CPT Part 2

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? 120 to 180 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 0 to 90 seconds 180 to 240 seconds

0 to 90 seconds

What is the recommended number of SAQ sessions per week for weight-loss clients? 5 to 7 sessions per week 1 or 2 sessions per week 3 or 4 sessions per week 0 sessions per week

1 or 2 sessions per week

For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session? 200 to 300 kcal 25 to 75 kcal 100 to 150 kcal 600 to 700 kcal

200 to 300 kcal

What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate? 208 - (0.7 x age) [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest VO2max x % intensity desired HRmax x % intensity desired

208 - (0.7 x age)

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Knees at 90 degrees of flexion Thighs parallel to the ground Knees at 80 degrees of flexion As far as can be controlled without compensating

As far as can be controlled without compensating

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Speed Acceleration Assessment of visual stimuli Stride rate

Assessment of visual stimuli

Match each term with the correct description: wasting away or decrease in size of body tissue a. arthritis b. osteoarthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. atrophy

d. atrophy

When performing the T-drill, which movement is used to complete the last 10 yards of the drill? a. sprint b. carioca c. side shuffle d. backpedal

d. backpedal

Which of the following exercises help strengthen the gastrochemius, soleus, and plantar flexor muscles? a. seated leg curl b. ball combo II c. ball cobra d. calf raise

d. calf raise

The five components of fitness include which of the following? a. balance training b. reactive training c. stabilization d. cardiorespiratory fitness

d. cardiorespiratory fitness

What is the main goal of balance training? a. decrease a client's fall potential b. retrain a client's vestibular system c. retrain a client's somatosensory system d. continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability

d. continually increase the client's awareness of their limit of stability

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Adequate core stability Deconditioning Power exercise familiarity Adequate joint stability

Deconditioning

Which of the following options is not a benefit to all people who use balance training in their programming? Reduced risk of falls Reduced risk of ankle sprains Improved proprioception or body awareness Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

Decreased agility-based outcomes in athletes

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? Scapula and humerus Sternum and clavicle Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae Cranium and facial bones

Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion? Self-myofascial techniques Dynamic stretching Static stretching Active stretching

Self-myofascial techniques

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Sports drills Self-myofascial techniques Active stretches Dynamic stretches

Self-myofascial techniques

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Sensorimotor function Vision Vestibular Somatosensation

Somatosensation

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Somatosensory Vision Vestibular Digestive

Somatosensory

Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system? Somatosensory system Vestibular system Auditory system Visual system

Somatosensory system

Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Shoulders Ankles Spine Knees

Spine

What type of diabetes occurs when specialized cells in the pancreas (called beta cells) stop producing insulin? Type 2 Gestational Prediabetes Type 1

Type 1

Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation? Type 2 diabetes Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis Type 1 diabetes Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

What is the most widely used assessment tool to identify individuals who are underweight, overweight, and obese? a. BMI b. DEXA Scan c. skinfold assessment d. hip-to-waist ration

a. BMI

Which of the following states that soft tissue models along the line of stress? a. Davis's Law b. Boyle's Law c. Henry's Law d. Dalton's Law

a. Davis's Law

Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

a. Phase 1

True or False: As a general rule, clients should practice plyometric skills involving dual-foot drills before progressing to single-foot drills. a. True b. False

a. True

True or False: Components of speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) program can significantly improve the physical health profile of apparently healthy sedentary adults and those with medical or health limitations. a. True b. False

a. True

Match each medical condition with the correct description: sudden lack of blood supply to the brain a. hypertension b. stroke c. heart failure

b. stroke

Muscle hypertrophy is the primary goal of which phase of training within the OPT Model? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

c. Phase 3

An elastic resistance band should not be stretched longer than what percentage of its resting length? a. 50% b. 80% c. 100% d. 250%

d. 250%

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? At least 2 times a week At least 5 times a week At least 3 times a week At least 4 times a week

At least 3 times a week

Which type of muscle contraction/action produces force through muscle fiber shortening? Concentric action Isometric action Eccentric action Isokinetic action

Concentric action

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? Inability to speak at all Only a few words can be produced between breaths Continuous talking becomes challenging Normal conversation is maintained

Continuous talking becomes challenging

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise? Cardiovascular precaution Psychological concern Contraindication Precaution

Contraindication

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Core endurance Core power Core stability Core strength

Core stability

In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur? Amortization Eccentric Acceleration Concentric

Eccentric

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Deep soft-tissue massage Pilates General cardiovascular exercise Gentle static stretching

Gentle static stretching

What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure? Hypotension Hypertension Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia

Hypertension

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Loaded movement training Low-impact activity Proprioceptive training High-impact activity

Low-impact activity

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting? Muscular Development Training Stabilization Endurance Training Maximal Strength Training Strength Endurance Training

Maximal Strength Training

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Motor unit recruitment Balance Core stability Overall base strength

Motor unit recruitment

Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training? Movement assessments PAR-Q+ Body composition assessments Strength assessments

Movement assessments

What is it called when an individual performs the same task repeatedly over time, which can lead to movement dysfunction? Reciprocal inhibition Pattern overload Stretch reflex Autogenic inhibition

Pattern overload

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis? Pectoral group Gluteal complex Obliques Quadratus lumborum

Pectoral group

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Pyramid system Drop set Peripheral heart action system Complex training

Peripheral heart action system

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Somatosensation Neuromuscular control Perturbation Sensorimotor function

Perturbation

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Phase 4 Phase 2 Phase 3 Phase 1

Phase 1

Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model? Phases 3 and 4 Phase 1 and Phase 4 Phase 2 and 3 Phase 2 and 5

Phase 2 and 5

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen? Intensity Frequency Volume Recovery

Recovery

Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Cervical and sacral Cervical and thoracic Thoracic and lumbar Thoracic and sacral

Thoracic and sacral

Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement? Keeping the feet facing inward Tracking the knees over the second and third toes Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips Allowing the gaze to move freely

Tracking the knees over the second and third toes

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Recovery Training frequency Intensity Volume

Training frequency

For individuals with osteoporosis, what is the recommended duration of physical activity? a. 10-15 min/day or 2-4 min bouts b. 20-60 min/day or 8-10 min bouts c. 5-10 min warm-up, 20-40 min exercise, 5-10 min cool-down d. 5-10 min warm-up, 40-60 min exercise, 5-10 min cool-down

b. 20-60 min/day or 8-10 min bouts

What is the minimum duration for which a static stretch should be held? a. 15 sec b. 30 sec c. 45 sec d. 60 sec

b. 30 sec

What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production? a. VO2 Max b. aerobic baseline c. lactate threshold d. ventilatory threshold (Tvent)

d. ventilatory threshold (Tvent)

What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise? Amortization, concentric loading, eccentric unloading Concentric unloading, amortization, eccentric loading Eccentric unloading, concentric loading, amortization Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Suspended chest press Elastic band woodchop Seated abdominal crunch machine Dumbbell lat row

Elastic band woodchop

What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads? Strength Endurance Training Muscular Development Training Stabilization Endurance Training Maximal Strength Training

Maximal Strength Training

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Neuromuscular specificity Posture specificity Metabolic specificity Mechanical specificity

Mechanical specificity

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? Medicine ball woodchop throw Reverse crunch Cable chop Bird dog

Medicine ball woodchop throw

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? BOSU balls Kettlebells Strength machines Medicine balls

Medicine balls

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Middle deltoid Lateral hamstrings Lateral triceps brachii Medial gastrocnemius

Middle deltoid

When performing a squat jump with stabilization exercise, where should the client's knees be positioned? a. in line with toes b. slightly inward of the feet c. slightly outward of the feet d. in line with the toes and directly over the ankles

a. in line with toes

Match the following benefit of a warm-up with the correct related effect: increases blood flow to muscles a. increased heart and respiratory rate b. increased tissue temperature c. increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise

a. increased heart and respiratory rate

What does the term midpoint refer to? a. intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2 b. halfway point within a work interval c. halfway point in a stage training session d. intensity level between each work-rest interval

a. intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2

Which kettlebell exercise can be used effectively in phase 1 of the OPT model to improve stability and back strength? a. turkish get-up b. renegade row c. one-arm stretch d. squat to shoulder press

b. renegade row

Match the following method for programming exercise intensity with the description below: one unit is equal to 3.5mL O2 x kg^(-1) x min^(-1) a. ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) b. metabolic equivalent (MET) c. heart rate reserve (HRR)

b. metabolic equivalent (MET)

What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances? a. PNF stretching b. ballistic stretching c. light aerobic activity d. self-myofascial techniques and static stretching

d. self-myofascial techniques and static stretching

Match each zone of stage training with the appropriate description below: speaking is impossible or limited to grunts of single words a. zone 1 b. zone 2 c. zone 3 d. zone 4

d. zone 4

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Phase 5 Phase 4 Phase 3 Phase 2

Phase 4

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises? Phase 5 Power Phase 3 Muscular Development Phase 4 Maximal Strength Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance

Phase 5 Power

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension

Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

Which upper-body yoga stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Cat pose Bound angle pose Plow pose Downward dog pose

Plow pose

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise? Plyometric training SAQ training Stabilization training Power training

Plyometric training

The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Progressive overload Systematic approach SAID principle All-or-nothing principle

Progressive overload

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Sternocleidomastoid Upper trapezius Rhomboids Diaphragm

Sternocleidomastoid

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Visual system Auditory system Somatosensory system Vestibular system

Vestibular system

Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space? Visual system Somatosensory system Hearing system Vestibular system

Vestibular system

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Dumbbells Suspended bodyweight training Strength machines ViPR

ViPR

Which of the following two modalities are the most alike? ViPR and sandbag Dumbbell and medicine ball TRX suspension and ViPR TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR

ViPR and sandbag

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Multifidus Pelvic floor muscles Transverse abdominis Erector spinae

Erector spinae

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Flexibility exercises Balance exercises Strengthening exercises Plyometric exercises

Flexibility exercises

Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture? Flexibility Muscle imbalances Cardiorespiratory fitness Physical and mental well-being

Muscle imbalances

Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? Sandbags TRX Rip Trainer Strength machines Battle ropes

Sandbags

Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? Resilience Self-esteem Self-image Self-efficacy

Self-efficacy

Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance? Static balance Stationary balance Dynamic balance Semi-dynamic balance

Semi-dynamic balance

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT? Walking Structured exercise Eating Sleeping

Walking

Match each zone of stage training with the appropriate description below: starting to sweat but can still carry on conversation effortlessly a. zone 1 b. zone 2 c. zone 3 d. zone 4

a. zone 1

Match each term with the correct description: a group of consecutive repetitions a. repetition b. set c. training intensity d. repetition tempo

b. set

When performing the modified box drill, where should the client begin? a. at cone 1 b. at cone 2 c. at middle cone d. just outside the cones

c. at middle cone

Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles? a. reverse crunch b. cable chop c. kneeling pallof press d. front medicine ball oblique throw

c. kneeling pallof press

Match each term with the correct description: refers to the energy demands placed on the body a. mechanical specificity b. neuromuscular specificity c. metabolic specificity

c. metabolic specificity

Match the following periods (phases) of training with the correct description: weekly plan a. macrocycle b. mesocycle c. microcycle

c. microcycle

Match each term with the correct description below: condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases the risk of bone fracture a. bone density b. osteopenia c. osteoporosis d. sarcopenia

c. osteoporosis

What tissue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercise? a. inactive gluteus medius b. weak rectus abdominus c. poor activation of the local core d. lack of muscular endurance of multifidus

c. poor activation of the local core

What term refers to the phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle? a. pre-activation potentiation b. pre-activation amortization c. post-activation potentiation d. post-activation amortization

c. post-activation potentiation

Match each phase of the OPT model with the appropriate primary adaptation: rate of force production a. stabilization b. strength c. power

c. power

Match each term with the correct description: degenerative joint disease in which the body's immune system attacks its own tissue a. arthritis b. osteoarthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. atrophy

c. rheumatoid arthritis

What fundamental movement pattern is used in activities such as sitting down, and standing up from a chair? a. pulling b. pressing c. squatting d. hip hinge

c. squatting

Match the description below with the correct term: ability to maintain the center of mass within the base of support in a stationary position a. center of gravity b. base of support c. static balance d. dynamic balance

c. static balance

When initially attempting a multiplanar box jump-down with stabilization exercise, the client should be instructed to do which of the following? a. jump as far as possible b. jump as high as possible c. step off and drop from prescribed height d. step off and drop from the prescribed height, landing on a single leg

c. step off and drop from prescribed height

What term is used to describe two exercises performed back-to-back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest? a. circuit b. interval c. superset d. giant set

c. superset

Which portion of a client's exercise program should be designed first? a. the stability portion b. the strength portion c. the flexibility portion d. the cardiorespiratory portion

c. the flexibility portion

What is the term used to describe the pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity? a. afterburn b. rhizopathy c. lactic acidosis d. delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

d. delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

Match the following description with the term below: excessive rotation of the pelvis that results in lesser lumbar lordosis a. lordotic / lordosis b. kyphotic / kyphosis c. anterior pelvic tilt d. posterior pelvic tilt

d. posterior pelvic tilt

What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using a systemic and gradual approach? a. ramping b. undulation c. periodization d. progressive overload

d. progressive overload

What is the mechanism of action for active stretching? a. stretch tolerance b. myofascial techniques c. autogenic inhibition d. reciprocal inhibition

d. reciprocal inhibition

Match the following description with the correct term below: the mode of physical activity in which an individual is engaged a. frequency b. time c. intensity d. type

d. type

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? 1 or 2 sets 6 to 8 sets 3 or 4 sets 5 or 6 sets

1 or 2 sets

What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? 3.5 mL/kg/min 7.0 mL/kg/min 5.0 mL/kg/min 2.5 mL/kg/min

3.5 mL/kg/min

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)? 45 minutes 60 minutes 90 minutes 30 minutes

30 minutes

Which of the following is an example of linear periodization? Phase 1, 2, and 5, each trained 1 day per week 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2 Phases 1 and 5 every other day Phase 4 and 5, each trained 2 days per week

4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? 4 times a week 5 times a week 6 times a week 3 times a week

5 times a week

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? 22% 62% 92% 72%

72%

What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? 75 minutes per week 90 minutes per week 60 minutes per week 120 minutes per week

75 minutes per week

Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength An overweight client with adequate strength A client who has been exercising for 4 months with some strength A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength

What is osteoporosis? Lower than normal bone density Chronic inflammation of the joints An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Adherence Goals Hypertrophy Overtraining

Adherence

Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.

Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Amortization Eccentric Concentric Stabilization

Amortization

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay? Concentric Amortization Eccentric Isometric

Amortization

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? An RPE of 5 to 6 An RPE of 9 to 10 An RPE of 7 to 8 An RPE of 3 to 4

An RPE of 5 to 6

What is a drop set? A system that consists of a series of exercises that an individual performs one after the other, with minimal rest between each exercise An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set A progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set A system that alternates a heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement

An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate? Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program.

An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg

Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Knee flexion Ankle dorsiflexion Hip abduction Ankle plantar flexion

Ankle plantar flexion

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Ankle sprains Concussions Medial collateral ligament injuries Anterior cruciate ligament injuries

Ankle sprains

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics? Shoulder injury Patellar fracture Foot injury Anterior cruciate ligament injury

Anterior cruciate ligament injury

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Medial pelvic tilt Lateral pelvic tilt Anterior pelvic tilt Posterior pelvic tilt

Anterior pelvic tilt

What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises? Any medical precautions or contraindications Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results

Any medical precautions or contraindications

What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable? Arteriosclerosis Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia Atherosclerosis

Arteriosclerosis

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface? Biomechanics Arthrokinematics Kinesiology Osteokinematics

Arthrokinematics

Which surface would be the most challenging for a new client starting a balance training program? Firm surface BOSU ball Balance beam Foam pad

BOSU ball

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial? Barbell squats BOSU squat Machine leg press Sandbag squat

BOSU squat

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Dead bug Plank Medicine ball overhead throw Back extension

Back extension

Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise? Box jumps Single-leg cable row Barbell bench press Medicine ball soccer throw

Barbell bench press

Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter? Stability ball wall squat Selectorized machine lat pull down Terra-Core push-up Barbell chest press

Barbell chest press

What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted? Baseline value Transformation phase Action phase Set point

Baseline value

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? Single-leg hops and ball push-ups Power step-ups and ice skaters Bench press and stability ball push-ups Deadlifts and squats

Bench press and stability ball push-ups

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Aqua therapy Biomechanical ankle platform system Stable floor environment Weight training

Biomechanical ankle platform system

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Body fat loss Decreased volume and intensity Muscle mass atrophy Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss

Body fat loss

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core? Drawing in Inhibition Isolating Bracing

Bracing

In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support? (Choose the best answer.) Somatosensation Sensorimotor Center of gravity Vestibular

Center of gravity

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization.

Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Pyramid system Complex training Drop set Giant set

Complex training

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Core power Core endurance Core stability Core strength

Core strength

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment? Both feet on the floor A stable floor The absence of perturbations Correct technique

Correct technique

Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model? Powerlifter Olympic weightlifter Avid resistance trainer Cross-country runner

Cross-country runner

What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment? Telling the client to eat some type of complex carbohydrate Having the client do their cardiovascular exercise for weight loss Designing the flexibility portion of the program Designing the speed, agility, and quickness portion of the program

Designing the flexibility portion of the program

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability? Semi-dynamic balance High-level balance Dynamic balance Static balance

Dynamic balance

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Proper movement Endurance Stability Mobility

Endurance

How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined? The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Gluteus medius Rectus abdominis Erector spinae Latissimus dorsi

Erector spinae

True or False: Plyometric exercises are only appropriate for athletes.

False

True or False: Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout ad followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance.

False

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.

Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components? Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency Flexibility and joint ROM Muscle strength and power Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness

Flexibility and joint ROM

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques? Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments Force production during dynamic whole-body movements Stabilize individual vertebral segments Limiting strain on the vertebral discs

Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

What equation represents power? Y = mx + b Time ÷ work Force x velocity a2 + b2 = c2

Force x velocity

What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio) programs, represent? Flexibility, intensity, training, threshold, engagement, velocity, progression Frequency, intervals, time, threshold, enjoyment, velocity, pattern Flexibility, intervals, threshold, time, engagement, volume, pattern Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 Below VT1 Above VT2 From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? Frontal and sagittal Sagittal and transverse Transverse and frontal All planes of motion

Frontal and sagittal

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.

Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it? Deceleration force Acceleration force Stabilization force Ground reaction force

Ground reaction force

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training? Strength and stabilization Growth and volume Growth and stabilization Strength and volume

Growth and volume

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling? Handstand push-up Chin-ups Leg press Sit-ups

Handstand push-up

What is the number one cause of death in the United States? Cancer Heart disease Smoking Obesity

Heart disease

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training? Increased rate of power decline Improved sleep Decreased fat loss Decreased hormonal function

Improved sleep

Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down? Increase breathing rate Reduce heart rate Reduce body temperature Provide a transition period

Increase breathing rate

Which of the following is considered a benefit of performing a warm-up prior to cardiorespiratory training? Increased parasympathetic nervous activity Decreased rate of muscle contraction and metabolic rate Decreased oxygen exchange capacity Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

Increased respiratory rate and tissue temperature

Which of the following should be considered when determining if a client is ready to undertake plyometric training? Sports skills Body composition Injury history Height

Injury history

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Interval phase Conditioning phase Warm-up phase Cool-down phase

Interval phase

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? It decreases core muscle activation. It increases muscular hypertrophy. It decreases challenges to balance and stability. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Gait Stabilize Land Jump

Jump

Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury? Posterior pelvic tilt Anterior pelvic tilt Knee valgus Low-back arching

Knee valgus

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Landing mechanics Core stability Power development Force production

Landing mechanics

Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Ankle plantar flexion Knee extension Lead leg Rear leg

Lead leg

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body? Back region Scapular region Leg region Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Mechanical and neurophysiological response Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength Davis's law and Wolf's law Pain response and muscle spasm

Mechanical and neurophysiological response

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Resistance band Medicine ball Kettlebell Suspended bodyweight training

Medicine ball

Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness? Sandbag ViPR Medicine ball Kettlebell

Medicine ball

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Medicine ball catch and pass Suspended bodyweight crunch Stability ball plank Barbell squats

Medicine ball catch and pass

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power? Barbell squat Terra-Core push-up Sandbag step-up Medicine ball chest pass

Medicine ball chest pass

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature? Medicine ball chest pass Overhead medicine ball throw Medicine ball pullover throw Front medicine ball oblique throw

Medicine ball pullover throw

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? Single-leg cable row Bench press Barbell squat Medicine ball soccer throw

Medicine ball soccer throw

For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects? Movement quality Movement speed Movement quantity Movement intensity

Movement quality

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Tuck jump with stabilization Multiplanar jump with stabilization Box jump-up with stabilization Squat jump with stabilization

Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion? BOSU squat Dumbbell renegade row Barbell squat Multiplanar lunge

Multiplanar lunge

Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint? Multiplanar hop with stabilization Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization Single-leg hop forward

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body? Muscle strength Muscle power Muscle hypertrophy Muscle endurance

Muscle hypertrophy

Flexibility training can reduce the risk of what three conditions? Type 2 diabetes, anxiety, and muscle strains Anxiety, poor posture, and ligament sprains High blood pressure, muscle strains, and balance deficits Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

Muscle imbalances, joint dysfunctions, and overuse injuries

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels? Maximal Strength Muscular Development Strength Endurance Stabilization Endurance

Muscular Development

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Rate of force production Muscular hypertrophy Stabilization Muscular endurance

Muscular endurance

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training? Muscular hypertrophy Muscular atrophy Sarcopenia Osteopenia

Muscular hypertrophy

Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition. Lung cancer Arthritis Osteopenia

Osteopenia

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. Osteoporosis is considered a precaution for myofascial rolling. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises. Osteoporosis is considered a precaution for static stretching.

Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Overhead squat assessment An annual physical Dietary assessment PAR-Q+

PAR-Q+

What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise? Palms facing down Palms facing outward away from each other Palms facing inward toward each other Palms facing up

Palms facing inward toward each other

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Superior Lateral Anterior Posterior

Posterior

What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible? Stretch-shortening cycle Rate of force production Integrated performance paradigm Core stabilization

Rate of force production

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? Lengthening reaction Length-tension relationships Reciprocal inhibition Synergistic dominance

Reciprocal inhibition

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? No muscle contractions are involved in balance training. Voluntary contractions Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions Preplanned voluntary contractions

Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction Resist shoulder horizontal adduction Pull the elbows into extension Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction

Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

In an integrated training program, what would the last portion of the training session involve as the main exercise or movement component? Cardiorespiratory training Balance training Resistance training Core training

Resistance training

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs? Peripheral arterial disease Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoporosis Restrictive lung disease

Restrictive lung disease

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? Upward rotation Elevation Retraction Protraction

Retraction

What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoporosis Osteopenia Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Rectus abdominis Latissimus dorsi Iliopsoas Rotatores

Rotatores

Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings Active stretching of the hamstrings SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize? SMR/dynamic stretching SMR/active stretching Dynamic/active stretching SMR/static stretching

SMR/static stretching

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? Transverse Frontal Axial Sagittal

Sagittal

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)? Stability ball push-up Squat jump Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press Shoulder/military press

Shoulder/military press

Which exercise is performed in the sagittal plane and provides the greatest challenge to the muscles of the posterior chain (e.g., hamstrings, gluteals, and erector spinae)? Single-leg Romanian Deadlift Cable Machine Row Lunge with Rotation Cable Rotations

Single-leg Romanian Deadlift

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? Long continuous runs Steady-state treadmill workouts Small circuits Heart rate cardio

Small circuits

What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client? Explosive jumps Dynamic motion Small jumps Fast, powerful movements

Small jumps

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes? Stage 4 Stage 3 Stage 2 Stage 1

Stage 1

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Stage 1 training Stage 4 training Stage 2 training Stage 3 training

Stage 2 training

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? Standing cobra Knee-up Floor bridge Reverse crunch

Standing cobra

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Ballistic stretching Active stretching Dynamic stretching Static stretching

Static stretching

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Transitioning of forces Shortening of the agonist muscle Stretching of the antagonist muscle Stretching of the agonist muscle

Stretching of the agonist muscle

What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel? Intermittent claudication Stroke Heart failure Peripheral arterial disease

Stroke

What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature? Soft mats Supportive shoes Balance plates Uneven surfaces

Supportive shoes

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle? Altered length-tension relationship Reciprocal inhibition Synergistic dominance Altered reciprocal inhibition

Synergistic dominance

What is critical for personal trainers to ensure before working with a recently injured athlete? A parent says training is okay. The athlete can perform complex stage 3 balance exercises first. No balance training should be conducted following an injury. The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.

The athlete has been cleared by a medical professional.

How is osteopenia best described? A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. A disease characterized by low bone density. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome? The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture.

The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

What is atherosclerosis? The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable

The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? The Tanaka formula The talk test Metabolic Equivalent (MET) Haskell's 220-minus-age formula

The talk test

When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure? An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant The midline of the pelvis of the participant The head of the participant The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising

Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Sternocleidomastoid Rectus abdominis Diaphragm Transverse abdominis

Transverse abdominis

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Frontal plane box jump-up Sagittal plane box jump-down Transverse plane box jump-down Sagittal plane box jump-up

Transverse plane box jump-down

Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Proprioceptive Loaded Unilateral Bilateral

Unilateral

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Variables and progression Variables and pattern Volume and progression Velocity and pattern

Volume and progression

A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density? Cycling Walking Water aerobics Swimming

Walking

Match each term with the correct description below: ability to quickly start (accelerate), stop (deceleration and stabilize), and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus while maintaining postural control a. agility b. quickness c. stride rate d. stride length e. frontside mechanics f. backside mechanics

a. agility

Match each term with the correct description: condition marked by chronic joint inflammation a. arthritis b. osteoarthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. atrophy

a. arthritis

Match the following periods (phases) of training with the correct description: annual plan a. macrocycle b. mesocycle c. microcycle

a. macrocycle

True or False: Pregnant clients who were engaged in an exercise program before pregnancy may continue with moderate levels of exercise, with appropriate modifications, until the third trimester. a. true b. false

a. true

True or False: Stability balls are best used when clients who demonstrate a need for increased overload of stability. a. true b. false

a. true

Match the following description with the correct term from the choices below: occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist a. neuromuscular efficiency b. altered reciprocal inhibition c. autogenic inhibition

b. altered reciprocal inhibition

Match the phase of the plyometric exercise with the physiological event that occurs during the phase described below: nerves meet synapse in spinal cord; signal set to stretched muscle a. eccentric b. amortization c. concentric

b. amortization

Match each term with the correct description: relating to the two sides of the body a. proprioception b. bilateral c. unilateral

b. bilateral

True or False: Closed-chain exercises involve movements in which the distal extremities are not in a fixed position, and the force applied by an individual is great enough to overcome the resistance. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: Performing shoulder external rotation with tubing helps strengthen the subscapularis. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: Strength training machines should never be the strength modality of choice for those who lack stability or have other functional limitations. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: The CPT is encouraged to spot at the client's elbows instead of the wrists when using dumbells (e.g. in a dumbell shoulder press) to provide better support for the lifter. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is recommended. a. true b. false

b. false

Match the following description with the term below: normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine a. lordotic / lordosis b. kyphotic / kyphosis c. anterior pelvic tilt d. posterior pelvic tilt

b. kyphotic / kyphosis

Which of the following is a traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time? a. block periodization b. linear periodization c. reverse periodization d. undulating periodization

b. linear periodization

Which of the following exercises is appropriate for entry-level balance training? a. single-leg squat b. single-leg lift and chop c. single-leg squat touchdown d. single-leg romanian deadlift

b. single-leg lift and chop

Which of the following best describes proper hand position when performing a close grip bench press? a. slightly outside shoulder-width apart b. slightly inside shoulder-width apart c. close together near the center of the bar d. far apart near the ends of the bar

b. slightly inside shoulder-width apart

Which of the following is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone? a. type 1 (primary) osteopenia b. type 1 (primary) osteoporosis c. type 2 (secondary) osteopenia d. type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

b. type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

Which of the following is a process that involved expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability? a. abdominal bracing b. valsalva maneuver c. apneustic breathing d. kussmaul breathing

b. valsalva maneuver

Match each zone of stage training with the appropriate description below: continual talking is becoming challenging a. zone 1 b. zone 2 c. zone 3 d. zone 4

b. zone 2

At what level of intensity should individuals with cancer begin aerobic exercise? a. less than 20% of peak capacity b. 20-30% of peak capacity c. 40-50% of peak capacity d. at least 70% of peak capacity

c. 40-50% of peak capacity

Match each level of client experience with the appropriate SAQ exercise parameters: 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability a. beginner b. intermediate c. advanced

c. advanced

Match the following description with the term below: excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis a. lordotic / lordosis b. kyphotic / kyphosis c. anterior pelvic tilt d. posterior pelvic tilt

c. anterior pelvic tilt

Match the following description with the correct term from the choices below: prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation that provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles located within the same muscle a. neuromuscular efficiency b. altered reciprocal inhibition c. autogenic inhibition

c. autogenic inhibition

NASM recommends the cardiorespiratory portion of a warm-up be performed at a low-to-moderate intensity and last for how long? a. between 1-2 minutes b. between 2-3 minutes c. between 5-10 minutes d. between 12-15 minutes

c. between 5-10 minutes

Match each specific training outcome with the correct application of the OPT model: cycle the client through the first three phases of the OPT model only a. muscle hypertrophy b. general sports performance c. body fat reduction

c. body fat reduction

Match the phase of the plyometric exercise with the physiological event that occurs during the phase described below: elastic energy released; enhanced muscle force production a. eccentric b. amortization c. concentric

c. concentric

Match the following description with the correct term: ability to control the motion of the spine a. core stability b. core endurance c. core strength

c. core strength

Match each medical condition with the correct description: heart can't pump enough blood to meet the body's needs a. hypertension b. stroke c. heart failure

c. heart failure

Match the following method for programming exercise intensity with the description below: target heart rate = [(HRMax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest a. ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) b. metabolic equivalent (MET) c. heart rate reserve (HRR)

c. heart rate reserve (HRR)

Match the following description with the correct term from the options below: process in which the body seeks the path of least resistance a. flexibility b. extensibility c. relative flexibility d. mobility

c. relative flexibility

What is the goal of dynamic stretching? a. to pre-fatigue the muscles b. to decrease neuromuscular efficiency c. to prepare the body for more intense activity d. the cause temporary breathlessness and exhaustion

c. to prepare the body for more intense activity

Match each term with the correct description: individual's level of effort compared with their max effort a. repetition b. set c. training intensity d. repetition tempo

c. training intensity

What is calculated by totaling the number of reps performed in a set during a session multiplied by resistance used? a. workload b. training density c. training volume d. energy expenditure

c. training volume

Match the description below with the correct term: ability to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing base of support a. center of gravity b. base of support c. static balance d. dynamic balance

d. dynamic balance

What is the number one cause of death around the world? a. stroke b. cancer c. diabetes d. heart disease

d. heart disease

Once children become accustomed to completing four to five simple SAQ exercises once or twice per week, what is an appropriate progression for a CPT to implement over the next few months? a. increase number of daily sessions b. increase the rest periods between sets c. double the number of drills performed each session d. increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises

d. increase weekly sessions to 2 or 3, and add more exercises

Match the following description with the correct term from the options below: ability to move freely, often described as flexibility plus joint range of motion a. flexibility b. extensibility c. relative flexibility d. mobility

d. mobility

Match each term with the correct description below: distance covered with each stride during the gait cycle a. agility b. quickness c. stride rate d. stride length e. frontside mechanics f. backside mechanics

d. stride length

With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following? a. arthritis b. decreased vascular tone c. decreased pain response d. tissue trauma and inflammation

d. tissue trauma and inflammation

What is the goal of core training? a. to reduce visceral fat b. the reverse spinal disorders such as scoliosis c. to develop absolute total-body strength gains d. to develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power

d. to develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power

Match each term with the correct description: ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time a. muscular endurance b. muscular hypertrophy c. muscular strength d. muscular power e. rate of force production

e. rate of force production

Match each type of resistance training system with the correct definition: training different body parts on separate days a. pyramid system b. superset system c. drop set d. peripheral heart action system e. split-routine system f. giant set system

e. split-routine system

Match each term with the correct description below: in sprinting, refers to the alignment of the rear leg and pelvis a. agility b. quickness c. stride rate d. stride length e. frontside mechanics f. backside mechanics

f. backside mechanics

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? 140 beats per minute Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate 120 beats per minute Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise.

140 beats per minute

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Less than 15 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 60 to 90 seconds 15 to 60 seconds

15 to 60 seconds

You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise? 15 to 60 seconds 90 to 120 seconds 60 to 90 seconds 0 to 15 seconds

15 to 60 seconds

What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? 125 minutes per week 300 minutes per week 150 minutes per week 75 minutes per week

150 minutes per week

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? 25 to 29.9 18.5 to 24.9 35 to 39.9 30 to 34.9

18.5 to 24.9

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese? 60% 20% 40% 80%

40%

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall? 75 cm 65 cm 55 cm 45 cm

45 cm

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down? 4 minutes 3 to 4 minutes 1 to 2 minutes 5 to 10 minutes

5 to 10 minutes

Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control? Quickness Speed Agility Stride rate

Agility

What is the Valsalva maneuver? A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Hip flexion Knee flexion Hip extension Ankle dorsiflexion

Hip extension

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Stabilization, strength, and power Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain

Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods Ability to stretch in small increments Altered movement patterns Ability to stretch only one muscle

Altered movement patterns

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Altered reciprocal inhibition Synergistic dominance Altered length-tension relationship Reciprocal inhibition

Altered reciprocal inhibition

SAQ programs for youth have been found to decrease what? Power Sports participation Athletic injuries Strength

Athletic injuries

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Reciprocal inhibition Autogenic inhibition Synergistic dominance Altered reciprocal inhibition

Autogenic inhibition

What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Isometric contraction Reciprocal inhibition Stretch reflex Autogenic inhibition

Autogenic inhibition

What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques? Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins Young children and older adults Cancer and bleeding disorders Pregnancy and diabetes

Cancer and bleeding disorders

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization? Increasing intensity while decreasing volume Consistent in its approach Predetermined timelines Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Davis's law Overload principle Wolff's law Archimedes' principle

Davis's law

What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish? Acceleration Amortization Deceleration Stabilization

Deceleration

Which of the following is a component of agility training? Deceleration Assessment of visual stimuli Reaction Stride rate

Deceleration

Researchers have found that myofascial rolling can decrease the effects of what condition after strenuous exercise? Dynamic posture control Delayed-onset muscle soreness Local muscle endurance Eccentric strength

Delayed-onset muscle soreness

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing No motion Little motion

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Erector spinae Iliopsoas Rectus abdominis Latissimus dorsi

Iliopsoas

How could the personal trainer make the "single-leg throw and catch" balance exercise more difficult for the client? Throwing the ball at the same height each time Decreasing the velocity of each throw Increasing the velocity of each throw Decreasing the distance between the client and the personal trainer

Increasing the velocity of each throw

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury. Rehabilitation Posture Performance Injury resistance

Injury resistance

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training? Hypertrophy training Integrated training Isolated training Circuit training

Integrated training

How is a general warm-up best defined? High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following.

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? Concentric control All-or-nothing principle Neuromuscular efficiency Eccentric control

Neuromuscular efficiency

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Strength Speed Neuromuscular stabilization Power

Neuromuscular stabilization

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? No more than 10% of body weight 16 to 20% of body weight At least 21% of body weight 11 to 15% of body weight

No more than 10% of body weight

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Anterior chain Transverse plane Frontal plane Posterior chain

Posterior chain

Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Medial pelvic tilt Anterior pelvic tilt Posterior pelvic tilt Lateral pelvic tilt

Posterior pelvic tilt

In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent? Adolescent girls Women under the age of 50 Postmenopausal women Men under the age of 50

Postmenopausal women

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client? Laxity of a joint Prime-mover relaxation Stabilizer muscle relaxation Previous injury

Previous injury

What is plyometric training also known as? Resistance training Strength training Stability training Reactive training

Reactive training

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called? Autogenic inhibition Stretch reflex Reciprocal inhibition Isometric contraction

Reciprocal inhibition

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training? Core Resistance training Rehabilitation Plyometrics

Rehabilitation

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? SAID principle Theory of general relativity Law of thermodynamics Archimedes' principle

SAID principle

Which sense provides information about changes in pressure on the skin, muscle length, and joint angles? Vestibular system Somatosensory system Visual system Hearing system

Somatosensory system

Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo? Training duration Rest interval Intensity Speed

Speed

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise? Hip hinge Pushing Pulling Squatting

Squatting

What phase of the OPT model aims to improve movement patterns and enhances stabilization of the system? Maximal Strength Training Power Training Muscular Development Training Stabilization Endurance Training

Stabilization Endurance Training

Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct? Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance

Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Explosiveness Speed Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing Rate of force production

Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

What is the primary action of the multifidus? Regulate inspiration Increase intra-abdominal pressure Support the contents of the pelvis Stabilize and extend the spine

Stabilize and extend the spine

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise? Stage 5 Stage 4 Stage 2 Stage 3

Stage 2

Balance is best described as which of the following? The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate The ability to maintain control of the body while in motion The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping

The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

Core stability is best described as: The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving The ability to decrease ROM in the thoracic spine, while increasing engagement of the rectus abdominus for spinal extension The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine The ability to transfer power from the upper body to the lower body for sports performance

The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body? The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface The approximate midpoint of the body The location of where one foot touches the ground

The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? The fitness professional should spot their client underneath their armpits. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise.

The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

What is the general adaptation syndrome? The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress. The general adaptation syndrome describes how an individual emotionally adapts to positive reinforcement. The general adaptation syndrome describes how humans evolve over time. The general adaptation syndrome describes how traits are handed down from parents to offspring.

The general adaptation syndrome describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength. The person has suffered an ACL sprain. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

What is defined as an individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage? Training intensity Training volume Training duration Training frequency

Training intensity

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Erector spinae External obliques Diaphragm Transverse abdominis

Transverse abdominis

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Latissimus dorsi Transverse abdominis Rectus abdominis Erector spinae

Transverse abdominis

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Front medicine ball oblique throw Two-arm push press Soccer throw Medicine ball chest pass

Two-arm push press

What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client? Two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg stable, single-leg stable

Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis? Mesocycle Macrocycle Linear Undulating

Undulating

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Visual system Vestibular system Auditory system Somatosensory system

Visual system

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Hearing system Visual system Vestibular system Somatosensory system

Visual system

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session? Recovery Intensity Frequency Volume

Volume

Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber? a. type I b. type IIa c. type IIb d. type IIx

a. type I

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? Coordination Agility Balance Quickness

Quickness

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise

24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

What BMI score is considered overweight? 25 to 29.9 35 to 39.9 30 to 34.9 18.5 to 24.9

25 to 29.9

Which term refers to a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates? a. myofibril b. motor unit c. sarcomere d. sarcoplasm

b. motor unit

What duration of daily moderate to vigorous physical activity is currently recommended for children and adolescents? a. at least 20 min b. at least 30 min c. about 45 minutes d. 60 min or more

d. 60 min or more

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching? 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching? 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform? 0 sets 1 to 4 sets 5 or 6 sets 7 to 9 sets

1 to 4 sets

What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? 1,200 kcal 500 kcal 5,000 kcal 12,000 kcal

1,200 kcal

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? 2 minutes 35 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes

10 minutes

You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout? 3 to 5 drills 6 to 10 drills 1 to 3 drills 10 to 15 drills

6 to 10 drills

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? 6 to 8 drills 2 to 4 drills 4 to 5 drills 9 or 10 drills

6 to 8 drills

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? 5 minutes 60 to 120 seconds 0 seconds 30 seconds

60 to 120 seconds

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Skill development Resistance training Activation Client's choice

Activation

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied? Adding a stabilization pause between reps Increasing speed Switch to single-leg power step-ups Being more explosive

Adding a stabilization pause between reps

What causes coronary heart disease? Atherosclerosis Tuberculosis Cirrhosis Osteoporosis

Atherosclerosis

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan? Preseason training In-season training Off-season training Cardio training

Cardio training

Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Terra-Core Cable machines TRX Rip Trainer Suspended bodyweight training

Cable machines

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Ball cobra Calf raise Single-leg dumbbell scaption Standing dumbbell lateral raise

Calf raise

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training? Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Single-leg hops Ice skaters Box jumps Depth jumps

Depth jumps

What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made? Hypertension Diabetes Dyspnea Intermittent claudication

Diabetes

What three joint actions comprise triple flexion? Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

How is Fartlek training best described? Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Hip abduction Hip extension Ankle plantar flexion Knee extension

Hip abduction

What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Hyperglycemia Hypotension Hypertension Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Increased user safety Increased multiplanar movement Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements Decreased challenges to balance and stability

Increased multiplanar movement

What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Decreased muscular hypertrophy Increased resting heart rate Decreased bone remodeling Increased muscular hypertrophy

Increased muscular hypertrophy

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for: Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion Greater support and safety for elderly clients Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)? This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production? It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces. Eccentric contractions are minimized.

It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? It may place excessive stress on the thoracic spine through hyperflexion. It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. It may place too much stress on the lumbar spine through hyperflexion. It may place too much stress on the cervical spine through hyperflexion.

It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension.

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Cancer and bleeding disorders Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension Joint hypermobility and scoliosis Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis

Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise? Jumping down limits eccentric contractions. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics. Jumping down requires more concentric force control. Jumping down lessens force deceleration.

Jumping down challenges landing mechanics.

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.

Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Neurotransmitter Nociceptor Mechanoreceptor Action potential

Nociceptor

Flexibility is defined as the following: Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched

Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion

It is most important to improve balance in this population to decrease their fear of falling. Young females College athletes Older individuals Those with ankle sprains

Older individuals

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints? Rheumatoid arthritis Osteoporosis Osteoarthritis Osteopenia

Osteoarthritis

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Biomechanics Osteokinematics Arthrokinematics Kinesiology

Osteokinematics

In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal? Phases 3 and 4 Phases 4 and 5 Phases 1 and 2 Phases 1 and 3

Phases 1 and 2

The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model? Phases 1 and 3 Phases 3, 4, and 5 Phases 1, 2, and 5 Phases 2, 3, and 4

Phases 1, 2, and 5

Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases? Phases 1 and 3 Phases 4 and 5 Phases 3 and 4 Phases 2 and 3

Phases 4 and 5

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Maximal muscular strength Core strength Rate of force production Postural alignment

Postural alignment

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance? Too much cardiovascular exercise Poor SMART goals Inability to exercise 3 times per week Postural distortions

Postural distortions

Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Aerobic fitness Flexibility Muscular strength Power

Power

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Power Training Muscular Development Training Strength Endurance Training Stabilization Endurance Training

Power Training

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production? Muscular Development Training Stabilization Endurance Training Strength Endurance Training Power Training

Power Training

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what? Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2 Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities

Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

What are two signs of a muscle being overstretched? Increased mobility and balance Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle Increased muscle strength and speed Prolonged increases in flexibility and joint range of motion

Prolonged joint or muscle pain lasting more than 24 hours and swelling in the muscle

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance. Flat floor Proprioceptively enriched Static balance Seated weight-training exercises

Proprioceptively enriched

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures Offer users the ability to change resistance easily Provide an increased range of motion Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers

Provide an increased range of motion

Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise? Bench press Push-up Lat pulldown Machine leg extension

Push-up

Which of the following is an appropriate assessment for a senior client who is sedentary? Davies test Pushing test Shark skill test Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test

Pushing test

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions? Quadriceps Sartorius Hamstrings Adductor complex

Quadriceps

Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise? Seated leg extension Barbell squat Bench press Overhead press

Seated leg extension

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Dynamic balance Semi-dynamic balance Stable balance Static balance

Semi-dynamic balance

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer.

Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Dynamic balance Semi-dynamic balance Static balance Moderate-level balance

Semi-dynamic balance

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle? Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening

Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement Move the trunk Stabilize vertebral segments

Stabilize vertebral segments

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months? Power Training Strength Endurance Training Stabilization Endurance Training Maximal Strength Training

Strength Endurance Training

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position? Static balance Semi-dynamic balance Dynamic balance Low-level balance

Static balance

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what? Vision Somatosensation Vestibular senses Strength

Strength

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Stabilization Endurance Strength Endurance Maximal Strength Power

Strength Endurance

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Terra-Core Resistance bands Suspended bodyweight training Strength machines

Strength machines

If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called? Stretch reflex Lengthening reaction Eccentric contraction Isometric contraction

Stretch reflex

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Stretch-shortening cycle Muscular-power phase Explosive-shortening phase Stretching phase

Stretch-shortening cycle

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.

The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? The sight, hearing, and taste systems The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.

The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. The stretch is too complicated for the older client. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.

The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.

Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee. The stretch is too complicated for the new client. The stretch is too advanced for the average person.

The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? The unused energy is dissipated as heat. The unused energy is stored for the next jump. The attempt at jumping will fail. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.

The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? This stretch is too advanced for the average person. This stretch is too complicated for the older client. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles.

This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Frontal plane Lumbar spine Sagittal plane Thoracic spine

Thoracic spine

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.

Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Thumbs pointing down Palms facing down Palms facing away from each other Thumbs pointing up

Thumbs pointing up

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Motor unit recruitment Force production Functional movement Tissue overload

Tissue overload

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program? To make sure the client isn't doing too much exercise To make sure the program is difficult enough To enhance enjoyment of exercise To ensure safety

To ensure safety

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Latissimus dorsi Biceps brachii Quadriceps Triceps brachii

Triceps brachii

True or False: The mechanical effect of direct roller compression is the relaxation of the local mysofacia by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascia restriction and adhesions.

True

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground. Vestibular Somatosensory Visual Sensorimotor function

Vestibular

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell? A kettlebell is heavier. A dumbbell is safer. Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same. With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise? Cables Tubing Wobble board Medicine ball

Wobble board

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Zone 2 Zone 4 Zone 3 Zone 1

Zone 2

Which of the following is a predictive factor for knee injury? a. knee valgus b. pronated feet c. using stationary bike and elliptical d. using treadmills and steppers

a. knee valgus

True or False: The forward rounding of the shoulders theoretically limits the ability to lift the ribcage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration. a. True b. False

a. True

What popular piece of exercises equipment is a cylindrical tube constructed of hardened rubber designed to be dragged, tossed, lifted, pulled, pressed, and carried? a. ViPR b. Sandbags c. Medicine Ball d. TRX rip trainer

a. ViPR

True or False: With regard to resistance training for youth, progression should be based on postural control and not the amount of weight that ca be used. a. true b. false

a. true

What is the second section of the OPT programming template? a. activation b. client's choice c. skill development d. resistance training

a. activation

What is the term used to describe a type of stretching that uses antagonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion? a. active stretching b. ballistic stretching c. passive stretching d. isometric stretching

a. active stretching

Which of the following exercises consists of these three parts: a Y, T, then A position (or scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra)? a. ball combo I b. ball combo II c. single-leg dumbbell scaption d. standing dumbbell shoulder press

a. ball combo I

Match each level of client experience with the appropriate SAQ exercise parameters: 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability a. beginner b. intermediate c. advanced

a. beginner

Match each term with the correct description below: amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone a. bone density b. osteopenia c. osteoporosis d. sarcopenia

a. bone density

What term refers to a co-contraction of global muscles such as the rectus abdominus and external obliques? a. bracing b. hollowing c. drawing-in maneuver d. abdominal stabilization

a. bracing

Match the description below with the correct term: approximate midpoint of the body a. center of gravity b. base of support c. static balance d. dynamic balance

a. center of gravity

What type of resistance training alternates heavy resistance when an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement? a. complex training b. the multiple set system c. escalating density training d. convergent phase training

a. complex training

Match the following description with the correct term: ability to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving a. core stability b. core endurance c. core strength

a. core stability

Match the phase of the plyometric exercise with the physiological event that occurs during the phase described below: elastic energy stored; stimulation of muscle spindles; signal sent to spinal cord a. eccentric b. amortization c. concentric

a. eccentric

Match the following description with the correct term from the options below: normal extensibility of soft tissues that allows for full range of motion of a joint a. flexibility b. extensibility c. relative flexibility d. mobility

a. flexibility

Match the following muscle action spectrum with the correct muscle contraction: concentric a. force production b. force reduction c. dynamic stabilization

a. force production

Match the following description with the correct term below: the number of training sessions in a given timeframe a. frequency b. time c. intensity d. type

a. frequency

Which term refers to the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress? a. general adaptation syndrome b. overtraining syndrome c. super compensation d. overreaching

a. general adaptation syndrome

Match each medical condition with the correct description: consistently elevated blood pressure a. hypertension b. stroke c. heart failure

a. hypertension

when performing a single-leg dumbbell curl, which of the following ensures proper scapular stability, placing more of an emphasis on the bicep's musculature? a. keeping the scapular retracted b. keeping the scapulae protracted c. keeping the palms facing inward d. keeping the palms facing downward

a. keeping the scapular retracted

Match the following description with the term below: normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating the concave portion of the spine a. lordotic / lordosis b. kyphotic / kyphosis c. anterior pelvic tilt d. posterior pelvic tilt

a. lordotic / lordosis

Match each term with the correct description: refers to the weight and movements placed on the body a. mechanical specificity b. neuromuscular specificity c. metabolic specificity

a. mechanical specificity

What term refers to the integration of motor control processes through practice ad experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in capacity to produce skilled motor behavior? a. motor learning b. kinetic learning c. skill development d. biomechanical development

a. motor learning

Match each specific training outcome with the correct application of the OPT model: progress training programs with higher volumes (more sets, reps, intensity) a. muscle hypertrophy b. general sports performance c. body fat reduction

a. muscle hypertrophy

Match each term with the correct description: ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time a. muscular endurance b. muscular hypertrophy c. muscular strength d. muscular power e. rate of force production

a. muscular endurance

Match the following description with the correct term from the choices below: ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structure in all planes of motion a. neuromuscular efficiency b. altered reciprocal inhibition c. autogenic inhibition

a. neuromuscular efficiency

When utilizing devices such as a stability ball, BOSU, or the Terra-Core, the user is forced to actively engage their core musculature due to their body weight distributing air inside the bladder of the device, causing which of the following? a. perturbation b. percussion c. oscillation d. vibration

a. perturbation

Match each term with the correct description: the body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts a. proprioception b. bilateral c. unilateral

a. proprioception

Match each type of resistance training system with the correct definition: increasing or decreasing weight with each set a. pyramid system b. superset system c. drop set d. peripheral heart action system e. split-routine system f. giant set system

a. pyramid system

Match the following method for programming exercise intensity with the description below: uses a point scale of 1 to 10 or 6 to 20 a. ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) b. metabolic equivalent (MET) c. heart rate reserve (HRR)

a. ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)

Match each term with the correct description: one complete movement of an exercise a. repetition b. set c. training intensity d. repetition tempo

a. repetition

Match each term with the correct description: condition characterized by fibrous lung tissue, which results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs a. restrictive lung disease b. chronic obstructive lung disease c. dyspnea

a. restrictive lung disease

When performing the single-leg hip rotation exercise, what will help to decrease stress to the spine and enhance control of the core? a. rotate through the hip of the balance leg rather than the spine b. rotate through the spine rather than the hip of the balance leg c. make sure the gluteal musculature of the balance leg remains contracted d. make sure the knee of the balance leg remains aligned slightly inside the foot

a. rotate through the hip of the balance leg rather than the spine

Which of the following is a common compensation that occurs when performing a standing cable chest press? a. shoulder shrug b. posterior pelvic tilt c. knee valgus of the back leg d. knee hyperextension of the front leg

a. shoulder shrug

Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus maximus and shoulder retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids? a. single-leg squat to row b. single-leg squat, curl to overhead press c. multiplanar lunge to two-arm dumbbell press d. multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press

a. single-leg squat to row

Match each fundamental movement pattern with the correct exercise example: step-ups a. squatting b. hip hinge c. pulling d. pushing e. pressing

a. squatting

Match each phase of the OPT model with the appropriate primary adaptation: postural alignment & control a. stabilization b. strength c. power

a. stabilization

What is the focus of the second level of training in the OPT model? a. the main adaptation of strength b. joint stability c. core stability d. power

a. the main adaptation of strength

True or False: On a physiological level, exercise exerts an effect similar to that of insulin. a. true b. false

a. true

True or False: Using a rope when performing cable pushdowns may help decrease the risk of elbow pain. a. true b. false

a. true

Match the following description with the correct term below: relating to one side of the body a. unilateral b. bilateral c. fundamental movement patterns d. range of motion

a. unilateral

How many minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week do the CDC and the World Health Organization recommend for optimal health? a. 60 min b. 75 min c. 120 min d. 150 min

b. 75 min

Which of the following would be the best recommended mode of exercise for individuals living with diabetes? a. HIIT b. Cycling c. Boxing d. Power Lifting

b. Cycling

What does the term perturbation mean? a. method of examining body parts through touch, using the fingers or hands b. an attention of the body's current state caused by the application of an external force c. the response (concious or unconcious) of the muscled within the body to control purposeful movement d. a method of examining body parts by tapping with the fingers, hands, or small instruments

b. an attention of the body's current state caused by the application of an external force

What term describes core exercises performed in a manner in which the exerciser resists forced that cause torso rotation? a. propulsive exercise b. antirotational exercises c. accelerative rotation exercises d. symmetrical resistance loading exercises

b. antirotational exercises

Match the description below with the correct term: area beneath a person consisting of every point of contact made between the body and the support surface a. center of gravity b. base of support c. static balance d. dynamic balance

b. base of support

Match the following description with the correct term below: relating to two sides of the body a. unilateral b. bilateral c. fundamental movement patterns d. range of motion

b. bilateral

Match each term with the correct description: condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction as a result of mucus production a. restrictive lung disease b. chronic obstructive lung disease c. dyspnea

b. chronic obstructive lung disease

Match the following description with the correct term: ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration a. core stability b. core endurance c. core strength

b. core endurance

Match the following description with the correct term from the options below: ability to be elongated or stretched a. flexibility b. extensibility c. relative flexibility d. mobility

b. extensibility

When performing a ball cobra exercise, which of the following instructions should the CPT provide to the client? a. internally rotate the arms so thumbs point toward the sky b. externally rotate the arms so thumbs are pointing up toward the sky c. internally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing down at the ground d. externally rotate the arms so the thumbs are pointing down at the ground

b. externally rotate the arms so thumbs are pointing up toward the sky

True or False: While performing the ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: A Phase 5 flexibility routine typically involves static and dynamic stretching. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: After vigorous exercise, how quickly a person's heart rate drops in the first minute after exercise is a predictor of poor heart health. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: The use of weight plates under the feet when performing a barbell bench press exercise is never acceptable. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: To decrease stress on the elbows when performing a standing barbell curl, the client should use a very wide grip. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: When performing the "ball squat, curl to press" exercise, the client should lean back into the ball throughout the squatting motion, relying on it for support. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: When performing the dumbbell squat exercise, the client's feet should be positioned hip-width apart. a. true b. false

b. false

True or False: When working with clients with hypertension, core exercises in the supine position are preferred over standing core exercises. a. true b. false

b. false

Match the following muscle action spectrum with the correct muscle contraction: eccentric a. force production b. force reduction c. dynamic stabilization

b. force reduction

Match each specific training outcome with the correct application of the OPT model: progress training from stabilization through the power phase of training a. muscle hypertrophy b. general sports performance c. body fat reduction

b. general sports performance

Match each fundamental movement pattern with the correct exercise example: kettlebell swings a. squatting b. hip hinge c. pulling d. pushing e. pressing

b. hip hinge

Match the following benefit of a warm-up with the correct related effect: increases rate of muscle contraction a. increased heart and respiratory rate b. increased tissue temperature c. increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise

b. increased tissue temperature

Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness, and athletic performance? a. systematics b. integrated training c. boot camp training d. high-intensity interval training (HIIT)

b. integrated training

Match each level of client experience with the appropriate SAQ exercise parameters: 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability a. beginner b. intermediate c. advanced

b. intermediate

If a client cannot touch their foot when performing the single-leg squat touchdown, where should the personal trainer instruct them to reach first? a. thigh b. knee c. above the knee d. middle of the shin

b. knee

What term is used to describe training that adds a weight or load to dynamic, full-body, multiplanar movements? a. dynamic resistance training b. loaded movement training c. functional training d. cross training

b. loaded movement training

Match the following periods (phases) of training with the correct description: monthly plan a. macrocycle b. mesocycle c. microcycle

b. mesocycle

Which of the following is a primary reason that people purchase fitness tracking devices? a. aesthetics b. motivation c. functionality d. peer pressure

b. motivation

Match each term with the correct description: enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers a. muscular endurance b. muscular hypertrophy c. muscular strength d. muscular power e. rate of force production

b. muscular hypertrophy

Match each term with the correct description: refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection a. mechanical specificity b. neuromuscular specificity c. metabolic specificity

b. neuromuscular specificity

What is the fastest growing health problem in America and in most other industrialized countries? a. cancer b. obesity c. diabetes d. heart failure

b. obesity

Match each term with the correct description: condition caused by degeneration of cartilage in the joints a. arthritis b. osteoarthritis c. rheumatoid arthritis d. atrophy

b. osteoarthritis

Match each term with the correct description below: lower than normal bone density a. bone density b. osteopenia c. osteoporosis d. sarcopenia

b. osteopenia

What term refers to excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training resulting in reduction of performance, which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery? a. overuse b. overtraining c. overreaching d. supercompensation

b. overtraining

Match each term with the correct description below: ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during dynamic activities a. agility b. quickness c. stride rate d. stride length e. frontside mechanics f. backside mechanics

b. quickness

What term refers to low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the upcoming sets of more intense exercise? a. pre-exhaustion b. specific warm-up c. preparation training d. nonspecific warm-up

b. specific warm-up

Why are acute variables an important part of exercise programming? a. CPTs ask clients to select them, which improves adherence b. specify how each exercise is to be performed, which can help achieve goals c. only used by newer CPTs, to improve safety d. factors that cannot be controlled, which can make exercise more challenging

b. specify how each exercise is to be performed, which can help achieve goals

Which of the following provides greater demands on core stability and proprioception by progressing from bilateral to unilateral movements, using slow repetition tempos and high repetition schemes? a. hypertrophy-focused exercises b. stabilization-focused exercises c. strength-focused exercises d. power-focused exercises

b. stabilization-focused exercises

Which stage(s) are more appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise? a. stage 1 only b. stages 1 and 2 c. stages 2 and 3 d. stages 3 and 4

b. stages 1 and 2

Match each phase of the OPT model with the appropriate primary adaptation: muscular endurance & prime mover strength a. stabilization b. strength c. power

b. strength

Match each type of resistance training system with the correct definition: performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest a. pyramid system b. superset system c. drop set d. peripheral heart action system e. split-routine system f. giant set system

b. superset system

What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)? a. reciprocal inhibition b. synergist dominance c. altered reciprocal inhibition d. neuromuscular inefficiency

b. synergist dominance

Match the following description with the correct term below: the duration an individual is engaged in a given activity a. frequency b. time c. intensity d. type

b. time

What term is used to describe ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg while sprinting? a. triple flexion b. triple extension c. positive shin angle d. negative shin angle

b. triple extension

What is the correct foot placement when performing kettlebell swinging exercises? a. no more than 6 in apart b. about hip-width apart c. about shoulder-width apart d. greater than shoulder width apart

c. about shoulder-width apart

Match each type of resistance training system with the correct definition: performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set a. pyramid system b. superset system c. drop set d. peripheral heart action system e. split-routine system f. giant set system

c. drop set

Match the following muscle action spectrum with the correct muscle contraction: isometric a. force production b. force reduction c. dynamic stabilization

c. dynamic stabilization

Match each term with the correct description: shortness of breath or labored breathing a. restrictive lung disease b. chronic obstructive lung disease c. dyspnea

c. dyspnea

Match the following description with the correct term below: common and essential movements performed in daily life a. unilateral b. bilateral c. fundamental movement patterns d. range of motion

c. fundamental movement patterns

Match the following benefit of a warm-up with the correct related effect: increases the mental readiness of an individual a. increased heart and respiratory rate b. increased tissue temperature c. increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise

c. increased psychological preparation for bouts of exercise

Match the following description with the correct term below: the level of demand placed on the body by a given activity a. frequency b. time c. intensity d. type

c. intensity

What term refers to the manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease? a. perfusion b. mean arterial pressure c. intermittent claudication d. peripheral vascular resistance

c. intermittent claudication

Match each term with the correct description: ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load a. muscular endurance b. muscular hypertrophy c. muscular strength d. muscular power e. rate of force production

c. muscular strength

When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps, designed to establish which of the following? a. agility b. proprioception c. optimal landing mechanics d. optimal force production

c. optimal landing mechanics

Match each fundamental movement pattern with the correct exercise example: rows a. squatting b. hip hinge c. pulling d. pushing e. pressing

c. pulling

Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time? a. watts b. strength speed c. rate of force production d. speed of power production

c. rate of force production

What term is used to describe the process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased? a. periodization b. the FITT principle c. rate of progression d. progressive overload

c. rate of progression

Match each term with the correct description below: number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance) a. agility b. quickness c. stride rate d. stride length e. frontside mechanics f. backside mechanics

c. stride rate

Match each term with the correct description: relating to one side of the body a. proprioception b. bilateral c. unilateral

c. unilateral

Match each zone of stage training with the appropriate description below: profuse sweating a. zone 1 b. zone 2 c. zone 3 d. zone 4

c. zone 3

Match each term with the correct description below: age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults a. bone density b. osteopenia c. osteoporosis d. sarcopenia

d. sarcopenia

What are the exercises included in the last progression of balance training designed to do? a. develop dynamic control in the mid-range of motion b. develop reflective (automatic) muscle contractions to increase joint stability c. develop proper acceleration ability to move the body from a controlled stationary position to a dynamic state d. develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position

d. develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position

With regard to the application of the OPT model for the goal of body fat reduction, what is the best way to increase the calories burned? a. increase the intensity of the training session b. consume greater quantities of complete proteins c. increase the duration of cardiorespiratory fitness exercises d. move more through both structured exercise ad daily physical activity

d. move more through both structured exercise ad daily physical activity

Match each term with the correct description: represented by the equation (force x velocity / time) a. muscular endurance b. muscular hypertrophy c. muscular strength d. muscular power e. rate of force production

d. muscular power

Match each type of resistance training system with the correct definition: a variation of circuit training that alternates upper and lower body exercises throughout the set a. pyramid system b. superset system c. drop set d. peripheral heart action system e. split-routine system f. giant set system

d. peripheral heart action system

What is the most accurate term for an unstable (yet controllable) exercise movement that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms? a. multisensory environment b. balance-challenged environment c. dynamically enriched environment d. proprioceptively enriched environment

d. proprioceptively enriched environment

Match each fundamental movement pattern with the correct exercise example: dumbbell chest press a. squatting b. hip hinge c. pulling d. pushing e. pressing

d. pushing

Match the following description with the correct term below: the degree to which specific joints or body segments move a. unilateral b. bilateral c. fundamental movement patterns d. range of motion

d. range of motion

Match each term with the correct description: speed at which each repetition is performed a. repetition b. set c. training intensity d. repetition tempo

d. repetition tempo

When performing rows, how should the client initiate the movement? a. tucking the chin b. elevating the shoulders c. anteriorly tilting the pelvis d. retracting and depressing shoulder blades

d. retracting and depressing shoulder blades

What term refers to the interaction between the body's processing of information (visual, vestibular, and somatosensory) and the body's motor response to that information? a. agility b. balance c. propioception d. sensorimotor function

d. sensorimotor function

Match each term with the correct description below: in sprinting, refers to the alignment of the lead leg and pelvis a. agility b. quickness c. stride rate d. stride length e. frontside mechanics f. backside mechanics

e. frontside mechanics

Match each fundamental movement pattern with the correct exercise example: push press a. squatting b. hip hinge c. pulling d. pushing e. pressing

e. pressing

Match each type of resistance training system with the correct definition: performing four or more exercises in succession with as little rest as possible between sets a. pyramid system b. superset system c. drop set d. peripheral heart action system e. split-routine system f. giant set system

f. giant set system