CPC Practice Questions
b. N94.2
Refer to the Tabular List and identify the code that contains an instructional note that indicates that two related conditions cannot occur together. a. A18.01 b. N94.2. c. K31.84 d. S04.0-
A 32 year-old patient with cervical cancer is in an outpatient facility to have HDR brachytherapy. The cervix is dilated and under ultrasound guidance six applicators are inserted with iridium via the vagina to release its radiation dose. The placement is in the cervical cavity (intracavitary). What CPT® code is reported for the physician service? a. 77761-26 b. 77762-26 c. 77799-26 d. 77789-26
b. 77762-26
An 8 month-old has a simple Fontan procedure to repair his tricuspid atresia. During the procedure, the heart-lung machine is used. What are the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for this anesthesia service? a. 00561, Q22.4 b. 00561, 99100, Q22.4 c. 00561, 99100, 99116, Q22.3 d. 00562, 99100, Q21.0
a. 00561, Q22.4
Patient has returned to the operating room for aspiration of a seroma that developed from a genitourinary surgical procedure performed two days ago. A 16-gauge needle is used to aspirate 600 cc of non-cloudy serosanguinous fluid. What codes are reported? a. 10160-78, N99.842 b. 10180-58, N99.820 c. 10140-78, S20.20XS d. 10140-58, N99.89
a. 10160-78, N99.842
A malignant lesion of the forehead measuring 1.0 cm was removed. The operative report states skin margins are 1.1 cm on all sides. Layered closure of 3.5 cm was performed. How is this coded? a. 11644, 12052-51 b. 11602, 12052-51 c. 11604 d. 11602, 12051-51
a. 11644, 12052-51
While whittling a piece of wood, the patient sustained an avulsion injury to a portion of his left index finger and underwent formation of a direct pedicle graft with transfer from his left middle finger. What CPT® code is reported? a. 15574 b. 15740 c. 15750 d. 15758
a. 15574
A 50 year-old female has telangiectasias of the face on both cheeks. She is very bothered by this and presents to have them destroyed via laser. The physician lasers one cutaneous vascular lesion on each cheek; each lesion measuring 2 sq. cm. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 17106 b. 17110 c. 17000, 17003 d. 17263
a. 17106
A 40 year-old female is scheduled for a routine screening baseline bilateral mammogram with computer-aided detection (CAD). What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported? a. 77062, 77063, Z12.31 b. 77067, R92.2 c. 77067, Z12.31 d. 77066, Z12.31
c. 77067, Z12.31
The patient is a 17 year-old male who was struck on the elbow by another player's stick while playing hockey. He is found to have a fracture of the olecranon process. The patient was brought to the OR, anesthetized and intubated. The right upper extremity was prepped with Betadine scrub and draped free in the usual sterile orthopedic manner. The arm was then elevated and exsanguinated and the tourniquet inflated to 250 mm/Hg. A five-inch incision was made with the scalpel on the extensor side of the elbow, beginning distally and proceeding in an oblique fashion up the proximal forearm. Dissection was carried through subcutaneous tissue and fascia, and bleeding was controlled with electrocautery. We then subperiosteally exposed the proximal ulna and olecranon to visualize the fracture site. The fracture could be seen at the base of the olecranon process. We irrigated the site thoroughly and reduced the fracture fragments without difficulty. Extending the elbow, we inserted two smooth K-wires across the fracture site. Through a drill hole in the proximal ulnar shaft, we threaded an 18-gauge wire through it and wrapped it around the K-wires in a figure-of-eight manner to further stabilize the fixation. Wires were then twisted and placed into soft tissues. The K-wires in the olecranon were advanced slightly after being bent and cut. Sterile dressing was applied and the patient was placed in a splint. What CPT® code is reported? a. 24685-RT b. 24635-RT c. 24675-RT d. 24586-RT
a. 24685-RT
What is the correct CPT® coding for a cystourethroscopy with brush biopsy of the renal pelvis? a. 52007 b. 52005 c. 52000, 52007 d. 52005, 52007
a. 52007
A 62 year-old woman with a history of urinary incontinence and incomplete bladder emptying presents for sling urethropexy and repair of a cystocele. The sling urethropexy is performed using a prosthetic mesh. The anterior repair is also performed without difficulty and both repairs are performed vaginally. What are the CPT® codes reported for this service? a. 57288, 57240-51 b. 57288, 57267, 57240-51 c. 53440, 57240-51, 57267 d. 53440, 57240
a. 57288, 57240-51
Patient has TAH-BSO. What CPT® code is reported? a. 58150 c. 58180 b. 58152 d. 58200
a. 58150
Patient wishes permanent sterilization and elects laparoscopic tubal ligation with Falope ring. What is the CPT® code reported for this service? a. 58671 c. 58615 b. 58600 d. 58670
a. 58671
The provider removes the thymus gland in a 27 year-old female with myasthenia gravis. Using a transcervical approach the blood supply to the thymus is divided and the thymus is dissected free from the pericardium and the thymus is removed. What CPT® code is reported for this procedure? a. 60520 b. 60521 c. 60522 d. 60540
a. 60520
A patient has a cytopathology study performed by a fine needle aspiration. The results are quite unusual and the slides as well as a copy of pertinent information from the patient's record are sent to another cytopathologist for consultation. The consulting pathologist reviews the slides and reviews the patient's chart material. A report is sent back to the original pathologist with the findings. What CPT® code is reported? a. 80502 c. 80500 b. 99245 d. 88173
a. 80502
A patient has an open wound on his left lower leg caused by a cat bite. The animal tested negative for rabies, but the wound has failed to heal and became infected by Clostridium perfringens. The patient underwent hyperbaric oxygen therapy attended and supervised by the provider. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 99183, S81.852A, B96.7, W55.01XA b. 97597, S81.001A, T63.891A c. 97605, S81.802A, B95.5, W55.03XA d. 97597, S81.852A, W55.01XA
a. 99183, S81.852A, B96.7, W55.01XA
A patient with congestive heart failure and chronic respiratory failure with hypoxia is placed on home oxygen. Prescribed treatment is 2L nasal cannula oxygen at all times. A home care nurse visited the patient to assist with his oxygen management. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 99503, I50.9, J96.11 c. 99504, I50.1, J96.11 b. 99503, I50.9, J80 d. 99503, J50.1, J80
a. 99503, I50.9, J96.11
A patient is seen by Dr. B who is covering on call services for Dr. A. The patient is an established patient with Dr. A. but she has not been seen by Dr. B. before. Which E/M subcategory is appropriate to report the services provided by Dr. B? a. Established patient office visit b. New patient office visit c. Office consultation d. Preventive medicine visit
a. Established patient office visit
What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported for enlargement of the prostate with a symptom of urinary retention? a. N40.1, R33.8 b. N40.1 c. N40.0 d. N40.3, R33.8
a. N40.1, R33.8
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported on the maternal record for a delivery of triplets that are all liveborn at 32 weeks of pregnancy? a. O30.103, Z37.51, Z3A.32 b. Z37.9, Z3A.32 c. Z37.61, O30.103, Z3A.32 d. O30.109, Z37.9, Z3A.00
a. O30.103, Z37.51, Z3A.32
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for an encounter for full-term uncomplicated delivery of a single live birth at 41 weeks of pregnancy? a. O80, Z37.0, Z3A.41 b. O80, Z37.1, Z3A.41 c. O82, Z37.0, Z3A.41 d. O82, Z37.1, Z3A.41
a. O80, Z37.0, Z3A.41
An HIV positive patient was admitted with skin lesions on the chest and back. Biopsies were taken, and the pathologic diagnosis was Kaposi's sarcoma. Leukoplakia of the lips and splenomegaly were also noted on physical examination. Discharge diagnoses: (1) HIV infection, (2) Kaposi's sarcoma, back and chest, (3) leukoplakia (4) splenomegaly. What ICD-10-CM codes should be reported? a.B20, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1 b.Z21, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1 c.B20, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1, Z21 d.R16.1, C46.0, R16.1, Z21
a.B20, C46.0, K13.21, R16.1
A patient presents with a recurrent seborrheic keratosis of the left cheek. The area was marked for a shave removal. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic, prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. The lesion measuring 1.8 cm was shaved using an 11-blade. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved using light pressure. The specimen was sent for permanent pathology. The patient tolerated the procedure well. What CPT® code is reported? a. 11200 b. 11312 c. 11442 d. 11642
b. 11312
A patient's mother and sister have been treated for breast cancer. She has blood drawn for cancer gene analysis with molecular pathology testing. She has previously received genetic counseling. Blood will be tested for full sequence analysis and common duplication or deletion variants (mutations) in BRCA1, BRCA2 (breast cancer 1 and 2). What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported for this molecular pathology procedure? a. 81200 c. 81162 b. 81206 d. 81163, 81164
c. 81162
Operative Report PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration. POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration. OPERATION PERFORMED: Debridement and split thickness autografting of left midfoot. ANESTHESIA: General endotracheal. INDICATIONS FOR PROCEDURE: This patient with multiple complications from type 2 diabetes developed skin ulcerations which were debrided with homograft last week. The homograft is taking quite nicely; the wounds appear to be fairly clean. He is ready for autografting. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: After informed consent the patient is brought to the operating room and placed in the supine position on the operating table. Anesthetic monitoring was instituted; general anesthesia was induced. The left lower extremity is prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. Staples were removed and the homograft was debrided from the surface of the wounds. One wound appeared to have healed; the remaining two appeared to be relatively clean. We debrided this sharply with good bleeding in all areas. Hemostasis was achieved with pressure, Bovie cautery, and warm saline soaked sponges. With good hemostasis a donor site was then obtained on the left anterior thigh, measuring less than 100 cm2. The wounds were then grafted with a split-thickness autograft that was harvested with a patch of Brown dermatome set at 12,000 of an inch thick. This was meshed 1.5:1. The donor site was infiltrated with bupivacaine and dressed. The skin graft was then applied over the wound, measured approximately 60 cm2 in dimension on the left midfoot. This was secured into place with skin staples and was then dressed with Acticoat 18's, Kerlix incorporating a catheter, and gel pad. The patient tolerated the procedure well. The right foot was redressed with skin lubricant sterile gauze and Ace wrap. Anesthesia was reversed. The patient was brought back to the ICU in satisfactory condition. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 15220-58, 15004-58-51, L97.421, E11.621 b. 15120-58, 15004-58-51, E11.621, L97.421 c. 15950-78, 15004-78-51, E11.9, I70.244 d. 11044-78, 15120-78-51, 15004-78, E11.621, L97.421
b. 15120-58, 15004-58-51, E11.621, L97.421
A 44 year-old male with biplanar deformity, acquired limb length discrepancies and tibial nonunion has undergone deformity correction. He now requires exchange of an external fixation strut 45 days postoperatively. One of the struts for his multiplane external fixation device is removed and then replaced with an adjustable strut. The intraoperative mounting parameters, deformity parameters and initial strut settings are entered into the computer prior to Jim's discharge and a daily schedule is generated for him to perform the gradual deformity correction necessary. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 20696 b. 20697 c. 20694 d. 20692, 20697
b. 20697
A 49 year-old presents with an abscess of the right thumb. The physician incises the abscess and purulent sanguineous fluid is drained. The wound is packed with iodoform packing. What CPT® code is reported? a. 10061-F5 b. 26010-F5 c. 10060-F5 d. 26011-F5
b. 26010-F5
Johnny has a penny removed from his left nostril in the provider's office. What CPT® code is reported? a. 30320 c. 30100 b. 30300 d. 30160
b. 30300
What CPT® code is reported for an emergency endotracheal intubation to save the patient's life? a. 31502 b. 31500 c. 31603 d. 31600
b. 31500
A patient with AML (Acute Myelogenous Leukemia) has just learned his sister is an HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen) match for him. Stem cells taken from the donor (the patient's sister) will be transplanted into the patient to help with his treatment. What CPT® code is used to report the harvesting of the stem cells from the donor (his sister)? a. 38204 c. 38206 b. 38205 d. 38207
b. 38205
A 66 year-old male with a history of anemia presents for a liver core biopsy to evaluate for possible cirrhosis. The patient was brought to the CAT scan suite in which limited CT images of the upper abdomen were performed for biopsy needle placement. The appropriate site for the liver core biopsy was chosen. The patient's skin was then marked with the computer coordinates. An 18-gauge needle was advanced into the appropriate site and a sample was obtained. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 47100, 76942-26 b. 47000, 77012-26 c. 47100, 74150-26 d. 47000, 77002-26
b. 47000, 77012-26
A 40 year-old male patient is in the surgical suite to have an incarcerated hernia of his belly button repaired. What are the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported? a. 49582, K42.0 c. 49590, K42.9 b. 49587, K42.0 d. 49572, K42.9
b. 49587, K42.0
Transurethral resection of bladder neck and nodular prostatic regrowth. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 55801 c. 52640 b. 52630 d. 52500
b. 52630
A woman with a long history of rectocele and perineal scarring from multiple episiotomies develops a rectovaginal fistula with perineal body relaxation. She has transperineal repair with perineal body reconstruction and plication of the levator muscles. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported for this procedure? a. 57250, N81.6 b. 57308, N82.3, N81.89 c. 57300, 56810-51, N82.3, N81.89 d. 57330, N82.3
b. 57308, N82.3, N81.89
A 26 year-old gravida 2 para 1 female has been spotting and has been on bed rest. She awoke this morning with severe cramping and bleeding. Her husband brought her to the hospital. After examination, it was determined she has an incomplete early spontaneous abortion. She is in the 12th week of her pregnancy. She was taken to the OR and a dilation and curettage (D&C) was performed. There were no complications from the procedure. She will follow-up with me in the office. She has had four antepartum visits during her pregnancy. a. 59812, 59425, O03.9 c. 58120, 59425, O03.1 b. 59812, 59425, O03.4 d. 58120, 59425, O03.9
b. 59812, 59425, O03.4
A patient with a right side, benign adrenal adenoma has a laparoscopic adrenalectomy. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 50545, D35.01 b. 60650, D35.01 c. 60540, C47.9 d. 60545, C47.9
b. 60650, D35.01
What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the placement of two adjustable sutures during strabismus surgery involving the horizontal muscles? a. 67318 b. 67312, 67335 c. 67334, 67335-51 d. 67316, 67335-51
b. 67312, 67335
A provider uses cryotherapy for removal trichiasis of the right upper eyelid. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 67820-E3, H02.059 b. 67825-E3, H02.051 c. 67830-E3, H02.051 d. 67840-E3, B79
b. 67825-E3, H02.051
A 65 year-old patient presents with an ectropion of the right lower eyelid. Repair with tarsal wedge excision is performed for correction. Attention was then directed to the left eye. The patient also has an ectropion of the left lower eyelid which is repaired by suture repair. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 67916-50 b. 67916-E4, 67914-E2 c. 67914-50 d. 67923-E4, 67921-E2
b. 67916-E4, 67914-E2
A patient with right and left prominent ears presents for an otoplasty. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 69300, Q17.5 b. 69300-50, Q17.5 c. 69310, H61.113 d. 69320, H61.113
b. 69300-50, Q17.5
A patient has partial removal of his lung which is sent in for gross and microscopic examination. The pathologist also did gross and microscopic exam on biopsies for several lymph nodes in the patient's chest which are placed in one container. A consultation is performed on a tissue block of a single specimen intraoperatively by frozen section. The pathologist also performs a trichrome stain. What CPT® codes are reported for the lab tests performed? a. 88309 x 2, 88313, 88329 b. 88309, 88305, 88313, 88331 c. 88307, 88305 x 2, 88332 d. 88309 x 2, 88307 x 2, 88313, 88331, 88332
b. 88309, 88305, 88313, 88331
Mrs. Salas had angina decubitus that lasted for 30 minutes and was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a diagnosis of r/o MI. The cardiologist (private practice based) takes her to the cardiac catheterization suite at the local hospital for a left heart catheterization. Injection procedures for selective coronary angiography and left ventriculography were performed and imaging supervision and interpretation for the selective coronary angiography and left ventriculography was provided. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the services? a. 93452-26 c. 93453-26 b. 93458-26 d. 93453-26, 93462
b. 93458-26
A 60 year-old woman is seeking help to quit smoking. She makes an appointment to see Dr. Lung for an initial visit. The patient has a constant cough due to smoking and some shortness of breath. No night sweats, weight loss, night fever, CP, headache or dizziness. She has tried patches and nicotine gum which has not helped. Patient has been smoking for 40 years and smokes 2 packs per day. She has a family history of emphysema. A limited three system exam was performed. Dr Lung discussed in detail the pros and cons of medications used to quit smoking. Counseling and education was done for 20 minutes of the 30-minute visit. Prescriptions for Chantix and Tetracycline were given. The patient to follow up in 1 month. A chest X-ray and cardiac work up was ordered. Select the appropriate CPT code(s) for this visit. a. 99202 c. 99203, 99354 b. 99203 d. 99214, 99354
b. 99203
Patient comes in today at 4 months of age for a checkup. She is growing and developing well. Her mother is concerned because she seems to cry a lot when lying down but when she is picked up she is fine. She is on breast milk but her mother has returned to work and is using a breast pump but hasn't seemed to produce enough milk. PHYSICAL EXAM: Weight 12 lbs. 11 oz., Height 25in., OFC 41.5 cm. HEENT: Eye: Red reflex normal. Right eardrum is minimally pink, left eardrum is normal. Nose: slight mucous Throat with slight thrush on the inside of the cheeks and on the tongue. LUNGS: clear. HEART: w/o murmur. ABDOMEN: soft. Hip exam normal. GENITALIA normal although her mother says there was a diaper rash earlier in the week. ASSESSMENT Four month-old well check Cold Mild thrush Diaper rash PLAN: Okay to advance to baby foods Okay to supplement with Similac Nystatin suspension for the thrush and creams for the diaper rash if it recurs Mother will bring child back after the cold symptoms resolve for her DPT, HIB and polio What E/M code(s) is/are reported? a. 99212 b. 99391 c. 99391, 99212-25 d. 99213
b. 99391
What is the full description for code 11001? a. Debridement of extensive eczematous or infected skin; up to 10% of body surface; each additional 10% of the body surface, or part thereof (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure). b. Debridement of extensive eczematous or infected skin; each additional 10% of the body surface, or part thereof (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure) c. Each additional 10% of the body surface, or part thereof (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure) d. Debridement of extensive eczematous or infected skin; up to 10% of body surface
b. Debridement of extensive eczematous or infected skin; each additional 10% of the body surface, or part thereof (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure)
A patient with metastatic bone cancer (primary site unknown) presents to the oncologist's office for a chemotherapy treatment. On examination the oncologist finds the patient to be severely dehydrated and cancels the chemotherapy. The patient receives intravenous hydration in the office and reschedules the chemotherapy treatment. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. C40.30, E86.0, C79.51 b. E86.0, C79.51, C80.1 c. C79.51, E86.0 d. E86.0, C80.1, C79.51
b. E86.0, C79.51, C80.1
A patient has been diagnosed with CAD of his bypass graft with angina. The patient had a CABG one year ago. What diagnosis codes are reported? a. I25.10, Z95.1 b. I25.709, Z95.1 c. I77.9, Z95.1 d. I67.9, Z95.1
b. I25.709, Z95.1
A patient sees the nephrologist for a B-12 injection to treat erythropoietin resistant anemia due to stage 3 chronic kidney disease. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. D63.1, N18.3 b. N18.3, D63.1 c. D63.8, N18.9 d. N18.9, D63.8
b. N18.3, D63.1
A patient with bilateral sensory hearing loss is fitted with a digital, binaural, behind the ear hearing aid. What HCPCS Level II and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. V5140, H90.3, Z46.1 c. V5140, H90.6 b. V5261, Z46.1, H90.3 d. V5261, Z01.110, H90.3
b. V5261, Z46.1, H90.3
A 72 year-old patient is undergoing a corneal transplant. An anesthesiologist is personally performing monitored anesthesia care. What CPT® code and modifier(s) are reported for anesthesia? a. 00144, 99100 b. 00144-AA, 99100 c. 00144-AA-QS, 99100 d. 00144-QK-QS, 99100
c. 00144-AA-QS, 99100
What is the correct CPT® code for the excision of a benign lesion on the scalp with an excised diameter of 2.3 cm? a. 11403 b. 11603 c. 11423 d. 11623
c. 11423
A 6 year-old male suffered a fracture after falling off the monkey bars at school. He fell on an outstretched hand and suffered a transcondylar fracture of the left humerus. After prep and drape, a manipulation was done to achieve anatomic reduction. Once the joint was adequately reduced, pins were placed through the skin distally and proximally into the bone to maintain excellent fixation and anatomic reduction. The pins were bent, trimmed and covered with a sterile dressing and a posterior splint was placed on the patient's arm. What CPT® code is reported? a. 24516-LT b. 24530-LT c. 24538-LT d. 24546-LT
c. 24538-LT
A physician orders a General Health Panel, all tests except a creatinine, including CBC with automated differential. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 80050 b. 80050-52 c. 85025, 84443, 82040, 82247, 82310, 82374, 82435, 82947, 84075, 84132, 84155, 84295, 84460, 84450, 84520 d. 80050-22
c. 85025, 84443, 82040, 82247, 82310, 82374, 82435, 82947, 84075, 84132, 84155, 84295, 84460, 84450, 84520
A 45 year-old presents to the operating room with a right index trigger finger and left shoulder bursitis. The left shoulder was injected with 1 cc of Xylocaine, 1 cc of Celestone and 1 cc of Marcaine. An approximately 1-inch incision was made over the A1 pulley in the distal transverse palmar crease. This incision was taken through skin and subcutaneous tissue. The A1 pulley was identified and released in its entirety. The wound was irrigated with antibiotic saline solution. The subcutaneous tissue was injected with Marcaine without epinephrine. The skin was closed with 4-0 Ethilon suture. Clean dressing was applied. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 26055-F6, 20610-76-LT b. 20552-F6, 20605-52-LT c. 26055-F6, 20610-51-LT d. 20553-F6, 20610-51-LT
c. 26055-F6, 20610-51-LT
This 36 year-old female presents with an avulsed anterior cruciate ligament off the femoral condyle with a complete white on white horizontal cleavage tear of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus, causing instability. A general endotracheal anesthesia was performed, and the patient was placed supine on the operating table. The right lower extremity was prepped with Betadine and draped free. Standard arthroscopic portals were created, and the knee was systematically examined and probed. The posterior horn of the medial meniscus was noted to be buckled and frayed. This area was carefully probed and found to be irreparable. It was decided that our best option was to proceed with a limited partial meniscectomy, with the goal being to leave as much viable meniscal tissue as possible. Therefore, a medial infrapatellar portal was developed with a longitudinal stab wound. A series of straight-angled and curved basket punches was used to perform a saucerization of the damaged portion of the meniscus, leaving the intact portion of the medial meniscus in place. Debris was meticulously removed with the 4.0 meniscal cutter. Approximately 50% of the medial meniscus remained. Next, our attention was turned to the ACL repair. Through a 5 cm longitudinal anterior incision, a central one-third tendon bone was harvested. A 10 mm graft was taken and bone plug sculpted. Anterolateral notchplasty was done with a curette and polished with the burr. All debris was removed and instruments were used to ensure proper isometry. The graft was tightened in extension about 2.5 mm and actually lengthened in flexion, and this was considered acceptable. Endoscopic guides were used to create the tibial and femoral tunnels, and the edges were rasped smooth. Using a percutaneous guide pin, the graft was placed retrograde to the knee and secured proximally with an 8 x 25 mm interference screw. The knee was put through range of motion, and with the leg in 30 degrees of flexion with the posterior drawer applied to the proximal tibia; an 8 x 20 mm interference screw was used to secure the bone plug distally. The graft was tight, isometric and without adverse features. The wound was copiously irrigated with Kantrex1. Cancellous bone fragments from bone plugs were used to graft the donor site defect in the patella. The paratenon was closed over this to house the graft with a running #1 Vicryl. The edge of the distal bone plug was beveled with the rongeur. The subcutaneous tissue was closed with triple-0 Vicryl. Skin was closed with double-0 Prolene in a subcuticular fashion. Steri-Strips, sterile dressing, cryo cuff and hinged knee brace were applied. The patient was awakened and taken to the recovery room in satisfactory condition. What CPT® codes are reported? a. 29888-RT, 29880-51-RT b. 29888 -RT, 29882-51-RT c. 29888-RT, 29881-51-RT d. 29889-RT, 29880-51-RT
c. 29888-RT, 29881-51-RT
A patient is seen in the OR for removal of a hepatic adenoma which has invaded the diaphragm. The resection of the diaphragm portion of the mass was repaired with primary sutures. What CPT® code is reported for the diaphragmatic mass resection? a. 39540 c. 39560 b. 39545 d. 39561
c. 39560
What is the correct CPT® coding for a partial distal gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y reconstruction with vagotomy? a. 43621, 43635 c. 43633, 43635 b. 43634, 43635 d. 43633, 43640-51
c. 43633, 43635
A 40 year-old female has cholelithiasis with chronic cholecystitis. She is in the Ambulatory Surgical Center to have a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. A dye was injected to perform an intraoperative cholangiogram. The surgeon who performed the procedure included a separate report with his interpretation of the cholangiogram that indicated there was normal, free flow into the duodenum, with no evidence of filling defects with no stones or strictures seen. What CPT® codes are reported for the professional services of the surgeon? a. 47562, 74300 b. 47563, 74300 c. 47563, 74300-26 d. 47562, 74300-26
c. 47563, 74300-26
Patient presents today for treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and urinary retention by transurethral microwave thermotherapy (TUMT). What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this service? a. 53850, N40.0, R33.8 c. 53850, N40.1, R33.8 b. 52648, N40.1, R33.8 d. 52648, N40.1
c. 53850, N40.1, R33.8
A clamp circumcision is performed without dorsal block on a newborn. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 54150 c. 54150-52 b. 54160 d. 54160-52
c. 54150-52
A 55 year-old man presents with uncontrolled tremors that have become quite severe and are now disabling. A trial of a deep brain stimulator electrode is recommended. The patient is placed in the head holder adapter for the frame. The scalp is incised exposing the skull using a perforator to make a single burr hole 2.5 cm from the midline at the level of the coronal suture exposing the dura and is punctured for access. Microelectrode recording (MER) and stimulation is done to target and reposition the electrodes to determine the best placement for the neurostimulator electrode. The neurostimulator electrode array is placed in the thalamus and fastened into position with radiographic image monitoring placement. The lead is coiled in a pocket under the galea, which is sutured closed, followed by skin closure. What CPT® code is reported? a. 61850 b. 61863 c. 61867 d. 61870
c. 61867
What is the appropriate modifier to use when two surgeons perform separate distinct portions of the same procedure? a. 66 b. 80 c. 62 d. 59
c. 62
A 41 year-old female has carpal tunnel syndrome in her left hand. The patient underwent release of the carpal ligament with internal neurolysis. An incision was made directly over the carpal ligament through the skin to the carpal ligament. Under direct vision the carpal ligament was divided then internal neurolysis of the median nerve was performed using a magnifying loupes. What CPT® code is reported? a. 64704-LT b. 64719-LT c. 64721-LT d. 64722-LT
c. 64721-LT
The provider creates an opening in the opaque posterior lens capsule of the patient's right eye by cutting an inverted U shape in the tissue. The cut is made using a YAG laser. The tissue within the inverted U falls down, and out of the patient's field of vision. The procedure is done to improve the vision of a patient with a secondary cataract. What CPT® code is reported? a. 66999-50 b. 66830-50 c. 66821-RT d. 66762-RT
c. 66821-RT
What is the correct coding for a physician who performs an UGI radiological evaluation of the esophagus, stomach and first portion of the duodenum with barium and double-contrast in the hospital GI lab? (Physician is not employed by the hospital) a. 74246 c. 74246-26 b. 74249 d. 74249-26
c. 74246-26
What is the code for ultrasound evaluation of a fetus and mother, usually performed early in pregnancy (first trimester), to confirm fetal age, set an anticipated delivery date, for qualitative assessment of amniotic fluid volume/gestational sac shape and examination of the maternal uterus and adnexa? a. 59025 c. 76801 b. 76819 d. 76815
c. 76801
A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Preliminary studies show the woman ovulates and the husband's sperm count is good. A sperm sample is submitted for both a post coital Huhner test and a hamster penetration test. Report the codes. a. 89300, 89320 c. 89300, 89329 b. 89310, 89330 d. 89325, 89260
c. 89300, 89329
A 59 year-old male experienced left arm pain while cleaning the garage. There was no injury. His provider scheduled a 30-minute stress test using the Bruce Protocol at the hospital. There was no arm pain while on the treadmill; he did have a slight heart rhythm abnormality. The patient rested for 2 minutes. He had no further symptoms or pain. The cardiologist supervised the study, interpreted the test and dictated a report. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported? a. 93015 b. 93015-26 c. 93016, 93018 d. 93018
c. 93016, 93018
A pediatrician is asked to be in the room during the delivery of a baby at risk for complications. The pediatrician is in the room for 45 minutes. The baby is born and is completely healthy, not requiring the services of the pediatrician. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported by the pediatrician? a. 99219 c. 99360 b. 99252 d. 99360 x 2
c. 99360
According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Chapter 15: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium (O00-O9A), codes in this range have sequencing priority over what codes? a. Chapter 15 codes do not have sequencing priority over other codes. b. All codes including Z33.1 c. Codes from all other chapters. d. Codes from Chapter 1: Certain Infectious and Parasitic Diseases (A00-B99).
c. Codes from all other chapters
A patient with type 2 diabetes presents with diabetic macular edema and proliferative diabetic retinopathy in the right eye. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported? a. E11.311, E11.3519 b. E11.3519 c. E11.3511 d. E11.9, E11.311, E11.3519
c. E11.3511
A patient has an open displaced fracture of the second cervical vertebra. This is her fifth visit and the fracture is healing normally. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a. S12.9XXD b. S12.190A c. S12.190D d. S12.9XXS
c. S12.190D
A 65 year-old was admitted in the hospital two days ago and is being examined today by his primary care physician, who has been seeing him since he has been admitted. Primary care physician is checking for any improvements or if the condition is worsening. CHIEF COMPLAINT: CHF INTERVAL HISTORY: CHF symptoms worsened since yesterday. Now has some resting dyspnea. HTN remains poorly controlled with systolic pressure running in the 160s. Also, I'm concerned about his CKD, which has worsened, most likely due to cardio-renal syndrome. REVIEW OF SYSTEMS: Positive for orthopnea and one episode of PND. Negative for flank pain, obstructive symptoms or documented exposure to nephrotoxins. PHYSICAL EXAMINATION: GENERAL: Mild respiratory distress at rest VITAL SIGNS: BP 168/84, HR 58, temperature 98.1. LUNGS: Worsening bibasilar crackles CARDIOVASCULAR: RRR, no MRGs. EXTREMITIES: Show worsening lower extremity edema. LABS: BUN 56, creatinine 2.1, K 5.2, HGB 12. IMPRESSION: 1. Severe exacerbation of CHF 2. Poorly controlled HTN 3. Worsening ARF due to cardio-renal syndrome PLAN: 1. Increase BUMEX to 2 mg IV Q6. 2. Give 500 mg IV DIURIL times one. 3. Re-check usual labs in a.m. Total time: 20 minutes. What E/M category is used for this visit? a. Initial Hospital Visit (99221-99223) b. Inpatient Consultation (99251-99255) c. Subsequent Hospital Visit (99231-99233) d. Established Patient Office/Outpatient Visit (99211-99215)
c. Subsequent Hospital Visit (99231-99233)
A 30 year-old patient had anesthesia for an extensive spinal procedure with instrumentation under general anesthesia. The anesthesiologist performed all required steps for medical direction while directing one CRNA. What modifier(s) and CPT® code(s) is/are reported for the anesthesiologist and CRNA services? a. 00670-AA b. 00670-QK and 00670-QX c. 00670-QK and 00670-QZ d. 00670-QY and 00670-QX
d. 00670-QY and 00670-QX
The patient is here to see us about some skin tags on her neck and both underarms. She has had these lesions for some time; they are irritated by her clothing, itch, and at times have a burning sensation. We discussed treatment options along with risks. Informed consent was obtained and we proceeded. We removed 16 skin tags from the right axilla, 16 skin tags from the left axilla, 10 from the right side of the neck and 17 from the left side of the neck. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 11057, D23.5, D23.4 b. 11200, 11201-51 x 5, D23.5, D23.4 c. 11200, 11201 x 4, 11201-52, L91.8 d. 11200, 11201 x 5, L91.8
d. 11200, 11201 x 5, L91.8
A 14 year-old boy was thrown against the window of the car on impact. The resulting injury was a star-shaped pattern cut to the top of his head. In the ED, the MD on call for plastic surgery was asked to evaluate the injury and repair it. The total length of the intermediate repair was 5+4+4+5 cm (18 cm total). The star-like shape allowed the surgeon to pull the wound edges together nicely in a natural Y-plasty in two spots. What CPT® code is reported for the repair? a. 14041 b. 14040 c. 131.21 d. 12035
d. 12035
What CPT® code(s) would best describe treatment of 9 plantar warts removed and 6 flat warts all destroyed with cryosurgery during the same office visit? a. 17110, 17111-52 b. 17110 c. 17110, 17003 d. 17111
d. 17111
What is the correct CPT® code for the extensive excision of nasal polyps? a. 30124 b. 30125 c. 30110 d. 30115
d. 30115
A 56 year-old patient complains of occasional rectal bleeding. His physician decides to perform a rigid proctosigmoidoscopy. During the procedure, two polyps are found in the rectum. The polyps are removed by a snare. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 45320, K62.1 c. 45309, 45309, K63.5 b. 45385, K63.5 d. 45315, K62.1
d. 45315, K62.1
A 63 year-old male presents for the insertion of an artificial inflatable urinary sphincter for urinary incontinence. A 4.5 cm cuff, 22 ml balloon, 61-70 mmHg artificial inflatable urinary sphincter was inserted. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 53446 c. 53448 b. 53447 d. 53445
d. 53445
Patient is status post radical retropubic prostatectomy with erectile dysfunction, presenting for penile implant. An inflatable penile prosthesis is inserted. What CPT® code is reported for this service? a. 54400 c. 54408 b. 54416 d. 54401
d. 54401
A 37 year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, bleeding unrelated to menses and an abnormal pap showing LGSIL (low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion). Treatment is hysteroscopy with thermoablation of the endometrium and cryocautery of the cervix. This is performed without difficulty. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported for this procedure? a. 58555, 58353-51, C54.9 b. 58565, 57511-51, R87.612 c. 58350, 57510-51, C54.9 d. 58563, 57511-51, R87.612
d. 58563, 57511-51, R87.612
The provider performs an iridotomy using laser on both eyes for chronic angle closure glaucoma that is moderate; procedure includes local anesthesia. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 66710-50, H40.2212, H40.2222 b. 66625, H40.2290 c. 66762-50, 66990, H40.2432 d. 66761-50, H40.2232
d. 66761-50, H40.2232
A 49 year-old patient had several episodes of esophageal reflux and underwent a gastroesophageal reflux test to measure the pH balance (a measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity). The test was performed with a mucosal attached capsule. The provider provided an interpretation and report. The provider stated the diagnosis as gastroesophageal reflux. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. 91034, K21.9 c. 91037, R12 b. 91034, K21.0 d. 91035, K21.9
d. 91035, K21.9
A 77 year-old Medicare beneficiary has a digital rectal examination for prostate cancer screening and the provider orders a PSA. How would this be reported? a. 99397-25, 45990 b. G0027 c. 99387-25, 45990 d. G0102
d. G0102
Patient with coronary arteriosclerosis disease (CAD) sees his cardiologist to discuss a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). This will be the patient's first CABG. What ICD-10-CM code is reported? a. I25.810 b. I25.720 c. I25.759 d. I25.10
d. I25.10
What is the ICD-10-CM code for UTI? a. A54.00 b. N71.9 c. T80.29XA d. N39.0
d. N39.0
What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life? a. P1 b. P2 c. P3 d. P4
d. P4
A patient presents to the ED physician with multiple burns. After examination the physician determines the patient has third-degree burns of the anterior and posterior portion of his left leg, starting at the knee extending above the ankle (12.5%). He also has third-degree burns of the anterior portion of the left side of his chest (4.5%). The patient also has second-degree burns on his left upper arm (7%). What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. T24.292A, T24.192A, T31.21 b. T21.399A, T21.39XA, T22.299A, T31.31 c. T24.109A, T25.112A, T21.21XA, T22.392A, T31.31XA d. T24.392A, T21.31XA, T22.232A, T31.21
d. T24.392A, T21.31XA, T22.232A, T31.21
A 22 year-old patient status post-surgery developed a postoperative infection. The patient quickly deteriorated and became septic, developed gas gangrene (gas bacillus infection) and went into postprocedural septic shock. With aggressive intravenous antibiotic management, the patient improved. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? a. T81.12XA, R65.21, A48.0 c. R65.21, A48.0, T81.12XA b. A48.0, R65.21, T81.44XA d. T81.44XA, A48.0, T81.12XA
d. T81.44XA, A48.0, T81.12XA
What ICD-10-CM category is used to report the weeks of gestation of pregnancy? a. E11 b. I24 c. O20 d. Z3A
d. Z3A
