, Library needs 14 IP addresses, Dormitories require 60 IP addresses, and Laboratories need 28 IP addresses. The university has been allocated a /24 network. Using VLSM, how should the network engineer allocate the subnet sizes to minimize IP address wastage? A. /26 for Dormitories, /27 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /28 for Library B. /25 for Dormitories, /26 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /27 for Library C. /26 for Dormitories, /27 for Laboratories, /28 for Administration, /28 for Library D. /26 for Dormitories, /26 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /27 for Library

C

An administrator updated an A (address) record, but it took the client computers approximately five minutes to recognize the change. What update can the administrator make on the resource record to allow changes to propagate through the network more quickly? A. DNS cache on the servers B. Increase the TTL C. Decrease the TTL D. DNS cache on the clients

C

An organization has noticed an increase in malware infections originating from employees accidentally downloading malicious software. The IT department wants to implement a firewall feature that can prevent such software from communicating with external servers, thereby reducing the risk of data exfiltration. Which firewall feature should the IT department implement to enhance outbound traffic security and prevent malware communication? A. Deep Packet Inspection B. Ingress Filtering C. Egress Filtering D. Encryption

C

At Layer 4 of the OSI model, which mechanism is responsible for ensuring reliable data delivery between hosts? A. The use of port numbers to identify different types of network traffic B. The encryption of data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission C. The implementation of flow control and error-checking protocols D. The assignment of IP addresses to route packets to their destination

C

At which layer of the OSI model does troubleshooting IP configuration issues primarily take place? A. Transport Layer B. Physical Layer C. Network Layer D. Data Link Layer

C

During a network audit, it was discovered that the distribution layer switches in a company's three-tiered network hierarchy are nearing their end of life and need to be replaced. The current switches are layer 2 only, and the company has been experiencing issues with network bottlenecks and inefficient traffic management. What type of switches should the company consider purchasing to replace the old distribution layer switches? A. Wireless access points B. Layer 2 only switches with higher throughput C. Layer 3 capable switches D. Basic unmanaged switches

C

During the TCP connection teardown process, what state does the server enter after sending its own FIN segment? A. TIME-WAIT B. ESTABLISHED C. LAST-ACK D. CLOSE-WAIT

C

How can a broadcast storm be mitigated if spanning tree is already enabled? A. Increase the bandwidth of the network. B. Disable all switches on the network. C. Verify compatible versions of Spanning Tree Protocol are enabled on all switches. D. Remove all MAC addresses from the MAC address table.

C

How many 16-bit numbers does an IPv6 address contain? A. 4 B. 32 C. 8 D. 16

C

What can be used to track address usage across a complex DHCP infrastructure? A. DHCP Lease Auditor B. Network Performance Monitor C. IP Address Management (IPAM) software D. Network Configuration Manager

C

What does the term "speed" refer to in the context of network performance? A. The color coding of Ethernet cables for different network segments B. The physical durability of network cables C. The time it takes for a packet to travel from its source to its destination, also known as latency D. The maximum capacity of a network switch

C

What improvement does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) offer over the original 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol? A. Outages lasting tens of seconds B. Longer convergence times C. Elimination of the listening state D. Increased number of port states

C

What is a common use of TXT records? A. To locate services and their ports B. To identify email servers C. To store data for SPF and DKIM D. To specify priority values for servers

C

What is a potential issue when using AAAA records due to the larger address sizes of IPv6? A. They can cause DNS poisoning. B. They can conflict with A records. C. They can exceed the UDP packet size limit. D. They can slow down DNS resolution times.

C

What is the maximum possible value for any octet in an IPv4 address? A. 256 B. 192 C. 255 D. 128

C

What is the primary function of blanking plates in a rack system? A. To provide additional support to the equipment B. To increase the rack's weight capacity C. To improve airflow D. To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the rack

C

What is the primary purpose of a Multi-Source Agreement (MSA) in the context of modular transceivers? A. To decrease the cost of transceivers B. To standardize the size of transceivers C. To ensure compatibility between transceivers from different vendors D. To increase the data transmission speed of transceivers

C

What is the role of 802.1Q tagging in VoIP configurations? A. To increase the speed of voice traffic B. To encrypt voice traffic C. To assign voice traffic to a specific VLAN D. To decrease the bandwidth used by voice traffic

C

What is the significance of a socket in network communications? A. It is a protocol used for encrypting data transmissions. B. It is a hardware component that connects network cables. C. It combines the source IP address and port number to form a unique endpoint. D. It is a software process that can operate multiple ports simultaneously.

C

Which IEEE standard is typically implemented for link aggregation? A. IEEE 802.16 B. IEEE 802.11 C. IEEE 802.3ad/802.1ax D. IEEE 802.15.4

C

Which function of the SOHO router is responsible for allocating a unique IP address to each host that connects to it? A. Network Address Translation (NAT) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) D. Quality of Service (QoS)

C

Which of the following commands transitions a user from User EXEC mode to Privileged EXEC mode in a Cisco device? A. configure terminal B. terminal length 0 C. enable D. exit

C

Which of the following statements is true regarding the binary representation of odd and even numbers in an IPv4 address? A. Both odd and even numbers can end in either binary 0 or 1. B. Even numbers end in a binary 1. C. Odd numbers end in a binary 1. D. Odd numbers end in a binary 0.

C

You are overseeing the installation of a new fiber optic network in an office building. The network design includes a central switch connected to various endpoints throughout the building using fiber optic cables. To ensure a successful installation, you need to select the appropriate type of fiber optic patch cords for connecting the endpoints to the switch. The network requires high data transmission quality with minimal back reflection. Which type of fiber optic patch cord finishing should you choose? A. Angled Physical Contact (APC) finishing B. Basic Contact (BC) finishing UC. ltraPhysical Contact (UPC) finishing D. Physical Contact (PC) finishing

C

You need to keep users in all other departments from accessing the servers used by the finance department. Which of the following technologies should you use to logically isolate the network? A. Subnetting B. NIC teaming C. VLANs D. MAC filtering

C

Your company has a network where each device is connected to a central hub via separate cables. What type of network topology does this BEST describe? A. Ring topology B. Mesh topology C. Physical topology D. Logical topology

C

Which of the following are the main types of copper cabling used in networking? (Select two.) A. USB B. Fiber optic C. Twisted pair D. Coaxial (coax) E. HDMI

C, D

What are the potential causes of intermittent loss of connectivity in a cabling system? (Select two.) A. Properly terminated cabling B. Crosstalk C. Excessive untwisting at the cable ends D. Use of fiber optic cables instead of copper E. Attenuation

C, E

A network administrator is looking at packet captures from the network and trying to isolate email traffic. Which of the following should the network administrator include? (Select two.) A. TCP 123 B. UDP 161 C. TCP 25 D. TCP 143

C,D

A company wants to improve flow and reduce IP address waste. The network is divided into 5 segments: Research, Development, Sales, Customer Support, and Management. The IP reqs: Research 50 adds, Development 100 adds, Sales 25 adds, Customer Support 30 adds, and Management 10 adds. The company has a /23 network. Using VLSM, the netadmin allocates subnet sizes based on these reqs. After, the admin realizes there are lots of unused adds. What is the MOST likely reason for this inefficiency? A. The administrator did not allocate the largest subnet sizes possible for each segment. B. The administrator allocated subnet sizes based strictly on current requirements without considering future growth. C. The administrator did not properly calculate the subnet sizes, leading to an overestimation of needs. D. The administrator allocated subnet sizes without considering the hierarchical structure of IP address allocation.

D

A network engineer is configuring a point-to-point link between two routers on a WAN network. The link is intended to support a critical real-time application that requires continuous bidirectional data flow without any transmission delays. Which type of communication should the engineer configure on the point-to-point link to meet the application's requirements? A. Half-duplex communication with Quality of Service (QoS) prioritization to ensure real-time data is transmitted without delay. B. Half-duplex communication, because it allows for two-way communication with a guaranteed level of bandwidth. C. Full-duplex communication with multiple cables to increase the bandwidth and support the high data rate required by the application. D. Full-duplex communication, as it supports simultaneous bidirectional data flow, which is essential for real-time applications.

D

A school wants to expand its network to accommodate new classrooms and administrative offices. Currently, it is based on the 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet standard with a combination of hubs and switches. They want to add 50 new workstations, they will be distributed across the school, some 90 meters away from the nearest network device. The IT team is considering the best approach to integrate these new workstations into the existing network while ensuring optimal performance and compatibility with potential future upgrades. What should they prioritize to ensure the success of the new workstations into the existing 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet network in the MOST effective way? A. Extend the fiber optic backbone to each new workstation. B. Use fiber optic cables for all new horizontal links. C. Implement autonegotiation on all network devices. D. Replace all existing hubs with switches to reduce collision domains.

D

A university campus is upgrading its network to enhance connectivity between its library and the computer science department, which are 500 meters apart. The upgrade aims to facilitate intensive data exchange for research purposes, including large datasets and high-definition video streaming. Given the distance and the high bandwidth requirements, which type of cable should the university use? A. Satellite Link B. Single Mode Fiber (SMF) C. Cat 6 UTP Cable D. Multimode Fiber (MMF)

D

A university's IT department is tasked with creating a subnet for a new dormitory that will house 120 students. Each student will be provided with one IP address for their personal device. To optimize the use of the university's allocated IP address space, which subnet mask should the IT department use for this subnet? A. 255.255.255.128 B. 255.255.255.240 C. 255.255.254.0 D. 255.255.255.0

D

An organization is deploying an IPv6 network and has been allocated the prefix 2001:db8:abcd::/48. They plan to create subnets for 10 different departments. Each department should have the capability to further divide its subnet into smaller subnets in the future. Which of the following subnet allocations would best suit the organization's needs for one of its departments? A. 2001:db8:abcd:0001::/64 B. 2001:db8:abcd:0010::/60 C. 2001:db8:abcd:0f00::/52 D. 2001:db8:abcd:0100::/56

D

How is Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) connected to the local loop? A. Through a direct satellite link B. Using an infrared signal C. Through a wireless Bluetooth connection D. Via its modem and WAN port

D

What defines an autonomous system (AS) in the context of network routing? A. A network segment that is isolated from the rest of the network for security purposes B. A network that uses a single type of routing protocol throughout its entire infrastructure C. A network infrastructure that operates independently of the Internet D. A collection of routers under the administrative control of a single entity, sharing a common routing policy

D

What factor is considered when there are identical paths with equal administrative distances to a destination? A. The path with the shortest prefix length B. The path with the most recent update C. The path with the highest metric value D. The path with the lowest metric value

D

What happens if multiple DHCP servers are deployed without proper configuration? A. The network's speed will increase. B. They will refuse to assign IP addresses. C. They will automatically synchronize their configurations. D. IP address conflicts may occur among clients.

D

What happens when an ARP query is sent? A. It is sent directly to the router for processing. B. It is sent as a multicast to a group of devices. C. It is sent as a unicast to a specific device. D. It is sent as a broadcast to all devices on the network.

D

What is a key characteristic of the devices used in the core layer? A. They implement traffic policies at the network's edge. B. They are typically layer 2 only switches. C. They connect end-user devices directly to the network. D. They establish a full mesh topology with switches in distribution layer blocks.

D

What is a major difference when comparing Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) to CWDM? A. DWDM requires less precise lasers than CWDM. B. DWDM is typically used for shorter distance transmissions than CWDM. C. DWDM supports fewer channels than CWDM. D. DWDM provisions greater numbers of channels with much less spacing between each channel.

D

What is likely to be configured as a virtual interface for a VLAN's router (default gateway)? A. A Switched Virtual Interface (SVI) with no physical link B. A dynamic routing protocol interface C. A physical interface with no subinterfaces D. A subinterface of the physical interface

D

What is the primary function of a DHCP relay agent? A. To assign IP addresses to clients within the same subnet B. To replace the need for a DHCP server C. To increase the speed of DHCP traffic D. To forward DHCP traffic between subnets

D

What is the primary metric used by the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) to determine the best path to a destination network? A. Delay B. Bandwidth C. Load D. Hop Count

D

What is the primary purpose of using the show mac address-table command in troubleshooting network issues? A. To list the IP addresses assigned to all devices on the network B. To display the routing table of a switch C. To reset the MAC address table on the switch D. To identify the MAC addresses associated with a particular switch port

D

What should you do when you discover symptoms of more than one problem while investigating a user's system issue? A. Advise the user to only report the most severe problem to avoid complicating the troubleshooting process. B. Immediately escalate all discovered problems to a higher-level support team without further investigation. C. Focus on the most complex problem first, assuming solving it will automatically resolve the others. D. Treat each problem as a separate case, even if they seem related.

D

Which combination correctly represents the three elements of the fire triangle? A. Oxygen, electricity, and fuel B. Heat, fuel, and carbon dioxide C. Oxygen, heat, and water D. Oxygen, heat, and fuel

D

Which file was historically used for applying persistent IP configuration in Linux? A. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0 B. /etc/NetworkManager/NetworkManager.conf C. /etc/netplan/01-netcfg.yaml D. /etc/network/interfaces

D

Which of the following BEST describes riser data cable? A. Cable that is only used for fiber optic connections B. Cable that is used for horizontal runs within a single floor C. Cable that is specifically designed for outdoor use and exposure to the elements D. Cable that passes between two floors and must be fire-stopped

D

Which of the following IP address ranges is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)? A. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.254 B. 169.168.0.1 - 169.168.255.255 C. 169.192.0.0 - 169.192.254.255 D. 169.254.1.1 - 169.254.254.254

D

Which of the following is NOT a component of a standard Ethernet frame header? A. Destination and source MAC address fields B. EtherType field C. Error checking field D. Payload size indicator

D

Which organizations have created categories of cable standards for twisted pair to simplify the selection of a suitable quality cable? A. IEEE and IETF B. ISO and IEC C. ITU and ETSI D. ANSI and TIA/EIA

D

Which protocol does an IP host use to inform a router that it wants to receive specific multicast frames? A. ICMP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. IGMP

D

You are configuring a network analyzer to monitor traffic on your company's network. Your primary goal is to capture IPv4 and IPv6 traffic for analysis. To achieve this, you decide to filter traffic based on the EtherType field in Ethernet frames. Given your objective, which EtherType values should you configure the network analyzer to filter for? A. 0x0600 for IPv4 and 0x0800 for IPv6 B. 0x86DD for both IPv4 and IPv6 C. 0x0600 for both IPv4 and IPv6 D. 0x0800 for IPv4 and 0x86DD for IPv6

D

You are configuring a network that includes a mix of devices, some of which support jumbo frames and others that do not. You need to ensure optimal performance while maintaining compatibility across the network. What is the BEST approach to configuring the MTU settings on your devices? A. Configure devices that support jumbo frames to use the maximum size available and leave others at their default settings. B. Configure all devices to use the maximum jumbo frame size supported by any device on the network. C. Identify the highest MTU supported by all devices and configure each device to use this MTU. D. Configure all devices to use the standard MTU of 1500 bytes.

D

You are tasked with designing a structured cabling system for a new office building. The building has three floors, and each floor will have its own intermediate distribution frame (IDF) to connect the work areas on that floor to the network. You need to ensure that the cabling system adheres to standard requirements for horizontal cabling. Which of the following practices should you follow to ensure compliance with standard requirements for horizontal cabling? A. Use wireless access points as the primary means of connecting each floor's work areas to the IDF. B. Connect each work area directly to the main distribution frame (MDF), bypassing the IDFs. C. Install solar panels on the roof to power the IDFs and reduce the need for horizontal cabling. D. Ensure that the horizontal cabling from each work area to its respective IDF does not exceed 90 m (295 feet) in length when using copper cabling.

D

You are the network administrator for a small company that implements NAT to access the Internet. However, you recently acquired five servers that must be accessible from outside your network. Your ISP has provided you with five additional registered IP addresses to support these new servers, but you don't want the public to access these servers directly. You want to place these servers behind your firewall on the inside network, yet still allow them to be accessible to the public from the outside. Which method of NAT translation should you implement for these servers? A. PAT B. Dynamic NAT C. NAT64 D. Static NAT

D

You are troubleshooting a network issue where a remote server is not responding to your web application's requests. You decide to use the ping command to check the connectivity to the server. After running the command ping 192.168.1.10, you receive a series of "Reply from 192.168.1.10" messages with varying RTT times. What can you infer about the network condition based on this output? A. The web application is incompatible with the remote server. B. There is a high level of packet loss between her host and the remote server. C. The remote server's firewall is blocking her requests. D. The remote server is online, and there is a network path between her host and the server.

D

You are unsure if the gateway address is correct for one of your subnetworks because traffic is not leaving the network. Which of the following tables could you look at to check if the gateway address is correct? A. MAC address table B. ARP table C. State table D. Routing table

D

You have a network with 50 workstations. You want to automatically configure the workstations with the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway values. Which device should you use? A. Router B. Gateway C. DNS server D. DHCP server

D

You receive reports from several employees in the marketing department that they are unable to access the company's internal marketing database, a server within your local network. After questioning, you determine that the issue is isolated to the marketing department. You decide to use the top-to-bottom OSI model approach to troubleshoot the issue. Using the top-to-bottom approach, which of the following steps should you take first to troubleshoot the connectivity issue experienced by the marketing department? A. Confirm that the switches and routers connecting the marketing department to the server are functioning correctly. B. Check to see if the server hosting the database is properly configured at the application layer. C. Verify the physical connections, such as cables and NICs, in the marketing department. D. Ensure that the IP addresses are correctly assigned to the marketing department's computers.

D

You've implemented a network where each device provides all other devices on the network with access to shared files. Which type of network have you implemented? A. Multiple access B. Client-server C. Polling D. Peer-to-peer

D

Which of the following methods can you use to configure a router appliance? A. Using a USB flash drive to automatically apply settings upon insertion B. Configuring settings through an attached printer interface C. Sending configuration commands via SMS to the router's mobile number D. Remotely over the network by using a protocol such as Secure Shell (SSH) E. Locally via a serial connection known as a console port

D, E