CompTIA IT Fundamentals + (ITF+)

What type of legal protection could be obtained for a novel software algorithm? A. Patent provides the best protection as it can enforce ownership even if someone tries to write the algorithm in a slightly different way. B. Trademark provides the best protection as it can enforce ownership to protect the unique elements of a software algorithm. C. You can only copyright the name not the software algorithm itself. The copyright will make you the sole owner of that brand. D. You can't legally protect a novel software algorithm. It will be owned by the original publisher of the software that you used to create it. You can legally protect a novel software algorithm through both a copyright and a patent. The difference being that you do not have to actually create a product (just the idea) for a patent.

A. Patent provides the best protection as it can enforce ownership even if someone tries to write the algorithm in a slightly different way. You can legally protect a novel software algorithm through both a copyright and a patent. The difference being that you do not have to actually create a product (just the idea) for a patent. Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the Windows 10 versions available? A. Windows 10 Enterprise is similar to the Pro edition but designed for licensing by small businesses. B. Windows 10 Pro comes with extra networking and management features. C. Windows 10 Home is designed for domestic consumers. D. Windows 10 Education/Pro Education is for schools and colleges.

A. Windows 10 Enterprise is similar to the Pro edition but designed for licensing by small businesses. Windows 10 Enterprise/Windows 10 Enterprise (Long Term Servicing Channel) is similar to the Pro edition but it is designed for licensing by large businesses. Lesson 3: Using an OS

Which type of display interface does NOT support High Definition picture resolution? A. HDMI B. VGA C. Thunderbolt D. DVI

B. VGA High-definition video is video of higher resolution and quality than standard-definition. Of the listed options VGA is the only option that does NOT support high definition. High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a widely used interface that supports high definition picture resolutions. Thunderbolt is used on Apple products and can provide 5K resolution with 14.7 million pixels. DVI supports a High Definition picture resolution. Single link DVI employs a single 165 MHz transmitter that supports resolutions up to 1920 ◊ 1200 at 60 Hz. Dual link DVI increases the bandwidth and supporting resolutions up to 2560 ◊ 1600 at 60 Hz. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

What is the main advantage of using a CPU in 64-bit mode? A. It's new and technically more scalable than the 32-bit CPU. B. CPUs don't use 64-bit mode; they are limited to 16 bits. This means that each instruction is 16-bits "wide". C. There are no advantages of a 64-bit CPU over a 32-bit CPU. They cost more money and are not worth the cost. D. 64-bit software is more reliable and a bit faster than 32-bit software. It also supports more system memory.

D. 64-bit software is more reliable and a bit faster than 32-bit software. It also supports more system memory. The main advantage of 64-bit processors is the ability to use more system memory. 32-bit systems are limited to addressing up to 4 GB, whereas 64-bit systems can address up to 256 TB (or more). A 64-bit CPU can run a 64-bit or 32-bit OS. A 32-bit CPU cannot run 64-bit software. x86 is a legacy CPU processor that was created in 1978 and designed for 16-bit CPUs. This means that each instruction is 16-bits "wide". There are clear advantages of 64-bit processors over 32-bit processors, starting with double the processing speed, which is definitely worth the extra cost. Scalability is defined as the capability of a system, network, or process to handle a growing amount of work. Although the 64-bit can increase system memory, it is about equal in scalability as the 32-bit processor. Lesson 10: System Components

You have to open a file located on a network server. What should be your first step? A. Open the search dialog box and type the name of the file you are looking for. B. Open the This PC object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file. C. Open the Quick Access object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file. D. Open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file.

D. Open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file. Your first step to open a file located on a network server is to open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server (computer) the file is hosted on. Lesson 3: Using an OS

What is the difference between a procedure and a function? A. A procedure does something while a function does something and then returns a value to the main program. B. A function does something while a procedure does something and then returns a value to the main program. C. A procedure is a container that can grow or shrink in size during program execution as elements are added or removed while a function cannot be resized. D. A function is a container that can grow or shrink in size during program execution as elements are added or removed while a procedure cannot be resized.

A. A procedure does something while a function does something and then returns a value to the main program. The key difference between a procedure and a function is that the latter can return a value to whatever program or process called it. A procedure just "does something" without returning a value to the main program. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

What do you need to know to connect to a device that is configured over the network? A. Typically, the Internet Protocol (IP) address of its management page or the device's hostname B. Typically, the Media Access Control (MAC) address of the device you want to connect to C. Typically, the physical location of the computer D. Typically, the port in the wall where the network cable is plugged into

A. Typically, the Internet Protocol (IP) address of its management page or the device's hostname There are a couple of ways to find a network device if it is configured to be shared across the network and you wish to access it. You can either get to it via the IP address which is assigned to it by your administrator or the hostname. You are also likely to be prompted for a user name and password. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

Windows comes with web server software, but it is not installed by default. How would you install this software? A. Use the Turn Windows features on or off dialog from Programs and Features. B. Use App Installer feature in Programs and Features tab to uninstall and then reinstall the web server software. C. Use the Repair option inherent in Programs and Features to automatically run the web server feature. D. Use the Server Software tab in Programs and Features to install the web server.

A. Use the Turn Windows features on or off dialog from Programs and Features. Windows comes with a number of components and add-ons that may be enabled or disabled by default. You can control these by clicking the Turn Windows features on or off link in Programs and Features. Lesson 7: Using Apps

You want to purchase a flat panel monitor that can show widescreen movies. Which native resolution should you choose? A. 1024x768 B. 1920x1080 C. 1920x1440 D. 1400x1050

B. 1920x1080 Widescreen images are produced with a variety of aspect ratios and used in film, television and computer screens. Of the options provided, 1920x1080 is the only widescreen resolution with an aspect ratio of 16:9. A monitor with a native resolution of 1024x768 would display with a 4:3 aspect ratio which is not widescreen. A monitor with a native resolution of 1920x1440 would display with a 4:3 aspect ratio which is not widescreen. A monitor with a native resolution of 1400x1050 would display with a 4:3 aspect ratio which is not widescreen. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

What type of file in an OS is the main means of providing coordination of hardware components? A. A directory file B. A device driver C. An executable file D. A user file

B. A device driver Coordination for hardware and peripheral components in the OS are provided through device driver files. A device driver is typically written by the manufacturer for specific hardware. Some devices utilize generic driver files created by the operating system vendor. Lesson 3: Using an OS

What is the decimal number 75 in binary and hexadecimal? A. 5C in binary and 0101 1100 in hex B. 4B in binary and 0100 1011 in hex C. 0100 1011 in binary and 4B in hex D. 0101 1100 in binary and 5C in hex

C. 0100 1011 in binary and 4B in hex Hex notation is often indicated using 0x to precede the hex digits, so you may see this written like 0x4b. To work out the answer without a calculator, write out the place values for each notation system. For binary you'd have columns for 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, and 1 and put a 1 in each column you need to add up to 75 and a 0 in the others. For hex you only need 16 and 1 (75 divided by 16 is 4 remainder 11, which is represented as "B" in hex) Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

Which data representation format can encode the widest range of characters? A. Binary B. ASCII C. Unicode D. Hex

C. Unicode Unicode is the standard maintained by the Unicode Consortium, and as of June 2018 the most recent version is Unicode 11.0. It can encode the widest range of characters. Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

What type of component provides a passive cooling solution? A. An insulation blanket B. A cooling fan C. A liquid cooling system D. A heatsink

D. A heatsink A heatsink is the type of component that passively cools a computer. Passive cooling is an approach to cooling computer components by convection with no power required. Cooling fans are a form of active cooling, designed to draw cool air from vents in the front of the case over the motherboard and expel warmed air from the back of the case. A liquid cooling system uses liquid to transfer heat out of the system's case. A liquid cooling system is an active system. Insulation blankets would trap heat generated by computing device inside the computer case, most likely resulting in overheating. Lesson 10: System Components

What term is used to describe terminating a process that is not responding to user input? A. This is often called "killing" the process. B. This is often called "exterminate" the process. C. This is called "choking" the process. D. This is called "process abort."

A. This is often called "killing" the process. The term used to describe terminating a process that is not responding to user input is "killing" the process. Kill causes an abnormal process termination and should be used only when necessary as data may be lost when closing applications this way. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

The Task Scheduler allows you to run a process automatically in Windows. What is a widely-used Linux equivalent? A. Taskkill B. Cron C. Vi D. Nano

B. Cron Linux uses cron to do task scheduling. It typically automates system maintenance or administration though its general-purpose nature makes it useful for things like downloading files from the Internet and downloading email at regular intervals. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

In general, what is the difference between the char and string data types? A. There is a limit on the amount of storage that can be used by a string. There is no limit for a character. B. Char is variable length field for storing a sequence of characters. A string stores a single textual character or string in a fixed length field (typically 1 byte). C. A string cannot be used for mathematical operations. When a number is entered as a character data type, you can perform mathematical operations on it. D. Char stores a single textual character in a fixed length field (typically 1 byte). A string is a variable length field for storing a sequence of characters.

D. Char stores a single textual character in a fixed length field (typically 1 byte). A string is a variable length field for storing a sequence of characters. Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

Which Windows interface is used for advanced management and troubleshooting of devices? A. Display tab B. Web configuration C. Personalization applet D. Device manager

D. Device manager Device Manager is used to update drivers and obtain more advanced troubleshooting information. The basic user interface is either Devices and Printers or the device pages in the Settings app, depending on the Windows version. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

You have to open a file located on a network server. What should be your first step? A. Open the search dialog box and type the name of the file you are looking for. B. Open the This PC object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file. C. Open the Quick Access object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file. D. Open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file.

D. Open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file. Your first step to open a file located on a network server is to open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server (computer) the file is hosted on. If you open the This PC object from Explorer, you will find files that are stored on your computer. Opening the Quick Access object from Explorer will show the various folders and libraries that have been marked as needing quick access. This will not show network server files unless they have been mapped to your PC and marked as quick access. The search dialog box can help locate files on the local PC, but it will not search network file storage. Lesson 3: Using an OS

Your colleague has to run many applications at the same time and finds it difficult to know which icon to choose when switching between them. What alternative method could you suggest? a. Place all the application shortcuts within a favorites folder for quick access. b. Press Alt+Tab - this shows previews of the window and allows the user to quickly switch between windows. c. Upload documents to the cloud and use a cloud interface to switch between them. d. Press "CTL-ALT-DEL" - task manager will show him a list of all the active programs.

b. Press Alt+Tab - this shows previews of the window and allows the user to quickly switch between windows. Pressing Alt+Tab will show previews of the window and allow a user to quickly switch between them. Windows can also show previews of the window contents when pointing at the taskbar icon. Placing all of the application shortcuts within a favorite folder may help the colleague launch new instances of the application, but it will not help when switching between them. While cloud computing is becoming popular, this will not help the colleague switch between applications on a local computer. The task manager will show him what is active, but it doesn't allow him to switch between applications. Lesson 2: Using a Workstation

If you do not have a support contract, what is likely to be the best option for obtaining advice about a problem with an application? A. A product support or community forum B. Download a free application fix-it tool off the Internet C. Delete and reload the application D. Obtain a copy of the application from a third-party vendor

A. A product support or community forum Locate the developer or manufacturer's official support forums. You may find there's a particular fix available or advice from other users. For smaller freeware programs, you may even find posts from the developer. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

Which data type provides for whole numbers only? A. Integer B. Binary C. Hexadecimal D. Secondary

A. Integer The integer data type is for whole numbers expressed in decimal notation (0-9). Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

How can a client-server application architecture be described if it could be re-developed to split the application and presentation layers? A. This could be described as a two-tier application capable of becoming a tier-three application. B. This could be described as a one-tier application capable of becoming a tier-two application. C. This could be described as a three-tier application capable of becoming a n-tier application. D. This could be described as a n-tier application that cannot be further re-developed.

A. This could be described as a two-tier application capable of becoming a tier-three application. This is a two-tier application that can be redesigned into a three-tier application by specifying presentation, application, and data layers. Client-server applications can progress over time from one-tier up to n-tier structures through re-development. With each increased tier, the client/server application becomes more complex. A one-tier application can be re-developed into a two-tier application by separating the database engine from the business logic. A three-tier application already has the application and presentation layers split. Further re-development into an n-tier application architecture is possible by implementing an even more complex architecture, like using separate access controls. A two-tier application can be re-developed to split the application and presentation layers, resulting in a three-tier application. The term n-tier can apply to both two-tier and three-tier applications; however, the scenario describes the potential for further re-development. Lesson 9: Using Databases

You want to check whether a condition has been met, and if it has, perform one action. Otherwise, you want your program to perform a second action. What sort of programming operation would help achieve this? A. A programming identifier B. A conditional branch C. A simple array D. A continuous loop

B. A conditional branch Branches are instructions to your computer to execute a different sequence of instructions based on a condition. In this scenario, the conditional branch being used is called an IF-THEN-ELSE statement. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

Which of these statements is true regarding a standard user and their password? A. Standard users must get permission from the administrator to change a password. B. Standard users can change their own password but cannot change anyone else's password. C. Once a standard user sets their first password they cannot change or modify it. D. Password management is automatically controlled in the BIOS.

B. Standard users can change their own password but cannot change anyone else's password. Ordinary users have the ability to change their password whenever they want. Just go to system settings, then sign in options-- and click the change tab under password. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

What should you do before attempting to set up a new computer system? Verify that the environment is suitable and that the installation will be safe. Verify that the computer is concealed within a desk compartment and out of sight. Verify that the computer cables are loose and free of any bindings. Verify that the placement maximizes space even if the keyboard is in an awkward place.

Verify that the environment is suitable and that the installation will be safe. Before setting up a new computer, you should verify that the environment is suitable and that the installation will not cause electrical or trip hazards. Additionally, the installation needs to be healthy to use with sufficient ergonomic considerations. Placing a computer inside a desk compartment may expose the hardware to excessive heat and is not considered a suitable environment. Loose cables that are free of any bindings may create a trip hazard for the user and passers-by. Awkward placement of the keyboard or mouse can result in improper use and is associated with a number of health risks. Lesson 2: Using a Workstation

What part of the process of data analytics is most closely supported by meaningful reporting? A. Insights B. Data C. Information D. Correlation The presentation of information in a meaningful output is the outcome of data correlation. It is where you put it into suitable reporting format in order to make a meaningful data-driven business decision.

A. Insights The presentation of information in a meaningful output is the outcome of data correlation. It is where you put it into suitable reporting format in order to make a meaningful data-driven business decision. Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

Which notation system supports presenting the largest numbers using the fewest digits? A. Hexadecimal B. Decimal C. Binary D. KiloByte

A. Hexadecimal The notational system that supports presenting the largest numbers using the fewest digits is hexadecimal. With hexadecimal notation, each digit can store 16 bits of information. Because of this efficiency, hex is ideal for handling large values. Hexadecimal is also referred to as base 16. Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

What term is used to describe selecting and viewing information in a database? A. Report B. Query C. Storage D. Create

B. Query A query allows the user to specify criteria to match values in one or more fields and choose which fields to display in the results so that only information of interest is selected. Lesson 9: Using Databases

What type of programming concept allows for a variable size container? A. A procedure B. An array C. A vector D. A function

C. A vector The programming concept that allows for a variable size container is a vector. Vectors can grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

What type of software would you use to configure a server by connecting to it over the network? A. System restore B. Wireless input device C. Collaboration software D. Remote desktop

D. Remote desktop Remote Desktop allows a user to assume control of a computer from a different location by using an Internet connection. Remote Desktop part of Windows but other third-party applications provide similar functionality. Lesson 7: Using Apps

What crucial piece of information would you need when trying to locate support information about a computer system on the manufacturer's website? A. The type of keyboard and mouse you are using. B. The cost and date of purchase. C. The voltage on the power supply. D. The model number or a service code.

D. The model number or a service code. Manufacturers will reference model number or a service code for service support. The model number or service code will assist you in finding information specific to the computer system that you are working on. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

What type of computing device(s) is macOS designed for installation on? A. Servers and network storage B. Smartphones and tablets C. Feature phones D. Workstations and laptops

D. Workstations and laptops MacOS is designed for installation on workstations and laptops. MacOS is the operating system developed by Apple and used on all Apple workstation and laptop products. Lesson 3: Using an OS

Why is a smartphone NOT a good tool for writing a report? They have great user interfaces that enable you to write quickly. Touchscreen or mini keyboards are not optimized for writing lots of text. They have large displays with excellent resolution. Their size makes them easy to place in ergonomic positions.

Touchscreen or mini keyboards are not optimized for writing lots of text. Smartphones do not make good tools for writing reports because their touchscreens or mini keyboards are not large enough to write large text files on, so they are not optimized for writing lots of text. Furthermore, there are some privacy concerns with Smartphones. If your phone is stolen then information will no longer be private. While smartphones do have pretty good user interfaces that can help you write quickly, they are still too small to be of any use as a word processing tool. Although smartphone sizes are increasing, their displays are still too small for effective word processing. Holding a smartphone for a lengthy period of time can be harmful from an ergonomic perspective. Very few people use smartphones in an ergonomically-safe method. Lesson 1: Common Computing Devices

You have to sign in to Windows - does it matter if the CAPS LOCK light on the keyboard is activated? a. Windows usernames and passwords are converted to upper case, so the CAPS LOCK does not affect login. b. Windows usernames are not case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK does not affect login. c. Windows passwords are case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK may prevent successful login. d. Windows passwords are not case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK key is ignored during login.

c. Windows passwords are case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK may prevent successful login. Windows passwords are case sensitive, therefore, having the CAPS LOCK enabled on the keyboard does matter. The CAPS LOCK key has the same effect as holding the SHIFT key down while typing the password. This results in all upper-case letters. Windows does not convert username and passwords to upper case. Having the CAPS LOCK enabled will cause login problems unless the password is in upper case. While it is true that the username is not case-sensitive, the password is, so the CAPS LOCK may prevent successful login. The CAPS LOCK key is not ignored during login. Windows will also notify the user during login if the CAPS LOCK is activated.. Lesson 2: Using a Workstation

What type of address identifies a network interface in the context of the local network segment only? A. A Media Access Control (MAC) address B. IP address C. DNS D. URL

A. A Media Access Control (MAC) address Each host, or device, is identified by the address of its network interface by the MAC address, which is assigned to the network adapter at the factory. The IP address is used to identify each device on a given network using a 32-bit or 64-bit binary value. The Domain Name System (DNS) is a method of assigning people-friendly names to devices on a network. The Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a web address that contains all information needed by a browser to locate an item, like a web page or a file, on the web rather than a device. Lesson 15: Networking Concepts

You have to open a word processing application, but you cannot see an icon on the desktop. What should you do? a. Look for the shortcut in Start Menu or Start Screen. b. Right-click on the desktop, go to view, and change the icon size to large. c. Double click the Blue E or Orange Fox in your taskbar, and search for the icon on the internet. d. Look for the shortcut in the C: drive of the computer.

a. Look for the shortcut in Start Menu or Start Screen. Not all programs add shortcuts on the Desktop. If you want to open a word processing application when the icon isn't on the desktop, then the best place to look is for a shortcut in the Start Menu or Start Screen. Right-clicking on the desktop and going to view will help you change the icon sizes for the icons that are present, but it won't do anything for an icon that is not there. Double-clicking the Blue E or Orange Fox in your taskbar will bring up the web browser. It won't help you bring up a word-processing application. Looking for a shortcut on the C: drive may work but will take a long time. It is possible that a shortcut doesn't exist, so you may look and never find it. Lesson 2: Using a Workstation

You want to use a website that hosts training modules in a custom media format. What type of add-on would you need to install to play this media? A. A Plug-in B. An Extension C. A Theme D. A Cookie

A. A Plug-in You would need to install a type of browser add-on called a plug-in. Plug-ins should be restricted to interacting with the media object on the web page. Browser extensions add functionality to the browser by doing things like installing toolbars or changing menu options. Themes are used primarily to change the appearance of your browser. You can personalize the look of the browser by selecting custom images and color schemes. Cookies are not added to the browser, they're created by web pages and stored on your hard drive. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

What sort of device could you use to expand the storage capacity of a smartphone? A. A flash memory card B. An extra battery C. An SSD D. A SIM card

A. A flash memory card To expand the storage capacity of a smartphone, you would normally use a flash memory card. For example, an SD card in either the Mini or the Micro variants may fit a device allowing the storage capacity to increase significantly. An extra battery may extend the time that you can use your smartphone, but it will not expand the storage capacity of the device. An SSD card is not used to expand the storage capacity of a smartphone. Solid state drives are storage devices that use integrated circuit assemblies as memory to store data persistently. An SSD can be added to a desktop to expand storage capacity. A Subscriber Identification Module (SIM) is not used to extend storage in your phone. A SIM is an integrated circuit chip that used to identify and authenticate subscribers on mobile telephony devices (such as mobile phones and computers). Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

How does a markup language differ from a compiled language? A. A compiled language is not a programming language, rather it is a way of using nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents. B. A markup language is not a programming language, rather it is a way of using nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents. C. A markup language is a programming language and is commonly used to retrieve data from a database. D. A compiled language is a programming language and is commonly used to retrieve data from a database.

B. A markup language is not a programming language, rather it is a way of using nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents. A markup language is not considered a programming language. It uses nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents. Compiled languages, like C++, use syntax to perform actions which are compiled and linked resulting in an executable file. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

A hard drive is rated at 10,000 rpm. What is the significance of this statistic? A. A measurement of the capacity of the drive B. A measurement of the speed of the drive C. A measurement of the composition of the drive's platters D. A measurement of the access time for information on the drive

B. A measurement of the speed of the drive The number of Revolutions Per Minute (RPM) is one of the basic factors determining the speed of the drive. 10,000 rpm represents a good mid-range performance drive. Currently, 15K rpm is the best available. The higher the RPM, the faster the drive is. Hard drive capacity is measured in bytes, typically gigabytes or terabytes. A hard drive is composed of either glass or plastic platters which are accessed by drive heads. RPM measures the rate of which those platters spin. Access time is measured in milliseconds. The access time for information from a disk is directly correlated to the rotations per minute of the platters. Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

What device is used to connect computers together in an Ethernet network? A. An access point B. A switch C. Internet router D. Internet modem

B. A switch In an ethernet network, a switch connects computers together using RJ-45 network ports and twisted-pair cabling. For Small Office Home Office (SOHO), switches connect either 4 or 8 computers. In enterprise networks, switches often connect 24 or 48 computers. An access point creates a Wi-Fi wireless network (WLAN) between computers and mobile devices. Some access points have integrated switches. An Internet router connects the Local Area Network (LAN) to the Internet. For SOHO networks, the router is often integrated with a modem, switch, and/or access point. An Internet modem is used when connecting a Local Area Network (LAN) to a provider over cable. This configuration uses a short segment of coax terminated using an F-connector. Lesson 16: Connecting to a Network

How does a one-time password work? A. The existing password is sent to a user after having requested a password change on a website. B. A unique password is generated using an algorithm known to both a device (fob) and the authenticating server. C. A temporary password is sent to a user via email after requesting a password reset. D. A user must enter a hardware token, like a smart card, and enter a password or PIN.

B. A unique password is generated using an algorithm known to both a device (fob) and the authenticating server. With one-time passwords, the password is generated by an asymmetric encryption algorithm. This means that the authenticating server can determine that the number was generated by a particular device (fob) at a particular time. When used with a PIN, it also proves that the password was input by a particular user. Some poorly secured websites or systems allow users to retrieve passwords when forgotten. This is not a one-time password and indicates that the website or system has out-of-date security mechanisms. A temporary password sent after a user requests a password change is not considered a one-time password even though it may only be valid for a short period of time. This authentication technique describes multi-factor authentication, not a one-time password. A one-time password is often used in multi-factor authentication systems because the fob is considered "something you have." Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

What does AAA stand for and in which order are they typically performed? A. Accounting, Authorization, Authentication B. Authentication, Authorization, Accounting C. Authentication, Appropriation, Accounting D. Accounting, Authorization, Access control

B. Authentication, Authorization, Accounting An access control system normally consists of Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting. First, a user is authenticated by proving one's identity. Then, that user is authorized which grants access to resources based on permissions. Lastly, accounting takes place to record when and by whom a resource was accessed. The three A's are accounting, authorization, and authentication; however, they are listed in the reverse order. Two of the three A's are correct here: authentication and accounting. Appropriation is not a type of access control. Two of the three A's are correct here: authorization and accounting. "Access control" is the overarching terminology that describes the three A's. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

What type of gesture is typically used for zooming on a touchscreen? A. Slide B. Pinch C. Tap-and-hold D. Swipe

B. Pinch On modern mobile devices, gestures can be interpreted as events and responded to by software in a particular way. The gesture that is typically used for zooming on a touchscreen is a pinch where you bring your fingers together, which zooms out the view, and move your fingers apart, or stretch, to zoom in. Sliding is a gesture on a mobile device used to move objects around the screen. Tap-and-hold is a gesture on a mobile device used as the equivalent of a right-button mouse click. Swiping is a gesture on a mobile device used to switch between documents or apps. On some devices, software can distinguish between one-, two-, and three-finger swiping. Lesson 19: Using Mobile Devices

Which of the following parts of a web address is usually dependent on a name resolution service? A. File path B. Protocol type C. Host location D. IP address

C. Host location The host location is usually represented by a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), such as www.gtslearning.com, resolved to a numeric IP address by DNS. The protocol type provided in the web address describes the access method or service type being used. For example, HTTP:// denotes the Hypertext Transfer Protocol. The file path portion of the web address specifies the directory and file name location of the resource on the designated host. The IP address is the result of the DNS resolution of the host location from the web address. People prefer web addresses--networks need IP addresses. Lesson 15: Networking Concepts

What is a Command Line Interface (CLI)? A. The Command Line Interface allows the user to schedule tasks to run at a particular time. B. The Command Line Interface allows the user to format mass storage devices using a GUI. C. A Command Line Interface allows the user to interact with the OS using typed commands or scripts rather than a GUI. D. The Command Line Interface prevents access to administrative functions without administrative privileges.

C. A Command Line Interface allows the user to interact with the OS using typed commands or scripts rather than a GUI. The CLI is the Command Line Interface and it allows users to interface with the operating system without using a Graphical User Interface (GUI). It is not recommended for use by a standard user. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

In a program, what does a loop do? A. A loop is a container that can be used as a term to reference multiple values or elements. B. A loop accesses a program element, such as a stored value, class, method, or interface. C. A loop performs one or more instructions until a condition is met. D. Loops grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed.

C. A loop performs one or more instructions until a condition is met. In computer programming, a loop is a sequence of instructions that is continually repeated until a certain condition is reached. Typically, a certain process is done, such as getting an item of data and changing it, and then some condition is checked such as whether a counter has reached a prescribed number. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

What is a packet made up of? A. A packet is the destination address of a unit of data being transmitted over the network. B. A packet is the data inside the wrapper used for each data unit transmitted over the network. C. A packet consists of a number of fields contained within a header section plus a payload. D. A packet consists of a payload wrapped around a header section.

C. A packet consists of a number of fields contained within a header section plus a payload. Packets are used to transmit data over networks. The structure of a packet includes a header which provides information such as: the protocol type, source address, destination address, and error correction. It is followed by the data to be transmitted. The packet is the wrapper, which contains the header, with its protocol and address information, and the payload. The packet's destination is one of the items of data included in the header. The payload, located inside the packet along with the header, is the data being transmitted over the network. 15: Networking Concepts

What type of device is used to transfer packets between different networks? A. A hub B. A switch C. A router D. A Network Interface Card (NIC)

C. A router Routers are devices that connect to the network to act in a manner similar to a traffic officer directing traffic. They are responsible for the forwarding function used in packet switching. A Small Office Home Office (SOHO) network switch is a device used to connect 4 or 8 computers together in an Ethernet LAN. A hub is a device often used to connect a variety of devices to the network. In a home automation system, the thermostat, security system and clock may all be plugged into a hub. The Network Interface Card (NIC) on a computer allows it to connect to the network. Lesson 15: Networking Concepts

What type of computer is best suited for using in a job where you have to make notes and be able to move around easily? A. Desktop computer with an electronic stylus. B. A server that is mounted on a cart for easier mobility. C. A tablet or smartphone or possibly a hybrid laptop/tablet. D. Gaming console with voice activated commands. .

C. A tablet or smartphone or possibly a hybrid laptop/tablet. The best computer suited for a job where you take notes and move around a lot is a tablet or smartphone. Furthermore, they are good for keeping you connected to all your favorite social networks. A smartphone will enable you to use Internet search engines on the move, shop at online stores, and bring all the latest news and sports into your hand. Servers are just too big to be used for this type of activity. Even if you put it on a cart, most servers require a separate keyboard/video/monitor (KVM) remote device to use them. A desktop computer would be too cumbersome to take notes on and move around with even if you had an electronic stylus. A gaming console is best suited for playing video games. Lesson 1: Common Computing Devices

What data protection technology could you implement in order to restrict the type of activity that a user could employ on digital products that they have purchased or rented? A. Trademark B. Patent C. Digital Rights Management D. Copyright

C. Digital Rights Management Digital rights management (DRM) is a set of access control technologies for restricting the use of proprietary hardware and copyrighted works. "Pay-per-use" policies were meant to prevent intellectual property from being copied freely, just as physical locks are needed to prevent personal property from being stolen. Lesson 6: Using Data Types and Lessons

What does a hard disk connected to a computer via a USB port describe? A. Network printer sharing B. Network attached storage C. Direct attached storage D. Cloud-based storage

C. Direct attached storage Connecting a hard disk to a computer via a USB port is one form of direct attached storage. Internal or external hard drives and flash drives can all be connected to a computer as direct attached storage. The storage can also be shared over a network. Network Attached Storage (NAS) is an appliance containing one or more hard drives housed in an enclosure with basic server firmware. Network printer sharing is when a printer is shared over a network allowing multiple computers to use the resource. Similar to storage, printers can be direct attached or network attached. Cloud-based storage is hosted disk space from a third-party vendor such as Apple, Google, or Microsoft. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

Mice and keyboards CANNOT connect to which types of ports? A. Bluetooth interfaces B. PS/2 ports C. Ethernet ports D. USB ports

C. Ethernet ports Mice and keyboards can connect to a computer using various ports; however, an ethernet port is used to connect a computer with network services using a network interface card. Older mice and keyboards connect using PS/2 ports which had a round connector with pins. PS/2 ports were color coordinated using purple for keyboards and green for mice. Bluetooth is a protocol used by some mice and keyboards to connect wirelessly. Bluetooth devices require a receiver which is sometimes built-in or a separate USB dongle. Most current, modern wired mice and keyboards connect using USB ports. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

Your computer has 4 SATA ports. How many hard drives can be installed? A. Two drives B. Eight drives C. Four drives D. Zero drives

C. Four drives A computer that has four Serial AT Attachment (SATA) ports can connect four drives. With SATA, each port on the motherboard can be connected to only one drive. This is in contrast to the older parallel (PATA) standard. In the older parallel (PATA) standard, the drives were connected in parallel providing the ability to add two drives per PATA port. The SATA standard does not have that same functionality. Each SATA port can connect a single drive, therefore, four drives -- not two -- can be connected. SATA is designed to connect hard drives to the motherboard at a 1 to 1 ratio, one drive to every one motherboard SATA port. Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

What view options could you use to show files of a particular type sorted by date? A. Group the files by category, then sort by date. B. Group the files by date, then sort by file type. C. Group the files by file type, then sort by date. D. Group the files by file type, then sort by category.

C. Group the files by file type, then sort by date. The view options that can be used to show files of a particular type sorted by date is to first use "Group by" to group the files by file type, then use "Sort by" to sort by date. This results in groups of file types, like PDF files, that are ordered by date. Grouping the files by date first and then sorting by file type will result in groups of files based on time frame, such as yesterday, earlier this week, last week, and earlier this year. Within each time frame group, the files will be grouped by file type, so all PDF files will be together. Grouping the files by category will arrange files based on metadata. If the category does not exist, it is grouped as "unspecified". Grouping the files by type is the first correct step; however, sorting by category will not order the files based on their date. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

What sort of account allows someone to access a computer without providing a user name or password? A. User account B. Administrator account C. Guest account D. Microsoft Account

C. Guest account When using Microsoft Windows, a guest account can be enabled that allows someone to access a computer without providing a user name or password. This account is disabled by default and should not generally be used. An administrator account has complete control over the local computer and should be protected by a strong password. A user account is created during setup and can be assigned administrative rights using the Administrators group. It is best practice to use a separate standard user account for each person needing to access a system. A Microsoft account is used to access Microsoft online services like Office 365. Accessing a Microsoft account requires a password. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

An attacker has used a rogue access point to intercept traffic passing between wireless clients and the wired network segment. What type of attack is this? A. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack B. A replay attack C. An impersonation attack D. A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack

D. A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack occurs when a host sits between two communicating nodes, and transparently monitors, captures and relays all communication between them. A replay attack is where a host captures another host's response to some server, and replays that response in an effort to gain unauthorized access. An impersonation attack is where a person attempts to figure out a password or other credential to gain access to a host effectively impersonating a legitimate user. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is a situation where an attacker targets the availability of a service. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

When a client connects to a folder on a network server via a drive letter, what is the drive called? A. Shared folder B. Client-server drive C. Drive share D. A mapped drive

D. A mapped drive A folder shared by a user on a network server can be mapped to a drive designation. The result is that the client can connect to the folder via a drive letter that redirects to the network share name (\\Server\Folder). The network share name is transparent to the client. Client-server is an architecture in which data is commonly stored on a server, but much of the processing occurs on the client. In Windows, a folder on a drive can be shared. The shared folder can then be mapped to a letter, which appears to be a drive letter to the user. A shared folder can be accessed using the Explorer address bar, or via a mapped drive. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

What is a typical speed for a mid-range CPU to run at? A. Around 2 GHz; budget models might run as low as 1 GHz, while faster ones run at 3 or 4 GHz. B. Around 2 MHz, if you overclock it. Most still run at 1 MHz. C. Around 4 GHz for each core processor. D. 1.21 Gigawatts.

A. Around 2 GHz; budget models might run as low as 1 GHz, while faster ones run at 3 or 4 GHz. The CPU speed, or processor speed, is the amount of cycles that a CPU can perform per second. This is otherwise known as a Hertz. The current processors are around 2 GHz to 4 GHz of cyclical speed. 2 MHz is significantly slower than 2GHz. Many factors inside and outside of the CPU significantly impact the CPU and overall system performance. Overclocking is the practice of pushing the processor to run faster than it was manufactured to run. 4 GHz is a little high as of right now. Modern CPUs typically have multiple cores, such as dual-core, quad-core, and even 6-core CPUs that run in tandem. Gigawatts is not a measure of CPU speed, despite popular culture lore. Cyclical rates of CPUs are measured in Hz. Lesson 10: System Components

What type of software manages tasks, dependencies, and timelines? A. Accounting software B. Project management software C. Database software D. Business-specific applications

B. Project management software Project management software is software used for project planning, scheduling, resource allocation and change management. It allows project managers (PMs), stakeholders and users to control costs and manage budgeting, quality and documentation. It may also be used as an administration system. Lesson 7: Using Apps

What protection feature in Windows is designed to prevent a script or software from making unauthorized changes to the OS configuration? A. Graphical User Interface (GUI) B. User Account Control (UAC) C. Default account types D. Password options

B. User Account Control (UAC) User Account Control (UAC) is the protection feature in windows that prevents scripts or other software from performing administrative tasks without authorization. Using UAC, the user must input their credentials or click through an authorization prompt before configuration changes can be made. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

What systems use a Central Processing Unit (CPU) and memory? A. Desktops only B. Servers only C. All types of computers D. Laptops only

C. All types of computers A Central Processing Unit (CPU) and memory are used by all types of computers including servers, desktops, and laptops. The CPU retrieves each instruction or data file from memory and processes it. After, the CPU writes the results back to memory and directs other components to perform actions. Servers are a type of computer that uses a CPU and system memory along with desktops and laptops. Desktops are a type of computer that uses a CPU and system memory along with servers and laptops. A laptop is a type of computer that uses a CPU and system memory along with servers and desktops. Lesson 1: Common Computing Devices

What is an interpreted language? A. Interpreted languages represents machine code in human-readable text and is typically specific to a particular hardware architecture. B. Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled and are designed to retrieve specific records from a data set. C. Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled because the code gets converted to machine code at runtime. D. Interpreted languages organize data through structured nested tags and is rendered by a web browser.

C. Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled because the code gets converted to machine code at runtime. Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled. They convert the code to machine code during runtime. Python, Perl, and JavaScript are all popular forms of interpreted programming languages. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

Give two examples of semi-structured data stores. A. Relational databases and text files B. Key/value pair database and PowerPoint presentations C. Key/value pair databases and markup language document stores. D. Word documents and PowerPoint presentations

C. Key/value pair databases and markup language document stores. Semi-structured data lacks the structure of a formal database architecture but adds associated metadata to raw unstructured data. This helps identify the data. Two examples of semi-structured data are key/value pair databases and markup language documentation stores. A key/value pair database is semi-structure; however, PowerPoint presentations are considered unstructured data. A relational database is considered structured data and a text file is considered unstructured data. Both Word documents and PowerPoint presentations are considered unstructured data. Semi-structured data uses metadata to help identify the contents of the data. Lesson 9: Using Databases

What two things are configured on a disk to make storage space on the disk available to the Windows OS? A. The disk must have a recovery file and configure the backup settings to point to that file. B. The disk must have 6 GB of RAM configured and the system should automatically allocate a matching pagefile. C. The disk must contain at least one partition, typically allocated a drive letter, and the partition must be formatted with a suitable file system. D. The GUID Partition Table (GPT) needs to be configured and then you must populate the volumes.

C. The disk must contain at least one partition, typically allocated a drive letter, and the partition must be formatted with a suitable file system. A disk must have at least one partition for the OS to use it. Also, each partition must be formatted with a file system so that the OS can read and write files to the drive. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

What computer component is most restrictive in terms of determining upgrade potential for a desktop computer? A. System firmware B. The Network Interface Card (NIC) C. The motherboard D. The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

C. The motherboard The motherboard is a Printed Circuit Board (PCB) with some built-in processors (the chipset), sockets for upgradable components (CPU, RAM, adapter cards, disk drives), and wires (buses) to connect them together. You could upgrade the motherboard itself, but this is rarely cost-effective. The Network Interface Card (NIC) provides the connection that computers, smartphones, and tablets use to connect to a computer network. It allows them to share information locally and to access data over the Internet. Firmware is the "low-level" operating system that runs the bootstrapping process which occurs before the operating system software is loaded and enabled. It can be upgraded with new firmware. The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) may actually be an integral part of the motherboard, but it is often installed as a separate device specifically designed to run graphics. Lesson 10: System Components

Which of these statements is NOT true about Universal Serial Bus (USB) cables? A. There are USB cables with normal size connectors on one end and mini or micro device connectors on the other. B. The connectors for the host (PC) and device use different form factors. C. USB cables never have the same connectors at either end. D. There are now USB cables with reversible Type C connectors.

C. USB cables never have the same connectors at either end. While not commonly used, it is possible to have a USB cable with identical ends. USB cables come in multiple different form factors to enable various components to attach to a computer for input and output purposes. There are USB connectors to fit mini and micro devices on one end and standard USB connection on the other. Now there are reversible Type C connectors that make plugging devices in easier. Reversible Type C connectors can be plugged in either way, and the user does not need to worry about which side of the USB plug faces upwards. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

You are looking for content on a topic, but your search is returning millions of matches that are not particularly helpful. Which option includes two methods that you could use to get better search results? A. Search using a broader criterion (don't be as specific), or use an asterisk (*) in place of a character in your search term. B. Use a different search engine, or start your search over and come back to it later. C. Use more search keywords (ideally with 'uncommon' words), or search for an exact phrase by enclosing it in quotes. D. Verify your spelling using a spellchecker, or use a question mark in place of a character in your search term.

C. Use more search keywords (ideally with 'uncommon' words), or search for an exact phrase by enclosing it in quotes. If an Internet search returns too many matches, you may need to narrow your search so that you get more accurate results. Use more search keywords (ideally with 'uncommon' words), or search for an exact phrase by enclosing it in quotes. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

What are the structural elements of a database? A. Each table stores information about queries and reports. B. Each query stores information about tables in reports. C. Each report stores information about tables in fields. D. Each table stores information about records in fields.

D. Each table stores information about records in fields. A database is an organized collection of information that consist of tables of information, organized into columns and rows. Each row represents a separate record while each column represents a single field within a record. Lesson 9: Using Databases

Your computer locks up (freezes) periodically and feels hot to the touch. Could these things be related? A. No, two different problems likely exist that need troubleshooting. B. Yes, overheating often occurs when the computer is locked up. C. No, temperature of your computer does not affect computer operation. D. Yes, many lockup problems are caused by overheating.

D. Yes, many lockup problems are caused by overheating. At high temperature, many operating systems automatically shut down your system to prevent damage. The blue screen and frequent memory errors are symptoms of an overheating desktop or laptop. A first sign to look out for is constant or frequent fan operation. Cleaning the exhaust fan vents of dust may resolve this issue. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

What type(s) of IoT appliance are less likely to be controlled via a home automation hub? Environmental control systems are unlikely to interface via a hub. Smart refrigerators are unlikely to interface via a hub. Physical shades and window curtains are unlikely to interface via a hub. Modern cars and medical devices are unlikely to interface via a hub.

Modern cars and medical devices are unlikely to interface via a hub. Home automation hubs link to kitchen and domestic appliances, streaming media players, and potentially security systems. Modern cars and medical devices are unlikely to interface via a hub simply due to their portability. Some of the newer smart refrigerators are specifically marketed to be used with a home automation hub. You may be surprised with all of the household items that can connect to a hub. There is a market for window shades and curtains to be connected to a hub to control lighting in a house. These devices typically connect to an automation hub. There are now many Environmental Control Units (thermostats, heaters, air conditioners) that are controlled via a home automation hub. Lesson 1: Common Computing Devices

Your colleague is using a laptop and you notice that he laboriously clicks the external mouse repeatedly to scroll through the document you are co-editing. Which feature could he use to be more productive? a. The zoom function to zoom out so that each click scrolls through more pages b. The Ctrl + Arrow Keys to move through a document word by word instead of letter by letter c. The trackpad on the laptop since it is designed for easy scrolling d. The mouse scroll-wheel on the external mouse to maneuver the scroll bar

The mouse scroll-wheel on the external mouse to maneuver the scroll bar. The mouse scroll wheel and the scroll button on the scroll bar makes browsing through many pages easier than repeatedly clicking the mouse. Your colleague might not know these capabilities exist. Using the Ctrl + Arrow Keys will probably make scrolling less productive. The Ctrl key used with the Arrow Keys moves the mouse one word at a time. While the trackpad acts much like a mouse in that it controls the cursor on the screen, it can be cumbersome and you are limited to the physical size of the pad itself. The zoom function may help scroll faster; however, the text size would likely be too small, preventing your colleague from reading what is on the screen. Lesson 2: Using a Workstation

What function of an operating system is performed by the "shell"? A. Interface between a host computer and a guest operating system. B. Interface between the applications and the hardware. C. Interface between the hardware and the firmware. D. Interface between the user and the computer.

d. Interface between the user and the computer. The "shell" provides an interface between the user and the computer. Early operating systems for PCs utilized command-line interfaces or simple menu systems. Modern computers utilize a Graphical User Interface (GUI) and a command-line interface. Lesson 3: Using an OS

When setting up a desktop computer, what factor should you consider when deciding on the location of the system case? a. You need to find a dry and warm place where a cover can protect the unit from dust. b. You need to find the best location on the floor so that the system unit has accessible drives and USB ports. c. You need to check the proximity of the refrigerator to ensure that it is close enough. d. You need to consider the position of power outlet(s) and peripheral devices as well as air flow around the system unit.

d. You need to consider the position of power outlet(s) and peripheral devices as well as air flow around the system unit. When setting up a workstation, it is important to keep wires away from walkways. Therefore, consider the location of power outlets and network connections It is imperative that the system unit be kept off the ground. Dirt and other particles will cause issues. Plus, it would not be good to mop around. The proximity of the refrigerator in relation to your computer may increase convenience but is not a true consideration for placement of the system unit. Finding a dry and cool location is ideal to prevent overheating. Preventing dust from entering the unit is important; however, covering the unit retains heat. Lesson 2: Using a Workstation

What three things define an object? A. Properties, attributes, and methods B. Branches, loops, and operators. C. Data, information, and insights D. Stored value, class, and interface

A. Properties, attributes, and methods An object is defined by three things: Attributes, methods, and properties. Attributes are values and data types that define the object. Methods define what you can do to an object. Properties represent an alternative way of accessing a field publicly. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

Following installation of an application, another program on your computer has stopped working. What could you do to try to fix it? A. Try using the Turn Windows features on or off dialog tab from Programs and Features (if available). B. Try using the Repair option in Programs and Features (if available) or re-installing the program. C. Try using the software components tab under Device Manager to fix the problem. D. Log into User Account Control to edit the settings in the control panel and reduce the security posture. It may have blocked the other program.

B. Try using the Repair option in Programs and Features (if available) or re-installing the program. If a software program stops working, the best solution is usually to uninstall then reinstall it. Some programs may also support a Repair option, which can be a bit quicker and preserve your custom settings. Lesson 7: Using Apps

What is the technical term for a web address? A. Hyperlink (HL) B. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) C. Address bar D. Website name

B. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) The Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is the technical term for a web address; however, Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) is now preferred in web standards documentation. Despite web standards, URL is more widely known and used. A hyperlink is a word, phrase, or image that you can click on to "jump" to a new document or different website. The address bar is the space in the window of a web browser that is used to display the address of a website. A URL can be entered into the address bar. A website name is not necessarily the same as the URL. Some websites use abbreviated URLs that are not identical to the name of the website. Lesson 3: Using an OS

Which method does a technician use to configure and improve a system's memory usage? A. Users do not configure any of the system memory setup because the OS handles all system memory activities. B. Use of virtual memory or a pagefile, where disk space is used to supplement system RAM. C. Use of general system memory, where a percentage of memory can be allocated to specific applications. D. Use of mass storage, where disks can be partitioned to separate OS files from user files.

B. Use of virtual memory or a pagefile, where disk space is used to supplement system RAM. Pagefile is also known as the swap file, or virtual memory file. It's a file that Windows uses as Virtual Memory. Virtual Memory is disk space Windows uses when it runs out of physical memory, or RAM. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

In order to obtain support on a currently installed application, the software vendor wants to know the application's product ID. How would you locate this information? A. Look in the Warranty information packet. B. Usually via the Help > About menu. C. Open the System Settings menu. D. Search manufacturer's website.

B. Usually via the Help > About menu. Manufacturers will reference model number or a service code for service support. The model number or service code, usually located via the Help > About menu, will assist you in finding information specific to the computer system that you are working on. Lesson 7: Using Apps

What type of component provides persistent storage? A. The Random Access Memory (RAM) B. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) C. The Hard Disk Drive (HDD) and Solid State Drive (SSD) D. The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)

C. The Hard Disk Drive (HDD) and Solid State Drive (SSD) Persistent data is that data that is stored permanently on the drive. A Solid State Drive (SSD) or Hard Disk Drive (HDD) provide persistent storage because this component uses technology to write data to disks or flash memory which do not require a constant flow of electricity. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is responsible for executing actions on data, not storing data. Random Access Memory (RAM) is system memory. This type of memory is volatile, meaning that it is only preserved while the system is powered up. The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is not a storage device. The GPU controls the display functions and can often be a dedicated processor. Lesson 10: System Components

What is the registry and how does it distinguish Windows and Linux? A. The registry sets tasks to run at a particular time. Linux uses the cron utility to run tasks at a particular time. B. The registry is a utility that allows the user to shut down processes. Linux uses a command-line tool to kill a process. C. The registry is a snap-in to check which services are running and to start and stop each service. Linux does not use snap-ins. D. The registry is a database of configuration settings supporting the Windows OS. Linux uses individual text files to store settings.

D. The registry is a database of configuration settings supporting the Windows OS. Linux uses individual text files to store settings. The registry is a database of configuration settings supporting the Windows Operating System. The Registry Editor (regedit) is a means of directly editing this database. In contrast, Linux uses individual text files to store settings. Lesson 3: Using an OS

Following installation of a program written for an older version of Windows, you receive an alert that it might not have installed correctly. What feature could you use to make the program run correctly? A. Use the Repair option inherent in most programs to automatically fix this issue. B. The program's Details tab to use settings for the latest version with the latest patches. C. Use the uninstall/reinstall feature that should fix any compatibility issues you may have. D. Use the program's Compatibility tab to use settings for the older Windows version.

D. Use the program's Compatibility tab to use settings for the older Windows version. After an application has been installed, you may experience difficulties getting it to run. The Compatibility tab can be used to run the program in a compatibility mode for legacy applications (like Windows 98 for instance). Lesson 7: Using Apps

Which of the following configuration changes does NOT reduce the attack surface? A. Removing unwanted and unnecessary software B. Closing unnecessary network ports C. Disabling unused OS features and services D. Configuring data back-ups in case ransomware encrypts the file system

D. Configuring data back-ups in case ransomware encrypts the file system Configuring data back-ups does not reduce the attack surface; however, it does provide a mechanism to recover from a ransomware attack. Ransomware is a type of malware where an attacker extorts money from the victim by encrypting the file system. Part of host hardening is to reduce the attack surface. This can be done by removing unwanted and unnecessary software often called bloatware. Disabling unused OS features and services is another system hardening technique. Closing unnecessary network ports reduces the ways other hosts or processes can interact with the hardened host. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

What type of system allows a user to authenticate once to access multiple services? A. Virtual Private Network (VPN) B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) C. A one-time password D. Single Sign-On (SSO)

D. Single Sign-On (SSO) Single Sign-On (SSO) means that a user only has to authenticate to a system once to gain access to all its resources; that is, all the resources to which the user has been granted rights. An example is the Kerberos authentication and authorization model used on Windows enterprise networks. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is an information confidentiality model that uses a public and private key, called a key pair, to protect data and to digitally sign information. A one-time password is an authentication technique that uses a hardware device to generate unique passwords that change on a frequent scheduled basis. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) connects components and resources of two private networks over another public network. This is accomplished using encryption. A user must still authenticate to the private networks before access will be granted. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

You want to find something on a particular website, but the site does not have a search tool. Could you use a general search engine (and if so, how)? A. Yes—just type the website name first in the search engine, and then the keywords in quotations. B. No—you just need to keep searching the website until you find what you're looking for. C. No—it is not necessary to use a general search engine. Just type CTRL-F and type the word you are looking for. D. Yes—you use an advanced search form or the "site:" operator like "CertMaster site:comptia.org."

D. Yes—you use an advanced search form or the "site:" operator like "CertMaster site:comptia.org." Using the advanced search form, or using the "site:" operator, are the best options for finding things on a particular website that doesn't have a search tool. Open a search engine of your choice and type in whatever you were looking for, followed by "site:" and the domain name of the website you're searching. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

Which of these statements is false? A. You can transfer images from the camera over Wi-Fi or Bluetooth if supported. B. You can connect the camera itself to the PC over a USB cable. C. You can remove the flash media from the camera and insert it into a flash reader. D. You can connect the camera's flash memory card directly into your computer's USB port.

D. You can connect the camera's flash memory card directly into your computer's USB port. There are several different methods for retrieving images from a camera. Of those methods, connecting the camera's flash memory card directly into the computer's USB port is NOT one of them. A special reader for the flash card would be required. Most cameras have USB ports that can be used to connect the camera directly to the USB port on the computer. This technique leaves the flash card in place and transfers images directly from camera to computer. Most cameras have removable flash media that can be removed from the camera and inserted into a flash reader. Some computers have integrated readers while others will require a USB-connected reader. Modern cameras have Wi-Fi and/or Bluetooth functionality that can be used to transfer images to a network storage device or a computer. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

What protocol is usually used to provide logical addressing on networks? A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) B. Internet Protocol (IP) C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

What protocol is usually used to provide logical addressing on networks? A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) B. Internet Protocol (IP) C. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Internet Protocol (IP), part of the Internet Layer, is the main protocol in the TCP/IP suite. It is responsible for logical addressing and the routing of packets between hosts and networks. Address Resolution Protocol is used to resolve a host's local Media Access Control (MAC) address to a logical IP address. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is responsible for sending messages and reports on errors regarding the delivery of packets. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is part of the transport layer, which provides communication sessions between computers. Lesson 15: Networking Concepts

How is a Windows library different from a folder? A. A library acts as a virtual folder by displaying the contents of multiple folders, which could be located on different drives. B. A library is the user's private folder containing subfolders for different types of files like documents, music, and pictures. C. A folder acts as a virtual library by displaying the contents of multiple libraries, which could be located on different drives. D. A library and a folder are virtually the same thing.

A. A library acts as a virtual folder by displaying the contents of multiple folders, which could be located on different drives. Libraries are used to provide easy access to different kinds of documents that may be stored in different places. For example, you may store pictures in your pictures folder, on a flash drive, and on a network. You can view all these pictures in one location by adding the locations to a library. Libraries work as a kind of "virtual" folder. A user's private folder containing subfolders for different types of files like documents, music and pictures is called the user profile. A library is contained within the user profile. Multiple folders can be contained within a library. A library acts as a virtual folder, not vice-versa. Libraries and Folders are not the same thing. Libraries act as virtual folders that span different locations or drives; whereas, a folder exists at a single location and stores files. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)? A. A network that connects sites in different geographic locations B. A network in a single location C. A company that specializes in providing Internet access D. A company that operates the national telephone networks

A. A network that connects sites in different geographic locations A Wide Area Network (WAN) connects sites in different geographic locations. WANs usually make use of telecommunications and service provider networks rather than being directly operated by the network administrators. A network that is only in a single location is called a Local Area Network (LAN). A LAN is typically owned and operated by the company or organization that uses it. A company that specializes in providing Internet access is called an Internet Service Provider (ISP). A company that operates the national telephone networks is called a telecommunications company, or telco for short. 15: Networking Concepts

What is the main difference between virus and worm malware? A. A virus has to infect a file whereas a worm propagates in memory and over computer networks. B. A virus propagates in memory and over computer networks whereas a worm has to infect a file. C. A virus uses sequences of code that insert themselves into an executable whereas a worm uses document macros. D. A virus uses a macro programming language to automate tasks where as a worm executes when the application is executed.

A. A virus has to infect a file whereas a worm propagates in memory and over computer networks. A virus and a worm are both forms of malware threats. A virus is a program designed to perform a malicious task and does so by infecting a file. A worm also performs a malicious task, but a worm propagates in memory and over computer networks. This is often done without user involvement. A worm propagates in memory and over networks, not a virus. A virus, not a worm, spreads by infecting files. A worm does not use document macros to spread. This describes a type of virus called a macro virus. A worm does not execute when an application is executed. This describes a virus. Worms self-replicate in memory and over computer networks. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

What is a reputable source of management software and drivers for a particular system? A. An OEM website B. A third-party driver website C. A peer-to-peer download application D. A public forum website

A. An OEM website When installing new software applications or drivers, it is important to obtain the setup files from a legitimate source. An Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) in the IT industry, such as Dell or HP, assembles systems made from the parts and software of various other suppliers. The components used in their systems may be specific to their brand and so they host their own support files for any system they sell. An OEM website is a reputable source. A third-party driver website claims to host up-to-date drivers plus drivers for systems that have been "abandoned." These sites are not reputable. A peer-to-peer download application is not reputable because the source of the file is truly unknown. A forum website, like Reddit, may link to an official website but further research must be done to ensure the driver is coming from a legitimate source. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

Which version or edition of Windows can be used to share files with other users? A. Any version or edition B. Enterprise versions only C. Versions and editions after Windows 7 D. Any non-server edition

A. Any version or edition Any file or folder can be shared with another user on any version or edition of Windows, as long as the Windows firewall settings have been configured to allow sharing. Enterprise editions of Windows do provide more security features, but file and folder sharing capabilities are provided as well. File sharing has been an accepted practice since the introduction of networks. Windows versions and editions prior to Windows 7 also offered file sharing capabilities. Both server and non-server editions of Windows support file and folder sharing; however, non-server editions are restricted in the number of simultaneous clients allowed. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

What security concern is snooping most affected by? A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Availability D. Authentication

A. Confidentiality Confidentiality is a property of secure information focused on limiting data so that is only known to authorized users. Confidentiality keeps information disclosure restricted to authorized persons only. Integrity is a property of secure information where data that is stored and transferred is done so as intended and that any modification is authorized. Availability is a property of secure information that ensures that data is accessible to those authorized to view or modify it. Authentication is a type of access control that uses one or more methods of proving that a person is in fact the real individual and associating that person with a unique computer or network user account. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

What is it called when antivirus software remediates a system by blocking access to an infected file but not actually deleting it. A. Quarantining the file B. Cleaning the infection C. Erasing the file D. Updating the signatures

A. Quarantining the file If a file is infected with a virus, most of the time the antivirus software will detect the virus and take the appropriate action. This default action can be configured. Quarantining the file involves isolating the infected file but keeping it for further analysis. Cleaning the infection occurs when antivirus software attempts to remove an infection that was not detected earlier and prevented. Erasing the file is similar to quarantining the file except the infected file is permanently deleted from the system. Updating signatures is an activity performed by antivirus software to ensure new viruses are properly detected. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

You have a motherboard that is designed for Double Data Rate 2 (DDR2) memory that works at a bus speed of 533 MHz. You have some DDR3 memory modules that also work at a bus speed of 533 MHz. Are the modules compatible with the motherboard? A. DDR3 modules cannot be used in DDR2 slots. B. DDR3 modules can be used in DDR2 slots. C. DDR2 and DDR3 are packaged in DIMMs and can be used in any slots. D. DDR2 and DDR3 are both packaged in SO-DIMMs and can be used in any slots.

A. DDR3 modules cannot be used in DDR2 slots. Double Data Rate 3 (DDR3) is a technology update to Double Data Rate 2 (DDR2) with increased bandwidth achieved by increasing the bus speed. With each iteration of DDR technology updates, backwards compatibility has NOT been achieved. Therefore, DDR3 modules cannot be used in DDR2 slots. DDR3 modules will only physically fit and work within DDR3 slots. DDR2 modules must be used in DDR2 slots. DDR2 and DDR3 are both packaged as Dual Inline Memory Modules (DIMM); however, this does not make them backwards compatible. A Small Outline DIMM (SO-DIMM) is the form factor for memory on laptops. Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

If you use an open network, what email configuration setting should you ensure is enabled? A. Enable Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) encryption to protect the account password B. Enable anti-malware software to protect from viruses C. Disable active content types like flash and Java to protect the web browser D. Enable a script blocker to prevent scripts from running

A. Enable Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) encryption to protect the account password When using an open network, any data that you transmit could be intercepted by anyone else connected to the network and the person who owns it. To protect an email account password, enable Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) encryption. Anti-malware is an important defense mechanism for protecting a computer; however, it is not a configuration setting for email. Active content types may be risky when browsing the Internet; however, disabling flash and Java is part of a web browser configuration and not an email configuration. A script blocker can prevent all scripts, good and bad, from running within a web browser. A script blocker is an add-on, not an email configuration setting. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

What can you do to reduce the risk of using a free Wi-Fi network to place an order from an online shop? A. Ensure that the online store uses a secure (HTTPS) connection. B. Request an encrypted transaction. C. Change your password. D. Change your credit card number often.

A. Ensure that the online store uses a secure (HTTPS) connection. Data on an open network may be intercepted by the person running the network or by other computers connected to the network. Ensuring that the online store uses a secure (HTTPS) connection can help to avoid that situation. Whether or not the transaction data is encrypted is a programming issue, and isn't typically an option that you can request on the fly. Changing your password is always a good security booster; however, it doesn't prevent your data from being intercepted on an open network. Providing credit card data on an unsecured Wi-Fi network poses a risk whether or not the card number has been recently changed. Lesson 16: Connecting to a Network

How can a smartphone join a Wi-Fi network if the SSID is not being broadcast? A. Enter the network name manually, as with a computer. B. Use a generic SSID. C. It is not possible. D. Use the Forget Network command to bypass the network.

A. Enter the network name manually, as with a computer. Entering the SSID manually allows you to connect to the network even though it's not being broadcast. The SSID cannot be generic. The Service Set ID is a name that is usually set by the device's vendor and can be up to 32 characters long. Setting the SSID manually is often successfully done on computers and smartphones. The Forget Network command is used to remove a network from the Wi-Fi screen. Sometimes it is necessary to remove a current network before switching to a different network. Lesson 19: Using Mobile Devices

What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS protocols? A. HTTPS serves SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) secured HTML web pages, whereas HTTP serves unsecured web pages. B. HTTP serves web pages on the extranet, whereas HTTPS serves web pages on the intranet. C. HTTP does not require DNS to resolve a web address to an IP address, whereas HTTPS does. D. HTTP can serve HTML web pages, whereas HTTPS can serve HTML web pages, as well as XML pages displayed as HTML.

A. HTTPS serves SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) secured HTML web pages, whereas HTTP serves unsecured web pages. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) enables web browsers to request resources from an HTTP server. Once a server is protected with an SSL certificate, HTTPS is required to serve web pages from that server. Both HTTP and HTTPS can be used to serve pages on the intranet and extranet, depending on which servers have SSL certificates applied. Whether using the HTTPS or the HTTP protocol, DNS is required to resolve the web address. Browsers do not display XML files as HTML web pages when using the HTTPS or the HTTP protocol. Since XML tags are not standard HTML tags, browsers cannot interpret them. Lesson 15: Networking Concepts

What is the latest Wi-Fi standard and which frequency band(s) does it use? A. IEEE 802.11ac works in the 5 GHz band. B. IEEE 802.11n works in the 5 GHz band. C. IEEE 802.11b works in the 5 GHz band. D. IEEE 802.11g works in the 2.4 GHz band.

A. IEEE 802.11ac works in the 5 GHz band. IEEE 802.11ac works in the 5 GHz band. Most 802.11ac access points do have 2.4 GHz radios but they use them to support legacy standards. Most SOHO routers support 802.11g/n or 802.11g/n/ac. This means that you can have a mix of client devices. IEEE 802.11n works with both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, with data rates up to 600 Mbps. IEEE 802.11b works only in the 2.4 GHz band with data rates up to 11 Mbps. IEEE 802.11g works in the 2.4 GHz band. Although it's an improvement over IEEE 802.11b at a data rate of 54 Mbps, it is significantly less powerful than the latest standard. Lesson 16: Connecting to a Network

What are the four processes of an access control system? A. Identification, authentication, authorization, and accounting B. Subjects, objects, Access Control Lists (ACLs), and permissions C. DAC, RBAC, MAC, and rule-based D. User, default, administrator, and guest

A. Identification, authentication, authorization, and accounting An access control system is the set of technical controls that govern how subjects may interact with objects. The four main processes are identification, authentication, authorization, and accounting. The subjects are the users and the objects are the resources of a network. The Access Control List (ACL) is the basis of the control and permissions are granted on the object. Discretionary, role-based, mandatory, and rule-based are the four authorization access models for access control systems, not the four processes. User, default, administrator, and guest are types of accounts that are part of the identification process of an access control system. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

What type of mouse would you recommend for someone who uses their computer principally to play computer games and why? A. Laser mouse — this registers cursor movements more quickly and accurately. B. Mechanical mouse — it requires less wrist movement and you don't need a mouse pad. C. A stylus mouse — as its accuracy is high and can easily be moved around the input field. D. Optical mouse — it senses movement relative to a surface using light instead of a roller ball.

A. Laser mouse — this registers cursor movements more quickly and accurately. A laser mouse with an optimal surface can be used because it uses an infrared laser, giving greater precision than an optical mouse. The traditional mechanical mouse contains rollers to detect the movement of a ball housed within the mouse case. Mechanical mice are prone to issues, because of dirt buildup on the roller pads. A stylus mouse is a pen-like device usually coupled with a special drawing pad. It is used for artistic rendering, and would not be effective for computer games. An optical mouse is a computer mouse which uses a light source, typically a light-emitting diode, and a light detector, such as an array of photodiodes, to detect movement relative to a surface. This option is not as accurate as a laser mouse. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

What, if any, type of printer uses a fuser? A. Laser printer B. Color bubblejet printer C. A 3D printer D. Impact printer

A. Laser printer Laser printers are the type of printers that use fusers. Essentially, the laser heats up the toner and then transfers and bonds the toner to the paper using heat and pressure. Color bubblejet printers use micro-sprayers that spray droplets of ink at the paper to print. A 3D printer uses plastic, not ink, to print out objects in three dimensions. A fuser is not used in 3D printing. An impact printer is mechanical and much like the old typewriters. A hammer with letters embossed strikes a ribbon of ink. The embossed letters would transfer ink from the ribbon onto the paper. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

What sort of device would you need to transfer data from a "Memory Stick"? A. Memory card reader / multi-card reader. B. A keyboard C. A wireless adapter D. A microphone and headset

A. Memory card reader / multi-card reader. Of the listed choices, a memory card reader / multi-card reader is the only choice for transferring data from a memory card known as a "Memory Stick." A memory stick is a memory card branded by Sony. A keyboard is an input device that collects keystrokes from users and transmits those to the computer. Some keyboards may have USB ports integrated as a multi-function keyboard/USB hub; however, this cannot read memory cards. Wireless adapters are used for connecting to the network. A wireless adapter does not have ports to read flash devices of any type including memory cards. Audio input/output devices process sounds and do not have the ability to transfer data from a memory card. Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

In Windows, do letter-labeled "drives" correspond exactly to physical disks? A. Not in the case of hard disks, which can be configured with multiple partitions, each of which can be assigned a drive letter. B. Only in the case of hard disks, which are usually allocated letter "c." C. Not in the case of optical drives, which can be configured with multiple partitions, each of which can be assigned a drive letter. D. Only in the case of hard disks, which are usually allocated the letter "a."

A. Not in the case of hard disks, which can be configured with multiple partitions, each of which can be assigned a drive letter. In Windows, letter-labeled "drives" do not always correspond to physical disks. For example, a physical disk can be partitioned and assigned multiple letters. In some cases, the disk is not partitioned and assigned only one letter. Hard disks often have a C: drive containing the operating system, but more partitions and drive letters are possible. For Optical drives and flash memory cards, the disk cannot be partitioned which results in exactly one letter drive per disk. Hard disks are typically partitioned and contain multiple assigned letters; however, the letter A is rarely used. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

What function of a scanner would you use if you want to convert a letter that someone has mailed to you into a computer-editable document? A. Optical Character Recognition (OCR). B. TWAIN C. Windows Image Acquisition (WIA) D. Portable Document Format (PDF) or Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)

A. Optical Character Recognition (OCR). Use Optical Character Recognition (OCR) software to convert a text image into a computer-editable text document. TWAIN-based software it is not the function of a scanner. It is software that acts as the plug-and-play feature of scanners to connect to your computer. Older scanners use TWAIN-based software to interface with a computer. WIA is not a function, it is the plug-and-play software that newer scanners use. This software will present options for the image output. PDF or JPEG are the standard formats to which scanned images get converted to when they become digital files. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

Which of the following is NOT a method that a malicious person can use to masquerade as someone else when using email or Instant Messaging? A. Overwhelm the server with a Denial of Service (DoS) B. Stealing a user's login information C. Using an unattended computer that is still logged in D. Using malware such as a Trojan

A. Overwhelm the server with a Denial of Service (DoS) A malicious person can masquerade as someone else by accessing their user account. This could be done using several techniques; however, overwhelming a server with a Denial of Service (DoS) is not one of them. During a DoS, a service, such as email, is no longer available. Stealing a user's login information would allow a malicious attacker to log into the computer and masquerade as the legitimate user. Using an unattended computer that was still logged in would allow a malicious person to use the already authenticated session. Using malware such as a Trojan would allow a malicious person to remotely perform functions on a compromised computer using the legitimate user's account. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

What shows the structure of code without using the specific syntax of any one language? A. Pseudocode B. Variables C. Functions D. Conditional statements

A. Pseudocode Pseudocode is a code-like language that does not use a specific syntax for a particular programming language. It contains many of the same features (like variables, functions, and conditional statements) but it is generic and can be used as a guide to developing the actual source code. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

You have made a backup of system data using a removable hard disk. Time and security are of great importance. What should you do next? A. Store the disk in a secure, off-site location. B. Delete the original, since the backup is current. C. Complete the restore procedure. D. Make a copy of the disk on the cloud.

A. Store the disk in a secure, off-site location. Since the backup is on a removable hard disk, it's extremely important to ensure the physical safety of that hard disk. Store it in a safe and secure location, away from the location of the original system. A backup stored in the drawer under the PC would also be destroyed in a fire or flood. The original data is always kept. The backup is only a copy saved in case something corrupts the original. A restore of the backup only occurs when the original system is compromised. Creating a cloud-based backup is an option, but typically a system is backed up either on the cloud or on another device. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

What compatibility information should you confirm before installing a software application? A. That it works with the version of the operating system that you have, and that your computer meets the system (hardware) requirements. B. That you read the End User License Agreement (EULA) and agree to the terms of the license agreement. C. That you select the "repair" option if the software program has stopped working properly. D. That you review the advanced options and select specific feature sets.

A. That it works with the version of the operating system that you have, and that your computer meets the system (hardware) requirements. The software installation best practices include verifying that the software is compatible with your operating system and that your computer hardware meets the recommended requirements. Additionally, read the accompanying documentation to verify any special installation instructions. Lesson 7: Using Apps

What type of file system must be used for the partition where Windows 10 is installed? A. The NTFS file system B. The FAT-32 files system C. The ext file system D. The HFS+ file system

A. The NTFS file system The New Technology File System (NTFS) has a 64-bit addressing scheme which allows much larger partitions (up to 2 TB) than FAT. It also has extended attributes that allow for file-level security permissions, compression, and encryption. Windows 10 must be installed to an NTFS partition. The File Allocation Table (FAT) was used for older versions of Windows, and is preserved under Windows 10 for compatibility. Typically, the 32-bit version (FAT32) is used; however, modern versions of Windows cannot be installed on FAT32. The ext file system can be found on most Linux distributions. The Hierarchical File System (HFS+) can be found on Apple Mac workstations and laptops. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

Which admin tool or screen would you use to configure a Windows computer to join a domain? A. The System applet in Control Panel B. Administrative Tools in Control Panel C. Select Settings and choose Remote Desktop D. Select Settings and then Network and Internet

A. The System applet in Control Panel You can view and change workgroup and domain information by launching Control Panel, selecting the System Properties. Selecting Administrative Tools from Control Panel lists the files in your Administrative Tools folder. The Remote Desktop setting lets you connect and control this PC from a remote device, so that you could work on another device as if you were working on this PC. In Windows 10 you can use the Access Work or School page from Settings to configure a WIndows computer to join a domain. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

A friend is asking for your help in using her computer. When your friend presses the key marked @, the " symbol appears. What could be the cause? A. The keyboard is set to use a UK layout. B. Somebody has moved a key to a different place on the keyboard. C. The Shift button doesn't work properly. D. The keyboard is broken.

A. The keyboard is set to use a UK layout. The UK keyboard layout has some variations from the standard US layout, such as the " symbol instead of @. You can switch it to the US Setting via the Language Bar. It is more likely that her language is set incorrectly. It is difficult, but somebody could be playing a prank on her and moved her key; however, this is likely not the problem. Since she receives a symbol back when holding the Shift key and pressing the number 2, then her Shift key is working properly. Getting a new keyboard will not resolve her issue if she doesn't change her language settings. The same thing will happen with her new keyboard. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

What are the two main ways that spam might expose recipients to hazardous content? A. Through malware-infected attachments and through links to malicious websites B. Through websites vulnerable to cross-site scripting and through fake login pages C. Through third-party sites hosting fake drivers and through poisoned app store applications D. Through vulnerable web browser add-ons and through unpatched operating systems

A. Through malware-infected attachments and through links to malicious websites Spam is unsolicited email messages typically containing advertising pornography, miracle cures for various unpleasant medical conditions, or bogus stock market tips and investments. Spam can be used to spread malware through infected attachments or by linking a user to a malicious website. Websites vulnerable to cross-site scripting and fake login pages expose people to hazardous content or situations related to phishing, not spam. Third party sites hosting fake drivers and poisoned app store applications expose people to hazardous content or situations; however, this is a result of poor software source management and not spam. Vulnerable web browser add-ons and unpatched operating systems expose people to hazardous viruses and other malware. Spam may include an attachment that exploits one of these vulnerabilities; however, spam is the delivery mechanism for the malicious content. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

What is the best way to install a web application on your computer? A. You do not install a web application on your computer. You access it through your browser. B. Go to the vendor's website and have them mail it to you and install it when the disk arrives. C. Download it from the browser and install it on the computer. D. Call in an IT specialist to come install it for you.

A. You do not install a web application on your computer. You access it through your browser. You do not install a web application on your computer. The purpose of a web application is to access it through your browser over the Internet or through a local network. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

What is the file path to the Documents folder for a user named "David", assuming Windows is installed to a hard disk with a single partition using the default settings? A. c:\Users\David\Documents B. d:\Users\David\Documents C. C:\Windows\DAVID\Documents D. D:\Windows\David\Documents

A. c:\Users\David\Documents Assuming that Windows is installed to a hard disk with only one partition and it is using the default settings, the file path for navigating to the Documents folder belonging to a user named David is: c:\Users\David\Documents. The "C" is the drive letter for the Windows installation. The "Users" directory contains all the different user account profiles. The "David" folder is the profile belonging to the user named David. The "Documents" directory is the folder containing David's documents. The "D:" drive is not the default drive letter for Windows installations. The "C:" drive is the default letter. The "Windows" directory is not the default location for user profiles. The "Users" directory is the default location. The "D:" drive is not the default drive letter AND "Windows" is not the default directory for user profiles. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

Which four toners are used to produce color prints? A. Red, green, blue, black B. Cyan, magenta, yellow, and black C. Red, blue, yellow, and black D. Light blue, pink, yellow, black

B. Cyan, magenta, yellow, and black Printers use the CMYK color model. CMYK stands for Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, and Black. "K" denotes black to prevent confusion with blue. This model is used in printing where layers of colors are removed or filtered out depending on the desired color. Combining the primary colors in equal parts create the black color. Most printers also carry black ink to reduce the quantity of CMY used. Printers do not use red, green, blue, and black (RGB); however, this color scheme is used by monitors for displaying color images. Combining the primary colors in equal parts create a pure white color. Printers do not use red, blue, yellow and black color schemes; however, the RBY scheme is used by artists for creating all colors needed while painting. Although cyan looks like a light blue and magenta looks like pink, these are not the true names of the colors used by a printer. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

Which of these statements is true regarding how you set up your display? A. Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via the Personalization applet. B. Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via Display settings. C. Dots Per Inch (DPI) is determined by the monitor and device driver and cannot be user configured. D. Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configurable using your computers IP-based interface.

B. Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via Display settings. Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via Display properties settings. This can be accessed by right clicking on the Desktop and clicking "Display settings. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

What is it that defines the relationship between tables in an RDBMS? A. Each table contains a foreign key whose value is unique for each record in the table. A foreign table can use the value of a foreign key as a relation, storing the value in a primary key field. B. Each table contains a primary key whose value is unique for each record in the table. A foreign table can use the value of a primary key as a relation, storing the value in a foreign key field. C. A schema is used to define relationships between tables. D. A constraint defines the relationship between tables.

B. Each table contains a primary key whose value is unique for each record in the table. A foreign table can use the value of a primary key as a relation, storing the value in a foreign key field. In an RDBMS, the primary and foreign keys define the relationship between tables. Each table contains a primary key whose value is unique for each record in the table. A foreign table can use the value of a primary key as a relation, storing the value in a foreign key field. Each table has a primary key that is unique to each record in the table. In a foreign table, the primary key of the original table is stored as a foreign key. A schema is used to define the structure of your database. The schema is not used to define relationships between tables. A constraint is something imposed on values that can be input into each field of a table. A constraint does not define the relationship between tables. Lesson 9: Using Databases

How could you access a network folder called DATA on a network server called TOWER1 using the Explorer address bar? A. It is not possible to access a network folder from the address bar. B. Enter the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path. C. Enter the web address. D. Enter the IP address.

B. Enter the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path. A shared folder can be accessed by entering the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path: \\TOWER1\DATA. In that case, TOWER is the server, and DATA is the name of the folder. Shared folders are commonly accessed via the address bar; however, mapping the folder to a network drive makes access faster and easier. A web address would be used to access a folder on the web using the Uniform Resource Locator (URL). An IP address is used to identify a host on the network, but wouldn't provide enough detail to locate a specific folder within that host. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

You are configuring dual monitors positioned side-by-side. You want to increase the amount of screen space available. Which multiple display option should you set? A. Portrait orientation B. Extend the displays. C. Show only on display #2 D. Duplicate the displays.

B. Extend the displays. When you have dual monitors side by side and want to increase the space so that you can view your desktop across the length of both displays, you should go to the Display tab in the System node of the Settings app. The "Extend these displays" option allows for a desktop that stretches across multiple monitors. Portrait orientation will set it up so that you can view the screens rotated 90 degrees from the standard. Selecting the "show only on display 2" option only display the desktop on whichever device is identified as #2. Selecting the "Duplicate the displays" option will display the same desktop image on multiple displays. This option is ideal for delivering presentations. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

Which protocol would be best used to provide encrypted file downloads from a web server? A. HTTP B. HTTPS C. FTP D. P2P

B. HTTPS The most secure option for safely downloading files is HTTPS - HyperText Transfer Protocol with Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS). HTTP can also provide hyperlinks that can point to any type of file for downloading; however, no SSL requirements apply. The FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used to upload and download files between clients and servers. For example, it is widely used to update the files that make up a website from the designer's PC to the web server. Peer-to-Peer (P2P) is a type of network where a user shares files with another user, rather than the server being the only shared file source. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

What is the purpose of an accelerometer, as fitted in a mobile device? A. It is the software interface for speech recognition. B. It is one of the components that detects how the user is moving the device around. C. It is the component the detects a fingerprint to unlock the screen D. It is a software component that provides faster access to applications.

B. It is one of the components that detects how the user is moving the device around. Along with the gyroscope, it is one of the components that detects how the user is moving the device around and is used to set the screen orientation and as an advanced control mechanism. All three major vendors now have speech recognition built into their devices operating systems. Examples include Apple's Siri, Google Now, and Microsoft Cortana. Some devices can use biometric authentication via a fingerprint reader to unlock a locked device. Faster access to applications is generally related to the number of open applications and the amount of memory available on the device. Lesson 19: Using Mobile Devices

How would you access the system setup program on a PC? A. Historically, by pressing and holding the Windows key (4 little white boxes) on your keyboard. Modern PCs use the function key "F5" B. Historically, by pressing the appropriate key during startup (ESC, DEL, F1, F2, or F10). Modern PCs often use fast boot modes that require some other means of booting to the firmware setup program. C. Logically, by pressing CTL+ALT+DEL twice during startup. Just like when you want to exit a program on your PC. D. Logically, by pressing ALT+F4 during startup will access the startup menu through windows.

B. Historically, by pressing the appropriate key during startup (ESC, DEL, F1, F2, or F10). Modern PCs often use fast boot modes that require some other means of booting to the firmware setup program. Some older legacy PCs still use (ESC, DEL, F1, F2, or F10). Manufacturers have begun selling computers with fast boot which requires additional steps to access the firmware setup application. For example, Shift+click the Restart button from the windows logon screen to access UEFI boot options. The Windows key will take you to the system configuration GUI that will allow you to choose how to boot but it is still a process within Windows, not the BIOS. Pressing CTL+ALT+DEL twice is a hotkey put in place to help with your computer if it gets hung up. It will allow you to break activities and will restart your computer. Just like CTL+ALT+DEL interrupts the operating system, ALT+F4 closes the current window. This does not help access BIOS settings. Lesson 10: System Components

You log into a SOHO router and review current settings to prepare it for use. Which of the following items is NOT needed to configure a wireless connection on the router? A. SSID B. IP address C. Encryption type D. Authentication info

B. IP address Configuring a wireless connection manually doesn't require the IP address. It does, however, require that the router be identified by its SSID. In addition, the encryption type and authentication information are required. The SSID (Service Set ID) is the name for the WLAN and is usually set by default to the router's name, but, since the name will display to other wireless devices, it's good to change it. Under the Encryption option, it's best to select the highest security mode supported by the devices on the network. Authentication will include an administrative password. If the password is being used for the first time, it's best to change it to something secure. Lesson 16: Connecting to a Network

What is the advantage of a local network hosted application, in terms of data storage? A. If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it will be available to the user if a network device fails. B. If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it is easier to apply access controls and to back it up. C. If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it will be available during power outages. D. If data is stored on a local network storage device and not on the local workstation, many different users will be able to access the information.

B. If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it is easier to apply access controls and to back it up. If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it is easier to apply access controls and to back it up. Having user data consolidated on a server gives administrators the ability to run data backup routines, which are a safeguard in case of hardware failure. Access controls are also easier to implement when files are on the server. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

What system policy ensures that users do not receive rights unless granted explicitly? A. Least privilege B. Implicit deny C. Allow all D. Deny all

B. Implicit deny Users should only be granted the minimum sufficient permissions. Implicit deny means that unless there is a rule specifying that access should be granted (explicit authorization), any request for access should be denied. Least privilege is a principle where users should be granted rights necessary to perform their job and nothing more. Implicit deny is used in the implementation of least privilege. "Allow all" is an access policy that permits everyone or everything to perform an action or obtain access. This is seen on firewalls particularly if a publicly available service is present, like a web server on port 80. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls "Deny all" is an access policy that denies everyone and everything from performing an action or obtaining access. This policy can be found on firewalls at the very end of the list of rules effectively denying everything that has not been explicitly permitted above it. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

Why would Windows prompt you to enter a password if you try to install a software application? A. Installing an application requires the use of the application's setup files which may require specific user privileges to access. B. Installing an application requires administrator privileges and is an action protected by User Account Control C. Installing an application requires a second level of verification. An administrator verifies a standard user and a second administrator can verify the first one. D. Installing an application requires that you have exited other applications so that the antivirus software can be disabled.

B. Installing an application requires administrator privileges and is an action protected by User Account Control Installing an application requires elevated privileges. As a standard user, the User Account Control (UAC) will prompt for credentials of an authorized account. If you were logged on as an administrator already, you might have to enter the password on a domain; if you were logged on as an ordinary user, you would have to enter the administrator's username and password. Lesson 7: Using Apps

Which of the following is NOT a medium used for Internet access? A. Cable/Hybrid Fiber Coax B. Internet Service Provider (ISP) C. Fiber to the Curb (FTTC) D. Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

B. Internet Service Provider (ISP) An Internet Service Provider (ISP) is the company who specializes in providing Internet access to companies and individual customers. Depending on the size of the ISP, they may provide one or more Internet access methods. Cable Internet access is provided as a part of a Cable Access TV (CATV) system. FTTC are fiber optic networks that typically perform better, but are more expensive. DSL networks use regular phone lines and are a popular choice because they're readily available and less expensive. Satellite and cellular radio are additional options. Lesson 16: Connecting to a Network

Select the one UNTRUE statement in regard to cookies. A. A cookie is a plain text file created by a website you've visited and stored on your hard drive. B. It's not legal for a web site to store cookies on your computer. C. Cookies may contain more information about you than you are aware of. D. Spyware and adware may extract data from your cookies to track your computer use.

B. It's not legal for a web site to store cookies on your computer. Although it is legal for web sites to store cookies on your computer, you can sometimes configure browser settings to limit the personal information they collect and store. Web sites you visit may use a cookie (a simple text file) to record information you key into forms, track how often you visit a site, and so on. Some types of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) can be used to identify you personally, where you live and what you do. Sites should generally publish a privacy policy to let you know what data is being collected and shared. Cookies can't spread malware, but they are a great source of information for spyware and adware. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

You are considering buying a new display device. The model you are considering accepts digital inputs only. Your computer's graphics adapter has a blue port with 15 holes. Would this flat panel be a wise purchase? A. Yes, as this connector is DVI which supports digital only. B. No, as this connector is VGA which supports analog output only. C. Yes, as this connector is HDMI which supports both digital and analog. D. No, as this connector is DisplayPort which supports analog output only.

B. No, as this connector is VGA which supports analog output only. Knowing and understanding what interfaces are available on your computer is important. In this case, you don't have digital video because your computer uses VGA only. VGA connections only support an analog output. A blue port with 15 holes is an analog VGA port, not a digital DVI port. A female DVI port will likely be white in color. The blue port is not an HDMI port. HDMI ports can be identified as rectangular in shape where one of the long edges protrudes further out then the other. Often times, the letters HDMI are printed near the port. DisplayPort connectors can be identified by the letters DP or DP++ near the port. DisplayPort is a digital interface. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

What are the key features of a packet switching network? A. A packet sent down the network can switch its destination mid-stream. B. Nodes within the network can perform a forwarding function, allowing a packet to utilize any available path through the network. C. Packets can be switched from a TCP/IP protocol to another available protocol to increase the transmission speed. D. A packet switching network opens a direct channel on which to transmit the packet, so a break in the channel stops the transmission.

B. Nodes within the network can perform a forwarding function, allowing a packet to utilize any available path through the network. Packet switching makes the network robust against link failures. It is beneficial for the network to use small packets that are easy to re-send. Packets include a header with a destination address. Delivery to that address is a requirement, rather than an option. Packet switching is a networking feature used with the TCP/IP protocol. Packet switching is an improvement over the older method of transmitting packets over a direct channel, or circuit. In the old system, when the circuit breaks, the communication is stopped; whereas, packet switching attempts to find other pathways to ensure that the transmission occurs correctly. 15: Networking Concepts

You need to configure settings for an input device. What should be your first step? A. Configure the wireless adapter to connect to the new input device. B. Open the Settings app or Control Panel. C. Go to the Printers and Scanners tab in system setting. D. Open the Settings add or remove programs.

B. Open the Settings app or Control Panel. If you need to configure settings for an input device your first step should be to go to the Settings app or Control Panel to connect that new input device. The wireless adapter will connect you to the internet. It is not used to connect peripheral devices to your computer. Some of the newer computers can connect to peripheral devices using Bluetooth connectivity but you would not configure that at the wireless adapter. The Printers and Scanners tab in the system setting will only help you with a scanner input. It is primarily used to control the printer output of your computer. If you are planning to add an input device, you do not want to go to add and remove programs because it's a device not a program. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

You have just bought a new computer but want to use the older version of Windows that came with your previous computer. Windows was provided as an OEM license. Can you use this license key to install the software on your new PC? A. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses can only be used on the brand and model it was initially installed on. B. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses can be transferred between different computers, just not at the same time. C. Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEM) licenses are only used in Enterprise environments, prohibiting use on a new computer. D. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses are authorized for use on multiple computer systems at the same time, enabling use on the new computer.

B. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses can be transferred between different computers, just not at the same time. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) software is licensed with the computer system on which it was originally installed, and is tied to that original machine. It is a single-use license that is not intended to be used on any other computer. Lesson 7: Using Apps

You are trying to find a use for an old dot matrix printer. The only port on the printer is a large edge-style one with 36 contacts. What type of port is this? A. USB port B. Parallel port C. HDMI port D. RJ45 port

B. Parallel port The old legacy large edge-style connector with 36 contacts (pins) are called Parallel port connectors. The name refers to the way the data is sent; parallel ports send multiple bits of data at once, in parallel communication, as opposed to serial interfaces that send bits one at a time. USB is an industry standard that establishes specifications for cables, connectors and protocols for connection, communication and power supply between personal computers and their peripheral devices. Old dot matrix printers did not have USB ports. Printers do not use the HDMI connection. An HDMI connection is used for digital video and audio output devices. Although printers may use RJ-45 network ports to connect to a network, old dot matrix printer technology used parallel ports. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

Select the one UNTRUE statement in regard to browser pop-up windows. A. Pop-up windows are usually designed to be helpful to the user. B. Pop-up windows are always a sign of viruses. C. Pop-up windows are implemented using scripts or add-ons. D. Pop-up windows can be controlled using browser settings.

B. Pop-up windows are always a sign of viruses. Aggressive use of pop-up windows can be associated with adware and spyware, but not necessarily with a virus. Most pop-up windows are used to provide help or instructions about using a form or a field; but, they are also sometimes used for advertisements. Scripts and add-ons are sometimes run to create a pop-up in response to clicking a link. Browser setting can be used to help control both cookies and pop-ups. However, it's important to note that some applications require pop-up windows, and will not work if pop-ups are turned off in the browser setting. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

You need a development environment with a library of database functions. What type of interface are you using? A. Direct/Manual Access B. Programmatic access C. Query/Report Builder D. Utility Access

B. Programmatic access Programmatic access is where a software application can interact with the database either using SQL commands or using SQL commands stored as procedures in the database. Most programming languages include libraries to provide default code for connecting to a database and executing queries. Manual access is where administrators might use an administrative tool such as phpMyAdmin to connect and sign in to an RDBMS database. Once they have connected, they can run SQL commands to create new databases on the system and interact with stored data. Query is done when there are many users who may need to interact closely with the database but do not want to learn SQL syntax. A query or report builder provides a GUI for users to select actions to perform on the database and converts those selections to the SQL statements that will be executed. Utility Access happens when an application might use a database "in the background" without the user really being aware of its presence. Alternatively, the application might provide a specific Graphical User Interface (GUI) or form to allow ordinary users to add and search records. Lesson 9: Using Databases

What are constants and variables examples of? A. Simple arrays B. Programming identifiers C. Conditional branches D. Continuous loops

B. Programming identifiers An identifier is used in a program to access a program element, such as a stored value, class, method, or interface. For example, you might assign the identifier FirstName to a stored value that contains a user's first name. In essence, an identifier is a label for something within your program. If your identifier stores data, then it will be either a variable or a constant. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

Malware encrypts the user's documents folder and any attached removable disks then extorts the user for money to release the encryption key. What type of malware is being described? A. Spyware B. Ransomware C. Trojans D. Worm

B. Ransomware Ransomware is a type of malware that tries to extort money from the victim. Some forms of ransomware try and trick the user into paying the ransom by "locking" the computer. Others are more mischievous and encrypt the information so that the owner must pay the ransom or lose all of their computer files. Spyware is a program that monitors user activity and sends the information to someone else. A Trojan is a program that pretends to be something it is not. For example, a new video game may actually delete all the files on a computer. A worm is a type of virus that self-propagates and performs a malicious task. A worm can be used to spread ransomware. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

Which feature allows data to be removed from a device if it is lost or stolen? A. Lockout policy B. Remote wipe C. Screen lock D. Encryption

B. Remote wipe Some phones support a kill switch, or remote wipe, so that if the handset is stolen it can be set back to factory defaults and cleared of personal data. The remote wipe can be triggered by too many attempts at logging in or by software. The lockout policy can be set to lock the device for a certain amount of time, which escalates each time that limit is reached. A basic screen lock can prevent unauthorized access by requiring a password to log in. Encryption is meant to disguise data temporarily, until it can be decrypted, but not to destroy or delete data. Lesson 19: Using Mobile Devices

Why is prioritization a critical task for disaster recovery? A. Integrity of the data will need to be checked before access is re-enabled. B. Services may have dependencies that make restoring them in the wrong order futile. C. System demand will need to be monitored after rebuilding to verify stability. D. Network cabling should be designed to allow for multiple paths between the various servers.

B. Services may have dependencies that make restoring them in the wrong order futile. Services may have dependencies that make restoring them in the wrong order futile. Also, disasters lead to scarce resources so the most critical services must be given priority. These should be identified before the disaster occurs so that staff working to recover systems are properly guided. It is true that the integrity of the data will need to be checked before restoring access. This is one of several steps performed during disaster recovery that should be assigned a priority. System demand will need to be monitored after rebuilding to verify stability; however, this does not explain why it is important to assign a priority to recovery tasks. Designing networking architecture to provide multiple paths between servers is a redundancy technique and not a reason for prioritizing disaster recovery tasks. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

What does attenuation mean? A. Bluetooth signal strength B. Signal interference C. Loss of strength of a signal D. Inactive access point

B. Signal interference Attenuation describes the loss of strength of a signal related to the distance it has to travel. Attenuation sets the distance limitations on different network media types. Signal interference can play a factor in reduced Wi-Fi speed and is often caused by other radio-based devices and nearby Wi-Fi networks. Bluetooth uses the 2.4 GHz frequency range but a different modulation technique, so interference is possible but not common. An active access point is a requirement for sending signals via Wi-Fi. Access points can be activated by push-button or a software-based sync button. Lesson 16: Connecting to a Network

What language is usually used to request data from an RDBMS such as Oracle? A. eXtensible Markup Language (XML) is used to query RDMBS-based database platforms. B. Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms. C. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms. D. Java is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms.

B. Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms. The Structured Query Language (SQL) is designed to retrieve specific records from a dataset. This is accomplished using the Data Definition Language (DDL) commands which are SQL commands that add to or modify the structure of a database. eXtensible Markup Language (XML) was designed to store and transport data. XML was also designed to be both human- and machine-readable. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is a language used to serve HTML web pages using coded tags to describe how the page should be formatted. Java is a general-purpose computer-programming language that is concurrent, class-based, object-oriented, and specifically designed to have as few implementation dependencies as possible. General purpose programming languages can access database information using SQL queries. Lesson 9: Using Databases

You want to restrict access to a computer on your network to a single internet host running a particular application. What two things do you need to configure in your firewall's access control list? A. The SSID and the IP address B. The IP address of the host and the port number of the application C. The SSID and the application name D. The IP address of the host and the application name

B. The IP address of the host and the port number of the application On a TCP/IP network, each host is identified by an IP address, while each application protocol (HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and so on) is identified by a port number. Packet filters on a firewall can be applied to IP addresses and port numbers. The IP address can identify the host throughout the entire network; whereas, and SSID is a local identification code. Restricting access to a host running a particular application would require the identification of the application; however, an application name would not be recognizable by the firewall. The firewall access control list requires the IP address and port number. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

What default installation folders contain system and application files that should not normally be deleted or modified manually? A. The Downloads folder B. The Windows and Program Files folders. C. The Temp folder D. The Desktop folder

B. The Windows and Program Files folders. The contents of Program Files and Windows should not be moved or changed except by using the proper Windows utilities and application installers. Moving or deleting files manually could cause serious problems. Ordinary users are often denied access to system folders. You can access your Downloads folders. Browsers such as Chrome, Firefox, and Edge store downloaded files in your computer's Downloads folder by default. The Temp folder in Windows is a location where applications and the Operating System can temporarily store files. It is not intended to be a permanent storage location. A user can access and modify files in this folder. The Desktop is stored in the Desktop folder within a user's profile. This folder is meant to simulate a physical desktop by allowing users to store and modify files directly from it. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

Why might a company ban use of the corporate network and desktop software for personal communications? A. The company wants employees to focus 100% of their energy on job duties. B. The company might be held responsible for inappropriate content posted by its employees. C. The company has purchased, and therefore owns, the network and software. D. The company's resources are too limited to allow personal use.

B. The company might be held responsible for inappropriate content posted by its employees. For legal reasons, a company might ban use of the corporate network and desktop software for personal communications. This is because the company may be held liable for inappropriate content posted by its employees. The issue of privacy is also complex and it is often better for both the company and the employee to use corporate systems for business communications only. Although a company would likely prefer all employee effort be focused on performing job duties, this is likely not the reason for restricting personal use of corporate information resources. While it is true that the company owns the network and resources, the reason for limiting personal use is more likely related to legal liability, not greed. While some company resources are limited due to financial or non-technical reasons, the primary motive for restricting personal use is because the company may be held responsible for employee conduct. Lesson 23: Behavioral Security Concepts

Why might one of your first tasks on receiving a new computer be to remove software applications? A. The computer may already have a virus pre-installed that you do not want. B. The computer may be bundled with pre-installed software that you do not want. C. The computer may have spyware bundled in that will watch every action that do on your computer. D. The computer may not have enough storage left to run any of the software applications.

B. The computer may be bundled with pre-installed software that you do not want. Manufacturers attempt to load pre-installed applications with the sale of their computers to provide functionality for what the majority of the consumers like and use. What everybody wants may not be what you want. Lesson 7: Using Apps

You need to plug a microphone into a computer to make a recording. How would you identify which jack to use? A. The jack is color-coded green. B. The jack is color-coded pink. C. Plug into the RJ45 Jack. D. Use the HDMI connection.

B. The jack is color-coded pink. Generally, most basic computer microphones will have one of two varieties of jack: an 1/8" TRS jack, which is essentially the same kind of jack you would find on a pair of headphones (usually colored pink), or a USB jack, which is flat. Both of these jacks have corresponding ports on most computers. The green jack is an output audio jack and it is used to connect speakers to your computer as an output for sound. The RJ45 Jack is used to connect a network cable to your computer. The network connection is not an input jack capable of relaying sound to a sound card. The HDMI cable is used for audio/video output, not for audio input. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

What is the difference between a modem and a router? A. The modem forwards packets between the local network and the Internet while the router transmits frames across the WAN link B. The modem transmits frames across the WAN link while the router forwards packets between the local network and the Internet. C. The modem and the router have exactly the same responsibilities, so the terms are often used interchangeably. D. The modem transmits frames across the WAN link while the router translates the server's web address into an IP address.

B. The modem transmits frames across the WAN link while the router forwards packets between the local network and the Internet. A modem creates a serial link between two computers over some sort of long distance media. It operates at the data link layer. A router makes forwarding decisions between logical networks. The framing and transmission details are the responsibility of the modem (or of an Ethernet switch or wireless access point). The router just needs to know that a particular logical network can be reached over one of its interfaces. Most SOHO devices pack all these functions into a single appliance but it is important to recognize that they are not the same, and understand the differences between the functions. Obtaining the IP address from a web address is the responsibility of DNS. Lesson 16: Connecting to a Network

Which is a true statement regarding whether or not laptops make good servers? A. Their size and weight make them perfect for a server rack, and this allows for better cooling. B. There is no room for expansion, and you are paying for components and a design that isn't practical. C. Their redundancy makes them reliable, particularly during power outages. D. Their mobility allows for more flexibility in where you store the server.

B. There is no room for expansion, and you are paying for components and a design that isn't practical. The reason laptops don't make good servers is because they are optimized to be small, and because of this, there is no room for expansion. Furthermore, they are not exactly meant to be used for extended periods of time. Overheating and battery life can be problematic. Their size and weight do not make them ideal for server racks (they are just too small). There is absolutely no room for redundancy in laptop computers. While mobility is the key to a good laptop, it doesn't usually make for a good server. Lesson 1: Common Computing Devices

What type of connection would a NAS device NOT be able to use? A. A wired Ethernet port B. Twisted pair (RJ-11) C. Wi-Fi D. LAN port on a SOHO router

B. Twisted pair (RJ-11) Twisted pair cabling, specifically with an RJ-11 connector, is used for telephone connections. A fax modem, for example, might be connected with an RJ-11 connector. Network Attached Storage (NAS) is an appliance that houses one or more hard drives, usually running some form of the Linux operating system. NAS can be connected to the network using Ethernet cable. NAS appliances also support Wi-Fi networking. In a SOHO network you would plug the Ethernet cable into a LAN port on the SOHO router to connect the NAS device. Lesson 18: Using Shared Storage

What type of wired interface is a printer MOST likely to use? A. HDMI B. USB C. VGA D. S/PDIF

B. USB Universal Serial Bus (USB) is an industry standard that establishes specifications for cables, connectors and protocols for connection, communication and power supply between personal computers and their peripheral devices. USB is the type of wired connection that you would most likely use for a printer. Printers do not use the HDMI connection. An HDMI connection is used for digital video and audio output devices. Printers do not use the VGA wired interface because that is used for legacy monitor connections. A Sony/Phillips Digital Interface (S/PDIF) jack is used on higher end sound cards to transmit digital signals to surround sound speaker systems. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

What is the main means by which anti-virus software identifies infected files? A. Using heuristics to detect suspicious behavior B. Using definitions or signatures of known virus code C. Using signatures of zero-day exploits D. Using AutoRun to execute files of unknown provenance

B. Using definitions or signatures of known virus code C. Using signatures of zero-day exploits Antivirus software can be used to detect the presence of malware and prevent it from running. The main means by which antivirus identifies infected files is through the use of definitions or signatures of known virus code. These definitions must be kept up-to-date. Some antivirus products use heuristics to detect virus-like behavior; however, most infected files are found using signatures. Zero-day exploits are vulnerabilities in software that have not been patched by developers or are not publicly known. These vulnerabilities do not have signatures since they are unknown. AutoRun is a Windows feature that automatically executes a program or file. Malware is sometimes spread using AutoRun. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

What type of information would NOT be considered confidential and governed by classification and handling procedures? A. Company confidential information B. Website information C. Customer information D. Personally identifiable information

B. Website information Information that is deemed available for public consumption would not be considered confidential and would not need to be governed by classification and handling procedures. An example of this would be information posted to a public website, like company physical location and retail store hours of operation. Company confidential information is a category of information that includes marketing plans, contracts, procedures, diagrams, and financial information. This information is confidential. Customer information is data collected by a company with the consent of customers and may include shipping address and credit card account numbers. This information is confidential. Personally identifiable information is data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual and may include Social Security Number (SSN), date of birth, and street address. This information is confidential. Lesson 23: Behavioral Security Concepts

What is the result of putting a phone in "airplane mode?" A. The phone is shut down. B. Wireless features are disabled. C. The volume is muted. D. GPS is connected to the airplane's system.

B. Wireless features are disabled. As a safety feature, most airlines require cell phones to disable wireless features such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and GPS. The goal is to avoid interference with the airline's communications and navigation systems--especially during take-off and landing. Airplane mode allows phones to stay on, while Wi-Fi is disabled with a quick toggle-like setting. That provides users with opportunities to use the phone's local software for things like playing games, listening to music, or viewing downloaded video. Muting the volume is a courtesy travelers might grant each other, but isn't a function of airplane mode. GPS is one of the wireless features disabled via airplane mode. Lesson 19: Using Mobile Devices

What type of software is an ODF file associated with? A. Video conferencing software B. Word processing software C. Email client software D. Database software

B. Word processing software Open Document Format (ODF) files are associated with word processing applications. Word processing applications help users to write and edit documents. A word processor will come with features enabling the user to edit and review text quickly (using an automated spell checker for instance). Video conferencing or Video Teleconferencing (VTC) software allows users to configure virtual meeting rooms, with options for voice, video, and instant messaging. Email software is an application that allows the user to compose and send messages as well as receive messages from others. Database software enables users to create and save an organized collection of data. This data can be retrieved, modified, and manipulated for a number of purposes. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

Which of the following is NOT a privacy issue that is related to using a social networking site? A. You need to control how far the information that you post to the site is distributed. B. You need to ensure that private information is physically shredded prior to disposal. C. You need to know how the company processes, stores, and transfers or sells any data it collects about you. D. You can never take back information that is publicly posted, as others may have downloaded or duplicated it.

B. You need to ensure that private information is physically shredded prior to disposal. Social networking sites offer unique ways to communicate and share information; however, privacy issues may arise from using the social network. One privacy issue that is NOT related to social media is the need to physically shred private information prior to disposal. This privacy concern is related to physical security. The need to control how far posted information gets distributed is a privacy concern. You could make information private, accessible to close friends only, accessible to all your contacts, or accessible to anyone. The need to know how a social media company processes, stores, and transfers or sells any data it collects about you is considered a privacy concern. This includes information you post and your activity on the site. Understanding that publicly posted information can never be made private again is a concern related to social media privacy. Lesson 23: Behavioral Security Concepts

A user has two USB drives connected to her PC. She complains that when she copies large files to both drives at the same time, it seems to take much longer. Why might this be? A. Writing to USB drives can only occur one at a time. B. The flash drive partitions haven't been formatted. C. Bandwidth on the USB bus is shared between all devices. D. She has the cables swapped backwards.

C. Bandwidth on the USB bus is shared between all devices. Bandwidth, also called throughput, refers to the total amount of data that can theoretically be transferred on the bus in a given unit of time. All devices on the Universal Serial Bus (USB) have to share this throughput. A partition is a part of a disk drive that is separate from the rest of the drive. Typically, Windows will not allow you to partition a USB flash drive because flash drives are removable media. USB allows more than one device to be used at any given time. To say that you can't use multiple drives is like saying you can only drive one car on a highway. Cable connectors rarely fit into a socket in a backwards manner. Connecting a cable backwards is impossible. Lesson 11: Using Device Interfaces

What three scripting options are commonly used in Windows 10 to perform administrative tasks? A. PowerCLI, Perl, and Python B. Mocha, LiveScript, and JavaScript C. Batch files, Windows PowerShell scripts, and VBScripts D. AppleScript Editor, Xcode, and Smile

C. Batch files, Windows PowerShell scripts, and VBScripts Batch files, Windows PowerShell scripts, and VB Scripts are the three scripting options commonly used in Windows 10 to perform administrative activities and other tasks. Lesson 8: Programming and App Development

How might spyware be able to steal a password? A. By forcing the use of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption B. By performing a Man-in-the-Middle attack over Wi-Fi C. By monitoring key strokes or stealing a password database D. By installing ransomware that locks users out of their files

C. By monitoring key strokes or stealing a password database Spyware is a program that monitors user activity and sends the information to someone else. Spyware might be able to steal a password by monitoring keystrokes while a user enters a password. Additionally, spyware may be able to send a password database to a malicious person who has the ability to crack the database's encryption. A Man-in-the-Middle attack can reveal passwords; however, this type of attack is not typically performed by spyware. Forcing a computer to use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption will protect a password, not reveal a password. Installing ransomware prevents a user from accessing information without paying extortion money. Spyware tends to observe and exfiltrate information, not encrypt and extort for money. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

What key combination can you use to force the browser to ignore any locally cached files when refreshing a page? A. Ctrl++ B. Crtl+Alt+Del C. Ctrl+F5 D. Alt+F4

C. Ctrl+F5 When browsing the web, holding Ctrl and pressing F5 instructs the browser to perform a refresh but to ignore the locally cached files. This forces the browser to retrieve the newest copy of the website from the web server. Lesson 3: Using an OS

An INSERT statement is an example of what data language type? A. Both Data Manipulation Language and Data Definition Language B. Data Definition language C. Data Manipulation Language D. Neither Data Manipulation Language nor Data Definition Language

C. Data Manipulation Language Data Manipulation Language (DML) commands allow you to insert or update records and extract information from records for viewing. Data Definition Language (DDL) commands refer to SQL commands that add to or modify the structure of the database. Therefore, the INSERT statement is part of DML because it depends on the structure of a table (columns, data types, and constraints) being established already. Data Definition Language (DDL) commands add to or modify the structure of a database. The INSERT statement manipulates an existing structure. A statement must be either a Manipulation or a Definition statement, not both. The INSERT statement fits the definition of a Data Manipulation Language because it inserts records into a pre-existing structure. Lesson 9: Using Databases

What class of data is a transport encryption protocol designed to protect? A. Data being hashed B. Data at rest C. Data in transit D. Data in storage

C. Data in transit A transport encryption protocol is designed to protect data that is in transit or in motion. This is the state when data is transmitted over a network, such as communicating with a web page via HTTPS or sending an email. A common transport encryption protocol is the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS). Data at rest is a state where data is stored in some sort of persistent media. Data in this state is encrypted using whole disk encryption, mobile device encryption, database encryption, and file- or folder-level encryption. Hashed data is part of the class of data called data at rest. Hashed data has already been processed by a cryptographic algorithm and is theoretically not reversable back to the original plaintext. Data in storage, or data that resides on some form of persistent media, is typically called data at rest. Data at rest is not protected by transport encryption. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

What are the three main areas where redundancy should be provisioned? A. Circuits, power generators, Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs) B. RAID 1, RAID 5, and RAID 10 C. Data, network links, and power D. Authentication, authorization, and accounting

C. Data, network links, and power Contingency plans depend on providing redundancy at both the component and system levels. At both of these levels, redundancy should be provisioned across three main areas: data, network links, and power. A Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a technique used for data redundancy at the component level. Redundant circuits, a power generator, and Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs) are methods used for power redundancy at both component and system levels. Authentication, authorization, and accounting are types of controls found within access control systems. These are not specific redundancy focus areas. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

What type of computer is most likely to need peripheral devices? A. Smartphone B. Laptop C. Desktop D. Server

C. Desktop Desktop computers are more likely to need peripheral devices. The peripheral devices would be used to manage specific input and output processes (like printing) when necessary. Another way to look at peripheral devices is that they are dependent on the computer system. For example, most printers can't do much on their own, and they only become functional when connected to a computer system. Laptops and or tablets can have peripheral devices, but peripheral devices would end up weighing them down and making them less mobile. A smartphone is rarely used in situations where you would need a peripheral device. Servers do not usually have peripheral devices on them. Lesson 1: Common Computing Devices

What impact is presented when users reveal their passwords to technical support staff? A. It exposes the passwords to brute-force attacks from malicious hackers. B. It provides technical support staff with access to the user's personal files stored on the network. C. It exposes users to social engineering attacks that try to gather login credentials for malicious use. D. It prevents the user from needing to change a password following the password history component of the policy.

C. It exposes users to social engineering attacks that try to gather login credentials for malicious use. Any request for a password should be treated by users as suspicious. Social engineers often impersonate technical support staff to deceive users into revealing sensitive information. Best practice is to train users to never reveal their passwords to anyone. Although there may be unethical technical support staff, the user's password would not be required for them to snoop since they likely have administrator access. Brute-force cracking is the process a hacker uses to "decrypt" a password hash so they can retrieve the original password. Sharing a password eliminates the need to brute-force. A user will still need to follow the password policy including password changes (history) and complexity. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

You are setting up a new computer, but it doesn't seem to be working. Should you check anything or contact the manufacturer? A. It's broken. Unplug everything and send it back. B. It's a brand-new computer, you don't need to check anything. C. It would be best to double-check you have connected the cables correctly. D. Just contact the manufacturer and get their technical opinion.

C. It would be best to double-check you have connected the cables correctly. Before you contact the manufacturer to report a problem, go back and make sure that you have everything connected properly, especially the power cable. Contacting the manufacturer to report a problem without confirming whether or not everything is set up properly will make you look unprepared and unprofessional. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

What type of print technology uses toner? A. Inkjet B. Thermal transfer C. Laser D. Impact

C. Laser Laser printers are the type of printers that use fusers. Essentially, the laser heats up the toner and then transfer and bonds the toner to the paper using heat and pressure. Inkjet printers use micro-sprayers that spray droplets of ink at the paper to print. Thermal printing is a digital printing process which produces a printed image by selectively heating coated thermochromic paper, or thermal paper as it is commonly known, when the paper passes over the thermal print head. The coating turns black in the areas where it is heated, producing an image. Impact printers are mechanical and much like the old typewriters. A hammer with the letters embossed strike a ribbon of ink, and letters transfer through the ink ribbon and pound the letter onto the paper. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

Which non-discretionary access control type is based on the idea of security clearance levels? A. Role-based Access Control (RBAC) B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) D. Rule-based access control

C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) Mandatory Access Control is based on the idea of security clearance levels. Rather than defining access control lists on a resource, each object and each subject is granted a clearance level. In Discretionary Access Control, the owner of the resource is given full control, and is permitted to modify the access control list to grant rights to others. Role-based Access Control is a type of discretionary access control that adds an extra degree of administrative control. Under RBAC, a set of organizational roles are defined, and users are allocated to those roles. Rule-based access control is a term that can refer to any sort of access control model where access policies are determined by system-enforced rules rather than by system users. Rule-based systems might restrict discretionary aspects of granting rights. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

You want to purchase a computer with a fast graphics interface. What type of expansion slot should you look for? A. Motherboard SIMM slots—this type of slot has 30-pin slots typically used in laptops while the 64-pin and 72-pin slots were found on desktop motherboards. B. SDRAM and DDR—this type of slot is common for desktop computers (if you use a laptop, you need to look for a SODIMM) each having various types and speeds. C. PCIe x16—this is a type of PCI Express slot that uses 16 'lanes'. Each lane can transfer 250 MBps (or 500 MBps for PCIe 2 and 1 GBps for v3). D. Connect solid-state graphics to the high-speed SATA slots and mechanical disk drives to the lower-speed slots.

C. PCIe x16—this is a type of PCI Express slot that uses 16 'lanes'. Each lane can transfer 250 MBps (or 500 MBps for PCIe 2 and 1 GBps for v3). PCI Express (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express), officially abbreviated as PCIe or PCI-e, is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard, designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards. SDRAM and DDR slots are the expansion slots on the motherboard where you would put more memory. SDRAM and DDR are for a desktop, and SODIMM is for motherboards. SIMM are the older legacy type memory cards from the '90s. Highspeed SATA slots are part of the computer bus interface that connects host bus adapters to mass storage devices, such as hard disk drives, optical drives, and solid-state drives Lesson 10: System Components

What basic command demonstrates that a printer is connected properly to a computer and that its driver is installed correctly for Windows? A. Run the troubleshooter B. Check devices and features C. Print test page. D. Printing preferences

C. Print test page. Print test page will print a page to see if the driver is installed correctly. It will also allow you to check that text and graphics can be printed correctly by the printer. The test page normally also shows you extra information such as the driver software version which can be used to if you need to troubleshoot problems. Checking devices and features will allow you to see if a printer is present. It will not necessarily demonstrate that the printer is connected properly and that the drivers are properly loaded to Windows. Running the troubleshooter may assist you in identifying problems with the driver or configuration errors, but it is a process (wizard), not a basic command. Printing preferences will bring up options on how you want the printer to process your projects. It does not test the status of your printer and its driver. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

You want to configure a printer to use both sides of the paper (duplex) by default. You have alt-clicked the printer object. Which command should you select to proceed? A. Open B. Printer properties C. Printing preferences D. Troubleshoot

C. Printing preferences Alt-clicking the printer object opens a menu with several options. If supported by your printer, you can select the duplex option by selecting the printing preferences option. After alt-clicking, the printer properties option can be used to change a printer name, sharing, and advanced configuration; however, the duplex option is not located here. The open option on the menu will display the printer queue and, depending on the print driver, offer options for other functionality. The troubleshoot option invokes Windows diagnostic troubleshooting wizard. This is used when the device is not functioning properly, not to configure duplex printing. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

If you have made changes to a file and want to keep both the original file and the modified version, what command should you use? A. Share B. Save C. Save As. D. Export

C. Save As. If you want to keep both the original document and the edited version, use the Save As command to create a new file with a different name and/or stored in a different folder. The Save command will overwrite the original file. At a bare minimum you must use the Save command to retain any changes you make while editing a document. If you do not, then all work performed since the previous save will be lost. The Share command can be used to share a document with other people located within a cloud environment. Some applications may allow sharing; however, this is typically an option associated with cloud-based document management. The export command can be used to convert your document into a file format different from the current format. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

Why might you use the Services snap-in to manage background processes rather than Task Manager? A. The Task Manager allows you to modify which user or system account the service runs as but the Services snap-in has restart functionality. B. The Service snap-in tool allows you to start and stop services, but the Task Manager will also allow you to configure service properties. C. Task Manager allows you to start and stop services but the Services snap-in also allows you to configure service properties. D. The Task Manager requires administrative privileges to run but the Services snap-in can be run by any user.

C. Task Manager allows you to start and stop services but the Services snap-in also allows you to configure service properties. The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) provides a framework for building management consoles. The Service snap-in allows you to configure service properties as well as start and stop services. The Task Manager allows only the starting, stopping, or restarting of services. Lesson 4: Managing an OS

Why should you be more careful about deleting files from a USB flash drive than from the main hard drive? A. The files from the flash drive get recycled to the Windows recycle bin, making for easy recovery at a later time. B. The files from the main hard drive will not be recycled, so retrieving them if you change your mind will be very difficult. C. The files from a flash drive will not be recycled, so retrieving them if you change your mind will be very difficult. D. The files from the main hard drive get flagged for deletion but remain until the next Windows Update cycle.

C. The files from a flash drive will not be recycled, so retrieving them if you change your mind will be very difficult. You should be more careful deleting files from a flash drive than the main drive because you will not be able to retrieve them if you change your mind. This is because files get permanently deleted instead of being moved to the Windows recycle bin. When files are deleted from the main hard drive, they get moved to the recycle bin and can be recovered by the standard user. Files deleted from the main hard drive get recycled. Files from the flash drive do NOT get recycled. Files, regardless of location, do not get flagged for deletion and remain until the next Windows Update cycle. Windows Update is used to install new versions of software and patches, not to delete files. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

A printer is rated at 20ppm. What is the significance of this statistic? A. This is the number of projects per minute that your printer can handle. B. This is an image format used to measure the quality of an image the printer can produce. C. This is the number of pages per minute the printer can output. High page rates are important in high-volume environments. D. This is the voltage measurement of your printer.

C. This is the number of pages per minute the printer can output. High page rates are important in high-volume environments. Pages per minute (PPM) is the speed measurement of the printer's printing capability. PPM is used to measure the printing speed of both inkjet and laser printers. Most printers include a PPM rating for both black and color documents. These speed measurements are typically listed in the printer's technical specifications. Portable Pixel Map (PPM) is an image format typically used to allow monochrome bitmaps to be transmitted within an email message as plain ASCII text, allowing it to survive any changes in text formatting. Project Portfolio Management (PPM) is the centralized management of the processes, methods, and technologies used by project managers and project management offices. It is not related to printing. Pulse Power Measurement (PPM) is a voltage measurement not related to printers. Lesson 12: Using Peripheral Devices

What type of access mechanism is MOST vulnerable to a replay attack? A. Use of multi-factor authentication B. Use of a complex password C. Use of a token generated by software D. Use of biometrics

C. Use of a token generated by software Use of a token generated by software is most vulnerable to replay. If the token is not authenticated properly by the server, someone else can obtain the token and can masquerade as the original user. A complex password is something that is not replayed; however, it is possible to replay a password hash derived from a complex password. Multi-factor authentication requires multiple factors of authentication and is unlikely to be victim to a replay attack. Biometrics uses physiological signatures, like a fingerprint or facial recognition, which are unlikely to be vulnerable to a replay attack. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

What technique makes password cracking fairly easy? A. Choosing a passphrase instead of a password B. Including numbers, special characters, and letters C. Using simple words or names as a password D. Reusing the password across many sites

C. Using simple words or names as a password Simple words or names as a password is fairly easy to crack. Password-cracking software is configured with dictionaries of such names and phrases. Even if the password is encrypted, if it matches a term in the password-cracking dictionary it will be discovered in seconds. Including numbers, special characters, and letters increases the password complexity. The more complex the password, the harder it will be to crack. Choosing a pass phrase that includes one or two symbols or numbers mixed into it can offer a good balance between complexity and memorability. Reusing a password on many sites is an insecure practice; however, the password itself still has the same difficulty level when it comes to password cracking. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

What is a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)? A. Policies that include privilege management, data/information handling, incident response, and use of company devices B. A measure by which to evaluate compliance with the policy C. General instructions for when situations have not been fully assessed or because the decision-making process is too complex D. An inflexible, step-by-step listing of the actions that must be completed for any given task

D. An inflexible, step-by-step listing of the actions that must be completed for any given task A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is an inflexible, step-by-step listing of the actions that must be completed for any given task. Most critical tasks should be governed by SOPs. A measure by which to evaluate compliance with policy is called a standard. General instructions for when situations have not been fully assessed or because the decision-making process is too complex describes a form of guidance called guidelines. Policies that include privilege management, data/information handling, incident response, and use of company devices are called operational policies. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) may be drafted based on these policies. Lesson 23: Behavioral Security Concepts

What type of disk has the greatest capacity? A. DVD that is dual layer and single sided B. DVD that is dual layer and double sided C. DVD that is single layer and single sided D. Blu-ray that is a single layer

D. Blu-ray that is a single layer Blu-ray Discs (BD) are replacing DVD as the media for distributing consumer multimedia and video games. A standard BD has a capacity of 25 GB per layer. Therefore, the single layer has 25 GB and the dual-layer discs have 50. A DVD disc that is dual-layered and double sided can store up to 17 GB (8.5 GB on each side). A DVD disc that is single-layered and only contains data on a single side can hold 4.7 GB. A DVD that is dual-layered but only has data on a single side can hold 8.5 GB of data. Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

How might malware hosted on a website be able to infect your computer simply by your browsing the site? A. By exploiting a human vulnerability related to deception B. By exploiting outdated hardware installed in the computer chassis C. By exploiting an improperly configured firewall D. By exploiting a vulnerability in software installed on your computer

D. By exploiting a vulnerability in software installed on your computer Malware may be able to infect your computer simply by your browsing a website. It does this by exploiting a vulnerability in software installed on your computer. The vulnerability may exist in the operating system, the browser, or even a browser plug-in. Outdated hardware can cause performance issues with a computer but it is unlikely to result in malware infection during web browsing. An improperly configured firewall may allow prohibited network traffic into or out of a network. However, a vulnerability that allows malware to infect a computer while web browsing is within the software. A human vulnerability, specifically the ability to be deceived or tricked, can be exploited by malicious people during social engineering. This risk, however, is not the cause of malware infecting a computer while browsing the Internet. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

Your friend sent you an email link, which you have opened, and now the browser is asking whether you should install a plug-in to view all the content on the page. What should you do next? A. Prevent the browser from installing the plug-in and change your passwords due to phishing. B. Allow the browser to install the plug-in as it can be uninstalled later. C. Run an antivirus scan because you have an active malware infection. D. Check whether your friend actually sent the link in good faith first.

D. Check whether your friend actually sent the link in good faith first. This is a classic phishing attack and your friend's computer could be infected with a virus or Trojan. Check whether your friend sent the link in good faith first. Most likely, your friend does not know that email with the link was sent. Allowing the browser to install the plug-in may introduce malware or other malicious content to your computer. Although running an antivirus scan will not hurt anything, the browser asking to install a plug-in does not mean that malware has successfully infected your system. However, allowing a malicious plug-in to install may result in malware. Preventing the browser plug-in from installing is advised; however, phishing has not occurred yet, so changing passwords may not be needed. If you entered your password after clicking the link, then a change of password would be wise. Lesson 21: Using Best Practices

You are using a computer in an Internet cafe. What should you do at the end of the session? A. Log out of all applications you've been using. B. Log off the computer you're using. C. Power off the computer. D. Clear the browser cache.

D. Clear the browser cache. Had you started using the browser in private browsing mode, no cookies would have been saved. Clearing the browser cache, however, will clear any cookies saved, so your personal data will not be available to the next user of that computer. Logging off the computer will prevent access to some of the apps you were using, but will not eliminate cookies. Powering off the computer may eliminate some cookies, but some may remain. Logging out of all applications will protect those applications from someone else using them, but cookies will still be on that computer for possible access by the next user. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

You are advising a colleague about best practices when troubleshooting. You have identified the following techniques to use to identify a problem: gather information, duplicate the problem, question users, identify symptoms, and approach multiple problems individually. If you are following CompTIA's troubleshooting model, what other piece of advice should you give? A. Test the theory to determine a cause B. Research the knowledge base or Internet C. Establish a theory of probable cause D. Determine if anything has changed

D. Determine if anything has changed The first step of the CompTIA troubleshooting model is to identify the problem. This involves the following techniques: gather information, duplicate the problem, question users, identify symptoms, determine if anything has changed, and approach multiple problems individually. The technique missing from the scenario is to determine if anything has changed. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

Which specific attack uses a botnet to threaten availability? A. Replay B. Power outage C. Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) D. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

D. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) An attack that threatens availability is the Denial of Service (DOS) attack. A specific variant of this attack uses a botnet to distribute the attack origin and is called a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack. A Power outage does threaten availability; however, a power outage is not typically caused by a botnet. A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack is typically an integrity concern, not availability. A MitM attack is where a host intercepts traffic between two communicating nodes. A replay attack is typically an integrity concern, not availability. A replay attack involves the capturing of credential information in-transit and replaying it over the network. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

Which protocol allows people to use names/labels, rather than numeric addresses, to address network resources? A. URL B. IP address C. MAC address D. Domain Name System (DNS)

D. Domain Name System (DNS) The Domain Name System (DNS) is a method of assigning names or people-friendly words to devices on a network. An example would be: comptia.org. The IP address is used to identify each device on a given network using a 32-bit binary value expressed as four decimal numbers separated by periods (for IP version 4). Each host, or device, is identified by the address of its network interface by the MAC address, which is assigned to the network adapter at the factory. The Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is a web address, not a protocol, that contains all the information needed by a browser to locate an item on the web, like a web page or a file. Lesson 15: Networking Concepts

Which email protocol(s) are used to download messages from a mail server? A. Either Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) B. Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Mail Exchanger (MX) C. Either Mail Exchanger (MX) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) D. Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

D. Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) An email recipient, using his or her mail client software, can connect with the mailbox on the server and download the message using either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP). Mail Exchanger (MX) is the DNS record that lists the IP address for the recipient's email address, and is used when DNS resolves that address. MX records are used to determine your email's delivery route. If multiple mail servers are used they can be ranked by priority. Once a message is in the queue on the Exchange server, it's the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) session that contacts DNS to obtain the IP address. Lesson 15: Networking Concepts

You have asked a senior manager to authorize your plan of action for resolving a fault in a software application. What name is given to the process you are following? A. Verifying full system functionality B. Testing the theory C. Considering multiple approaches D. Escalating the problem.

D. Escalating the problem Escalating a problem is when you reach out to an experienced staff member for assistance and approval of your procedure or actions. When you can no longer work autonomously and have to ask for help, then you are escalating. Lesson 5: Troubleshooting and Support

How does Microsoft SQL Server differ from Microsoft Excel when used to store a dataset? A. Excel is an example of relational database software that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users, whereas SQL Server is a flat file system. B. Excel is an example of relational database software, whereas SQL Server is a flat file system that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users. C. Excel is an example of a flat file system that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users, whereas SQL Server is relational database software. D. Excel is an example of a flat file system, whereas SQL Server is relational database software that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users.

D. Excel is an example of a flat file system, whereas SQL Server is relational database software that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users. Microsoft Excel is an example of a flat file system. These do not scale well, and usually support a single user only. Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) platforms enable many hundreds or thousands of users to connect concurrently, and can support very large datasets. Also, an RDBMS can enforce data types for each column and validate information entered as fields and records. SQL Server is an example of a RDBMS, and Excel is an example of a flat file system. Excel is a flat file system, not an RDBMS. SQL Server is the RDBMS that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more users. Flat file systems are not suited for larger volumes of information and more users. Flat file systems are better with smaller datasets and singles users. Lesson 9: Using Databases

What type of cryptographic operation(s) are non-reversible? A. Key-pair B. Symmetric C. Asymmetric D. Hashing

D. Hashing A cryptographic hash is designed to make it impossible to recover the original data from the hash and ensure that no two pieces of information produce the same hash. It can be used to prove that a message has not been altered or to store information like passwords within a database. Symmetric is a form of encryption where a single secret key is used to both encrypt and decrypt data, therefore, symmetric encryption is reversible. Asymmetric is a form of encryption where a private key is used to decrypt information that has been encrypted using a public key. Asymmetric encryption is reversible when using the private key. A key-pair is an implementation of asymmetric encryption and can be found in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). A key-pair uses one key to encrypt a message and another key to decrypt the message. This is a reversible process. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

In considering availability concerns, what use might a lockable faceplate on a server-class computer be? A. It may prevent a natural disaster from damaging the hardware and corrupting the data. B. It may prevent the computer or server from overheating and shutting down. C. It may prevent a hacker from obtaining remote unauthorized network access. D. It may prevent the user from switching the machine on/off or accessing removable drives and ports.

D. It may prevent the user from switching the machine on/off or accessing removable drives and ports. A lockable faceplate on a server-class computer helps protect the availability of a computer by preventing a user from shutting it down. Additionally, the faceplate may restrict access to physical drives and ports protecting confidentiality and integrity of data. A computer can overheat when located in a low-ventilation area. A faceplate will not positively influence air flow or prevent the computer form overheating. A hacker obtaining access via the network can occur even with a faceplate installed. The faceplate would only stop the hacker if the malicious person tried to physically access the ports. A faceplate will provide little protection during a natural disaster. Backups are the best risk mitigation for natural disasters. Lesson 20: Security Concerns

Why can't you use memory modules designed for a desktop computer in a laptop? A. Desktops use a different voltage level and it is unsafe to use DIMMs in a SO-DIMM slot because of overheating. B. You should be able to swap them because laptops and desktops both use the same type of DIMM Memory cards. C. The functionality of laptop and desktop memory are different enough so that one cannot be used in the other. D. Laptops use a smaller form factor called SO-DIMM while desktops use DIMMs.

D. Laptops use a smaller form factor called SO-DIMM while desktops use DIMMs. You cannot use memory modules that are designed for desktop computers in a laptop. Laptops use a smaller form factor called SO-DIMM while desktops use DIMMs. This smaller form factor takes up less space and costs a little more because it is designed to be smaller. Swapping memory cards between laptops and desktops will not work because the form factor is completely different. One will not physically fit in the other. The functionality of laptop and desktop memory modules are nearly the same. A laptop cannot use a desktop's modules because the modules will not physically fit. The internal circuitry is different in the SO-DIMM and DIMM memory cards and the voltage may be different depending on circuitry. However, the simple fact is that they do not physically fit Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

What is an example of open source operating systems? A. BIOS and UEFI firmware B. Windows and MacOS C. Embedded operating systems D. Linux, Chromium, or Android

D. Linux, Chromium, or Android Linux, Chromium, or Android are examples of open source operating systems. Generally, open source refers to a computer program in which the source code is available to the general public for use and/or modification from its original design. Open source code is typically a collaborative effort where programmers improve upon the source code and share the changes within the community so that other members can help improve it further. Lesson 3: Using an OS

What type of control prevents a user from denying they performed an action? A. Authentication B. Accounting C. Authorization D. Non-repudiation

D. Non-repudiation Access control systems set the technical controls that govern how subjects may interact with objects. This includes non-repudiation, which is the principle that the user cannot deny having performed some action. Examples of controls providing non-repudiation include logging, video surveillance, biometrics, signatures, and receipts/tokens. The accounting process provides an audit log of how users have authenticated to the network and used their access privileges. The authorization process determines what rights or permissions subjects should have on each resource and enforces those rights. The authentication process proves that a subject is who or what it claims to be when it attempts to access a resource. Lesson 22: Using Access Controls

What is the difference between freeware and open source software? A. Open source applications are those that may be downloaded from the Internet and used without restriction. B. Open source means that the software is intended for purchase to meet commercial needs. C. Open source is provided on a trial basis and users commonly have to purchase the full version after the trial period has passed. D. Open source means that the programming code used to design the software is publicly available.

D. Open source means that the programming code used to design the software is publicly available. Open source licensing ensures that free and legal redistribution of the software is possible. You have the ability to access the code and have the right to modify it. Lesson 7: Using Apps

What type of connector would you NOT use for an external hard drive to connect to a Windows PC? A. USB B. Firewire C. eSATA D. RGB

D. RGB There are several different connectors that can be used to connect an external hard drive to a Windows PC. Of those options, RGB is not one of them. RGB (red, green, blue) is used to connect display devices to video graphics cards. Firewire can be used to connect an external hard drive to a Windows PC. This connector is not very common for current devices; however, it is still available on some older device. eSATA connections are commonly used to connect external hard drives to a Windows PC. This type of connector is found primarily on high-performance systems. USB is the most common connector used for attaching external drives to a Windows PC. USB cable come in multiple different form factors to enable various components to attach to a computer for input and output purposes. Lesson 13: Using Storage Devices

Which of the following is NOT an example of unstructured data? A. PowerPoint presentation B. Image files C. Text files D. Relational databases

D. Relational databases Unstructured data provides no rigid formatting of the data. Unstructured data is typically much easier to create than structured data. There are many examples of unstructured data; however, relational database is not unstructured. A relational database is considered structured data. Structured data enables easier access to the stored information and increased flexibility over retrieving exactly what you are looking for. Image files do not provide rigid formatting and are therefore considered unstructured data. Text files do not provide rigid formatting and are therefore considered unstructured data. PowerPoint presentations do not provide rigid formatting and are therefore considered unstructured data. Lesson 9: Using Databases

What provides sound functionality in a personal computer? A. Sound functions in modern PCs will send your audio directly to an external radio for processing. B. Sound functions must be provided by a plug-in sound card. C. Sound functions are provided by a plug-in card with external speakers. D. Sound functions are often provided by the motherboard chipset.

D. Sound functions are often provided by the motherboard chipset. Sound functions are often provided by the motherboard chipset. Most PCs come equipped with the needed hardware to process audio and do not require an additional soundcard; however, more advanced cards are available for audiophiles. It is possible to have a separate audio plug-in card that will provide separate audio functions but it is not always the case. The sound function in a PC is performed by the sound card (plug-in or integrated into the motherboard). External speakers are needed to produce the actual sound waves, but the processing does not require speakers. Sound processing still occurs within the PC hardware; however, additional functionality exists to send audio to third-party devices. Lesson 10: System Components

What identifies a website as using the secure HTTPS protocol with a valid certificate? A. The URL shows the "http://" protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon. B. The website has a recent copyright date. C. Check the Better Business Bureau. D. The URL shows the "https://" protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon.

D. The URL shows the "https://" protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon. The URL shows the "https://" protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon. For sites that have passed special validation regimes, the address bar will be shown in green. If a site uses https but the certificate is not trusted by the browser, an alert is displayed. A copyright date gives some idea how long the company has been in business. Although the Better Business Bureau may have statistics about the company's finances and behavior, the security of their website wouldn't be an issue unless some unethical or illegal activity has been reported. The "http://" protocol allows web pages without security certificates to display in the browser. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

What kind of data would you expect to find in a file with a TIFF extension? A. This is a text format. B. This is a video format. C. This is a sound format. D. This is an image file format.

D. This is an image file format. A Tagged Image File Format (TIFF) file is an image file format. It is a graphics container that stores raster images. It may contain high-quality graphics that support color depths from 1 to 24-bit and supports both lossy and lossless compression. TIFF files also support multiple layers and pages. A TIFF is not a video file format. A video file format is a type of file format for storing digital video data on a computer system. Video is almost always stored in compressed form to reduce the file size. A TIFF is not an audio file format. An audio file format is a file format for storing digital audio data on a computer system. A TIFF is not a text file format. Text files contain textual data and may be saved in plain text or rich text formats. Most text files are documents created and saved by users. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

You have installed a screensaver application. Later, after updating your anti-virus software, a malicious program is found. This appears to have infected your system at the same time as the screensaver was installed. What class of malware is this? A. Spyware B. Virus C. Adware D. Trojan Horse

D. Trojan Horse The Trojan Horse appears to be a legitimate application, but has malware hidden inside. It may be spyware, or a bot taking control of the computer. A virus is a type of malware that is designed to spread to other parts of your computer or to other computers. Adware installed on your computer is designed to track what you do and which sites you visit. That information is used to display personalized advertisements to you. Spyware is an even more sophisticated type of adware that is typically installed covertly. It attempts to track everything you do, even to the point of tracking keystrokes, taking screenshots, and taking over your camera and microphone. Lesson 17: Secure Web Browsing

What is a zip file? A. A file archive containing other files in a compressed format. B. A Windows installer file used to install and uninstall software applications. C. A container file format designed to deliver Flash Video. D. An image file format most widely used for photographic pictures.

What is a zip file? A. A file archive containing other files in a compressed format. A zip file is a format originally developed for the PKZIP utility but is now supported natively by Windows, Mac OS X, and Linux. A zip file uses compression to reduce the amount of space it consumes on the storage media and conveniently packages multiple files together. A Windows installer file used to install and uninstall software applications is called an MSI file. A container file format designed to deliver Flash Video is called an FLV file. An image file format most widely used for photographic pictures is called a JPG/JPEG file. Lesson 14: Using File Systems

What factors should you consider when positioning input and output devices? a. Ensure that there is proper lighting on your desk to illuminate the screen. b. Ensure that there is enough room on your desk to stack them on top of each other. c. Ensure that the monitor is located at the edge of the desk to maximize work area. d. Ensure that they can be used without exerting strain, especially on the arms / wrists and back / neck.

d. Ensure that they can be used without exerting strain, especially on the arms / wrists and back / neck. You should consider how you position input and output devices to ensure that they are ergonomically safe for you to use. That means that they don't cause strain to your body. You should also avoid trip hazards. Stacking all of your input and output devices may cause damage to the hardware and would make them difficult to use. Having sufficient workspace on the desk is important; however, placement of the monitor must be secure so that it cannot fall off the desk. Shining light on the screen will make it more difficult to see by creating glare. Lesson 2: Using a Workstation