CPT1 Final (Set 5)
16. TDM i used by physicians to a. determine a beneficial drug dosage for a patient b. maintain "peak" levels of a drug in a patient's system c. maintain "trough" levels of a drug in a pateints system d. screen inpatients for abuse of prescriptive drugs
A.
28. which of the following collection circumstances is least likely to result in delayed clotting of a serum sample? a. collection was difficult, hemolyzing red cells b. patient has an elevated WBC c. patient is taking an anticoagulant medication d. specimen is chilled soon after being collected
A.
4. When performing a GTT, the timing should begin.. a. as soon as patient finishes the drink b. one-half hour after the drink is finished c.right after the patient arrives in the lab d. when the fasting specimen is collected.
A.
19. which of the following is used by the laboratory to identify a specimen throughout the testing process? a. Accession number b. hospital number c. mnemonic code d. pssword ID
A. Accession number
7. When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into BC bottles, which should be filled first? a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic c. either, it does not matter d. Neither, discard tube must be first,
A. Aerobic
23. which of the following specimens needs to be chilled? a. Ammonia b. Bilirubin c. cold aggulitinin d. serum protein
A. Ammonium
2. which test requires strict skin antisepsis procedures before specimen collection? a. blood culture b. blood urea nitrogen c. CBC d. type and crossmatch
A. BC
22. this is aa source of preanalytical error that occurs before specimen collections a. dehydrated patient b. misidentified patient c. mislabeled specimen d. wrong collection time
A. dehydrated patient
11. An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood a. directly from the donor to the patient b donated by the patient for the patient c. donated by a compatible relative d. given by an anonymous donor
B
29. Which specimen can be centrifuged immediately upon arrival in specimen processing? a. BC in an SPS tube b. calcium in a green top tube c. CBC in a lavander stopper tube d. creatinine in an SST tube
B
30. which of the following represents improper aliquot preparation? a/ removing the stopper behind a splash shield b. carefully pouring the contents into the aliquot tube c. covering or capping the aliquot tube immediately d. none of above.
B
6. To prevent introducing a contaminating substance into a trace-element collection tube, its suggested that the phlebotomist a. collect the trace-element tube last in the order of draw b. draw it by itself using a syringe or evacuated tube system c. use a syringe and transfer blood into the royal blue tube last d. use only a royal blue short-draw tube with heparin or EDTA
B
10. Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch? a. ETS gray top b. pink top EDTA tube c. Royal blue top d. Serum separator Tube (SST)
B. Pink top EDTA tube
26. which of the following specimens are least likely to require special handling? a. Bilirubin and serum folate b. cholesterol and uric acid c. gastrin and lactic acid d. homocysteine and renin
B. cholesterol and uric acid
20. An example of a preanalytical error happening during specimen processing is a. faulty collection tchnique b. inadequate centrifugation c. insufficient specimen d. patient stress and anxiety
B. inadequate centrifugation
12. The most critical aspect of BC collection is a. amount of specimen b. skin antisepsis c. specimen handling d. the needle gauge
B. skin antisepsis
21. which of the following would NOT be considered a preanalytical error? a. failing to mix additive tubes b. mislabeling an aliquot tube c. misreporting patient results d. using the wrong order of draw
C.
27. Which statement describes proper centrifuge operations a. centrifuge serum specimens before they start to form noticeable clots b. never centrifuge both serum and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge c. place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another for balance d. remove evacuate tube stoppers before placing them in the centrifuge
C.
25. According to CLSI, the maximum time limit for separating serum or plasma from cells is a. 15 min from the time of collection b. 30 min from the time collection c. 1 hr from time of collection d. 2 hr from the time of collection
C. 1 hr from time of collection
5. At what intervals is the blood blotted during a bleeding time test? (BTT) a. 15 sec b. 20 sec c. 30 sec d. 45 sec
C. 30 sec
24. this organization develops standards for specimen handling and processing. a. CDC b. CLIA c. CLSI d. FDA
C. CLSI
14. the hormone detected in a positive urine pregnancy tests is. a. ACTH b GH c. HCG d. TSH
C. HCG
13. This test requires a specimen with 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant a. Ethanol b. Glycohemoglobin c. Prothrobin time (PT) d. Red cell count
C. PT
9. identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from the patient as treatment a. Acute leukemia b. Autologous donation c. Hemochromatosis d. RH incompatibility
C. hemochromatosis
18. A specimen would most likely be accepted for testing despite this problem a. expired evacuated tube b. incomplete identification\c c. no phlebotomist initials d. quantity not sufficent
C. no phleb. initial
15. Tests that can be performed using special POCT instruments or test skin include a. ABGs b. Glucose c. Occult blood (guaiac) d. All above
D.
17. 1 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn a. 2 hours before patient arrives for the test b. 2 hr after " " c. 2 hrs before the patient has a meal d. 2 hr after has had a meal
D. 2 hr after a meal
3. What type of additive is recommended for collecting an ethanol test specimen? a. EDTA b. no additive c. sodium citrate d. sodium fluoride
D. NA+ fluoride
8. Which of the following tests may require special "chain of custody" documentations when collected? a. BC b. crossmatch c. drug screen d TDM
D. drug screen
1. Of the following tests, which is most likely to result in fatal consequences if the patient is misidentified? a. blood culture b. drug screen c. postprandial glucose d. Type and crossmatch
D. type and cross match
