Domain I: Initial Client Consultation and Assessment

A female client is 52-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 70 mg·dL-1. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does she have?

0 This client's age is not considered a positive risk factor. However, her HDL-C is considered a negative risk factor, so the sum total equals zero risk factors.

A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL-1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have?

2 Explanation: This client's age and HDL-C are considered positive risk factors. Note that physical activity is NOT considered a negative risk factor.

A sedentary lifestyle is defined as NOT participating in at least:

30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months. Explanation: Participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, for at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months is considered the threshold for an active lifestyle.

A Personal Trainer may begin immediately training which of the following clients?

A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis (This client is not at any risk threshold for age or health condition. Thus, training may begin immediately without medical clearance.)

Where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system?

Alveoli Explanation: The alveoli is the functional unit of the lung.

Which of the following does NOT require an exercise test or a medical supervised test?

An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise (A client who is asymptomatic and has less than two risk factors does not require a medical exam or exercise testing for participation in moderate exercise.)

Palpitations are BEST defined as:

An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats. Palpitations can vary in sensation but are often described as pounding or racing heartbeats, or that the heart has skipped or stopped beating.

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________.

Cardiac output Explanation: Cardiac output is defined as the product of heart rate and stroke volume.

A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions?

Closed pack Explanation: A joint is in a "closed pack" position when there is both maximal congruency of the joint surfaces and maximal tautness of the joint capsule and ligaments. This offers the most stable position for joint.

Which of the following assesses the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and maintaining an activity?

Decisional balance Explanation: Decisional balance allows assessment of the pros and cons of behavior change.

Which joint movement occurs in the transverse plane?

Internal rotation Explanation: The transverse plane divides the body from the top and bottom. Any movement that is parallel to this plane, such as a rotation, occurs in this plane.

Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system?

Cycling Explanation: Exercises that require oxygen and are done over a long period of time, longer than 3 minutes, work primarily in the aerobic-oxidative system.

Syncope is defined as:

Loss of consciousness. Explanation: Syncope is commonly caused by a reduced perfusion of blood flow to the brain.

Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST:

Determine and establish neutral pelvic position. (Proper posture and alignment must be promoted from the very beginning in activities of daily living as well as exercise.)

A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration?

Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds Explanation: The gastrocnemius is lengthened when placed in a position opposite of the muscle acton. Since the gastrocnemius plantarflexes the ankle joint, a stretch would occur when placed in a dorsiflexed position. A 30 to 60 second stretch hold time is recommended for most adults.

The best types of stretches to include in a warm-up for walking or cycling are:

Dynamic Explanation: A proper warm-up for long, steady state exercise includes dynamic stretching as you do not want to perform other types of stretching that does not prepare the body for more intense exercise.

When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action?

Eccentric Explanation: When the resistance is greater than force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action [e.g., the lowering phase of the biceps curl].

Movement resulting in an increase of the joint angle, usually moving posteriorly in the sagittal plane is called __________.

Extension Explanation: Extension typically occurs in the sagittal plane but can also occur in other planes, provided that the joint angle is increasing.

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint?

Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings (The gluteus maximus and hamstrings function to extend the hip joint. Exercises that recruit these muscles include bridging, squats, leg presses, and lunges.)

Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term?

Horizontal adduction Explanation: Movement toward the midline of the body in the transverse plane is usually used to describe horizontal humerus movement when the shoulder is flexed at 90°.

A proper cool-down allows the body to help remove ________.

Lactate Explanation: Cooling down gradually allows the body to remove metabolic waste such as lactate from the body. This reduces muscle soreness and helps prevent injury.

An example of an open chain exercise is the:

Leg extension Explanation: Open chain movements occur when the distal segment of a joint moves in space. An example of this is knee extension [leg extension] on a machine.

Higher levels of cardiovascular fitness are associated with:

Lower mortality rates Higher levels of aerobic fitness are associated with lower mortality from heart disease, even after statistical adjustments for age, coronary risk factors, and family history of heart disease.

What is a potential outcome of maintaining a professional presence and disposition when training clients?

Maintaining a professional presence may also help generate clients, as this is also a form of advertising. Explanation: Being approachable by clients and other staff may lead to more interest as it relates to training inquiries.

A typical chronic response to improved cardiorespiratory fitness is an increase in:

Maximal oxygen consumption Explanation: A client will see an increase in their maximal oxygen consumption with regular exercise, as they are better able to take in and deliver oxygen to the working muscles.

Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training?

Mechanical disadvantage Explanation: Any resistance exercise is more difficult to perform when there is a mechanical disadvantage.

The most prominent adaptation seen with resistance training is:

Muscle hypertrophy. Explanation: Hypertrophy is the most prominent adaptation seen with resistance training.

Your client notices that he is able to perform several resistance exercises with more weight and a few more repetitions after the first two weeks of training. Which of the following BEST explains these training effects?

Neural adaptations Explanation: Part of the strength gain resulting from strength training is attributed to changes in the nervous system. This is especially true during the early stages of strength training.

A Personal Trainer-Client Agreement must include which of the following policies that also assists with motivation?

No-show Explanation: The no-show policy makes it clear to the client that they will be charged for a full session if they do not attend the scheduled session.

In general, elbow injuries are a result of:

Overuse or repetitive motion. Explanation: The elbow is an important joint involved in lifting, carrying, throwing, swinging, and most upper extremity exercise movements. The elbow is commonly injured and is the second most injured joint from overuse or repetitive motion. (

The feeling of chronic muscular fatigue is a sign of:

Overuse. Explanation: When a client experiences muscle exhaustion, they are most likely overusing their muscles.

Which of the following forms may be used if a Health/Medical History Evaluation form is not readily available?

PAR-Q Explanation: The PAR-Q assesses risk as it relates to heart disease and musculoskeletal symptoms.

Intermittent claudication refers to:

Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping. Explanation: Pain occurs because of exercise-induced ischemia due to atherosclerosis in the lower extremity.

Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding strengh training in the lumbo-pelvic region?

Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening. Explanation: The lumbar muscles play a small role in trunk extension and torque movements during ADLs. Stabilization exercises provide a more effective strength training effect.

Your client is a 30-year-old male who has not been active in the last few months. He has completed all the forms, and you observe that he does not have any risk factors. He reports that he experienced some shortness of breath while playing a pick-up basketball game this weekend, something he hasn't done in a year. You should:

Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity. (The individual has no risk factors and most likely experienced shortness of breath from not playing basketball in a while. Thus, a moderate-intensity exercise program is appropriate.)

Which of the following provides for an ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adapations in the bone?

Plyometric training Explanation: Impact and weight bearing activities [plyometrics, jumping, resistance training] provide for a stress on the bone to promote positive adaptations in the bone.

A key benefit of a proper warm-up is that it may:

Prevent ischemia of the heart. Explanation: A proper warm-up will slowly increase the heart rate and body temperature. These gradual increases may help prevent ischemia [lack of oxygen] of the heart which may occur in clients with sudden strenuous exertion.

Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase?

Prevents blood pooling in the extremities Explanation: A gradual cool-down period will allow heart rate and blood pressure to return to pre-exercise levels and prevent blood pooling.

Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate?

Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press Explanation: A push-up plus off a wall is an example of a closed chain exercise as the arm is fixated to a stationary surface.

During the concentric phase of extension at the knee joint, the ________ work as an agonist and the ________ work as the antagonist.

Quadriceps, hamstrings The quadriceps function as an agonist to extend the knee joint, and the hamstrings function as an antagonist since it functions to flex the knee joint.

The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________.

RPE; resistance; ROM Explanation: There are other terms for intensity, resistance, and displacement, and the personal trainer should be familiar with other terminology as well.

For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________.

Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh Explanation: The Jackson-Pollock three-site skinfold formula estimates body fat percent averages for the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men.

Running is done predominately in what plane of movement?

Sagittal Explanation: Any movement that is parallel to the sagittal plane, such as a running [flexion/extension of the hip, knee and plantarflexion/dorsiflexion of the ankle joint] occurs in the sagittal plane.

During the contraction phase of a bicep curl, the palms are ___________.

Supinated (Supination refers to position of the radiounlar joint where the wrist joint is rotated so that the thumb is positioned on the lateral side of the arm.)

Which of the following groups of muscles describes the rotator cuff?

Supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and infraspinatus Explanation: The muscles that make up the rotator cuff include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.

Kyphosis is defined as:

The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior. Explanation: This defines the normal kyphotic curve.

Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test?

Thigh Explanation: Jackson and Pollock have developed several skinfold formulas that assess the chest, abdomen, and thigh for men and triceps, suprailiac, and thigh for women.

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________.

You selected: Cardiac output Explanation: Cardiac output is defined as the product of heart rate and stroke volume.

Which of the following is an example of a SMART goal?

will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months. Explanation: prepare for a 5K specific], 10 to 40 minutes [measureable], gradually progress my run time [action-oriented], in four months [realistic], 4 days per week [time oriented].