DSM ch. 10, DSM (ch. 6,, A&P Lecture Ch. 8,9,11, DSM ch 9, DSM ch. 8, HW (CH. 6-10, DSM (ch 7,
When a ballerina or gymnast points their toes, this motion is __________.
plantar flexion
Identify the part of the ethmoid bone indicated by "B."
cribriform plate
Which one of the following binds calcium ions in a smooth muscle, causing contraction?
Calmodulin
Correctly match the following term: Bones that form most of the sole of the feet.
Metatarsals
Identify the muscle indicated by "B."
Middle scalene
Match the muscle fiber to the appropriate characteristic: Fast oxidative muscle fiber.
Moderately fatigue resistant
Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Gomphosis.
"Peg-in-socket" fibrous joint
You have a young patient with severe lordosis in the lumbar region. How would you explain to her why her leg often goes numb?
"The excessive curvature of your lower spine is putting pressure on the nerves that go to your leg."
Identify the muscle indicated by "A."
Trapezius
Identify the socket of the shoulder joint.
glenoid cavity
How many regions of the vertebral column are there?
5
To what percent of its length can a ligament be stretched and not snap?
6%
How many cervical vertebrae are there in a normal adult?
7
Match the following component of a muscle fiber with its description: Area of the sarcomere with overlapping thick and thin filaments. I band H band Z disc A band
A Band
__________ are muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement.
Antagonists
Correctly match the bone of the upper limb with its description: Forms the wrist joint with the radius and ulna.
Carpals
Correctly match the following term: Bones that form the wrist.
Carpals
Identify the step of the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle indicated by "A."
Cross bridge formation
Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "E."
Shaft of rib
Correctly match the opening or depression in bone with its correct name: Fossa.
Shallow, basinlike depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface
Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activity best-suited for fast-oxidative fibers.
Sprinting
Mary is 50 years old. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals that portions of her skeleton show signs of osteoporosis. After reviewing the test results, her physician suggests that she take all of the following courses of action except?
Start taking synthetic parathyroid hormone
Identify the muscle indicated by "A."
Sternocleidomastoid
Match the following description of muscles that move the head and trunk with its appropriate name: Flexes and laterally rotates the head.
Sternocleidomastoid
Match the word to its correct meaning: Rectus.
Straight
Match the following fascicle arrangement with the appropriate power generation or description: Parallel.
Straplike with an expanded belly; great ability to shorten but not usually very powerful
Identify the friction-reducing structure associated with synovial joints indicated by "A."
Subacromial bursa
Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "B."
Superior costal facet
Correctly match the term and definition: Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.
abduction
The prefix supra- means
above, higher than, or dorsal.
Identify the articulation site for the femur.
acetabulum
The articulation formed by the tip of the scapula and the clavicle is called the
acromioclavicular joint.
Identify the region of the scapula that articulates with the clavicle.
acromion process
What event at letter B leads to elongation of the bone?
chondrocyte hypertrophy and deterioration
Cartilage tissue features __________ within small cavities called lacunae.
chondrocytes
Sphincters have a __________ arrangement of fascicles.
circular
The sella turcica is best described as:
depression
False ribs lack
direct sternal attachment
Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "E."
synovial membrane
The projection at the inferior end of the greater sciatic notch is the ischial spine.
true
Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Bone with the bony crest that forms the shin
Tibia
Assume you have a membrane with only potassium leakage channels. The RMP is -90mV. Predict the RMP if we add Na+ leakage channels.The most likely RMP value of Na+ is __________.
-70 mV
Identify the major weight bearing part of a vertebra.
BODY
Which of the following foramen convey a branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)? Foramen rotundum Foramen spinosum Optic foramen Foramen lacerum
Foramen rotundum
Match the following: Respiratory cartilages.
Forms the skeleton of the larynx and reinforces other respiratory passages
The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "C" is __________.
Fusiform
Match the description to the muscle function: Release of energy during metabolism.
Generation of heat
Correctly match the term and definition: Joint inflammation caused by the deposit of urate crystals in soft joint tissues.
Gouty arthritis
Match the thigh/leg movement with its appropriate muscle name: Adducts thigh, and flexes and medially rotates leg.
Gracilis
Match the following component of a muscle fiber with its description: Area in the center of the A band containing only thick filaments. I band Z disc A band H zone
H Zone
Correctly match the definition and term: Hollow space in the shaft of a long bone.
Medullary cavity
Match the muscle fiber to the appropriate characteristic: Fast oxidative muscle fiber. Fatigues quickly Fatigue resistant Moderately fatigue resistant None of the listed responses is correct.
Moderately fatigue resistant
Select the correct description of ion movement at the neuromuscular junction that produces the end plate potential.
More sodium enters the muscle fiber than potassium leaves the muscle fiber.
Identify the articulation site that allows us to nod our head "yes".
Occipital bone - atlas
Match the following muscle action involving facial expression with its appropriate muscle: Sphincter muscle of the eyelids, which permits squinting and blinking.
Orbicularis oculi
Match the muscle with its correct origin and insertion: Temporalis.
Origin: temporal fossa Insertion: coronoid process of mandible
Identify the stage of long bone growth at the epiphyseal plate indicated by "E."
Ossification zone
Correctly match the term and definition: A degenerative condition most common in the elderly.
Osteoarthritis
are cells that build bone matrix.
Osteoblasts
Identify the muscle indicated by "B."
Rhomboid minor
Correctly match the definition and disorder: Common in those carrying a "large load up front," such as men with "potbellies" and pregnant women.
Temporary lordosis
Correctly match the following term: Coronoid process.
Ulna
Identify the inferred action of a muscle based upon the position of the muscle relative to the joint it crosses. The type of movement for "C" is __________.
a muscle that crosses on the posterior side of a joint produces extension
yellow marrow is useful as
a tissue that may revert back to red marrow if a person needs more red blood cells
Select the hormone that lowers blood calcium levels when administered at high pharmacological doses.
calcitonin
Which of the following have bone markings called trochanters?
femur only
In the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, the myofilaments slide over each other, resulting in the overlapping of actin and __________.
myosin
Which of the following bones do not contain a sinus? Sphenoid Nasal Maxillary Frontal
nasal
The condition known as a "fractured hip" is most often a break in the femur. Where is the femur particularly susceptible to a fracture?
neck
A molecule that carries information across a synaptic cleft is a
neurotransmitter -Neurotransmitter molecules carry information across a synaptic cleft.
The arrow in the figure is pointing to which of the following structures?
the epiphyseal plate During endochondral ossification, a distinct epiphyseal plate is formed at the boundary between primary and secondary ossification centers.
Where would a dentist inject lidocaine to prevent pain in the lower teeth?
the mandibular foramen (remeber the MENTAL foramen brings blood supply to the LIP)
Correctly match the following term: Pollex.
thumb
Which of the following adducts the hand?
Flexor carpi ulnaris
Correctly match the term and definition: Vertebral ribs.
Floating ribs
Select the statement that best describes most long bones at the time of birth.
..A bony diaphysis with a widening medullary cavity, and two cartilaginous epiphyses
Which energy source provides high yields of ATP necessary for prolonged-duration exercise? ATP is formed from creatine phosphate and ADP (direct phosphorylation). ATP is generated by breakdown of several nutrient energy fuels by the aerobic pathway. Glycogen stored in muscles is broken down to glucose, which is oxidized to generate ATP (anaerobic pathway). ATP stored in muscles
ATP is generated by breakdown of several nutrient energy fuels by the aerobic pathway.
Action potentials (nerve impulses) are changes in the membrane potential that, once started, will affect the entire excitable membrane. The first action potential is usually generated at the initial segment of the neuron's axon. This activity will test your understanding of the sequence of events that occur at the membrane of the initial segment of the axon during generation of an action potential. Place the events involved in generation of an action potential in the correct order of occurrence from left to right.
Action potentials are all-or-nothing events. Once an action potential is generated at the initial segment, it will continue to propagate (move) along the entire length of the axon.
Identify the type of movement of the upper limb at the shoulder as indicated by "B."
Adduction
In which of the labeled parts of the adult long bone would hematopoietic tissue be located?
B Hematopoietic tissue is found in the red bone marrow within certain body locations consisting of spongy bone. Examples include the diploe of flat bones and the proximal epiphyses of the femur and humerus (pictured).
Correctly match the following joint: Glenohumeral joint.
Ball-and-socket joint
Correctly match the term and definition: Intercostal.
Between Ribs
Match the action with its appropriate arm muscle name: Flexes forearm at elbow joint and supinates forearm.
Biceps brachii
Match the following protein with its action: Troponin.
Binds Ca2+ and starts the contraction cycle
Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "E."
Body
Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "B."
Body
Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Synchondrosis.
Bones united by plate of hyaline cartilage
Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Symphysis.
Bones united mainly by fibrocartilage
Identify the muscle indicated by "B."
Buccinator
The cross bridge cycle starts when _________.
Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin -The release of Ca2+ is triggered by the propagation of an action potential along a skeletal muscle fiber. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and into the sarcoplasm of the muscle fiber. When Ca2+ concentration is high in the sarcoplasm, Ca2+ binds to troponin causing change in its shape. This shape change alters the position of tropomyosin and moves it away from myosin binding sites on actin, thus allowing the myosin head to bind actin and form a cross bridge.
Identify the step of the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle indicated by "C."
Cross bridge detachment
Match the following term relating to a lever with its appropriate description or example: Second-class lever.
Effort applied at one end of the lever; the fulcrum located at the other; load between them
Match the following term relating to a lever with its appropriate description or example: Third-class lever.
Effort applied between the load and the fulcrum
Match the following term relating to a lever with its appropriate description or example: First-class lever.
Effort is applied at one end of the lever; the load at the other; fulcrum somewhere in between
Which of the following allows recoil of the muscle fiber when contraction ends? Thin filament (tropomyosin) Thin filament (actin) Thin filament (troponin) Elastic filament (titin) Thick filament (myosin)
Elastic filament (titin)
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Fulcrum.
Elbow joint
Correctly match the definition and term: Replacement of hyaline cartilage with bony tissue to form a bone.
Endochondral ossification
Identify the type of movement at the neck indicated by "C."
Flexion
Which of the following is true regarding bone remodeling? The entire skeleton is replaced about every five years. None of the listed responses is correct. Spongy bone is replaced about every year. Every year 5 to 10 percent of the skeleton is replaced. Compact bone is replaced every three to four years.
Every year 5 to 10 percent of the skeleton is replaced.
Excitation-contraction coupling is a series of events that occur after the events of the neuromuscular junction have transpired. The term excitation refers to which step in the process?
Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma. -Yes! These action potentials set off a series of events that lead to a contraction.
Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "D."
Excitation-contraction coupling occurs
Damage to which of the following muscles would hinder inspiration? Rectus abdominis Platysma External intercostals Erector spinae Quadratus lumborum
External intercostals
A narrow, slitlike opening in a bone is referred to as a __________.
FISSURE
Match the description to the appropriate term: Type of fibers that have few mitochondria.
Fast-glycolytic fibers
Match the description to the appropriate term: Type of muscle fibers that contract quickly and rely on aerobic respiration for ATP.
Fast-oxidative fibers
Match the muscle fiber to the appropriate characteristic: Fast glycolytic muscle fiber. Moderately fatigue resistant Fatigues quickly Fatigue resistant None of the listed responses is correct.
Fatigues quickly
Correctly match the following bone marking to its bone: Greater trochanter.
Femur
Correctly match the following term: Articulates with both the acetabulum and the tibia.
Femur
Select the muscle that is named for its size. Deltoid Temporalis Transversus abdominis Gluteus maximus Sternocleidomastoid
Gluteus maximus
Match the following component of a muscle fiber with its description: Area in the center of the A band containing only thick filaments. Z disc I band A band H zone
H band
Correctly match the bone of the upper limb with its description: Articulates with the scapula.
HUMERUS
Match the following: True ribs.
Have a direct sternal attachment via costal cartilage
Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "C."
Local depolarization (end plate potential) ignites AP in sarcolemma
Correctly match the term and definition: Bone that contains the infraorbital foramen.
Maxilla
Which of the following bone markings on the femur is a point of articulation between bones?
Medial Condyle
The flat surface of the tibia that articulates with the femur is the superior surface of which landmark?
Medial and lateral condyles
Match the muscle action involving mastication with its appropriate muscle name: Protracts the mandible and moves the mandible side to side.
Medial pterygoid
Determine the scenario that reduces the mass of a long bone.
Osteoclast activity is greater than osteoblast activity.
Match the description to the event in the generation and propagation of an action potential: Repolarization.
Restoring the sarcolemma to its initial polarized state (negative inside, positive outside)
Sesame seed-shaped bone formed in a tendon.
Sesamoid bone
Which of the following are inward invaginations of the sarcolemma that run deep into the cell between the terminal cisterns? Sarcomeres T tubules Striations Triads
T tubules
Which of the following are inward invaginations of the sarcolemma that run deep into the cell between the terminal cisterns? Triads T tubules Striations Sarcomeres
T tubules
Which of the following contributes to contractile force, but its primary function is to produce smooth, continuous muscle contractions?
Temporal summation
Identify the muscle indicated by "C."
Temporalis
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Effort. The resistance A rigid bar that moves on a fixed point The fixed point upon which a lever moves The applied force
The applied force
Which of the following factors contributes the most to the stability of the hip joint?
The deep socket that encloses the femoral head
In the sliding filament model of contraction, which of the following occurs when the muscle cell shortens? The I bands stay the same length. The A bands shorten. The distance between successive Z discs shortens. H zones appear.
The distance between successive Z discs shortens.
Which of the following muscles divides the neck into two triangles?
The sternocleidomastoid
Match the following term with the correct description: Refractory period.
The time when a fiber cannot be stimulated until repolarization is complete
Correctly match the synovial joint to its range of motion: Multiaxial.
Three planes
The jugular notch on the sternum is __________.
in line with the second and third thoracic vertebra, where the left common carotid artery is issued from the aorta
Match the following description of muscle contraction with the correct term: Contraction of muscle during which the tension continues to increase but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens.
isometric contraction
Correctly match the following term: Patella.
kneecap
A cleft palate arises when the right and left _____________ bones fail to fuse medially during fetal development.
maxillae
Correctly match the term and definition: Keystone bones of the face.
maxillae
When moving proximally from the toes, the set of bones after the phalanges are the
metatarsals.
Tubercle
small rounded projection or process
Match the following description to the appropriate type of muscle: Not subject to voluntary control, is nonstriated, and contractions are slow and sustained.
smooth muscle
Match the following description with the correct type of muscle: Striated and voluntary.
skeletal muscle
Which cranial bone spans the width of the cranial floor?
sphenoid
The "superstabilizer" of the shoulder joint is the __________.
tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii
Correctly match the definition and term: A hormone that modulates the activity of growth hormone, ensuring proper bone formation.
thyroid hormone
Identify the bone that articulates with the distal end of the femur.
tibia
Select the example of a resistance exercise. Swimming None of the listed responses is correct. Weight lifting Biking Running
weight lifting
You are counseling a patient with osteoporosis about strategies for avoiding fractures. Which of the following comments would NOT be appropriate? "You should avoid weight-bearing exercise and strength training because these types of exercise will further weaken your bones." "Be sure to consistently take any calcium and vitamin D supplements prescribed by your provider." "Weight-bearing exercises like walking and strength training for your muscles will help to strengthen your bones." "Adequate protein in your diet will help to keep your bones strong."
"You should avoid weight-bearing exercise and strength training because these types of exercise will further weaken your bones." Remember that Wolff's law states that bone density increases in response to mechanical stress. Appropriate activity is an essential component of the treatment for this condition.
Match the word to its correct meaning: Brachium. Short Right angles Triangle Arm Straight
Arm
Match the following function of bone to its description: Anchorage.
As a result, we can walk, grasp objects, and breathe
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Effort.
Biceps brachii
Graded muscle contractions are smooth and varying in strength as different needs are placed on them. How can muscle contractions be graded?
Both temporal summation and recruitment
A bimalleolar fracture is a common sports injury that affects the lateral malleolus and the medial malleolus. Which of the following does this fracture impact?
Both the tibia and fibula
Match the word to its correct meaning: Deltoid.
Triangle
Correctly match the description of the projection with its name: Large, rough, rounded projections.
Tuberosity
What is the relationship between the number of motor neurons recruited and the number of skeletal muscle fibers innervated?
Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron. -Yes! There are many more skeletal muscle fibers than there are motor neurons. The ratio of neurons to fibers varies from approximately one to ten to approximately one to thousands.
Correctly match the following terms: Transverse processes contain foramina. Cervical vertebrae C3-C7 None of the listed responses is correct. Thoracic vertebrae T1-T12 Lumbar vertebrae L1-L5
C3-C7 Cervical vertevrae
Identify the stage of long bone growth at the epiphyseal plate indicated by "D."
Calcification zone
What is the cause of rigor mortis?
Calcium influx and lack of ATP
The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "B" is __________.
Convergent
Which of the following is true? Bone resporption is slower than bone formation in old age. In about the second decade, bone mass increases with age. Bone formation exceeds bone resorption in young adults. Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density.
Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density.
Select the joint type that predominates in the appendicular skeleton.
Diarthroses
Individual vertebrae articulate with each other forming the vertebral column. Identify the part of a vertebra that articulates immediately with the vertebra below it.
Inferior articular processes
Identify the muscle indicated by "B."
Infraspinatus
Identify the muscle indicated by "F."
Infraspinatus
Trochanter.
Very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process
groove
a furrpw
Correctly match the definition and disorder: Dorsally exaggerated thoracic curvature, or "hunch back."
Kyphosis
Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "C."
Lamina
Identify the muscle indicated by "D."
Latissimus dorsi
Match the action with its appropriate muscle name: Extends, adducts, and rotates arm medially.
Latissimus dorsi
Match the following term with the correct description: Action potential.
Propagation of an electrical current along the sarcolemma
Which muscle flexes and rotates the lumbar region of the vertebral column? This muscle extends vertically from the lower sternum to the pubis.
Rectus abdominis
Match the following term with the correct description: Repolarization.
Restoration of the membrane potential to resting potential
Which of the following joint problems is the result of an autoimmune problem?
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) -In RA, the body's immune system attempts to destroy the tissues in the joints in an apparent case of "mistaken identity."
Identify the muscle indicated by "C."
Rhomboid major
What regions of the hip bones articulate to form a symphysis?
Right and left pubic bodies
Foramen.
Round or oval opening through a bone
Correctly match the definition and disorder: Abnormal lateral spinal curvature that occurs most often in the thoracic region, or "twisted disease."
Scoliosis
Which of the following statements about second-class levers is correct?
Second-class levers have great strength, but are slow and have little range of motion.
Select the correct description of the voltage-gated ion channels for a region of sarcolemma that is undergoing depolarization.
Sodium channels are open and potassium channels are closed
Match the action on the ankle/foot with its appropriate muscle: Plantar flexes foot and is important in posture.
Soleus
Which of the following describes the action of a heavy acrobat jumping onto the short end of a seesaw and propelling his lighter partner high into the air?
Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage
Identify the muscle indicated by "A."
Supraspinatus
Identify the muscle indicated by "E."
Supraspinatus
Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Epimysium.
Surrounds an entire muscle
Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Perimysium.
Surrounds each muscle bundle (fascicle)
Which of the following bones is most closely associated with the pituitary gland? The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone The styloid process of the temporal bone The zygomatic process of the temporal bone The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
A slightly movable joint is a(n) __________.
amphiarthrosis
The bones in the long axis of the body make up the __________.
axial skeleton
Lyme disease is an inflammatory disease caused by __________.
bacteria transmitted by tick bites
Acetylcholinesterase __________.
breaks down acetylcholine
Hydroxyapatites in bone matrix that give bone its hardness are primarily composed of __________.
calcium phosphates
Match the following description with the appropriate type of muscle: Usually contracts at a fairly steady rate and can contract without stimulation from the nervous system.
cardiac muscle
Match the following description with the correct type of muscle: Striated and involuntary
cardiac muscle
Correctly match the following term: Triquetrum.
carpal bone
Correctly match the following: Capitate.
carpal bone
Match the following: Bones united by cartilage.
cartilaginous joint
Identify the part of the ethmoid bone indicated by "A."
crista galli
Correctly match the term and definition: Displacement of a bone from its normal position at a joint.
dislocation
The prefix acro- means end or tip.
end or tip.
Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "D."
external acoustic meatus
The hip bone is part of the axial skeleton.
false
The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines.
false
Which bone articulates in the acetabulum?
femur
In a(n) __________, the vertebral column is formed from 33 separate bones.
fetus
Correctly match the term and definition: A movement permitted by the elbow joint.
flexion
Decreasing the angle between bones in the sagittal plane is called __________.
flexion
The linking of thick and thin filaments together is called _____________.
forming a cross bridge
The term "nonaxial movement" means __________.
gliding movements only
Correctly match the description of the bony projection with its name: Bony expansion carried on a narrow neck.
head
Identify the region of the femur that forms part of the hip joint.
head
Correctly match the following: Calcaneus
heel bone
Blood cells are formed by the process of
hematopoiesis.
Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "E."
hinge joint
Match the description to the correct zone in longitudinal growth of a long bone: Older cartilage cells enlarge.
hypertrophic zone
The ridge like superior edge of the ilium is known as the _____.
iliac crest
The prime mover for flexion of the thigh is the __________ muscle.
iliopsoas
The female pelvis __________.
is tilted anteriorly (forward) compared to a male pelvis
The prefix ischi- means
ischium or hip joint.
Tibia and fibia are parts of the
leg
A
long bone
Identify the anatomical landmark resulting in a noticeable bump found on the medial surface of the ankle.
medial malleolus
Correctly match the bone of the upper limb with its description: Bones of the palm of your hand
metacarpals
Complete the following sentence. The operation of the Na+−K+ ATPase pump __________.
moves 3 Na+ to the ECF and 2 K+ to the cytoplasm -The pumps move more Na+ than K+, which counteracts the effect of the membrane's being more permeable to K+ (more K+ leak channels than Na+).
Bone is broken down by __________.
osteoclasts
Correctly match the term and definition: Forms the posterior hard palate.
palatine bone
When Ca2+ concentration in the blood becomes lower than normal, __________.
parathyroid hormone is released
The extensor digitorum muscle is an example of a __________ muscle.
pennate
The connective tissue membrane that encloses a bone is the.
periosteum
Identify the part of the ethmoid bone indicated by "D."
perpendicular plate
Correctly match the following term: Bones that form the fingers and toes.
phalanges
Match the following: Sphenoid bone encloses the
pituitary
Correctly match the following joint: Proximal radioulnar joint.
pivot joint
Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "F."
pivot joint
Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "D."
plane joint
Part complete You are working on a new medication to selectively kill cancer cells. You test the drug on a culture of normal neurons to check for any side effects. Despite the presence of the drug, a normal resting membrane potential of −70 mV is maintained. Look at each of the figures below to analyze how the drug might be affecting the neuron. Figure A shows neuron activity under normal, or control, conditions (without the drug). Figure B shows neuron activity that has been altered due to exposure to the drug. Based on these results, the drug is most likely __________.
preventing Na+-gated channels from opening
Correctly match the description to the structure of synovial joints: Can be intracapsular or extracapsular.
reinforcing ligaments
The refractory period in which the muscle will not contract if stimulated occurs during __________ of the muscle cell.
repolarization
Osteoid-producing osteoblasts must rely on this organelle to produce primary structures leading to the formation of collagen and calcium-binding proteins.
ribosomes
Match the word to its correct meaning: Transversus.
right angles
Correctly match the following: Shaking your head "no." Flexion Depression Rotation Elevation
rotation
Correctly match the term and definition: Movement permitted by the atlantoaxial joint.
rotation
Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "A."
sacral canal
What region of the vertebral column does the hip bone articulate with?
sacral region
Myofibrils are composed of repeating contractile elements called __________.
sarcomeres
Which of the following spinal deformities is quite common during late childhood in females?
scoliosis
Identify the region of the sphenoid bone in contact with the pituitary gland.
sella turcica
The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the __________ joint.
shoulder
The rotator cuff is part of what joint?
shoulder
Which joint has most notably sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement?
shoulder -In the shoulder joint, stability has been sacrificed to provide the most freely moving joint in the body. The articulating bones provide minimal joint stability because of the size and "fit" of the articulating surfaces. The major stabilizing forces are soft tissue, in particular the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles (via muscle tone).
Correctly match the following term: Scapula.
shoulder blade (carl- "MY SCAPULA")
What factor does not contribute to the strength and stability of a synovial joint?
synovial fluid
Correctly match the following joints: Diarthrosis.
synovial joint
Match the following: Adjoining bones are covered with articular cartilage; a joint cavity is present.
synovial joint
Which of the following has a joint cavity? Synovial joint All of these choices have joint cavities. Cartilaginous joint Fibrous joint
synovial joint
Correctly match the following: Bursa.
synovial sac
When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the __________.
talus and calcaneus
Correctly match the following term: Cuboid.
tarsal bone
Correctly match the term and location: Mastoid process.
temporal
Chewing involves the __________ joint.
temporomandibular
If a muscle is applied to a load that exceeds the muscle's maximum tension, __________.
the muscle length will not change during contraction
If a signal from a sending neuron makes the receiving neuron more negative inside,
the receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential. -If the receiving neuron is more negative inside, it is less likely to generate an action potential.
When calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal,
they cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.
The __________ is the prime mover of dorsiflexion of the foot.
tibialis anterior
The term that means a continued mild or partial contraction of a muscle that keeps it healthy and ready to respond is muscle __________.
tone
Which choice best characterizes K+ leakage channels?
transmembrane protein channels that are always open to allow K+ to cross the membrane without the additional input of energy
What is name given to the regularly spaced infoldings of the sarcolemma?
transverse or T tubules -Yes! T tubules penetrate a skeletal muscle fiber and provide a pathway for excitation into the interior.
Identify the landmark that is unique to the femur.
trochanter
Correctly match the following: Pronation.
turning your palm down
Match the following description of muscle action with the correct term: Type of contraction represented by a single stimulus/contraction/relaxation sequence.
twitch
The olecranon would be found on the __________.
ulna
Correctly match the bone type with its example: Irregular bone.
vertebra of the spinal columnb
Correctly match the following terms: Part of the nasal septum.
vomer
Which bone does not form a part of the orbits of the eyes? Vomer Maxilla Ethmoid Frontal Lacrimal
vomer
Which of the following is a facial bone?
vomer
Correctly match the following terms: Forms the cheek and part of the orbit.
zygomatic process
Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "B."
zygomatic process
Select the statement that best describes most long bones at the time of birth. Ossification is complete and hyaline cartilage is restricted to the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages. A bony diaphysis with a widening medullary cavity, and two cartilaginous epiphyses The epiphyses consist solely of hyaline cartilage and a bone collar surrounds the diaphysis. The epiphyses contain secondary ossification centers and the diaphysis is filled with spongy bone.
A bony diaphysis with a widening medullary cavity, and two cartilaginous epiphyses
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Lever.
A rigid bar that moves on a fixed point
Match the type of cartilage to its correct description: Fibrocartilage.
Able to withstand heavy loads and absorb shock
What do floating ribs lack?
Anterior attachments
Correctly match the following term: The wrist bones.
Carpals
All of the following belong to the thoracic cage, except __________. thoracic vertebrae costal cartilages sternum All of the choices belong to the thoracic cage. clavicles
Clavicles
Which of the following is characterized by a ruptured anulus fibrosis?
Herniated disc
Correctly match the term and definition: Movement that increases the angle between two bones along the sagittal plane beyond the anatomical position.
Hyperextension
What changes occur to voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels at the peak of depolarization?
Inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels close, while activation gates of voltage-gated K+ channels open. -Yes! Closing of voltage-gated channels is time dependent. Typically, the inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels close about a millisecond after the activation gates open. At the same time, the activation gates of voltage-gated K+ channels open.
Which landmark of the hip bone can be felt on a hard chair?
Ischial tuberosity
Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "A."
Ligament
Match the muscle function to its description: Making one tiny adjustment after another to counteract the never-ending downward pull of gravity.
Maintaining posture
Part complete The concentrations of which two ions are highest outside the cell?
Na+ and Cl−
Babies are often born with a slightly misshapen head that corrects itself over time. However, in some children suffering from craniosynostosis, the sutures fuse too early and either surgical intervention or corrective helmets must be worn to help correct the problem. Which set of sutures would most likely be affected if the child's head was too short in the anterior-posterior dimension and too tall in the forehead region?
The coronal sutures -These large sutures separating the frontal and parietal bones allow for normal anterior-posterior growth of the infant's skull.
Which mechanism allows the rabies virus to gain access to the central nervous system (CNS)?
The rabies virus uses retrograde movement along the neuronal axon. -Once the rabies virus enters the tissue via a bite, the viral particles use the normal retrograde movement along the axons of the peripheral nervous system to move "upstream" to the CNS.
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Load.
The resistance
Which of the following contributes to the instability of the shoulder joint?
The small size of the glenoid cavity compared to the head of the humerus
Identify a lateral projection of a vertebra. Superior articular process Lamina Spinous process Transverse process
Transverse Process
Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "A."
Transverse costal facet
Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "B."
Transverse process
Select the muscle that belongs to the quadriceps femoris of the anterior compartment of the thigh.
Vastus medialis
Mary fractured her pisiform bone in a fall. What part of her body was injured?
Wrist
Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "C."
Xiphoid Process
Match the following description of muscles that move the head and trunk with its appropriate name: Composite muscle forming part of the deep layer of intrinsic back muscles, located along the back from thoracic region to head.
YOU WERE SURE AND CORRECT Semispinalis capitis, cervicis, and thoracis
Osteoarthritis is considered __________.
a degenerative joint disease, or "wear-and-tear arthritis"
Myasthenia gravis is a disease resulting from an autoimmune attack on the ACh receptors of the motor end plate. Binding of antibodies to the ACh receptors results in generalized muscle weakness that progresses as more ACh receptors are destroyed. Which of the following medications would help alleviate the muscle weakness?
a drug that binds to and inactivates acetylcholinesterase (neostigmine) -The progressive destruction of ACh receptors leads to a progressive decline in the strength of end-plate potentials. To counteract this problem, drug therapy focuses on increasing the concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft. Drugs that bind to acetylcholinesterase and prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine can help restore some muscle strength by allowing acetylcholine to interact with the ACh receptors longer. Neostigmine is one such drug and is used to treat myasthenia gravis.
A muscle that assists the muscle primarily responsible for a given action is __________.
a synergist
Where does 95% of the energy needed for contraction come from during moderate exercise?
aerobic respiration
The prefix meta- means
after, along, or behind.
The __________ assists the triceps brachii in forearm extension.
anconeus
Yes! The large diameter facilitates the flow of depolarizing current through the cytoplasm. The myelin sheath insulates the axons and prevents current from leaking across the plasma membrane.
anterograde transport -This transport mechanism defines movement of material from the cell body (soma) of a neuron toward the axon terminals (synaptic knobs).
What is the name of the first cervical vertebra?
atlas
What is the name of the second cervical vertebra?
axis
Which structure is seen at the arrow?
bone collar
Flattened fibrous sacs that reduce friction between adjacent structures are called __________.
bursae
"Water on the knee" is caused by __________.
bursitis of the prepatellar bursa
Sinus.
cavity within a bone
Which ligaments prevent backward displacement of the tibia or forward sliding of the femur?
cruciate
The major abductor muscle of the upper arm is the __________.
deltoid
Match the following: False ribs.
do not have a direct sternal attachment
Match the functional characteristic of muscle with the appropriate descriptive term: Ability of a muscle to resume its resting length after being stretched.
elasticity
Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the __________. pubis femur os coxae ischium ilium
femur
The gluteal tuberosity is a bone marking found on the __________.
femur
Identify the paranasal sinus indicated by "A."
frontal sinuses
Correctly match the following term: Hallux.
great toe
Correctly match the following joint: Interphalangeal joint.
hinge joint
The external intercostal muscles are used primarily in __________.
inhalation
Bone class of B
irregular bone
A bone disorder that affects adults and has symptoms that are similar to rickets is called __________.
osteomalacia
All of the following belong to spongy bone, except __________. osteons osteocytes canaliculi lamellae trabeculae
osteons
The pectoral girdle does not quite satisfy the features of a true girdle because __________.
posteriorly the medial ends of the scapulae do not join each other
Osteoporosis occurs most often in ____________________.
postmenopausal women
Correctly match the term and description: Diaphysis.
primary ossification center
Correctly match the term and definition: The movement of a body part forward in a transverse plane.
protraction
The functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber is the __________.
sarcomere
bone class D
short bone
nasal cartilage
supports external nose
The hole above the eye orbit is the
supraorbital foramen.
A joint between skull bones is called a __________.
suture
This joint is more likely to dislocate than any other joint.
the jaw, TMJ
Correctly match the following: Supination.
turning palm up
Correctly match the following: Eversion.
turning the sole of the foot laterally
Correctly match the following: Inversion.
turning the sole of the foot medially
Match the word to its correct meaning: Carpi.
wrist
The bones of the skeleton store energy reserves as fat in __________.
yellow marrow
Your patient is returning for follow-up 6 weeks after sustaining a nondisplaced fracture of his radius. He tells you that his forearm is no longer painful, but he is concerned that he can palpate a "lump" in the bone at the site of the healing fracture. What is your response? "That lump may be a sign of infection. We need to obtain cultures from the site." "The lump means that the fracture was not set properly. I'm concerned that the ends of the fracture aren't properly aligned." "I'm concerned that your bone is not healing properly. Let's ask the doctor about doing some X-rays." "That bump is a normal part of bone healing at this stage. As your body completes the process, the cells in your bone will gradually remodel it to its previous shape."
"That bump is a normal part of bone healing at this stage. As your body completes the process, the cells in your bone will gradually remodel it to its previous shape."
Remember Liliana from the Clinical Case Study in Chapter 5? After we last heard about her she was admitted for further treatment. Relative to her skeletal system, the following notes have been added to her chart. Fracture of superior right tibia (shinbone); 3.5-cm laceration where bone protrudes. Area cleaned and the bone subjected to internal (open) reduction. Cast applied. Nutrient artery of tibia damaged. Medial meniscus (fibrocartilage disc) of right knee joint crushed; knee joint inflamed, swollen, and painful. You're talking with Liliana before her release from the hospital. Which of her statements indicates the need for further patient education? "Will the doctor have my vitamin D levels tested?" "My parathyroids are really important for maintaining my bones!" "The only supplement I should need would be calcium, so I will take a calcium supplement every morning." "At last I have an excuse for taking walks outside in the sun!" Previous Answers Correct Liliana needs to know that to absorb the calcium from those supplements, she will require vitamin D.
"The only supplement I should need would be calcium, so I will take a calcium supplement every morning." Liliana needs to know that to absorb the calcium from those supplements, she will require vitamin D.
Cl− is a common, negatively charged extracellular ion. Predict the effect on the RMP if many Cl− gated channels are suddenly opened
A more negative RMP would result. -Correct! Cl− is negatively charged and has a higher concentration in the ECF. The opening of Cl− channels would allow more negative charge to attempt to enter the cytoplasm. If the cell's normal RMP were -70mV, it would now become more negative. The farther away the RMP is from zero, either in the positive or in the negative direction, the greater the separation of charges is. This is called hyperpolarization. When the RMP moves closer to 0 mV, depolarization occurs.Congratulations! You've successfully examined the construction of the resting membrane potential, an important concept in any human cell.
Which of the following movements is an example of circumduction movement?
A pitcher winding up to throw the ball
Which of the following choices best summarizes excitation-contraction coupling?
A series of events in which an electrical stimulus is conveyed to a muscle fiber to enact contraction -Congratulations! You have completed the final activity in this tutorial. The tutorial covered the sequence of events in excitation-contraction coupling that links the excitation of the membrane to the cross bridge cycling of the contracting proteins. Great job!
A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. How are these components connected?
A series of proteins that control calcium release. -Yes! When action potentials propagate along T-tubules, a voltage-sensitive protein changes shape and triggers a different protein to open it's channels, resulting in the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae.
Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "A."
ACh released; binds to receptors on sarcolemma.
Which of the following characteristics is unique to smooth muscle? Consists of elongated cells Individual cells are called fibers. Absence of striations Involuntarily controlled
Absence of striations
Identify the part of thick or thin filaments in skeletal muscle indicated by "D."
Actin subunits
Identify the step in excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle indicated by "A."
Action potential is propagated along the sarcolemma and down the T tubules.
Select the muscle that belongs to the medial compartment of the thigh.
Adductor longus
Match the functional group classification with the description: The muscles that perform most of the action in producing the movement. Synergists Agonists Fixators Antagonists
Agonists
The resting membrane potential is dependent upon two important factors: 1) differences in sodium and potassium concentrations across the membrane (electrochemical gradients) and 2) differences in sodium and potassium membrane permeability. This activity will help you to review how the resting membrane potential of cells are generated and maintained. Use the provided ions to correctly complete each sentence about the resting membrane potential. Ions may be used more than once, or not at all.
All living cells have a membrane potential that varies depending on its cellular activities.
Consider how the action potential that initiates contraction is delivered to the muscle cell. Which of the choices below correctly describes how an action potential generated at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is converted to excitation in the muscle fiber?
An action potential in the motor neuron causes ACh to be released into the synaptic cleft. Binding of ACh to sarcolemma receptors initiates graded potentials. -Yes! An action potential traveling down a motor neuron arrives at the axon terminal and causes exocytosis of the neurotransmitter ACh into the synaptic cleft. ACh diffuses into the synaptic cleft, binds to the receptor proteins on the junctional folds of the muscle sarcolemma (motor end plate), and initiates graded potentials. These graded potentials sum to an action potential, thus initiating excitement of the muscle fiber.
Match the following muscle action with its appropriate term: Muscles that relax when the prime mover and synergists are contracting.
Antagonists
Select the muscle compartment that flexes the wrist and fingers.
Anterior compartment of forearm
Correctly match the ligaments to their function: Prevent forward sliding of the tibia and checks hyperextension of the knee
Anterior cruciate ligaments
Identify the muscle indicated by "C."
Anterior scalene
Cartilage can grow in which of the following ways?
Appositional growth and interstitial growth
The occipital bone articulates with which of the following bones?
Atlas
Correctly match the following terms: Dens.
Axis (C2)
Match the following area with the correct term: Contains vesicles filled with acetylcholine.
Axon terminal
Match the action on the leg/knee joint with its appropriate muscle: Flexes and laterally rotates leg at knee.
Biceps femoris
Select the muscle that belongs to the hamstrings of the posterior thigh.
Biceps femoris
Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Syndesmoses.
Bones connected exclusively by ligaments
Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Sutures.
Bony edges interlocked by short fibers
Botulism and myasthenia gravis are conditions that cause muscle weakness. Which of these statements is NOT true?
Both conditions are caused by an inability of the body to produce adequate acetylcholine. -Although both conditions affect normal activity at the neuromuscular junction, failure to produce acetylcholine is not the mechanism.
Which selection correctly describes the role of calcium in coupling?
Calcium binds to troponin, which moves tropomyosin and exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin. -The thin filament in a sarcomere is composed of actin, troponin, and tropomyosin. Troponin and tropomyosin are attached to one another, both overlaying actin. When a muscle is relaxed, tropomyosin blocks actin's myosin-binding sites. Calcium binds to troponin, initiating a shape change that removes the blocking action of tropomyosin. This exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin to the myosin heads for cross bridging.
Which of the following provides the final "go signal" for contraction? Acetylcholine Sodium ions Muscle action potential Myosin cross bridges Calcium ions
Calcium ions
Which of the following is most directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction of skeletal muscle fibers?
Calcium ions. -Yes! Action potentials propagating down the T-tubule cause a voltage-sensitive protein to change shape. This shape change opens calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing calcium ions to flood the sarcoplasm. This flood of calcium ions is directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction in skeletal muscle fibers.
Excitation of the sarcolemma is coupled or linked to the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. What specific event initiates the contraction?
Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction. -Yes! Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the specific name given to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. It is especially abundant and convoluted in skeletal muscle cells. It functions in the storage, release, and reuptake of calcium ions.
The hip bones join anteriorly at the pubic symphysis joint. During pregnancy, this joint loosens to provide a little movement. Select the correct classification of this joint. Synovial and amphiarthrosis Unselected Synovial and diarthrosis Unselected Cartilaginous and diarthrosis Unselected Cartilaginous and amphiarthrosis
Cartilaginous and amphiarthrosis
The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "A" is __________.
Circular
Correctly match the following term to this descriptor: Doubly curved and acts as a shoulder brace.
Clavicle
Match the following fascicle arrangement with its appropriate power generation or description: Circular.
Close body openings by contracting
Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "D."
Coccyx
Identify the region of the vertebral column indicated by "E."
Coccyx
Identify the step of the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle indicated by "D."
Cocking of the myosin head
Match the description to the correct answer regarding bone tissue: Major organic fiber of bone.
Collagen
What element of fibrous joints gives the joint its ability to resist stretching and control the amount of movement at the joint?
Collagen fibers
Match the following description of muscle contraction with the correct term: The muscle shortens and does work.
Concentric contraction
Which type of contraction involves a muscle shortening and doing work, for example picking up a book?
Concentric isotonic contraction
What type of conduction takes place in unmyelinated axons?
Continuous conduction -Yes! An action potential is conducted continuously along an unmyelinated axon from its initial segment to the axon terminals. The term continuous refers to the fact that the action potential is regenerated when voltage-gated Na+ channels open in every consecutive segment of the axon, not at nodes of Ranvier.
Select the characteristic of muscle tissue that sets it apart from all other tissue types. Contractility Excitability Responsiveness Elasticity
Contractility
Select the characteristic of muscle tissue that sets it apart from all other tissue types. Elasticity Responsiveness Excitability Contractility
Contractility
Select the characteristic of muscle tissue that sets it apart from all other tissue types. Responsiveness Excitability Contractility Elasticity
Contractility
Identify the process on the scapula that does not articulate with another bone.
Coracoid process
Click and drag the description of the part of the excitation-contraction coupling to the correct order of occurrence from left to right. Do not overlap any steps.
Coupling begins with an action potential after the arrival of ACh and graded potentials, and it ends before cross bridge cycling.
Match the following: Articular cartilages.
Cover the ends of most bones at moveable joints
A person dies, and within hours, the skeletal muscles develop a locked contraction known as rigor mortis. Calcium ions leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into cytoplasm. From your knowledge of cross bridge cycling, what best explains this rigor?
Cross bridge detachment cannot occur. Detachment requires ATP, which is produced only during life. -After ATP attaches to the myosin head, the bond between actin and myosin is weakened and the cross bridge breaks.
Match the following chemical with its function: Calmodulin. Neurotransmitter released into the neuromuscular junction Released by terminal cisternae into the sarcoplasm to bind with troponin Cytoplasmic, calcium-binding protein Enzyme released into neuromuscular junction to break down acetylcholine
Cytoplasmic, calcium-binding protein
What would occur if a muscle became totally depleted of ATP? Muscle fatigue Muscle relaxation due to an inability to sustain actin-myosin cross bridges. Death of muscle cells and rigor mortis All of the listed responses are correct.
Death of muscle cells and rigor mortis
Select the muscle that is named for its shape. Deltoid Gluteus maximus Transversus abdominis Temporalis Adductor longus
Deltoid
Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle? Infraspinatus Deltoid Subscapularis Teres minor
Deltoid
Match the following term with the correct description: End plate potential.
Depolarization occurring only at the neuromuscular junction
Which of the following is true? Bone formation exceeds bone resorption in young adults. In about the second decade, bone mass increases with age. Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density. Bone resporption is slower than bone formation in old age.
Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density.
In a car accident, the injuries to the driver include a fractured femur. Part of the broken end of the diaphysis of the femur is visibly penetrating through the skin in the thigh area. Which of the following properly classifies this fracture?
Displaced, complete, open (compound)
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Load. Biceps brachii Elbow joint Distal end of forearm, hand Radius
Distal end of forearm, hand
Match the following description of muscle contraction with the correct term: Contraction of muscle in which the muscle generates force as it lengthens.
Eccentric contraction
Match the following chemical with its function: Acetylcholinesterase.
Enzyme released into neuromuscular junction to break down acetylcholine
People who have hydrocephaly often have an issue with which of these glial cell types?
Ependymal cells -These cells are responsible for the production and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid, and if they are overactive, it can lead to hydrocephaly.
Identify the structure indicated by "A" in this photomicrograph of a cross section of part of a skeletal muscle.
Epimysium
Identify the stage of endochondral ossification indicated by "E."
Epiphyses ossify; hyaline cartilage remains only in epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages.
A patient is brought to the trauma center with head and facial injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. You note a constant flow of clear fluid from her nose. Which bone may be fractured?
Ethmoid
Correctly match the term and definition: Superior and middle nasal conchae are part of this bone.
Ethmoid
Correctly match the term and definition: Vertebrochondral.
False Ribs
Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "D."
False Ribs
Which of the following statements about smooth muscle is true? Smooth muscle is striated and involuntary. Contractions are rapid and forceful. Nuclei are peripherally located in the fibers. Smooth muscle has branching fibers. Fibers are small and spindle-shaped.
Fibers are small and spindle-shaped.
Correctly match the following: Meniscus. Muscle to bone attachment Synovial sac Fibrocartilage disc Bone to bone attachment
Fibrocartilage disc
Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Bone that has the lateral malleolus
Fibula
On a busy orthopedic service, you encounter several patients, each of whom has broken a different bone in the lower extremity. Which complete fracture will probably allow the earliest resumption of normal walking?
Fibular Because the fibula's role is to brace and support the tibia, but not to bear weight, a patient with this fracture may be allowed to bear weight early.
Correctly match the ligaments to their function: Prevent lateral or medial rotation when the knee is extended.
Fibular and tibial collateral ligaments
Match the action on the ankle/foot with its appropriate muscle: Plantar flexes and everts the foot.
Fibularis (peroneus) longus and brevis
Identify the general class of bone indicated by "C."
Flat bone
Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "E."
Floating R
Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis.
Head of Femur
Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "D."
Head of Rib
Select the correct sequence of fracture repair steps. Hematoma forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bony callus forms, bone remodeling occurs Hematoma forms, bony callus forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bone remodeling occurs Fibrocartilaginous callus forms, hematoma forms, bony callus forms, bone remodeling occurs Fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bony callus forms, hematoma forms, bone remodeling occurs Hematoma forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bone remodeling occurs, bony callus forms
Hematoma forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bony callus forms, bone remodeling occurs
Which function of bone tissue occurs in the red bone marrow?
Hematopoiesis
Which of the following statements is true? Because calcium causes neurotransmitter release, excessive calcium will lead to hyperexcitability. Because calcium causes neurotransmitter release, too little calcium causes non-responsiveness. Sustained decreases in calcium can lead to kidney stones. Hypocalcemia leads to hyperexcitability.
Hypocalcemia leads to hyperexcitability.
Which of the following is the largest region of the hip bone?
Ilium
Which region of the hip bone articulates with the sacrum?
Ilium
Correctly match the following term: Pelvic girdle bone of the appendicular skeleton that articulates with the axial skeleton.
Illium
Match the description to the event in the generation and propagation of an action potential: Propagation of the action potential.
Increased positive charge inside sarcolemma changes permeability of adjacent areas, opening voltage-regulated Na+ channels
Which of the following structures would not be found within a vertebral foramen? Spinal nerve roots Spinal cord Dura mater Intervertebral discs
Intervertebral discs Submit
The action potential propagates along the sarcolemma. As the action potential spreads down the T tubules of the triads, voltage-sensitive tubule proteins change shape. How does the shape change of these proteins lead to contraction?
It allows calcium to exit the sarcoplasmic reticulum and enter the cytosol. -As the action potential propagates, it changes the shape of T tubule proteins. These proteins are linked to calcium channels in the terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. When these proteins' calcium channels open, a massive amount of calcium flows into the cytosol.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscle? It can contract for long periods of time without tiring. It is voluntary. It contracts rapidly. It can exert tremendous power.
It can contract for long periods of time without tiring.
Identify the friction-reducing structure associated with synovial joints indicated by "C."
Joint cavity containing synovial fluid
Of all body joints, what joint is most susceptible to sports injuries?
KNEE
Correctly match the following: Patella.
Kneecap
Which bone is NOT considered to be part of the cranium? Ethmoid bone Sphenoid bone Occipital bone Lacrimal bone
Lacrimal Bone
What is the term for the layers of bony matrix surrounding the vessels and nerve?
Lamellae
Identify the muscle indicated by "D."
Levator scapulae
Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Deep fascia.
Lies between neighboring muscles
Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Elongated-ridge on posterior of femur.
Linea aspera
Identify the landmark found on the diaphysis of the femur.
Linea aspera
Often several criteria are combined in a naming a muscle. Which of the following is not described in the name extensor carpi radialis longus? Muscle location Muscle action Location of the muscle origin Muscle size
Location of the muscle origin
Correctly match the definition and disorder: An accentuated lumbar curvature, or swayback.
Lordosis
People with multiple sclerosis (MS) experience many challenging symptoms. Which statement best explains one cause of these difficulties?
Loss of oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system results in absence of the myelin sheath of neuronal axons, impairing rapid saltatory conduction. -The oligodendrocytes of the central nervous system provide axonal myelin sheaths, which increases the speed of conduction of action potentials. The loss of myelin inhibits this conduction in MS and other demyelinating disorders.
The vertebrae that are characterized by having enhanced weight-bearing capability are the __________.
Lumbar
Which of the following landmarks can be found on both the tibia and fibula?
Malleoli
Osteoblasts release which of the following?
Matrix vesicles studded with the enzyme alkaline phosphatase
Identify the best description for the location of the head of the femur.
Medial and proximal
Correctly match the bone and location: Ulna.
Medial forearm
Which of the following is true with respect to hyaline cartilage? Located in the external ear and epiglottis Surrounded by periosteum Most abundant skeletal cartilage Highly compressible with great tensile strength
Most abundant skeletal cartilage
What structure most directly stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber to contract?
Motor neuron -The motor neuron transmits action potentials from the brain or spinal cord to muscle fibers by releasing acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "B."
Motor neuron stimulates muscle fiber
Which of the following is a special adaptation present in skeletal muscle cells, but absent in most other cells? Muscle cells have mitochondria; most other cells do not. Muscle cells use ATP to do work; most other cells do not. Muscle cells have myoglobin; most other cells do not. Muscle cells have a nucleus; most other cells do not.
Muscle cells have myoglobin; most other cells do not.
Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that destroys acetylcholine receptors?
Myasthenia gravis
In which type of axon will velocity of action potential conduction be the fastest?
Myelinated axons with the largest diameter -Yes! The large diameter facilitates the flow of depolarizing current through the cytoplasm. The myelin sheath insulates the axons and prevents current from leaking across the plasma membrane.
Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Rodlike contractile element within a muscle fiber containing myofilaments. Sarcoplasmic reticulum Myofibril Sarcolemma Sarcoplasm
Myofibfril
Match the following muscle chemical with the correct name: Oxygen storage molecule in skeletal muscle.
Myoglobin
"Cross bridges" that link between the thick and thin filaments directly involve__________.
Myosin
Which selection best describes the initial event in contraction?
Myosin heads bind to the newly exposed myosin-binding sites on actin to form cross bridges. -Contraction begins when myosin binds to actin and forms cross bridges.
Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "C."
Neck Of Rib
Identify the muscle indicated by "A."
Orbicularis oris
is a disease in which bones lose mass and strength, becoming brittle.
Osteoporosis
Correctly match the term and description: Bone stem cell.
Osteoprogenitor cell
Which bone disorder is characterized by excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption?
Paget's disease
Which of the following bone disorders is not treatable with increased calcium and vitamin D? Rickets Osteomalacia Osteoporosis All of the choices are treated with increased calcium and vitamin D. Paget's disease
Paget's disease
The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "D" is __________.
Parallel
The hormonal control of bone remodeling primarily involves which of the following?
Parathyroid Bone
Match the thigh/leg movement with its appropriate muscle name: Flexes and adducts thigh.
Pectineus
Which of the following is part of the appendicular division of the skeletal system? Skull Hyoid bone Vertebral column Auditory ossicles Pectoral girdle
Pectoral girdle
Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "D."
Pedicle
The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "E" is __________.
Pennate
Identify structure indicated by "B" in this photomicrograph of a cross section of part of a skeletal muscle.
Perimysium
Correctly match the definition and term: Fibrous connective tissue membrane that covers the outer surface of long bone.
Periosteum
Select the muscle of facial expression that tenses the neck. Mentalis Corrugator supercilii Zygomaticus major Platysma
Platysma
Identify the part of thick or thin filaments in skeletal muscle indicated by "A."
Portion of a thick filament
Correctly match the ligaments to their function: Prevent backward displacement of the tibia or forward sliding of the femur.
Posterior cruciate ligaments
Which of the following describes the action of using a pry bar to move a heavy rock? Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage Power lever working at a mechanical advantage Speed lever working at a mechanical advantage Power lever working at a mechanical disadvantage
Power lever working at a mechanical advantage
Identify the stage of long bone growth at the epiphyseal plate indicated by "B."
Proliferation zone
Match the description to the correct zone in longitudinal growth of a long bone: Cartilage cells undergo mitosis.
Proliferation zone
Match the thigh/leg movement with its appropriate muscle name: Rotates thigh laterally and stabilizes hip joint.
Quadratus femoris
Correctly match the following term: Articulates with the capitulum of the humerus.
Radius
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Lever.
Radius
Match the action on the leg/knee joint with its appropriate muscle: Extends leg at knee and flexes thigh at hip.
Rectus femoris
Inadequate calcium in the neuromuscular junction would directly affect which of the following processes?
Release of acetylcholine from the synaptic vesicles -Calcium ions enter the axon terminal when voltage-gated calcium channels open in response to the arrival of an action potential. The presence of calcium causes synaptic vesicles to release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
Match the following chemical with its function: Ca2+.
Released by terminal cisternae into the sarcoplasm to bind with troponin
Select the muscle that is sometimes called the "boxer's muscle" because its actions include horizontal arm movements used for pushing and punching.
Serratus anterior
Correctly match the description of the projection with its name: Spine.
Sharp, slender, often pointed projection
Select the description of an aponeurosis. Rope-like indirect attachment that anchors a muscle Sheet-like indirect attachment that anchors a muscle Muscle area that moves towards the less movable bone Direct attachment between muscle and bone
Sheet-like indirect attachment that anchors a muscle
Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activities best-suited for fast-glycolytic fibers.
Short-term intense movements
Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activities best-suited for fast-glycolytic fibers. Endurance-type activities Sprinting, walking None of the listed responses is correct. Short-term intense movements
Short-term intense movements
Dislocation of a joint is a common orthopedic problem. Which of these joints is MOST likely to be dislocated?
Shoulder (glenohumeral) -The articulation between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity allows for maximum flexibility but sacrifices stability.
Correctly match the term and description: Epiphyseal plate.
Site of length increase in long bones
Which of the following muscle types is both voluntary and striated? Smooth muscle only Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle only Skeletal muscle only
Skeletal muscle only
Match the description to the appropriate term: Type of muscle fibers that are most resistant to fatigue.
Slow-oxidative fibers
Select the correct description of the voltage-gated ion channels for a region of sarcolemma that is undergoing repolarization.
Sodium channels close and potassium channels open
Which of the following describes the action of a heavy acrobat jumping onto the short end of a seesaw and propelling his lighter partner high into the air? Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage Power lever working at a mechanical disadvantage Speed lever working at a mechanical advantage Power lever working at a mechanical advantage
Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage
Name the vertebral projection found in a median plane.
Spinous process
Match the following description of muscles that move the head and trunk with its appropriate name: Broad two-part superficial muscle that lies on the back of neck between base of skull and the upper thoracic vertebrae.
Splenius capitis and cervicis
Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Endomysium.
Surrounds each muscle fiber
Which of the following lists all of the fibrous joint types? Sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses Sutures and syndesmoses Synchondroses and symphyses Gomphoses and syndesmoses
Sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses
The small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron is the
Synaptic Cleft -The synaptic cleft is the small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron.
Correctly match the term and definition: An immovable joint.
Synarthrosis
Match the following joint types: Cartilaginous.
Synchondroses and symphyses
Drag and drop the correct concentrations and the direction of the concentration gradient in a cell at RMP. Answers may be used more than once or not at all. The appropriate arrow should be placed on the plasma membrane—the targets appear on either side of the pumps.
The Na+ concentration is higher outside of the cell, while the concentration of K+ is higher inside the cell.
Imagine that the cell membrane from the previous problem becomes more permeable to Na+. Predict how this will affect the RMP.
The RMP will be more positive.
You are going to record RMP from a cell using an electrode. You place your electrode and record a resting membrane potential every millisecond. You record an initial value of -70mV; however, over time you notice that your recordings become more and more positive until the RMP reaches 0mV. Assuming that Na+ and K+ are the major determinants of RMP in this cell, which of the following could best explain your results?
The cell's Na+-K+ ATPase pumps have stopped functioning. -Yes! Since the RMP eventually becomes zero, the concentration of ions on either side of the membrane would be roughly equal. Without active processes to maintain concentration gradients, we would expect the concentration of ions on either side of the membrane to equilibrate.
Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Fulcrum.
The fixed point upon which a lever moves
Why does regeneration of the action potential occur in one direction, rather than in two directions?
The inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ channels close in the node, or segment, that has just fired an action potential. -Yes! At the peak of the depolarization phase of the action potential, the inactivation gates close. Thus, the voltage-gated Na+ channels become absolutely refractory to another depolarizing stimulus.
Select the true statement regarding appositional growth of a long bone. Osteoblasts on the endosteal surface of the diaphysis remove bone. Osteoclasts in the periosteum secrete bone matrix on the external bone surface. The long bone increases in length. The long bone increases in thickness, or diameter.
The long bone increases in thickness, or diameter.
Which of the following muscles is voluntary? The muscle in the wall of the urinary bladder The muscle in the wall of the heart The muscle of the stomach The muscle that extends the arm at the elbow
The muscle that extends the arm at the elbow
What is the function of the myelin sheath?
The myelin sheath increases the speed of action potential conduction from the initial segment to the axon terminals. -Yes! The myelin sheath increases the velocity of conduction by two mechanisms. First, myelin insulates the axon, reducing the loss of depolarizing current across the plasma membrane. Second, the myelin insulation allows the voltage across the membrane to change much faster. Because of these two mechanisms, regeneration only needs to happen at the widely spaced nodes of Ranvier, so the action potential appears to jump.
A resting neuron is an unstimulated neuron that is not presently generating an action potential. The resting membrane potential is the separation of the relative positive and negative charges across the membrane of a cell at rest. Drag the charges to the correct side of the membrane to represent the resting membrane potential of a typical neuron.
The separation of charges creates a voltage (electrical potential difference), which can be measured using a voltmeter. The resting membrane potential of a neuron averages -70mV (millivolts). All neural activities begin with a change in the resting membrane potential of a neuron.
If troponin is a component of both cardiac and skeletal muscle, why is an elevated plasma troponin level useful in diagnosing myocardial damage?
The subunits of the troponin in cardiac muscle are unique to heart muscle. -Although both types of striated muscle contain troponin, the subunits found in cardiac muscle are different from those in skeletal muscle. The laboratory test used to diagnose cardiac muscle damage is specific for those subunits.
Correctly match the following term: Medial and lateral condyles
Tibia
Name the bone that articulates with the distal end of the femur.
Tibia
Identify the blunt elevation found on the anterior surface of the tibia between the lateral and medial condyles.
Tibial tuberosity
Which muscle laterally parallels the sharp anterior margin of the tibia?
Tibialis anterior
Select the muscle that is named for the direction of its fibers. Temporalis Gluteus maximus Deltoid Transversus abdominis Adductor longus
Transversus abdominis
Identify the muscle indicated by "C."
Triceps brachii
Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "A."
True Rib
Correctly match the term and definition: Vertebrosternal.
True Ribs
Which of the following forces to the knee would be the most dangerous? A medial force to the flexed knee A force which tears the menisci free A vertical blow to the knee A lateral force to the extended knee
a lateral force to the extended knee
Identify the inferred action of a muscle based upon the position of the muscle relative to the joint it crosses. The type of movement for "D" is __________.
a muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces flexion
Identify the inferred action of a muscle based upon the position of the muscle relative to the joint it crosses. The type of movement for "B" is __________.
a muscle that crosses on the medial side of a joint produces adduction
Which region of the scapula does articulate with another bone?
acromion process
The thin myofilaments of skeletal muscle are composed chiefly of __________.
actin
Correctly match the term and definition: Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body in the frontal plane.
adduction
Select the muscle that is named for its action.
adductor longus
The eleventh and twelfth ribs are called floating ribs because they lack __________.
an anterior attachment to the sternum
Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "C."
articular (hyaline) cartilage
Correctly match the description to the structure of synovial joints: Composed of the fibrous and synovial layers.
articular capsule
Identify the articulation site that allows us to rotate our head, e.g. shaking the head "no".
atlas-axis
The prefix inter- means
between or among.
During bone growth, which significant event occurs at the surface indicated by the letter D?
bone resorption As the bone widens, the matrix at the endosteal surface is resorbed to maintain the proper thickness of the walls surrounding the medullary cavity.
Match the description to the correct zone in longitudinal growth of a long bone: Dead cartilage cells appear; matrix begins deteriorating.
calcification zone
Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children? calcitonin thyroid hormones parathyroid hormone (PTH) calcitrio
calcitonin
Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels?
calcitriol
Bones serve as an important reservoir for __________.
calcium
Meatus.
canal-like passageway (ear)
Osteocytes maintain contact allowing them to communicate and permitting nutrients and wastes to be relayed from one osteocyte to the next through __________.
canaliculi
Which of the following are tiny canals that connect the central canal of an osteon to the osteocytes?
canaliculi
Correctly match the bone type with its example: Short bone.
carpal of the wrist
A joint held together by fibrocartilage would be classified as a __________ joint.
cartilaginous -Cartilaginous joints are held together by cartilage. Fibrocartilage holds together symphyses.
Correctly match the following joint: Symphysis.
cartilaginous joint
Correctly match the following term: Zygomatic bone.
cheekbone
Identify the type of movement of the upper limb at the shoulder indicated by "C."
circumducrtion
A patient is brought to the emergency room with a broken bone. According to the x-ray, the bone is fragmented into three pieces. This would be considered a __________.
comminuted fracture
Correctly match the following joint: Metacarpophalangeal joint.
condylar joint
Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "A."
condylar joint
Costal cartilages.
connect the ribs to the sternum
A muscle cell runs out of ATP. Even though these are cyclic reactions, what step of the cross bridge cycle given is most directly inhibited or terminated?
cross bridge detachment -When ATP is added to the myosin, myosin detaches from actin.
An action potential is self-regenerating because __________.
depolarizing currents established by the influx of Na+ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment -Yes! The Na+ diffusing into the axon during the first phase of the action potential creates a depolarizing current that brings the next segment, or node, of the axon to threshold.
The prefix acro- means
end or tip.
Which bone-forming process is shown in the figure?
endochondral ossification
The layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle is the __________.
epimysium
Correctly match the definition and term: Expanded portion of the long bone at its ends.
epiphysis
Correctly match the term and definition: Forms part of the nasal septum and the lateral walls and roof of the nasal cavity.
ethmoid
The crista galli is a projection from which bone?
ethmoid
Identify the paranasal sinuses indicated by "B."
ethmoidal air cells
Identify the sinuses in the ethmoid bone indicated by "C."
ethmoidal air cells
elastic cartilage
external ear, epiglottis
The muscular wall of the abdomen is in part composed of __________.
external oblique and rectus muscles
The padlike menisci of the knee joints contain __________.
fibrocartilage
Correctly match the following joint: Syndesmosis.
fibrous joint
Match the following: Bones united by collagen fibers.
fibrous joints
Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "D."
fibrous layer
Before eight weeks, the skeleton of the human embryo is composed of __________.
fibrous membranes and hyaline cartilage
Identify the bone found lateral to the tibia.
fibula
Intramembranous ossification is mostly responsible for forming which type of bone?
flat bone
Identify the location of the sphenoid bone.
floor of the skull
Match the following: Ethmoid bone. Forms a part of the nasal septum Encloses the pituitary Surrounds the external ear canal Is the most anterior part of the cranium Forms the bulk of the cranial ceiling Forms most of the base of the skull
forms part of the nasal septum
Match the description to the correct stage of bone repair: Activity of fibroblasts and osteoblasts creates an overgrown splint around the fracture site.
fribrocartilage callus
Correctly match the following bones: Supraorbital foramen. Frontal bone Occipital bone Temporal bone Sphenoid bone Maxilla bone
frontal bone
Which of the following bones is unpaired? Temporal Parietal Frontal Zygomatic
frontal bone
Which of the following is classified as a fibrous joint? Pivot Gomphosis Symphysis Synchondrosis
gomphosis
The presence of uric acid crystals in the joints is a hallmark of __________.
gout
During infancy and childhood, the single most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is __________ from the anterior pituitary gland.
growth hormone
Correctly match the following term: Coxal bone.
hip
When problems with blood forming tissue are suspected, clinicians obtain tissue samples from the _____________ because the red bone marrow in this location is highly active in hematopoiesis.
hip bone
Correctly match the following joint: Iliofemoral ligament.
hip joint
What material makes up most of the structure at A?
hyaline cartilage
The structure indicated by the arrow is composed primarily of what tissue?
hyaline cartilage The cartilage models used to form bones are composed of hyaline cartilage. This tissue persists within the epiphyseal plate at the boundary between primary and secondary ossification centers until early adulthood.
Fetal vertebrae develop through endochondral ossification from a preexisting __________ model. The second step of repair of a fracture of these bones is the formation of a(n) __________ callus.
hyaline cartilage; fibrocartilaginous Submit
Which of the following contributes most directly to the hardness of bones? hydroxyapatite osteoid articular cartilage periosteum
hydroxyapatite Hydroxyapatite, or mineral salts such as calcium phosphate, accounts for the most notable characteristic of bone—its exceptional hardness, which allows it to resist compression.
Select the bone that does not articulate directly with another bone.
hyoid bone
Identify the type of movement at the neck indicated by "A."
hyperextension
The __________ nerves innervate all of the extrinsic tongue muscles.
hypoglossal
Since mastoid infections may spread to the brain, surgical removal of the mastoid process was once considered to be the best way to prevent brain inflammation. Unfortunately, this also had the side-effect of causing ____________.
impaired head and neck movements
Which of the following would NOT be a way that parathyroid hormone (PTH) could alter plasma calcium levels? (Which one of the following is FALSE?) increase osteoclasts increase osteoblasts on bone increase reabsorption of calcium in the kidney
increase osteoblasts on bone
Remember Liliana from the Clinical Case Study in Chapter 5? After we last heard about her she was admitted for further treatment. Relative to her skeletal system, the following notes have been added to her chart. Fracture of superior right tibia (shinbone); 3.5-cm laceration where bone protrudes. Area cleaned and the bone subjected to internal (open) reduction. Cast applied. Nutrient artery of tibia damaged. Medial meniscus (fibrocartilage disc) of right knee joint crushed; knee joint inflamed, swollen, and painful. When assessing Liliana's condition relative to her tibia fracture after the open reduction, the nurse will be especially alert for signs of which of these problems?
infection
Forms part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. Inferior nasal concha Zygomatic bone Nasal bone Lacrimal bone Vomer
inferior nasal concha
The attachment site of the muscle tendon to the more movable bone is called the _______.
insertion
Each ______ is made of fibrocartilage and serves as a shock absorber for the spine.
intervertebral disc
A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole inward is called __________.
inversion
When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron,
ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open.
The female true pelvis __________.
is inferior to the pelvic brim
The bone marking that makes up the portion of the pelvis you sit on is the
ischial tuberosity.
The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension, but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens, is called __________.
isometric
C7 is referred to as the "vertebra prominens" because __________.
its spinous process is larger than those of the other cervical vertebrae
Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "B."
joint (articular) cavity
Match the following: Floating ribs.
lack anterior attachments
Correctly match the following terms: Forms part of the medial orbit wall. Lacrimal bone Zygomatic bone Nasal bone Vomer Inferior nasal concha
lacrimal bone
Match the chemical to its description: Product of anaerobic glycolysis.
lactic acid
Correctly match the bone and location: Radius.
lateral forearm
Identify the region of the sphenoid bone that contains the optic canal.
lesser wing
Which of the following is not considered a primary factor influencing the stability of synovial joints?
location of the joint
has length greater than width
long bone
The role of synovial fluid is to __________.
lubricate joints
Correctly match the term and definition: Forms the chin.
mandible
Sinuses are found in all of the following bones, except the __________. mandible mastoid process of the temporal bone maxillary bones frontal bone ethmoid bone
mandible
Sutures connect all the bones of the skull, except the __________.
mandible
The only bone of the facial skeleton that does not articulate with the maxillae is the __________.
mandible
Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "C."
mandibular fossa
The most superior portion of the breastbone is called the __________.
manubrium
Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "E."
mastoid process
Which of the following sinuses is in high risk of infection spreading from the middle ear?
mastoid sinuses
Correctly match the following bones: Facial bone. Maxillary bone Frontal bone Occipital bone Temporal bone Sphenoid bone
maxillary bone
Correctly match the following: Auditory ossicles.
middle ear bones
A sarcomere is part of a(n) __________.
myofibril
The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following, except __________.
myofibril composition of the muscle
Crest
narrow ridge of bone
Identify the large hole found in this bone. (hip bone)
obturator foramen
A common injury in the winter is a fall in which someone hits the back of his or her head on the ice. What bone is most likely to be involved in this type of fall?
occipital
Identify the region of the skull that articulates with the atlas.
occipital condyles
Which of the following is the bony part that rests on the table when you lean on your elbows?
olecranon
In multiple sclerosis, the cells that are the target of an autoimmune attack are the _________.
oligodendrocyte -Oligodendrocytes are a type of neuroglial cell that function to form the myelin sheath around the axons of neurons within the central nervous system. These are the glial cells targeted by the immune system in people who have MS.
A motor unit consists of ___________________.
one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it supplies
Calcium is released by the action of _______,which break down bone matrix.
osteoclasts
The cells that maintain mature compact bone marix are __________.
osteocytes
The lacunae of bone contain __________.
osteocytes
Let's consider a scenario in which the resting membrane potential changes from −70 mV to +70 mV, but the concentrations of all ions in the intracellular and extracellular fluids are unchanged. Predict how this change in membrane potential affects the movement of Na+. The electrical gradient for Na+ would tend to move Na+ __________ while the chemical gradient for Na+ would tend to move Na+ __________.
out; in =If the inside of the cell is positively charged compared to the outside, the electrical gradient will favor movement of positively charged sodium ions out of the cell.
Sesamoid bone example
patella of the knee
Match the name of the bone to its location: Clavicle.
pectoral girdle
The ___________ is a prime mover of arm flexion.
pectoralis major
Match the name of the bone to its location: Ilium.
pelvic girdle
Which of the following correctly pairs the structure at C with its primary component?
periosteum; dense irregular connective tissue
Collagen fibers do not __________. provide resistance to twisting forces on bone provide for bone hardness provide resistance to stretching forces on bone provide tensile strength to bone
provide for bone hardness
The scapula is the site of origin of a group of muscles that stabilize the shoulder joint. Identify this muscle group.
rotator cuff
Which factor is likely to most likely to protect against shoulder dislocation?
rotator cuff muscles -Tendons of the rotator cuff muscles (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis) surround and provide stability to the shoulder joint.
Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activity best suited for slow-oxidative fibers. Walking Hitting a baseball Running a marathon Sprinting
running a marathon
Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "B."
saddle joint
Identify the suture found between the 2 parietal bones.
sagittal suture
Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber.
sarcoplasm
In adolescence, the "growth spurt" that is observed is mainly attributed to an increase in __________.
sex hormones
The deltoid is a muscle named according to __________.
shape
Match the word to its correct meaning: Brevis.
short
Match the following description with the appropriate type of muscle: Subject to conscious control.
skeletal muscle
Match the following description to the muscle type: Visceral, one nucleus per cell, and nonstriated.
smooth muscle
Match the following description with the correct type of muscle: Nonstriated, involuntary, found in the walls of hollow visceral organs.
smooth muscle
Correctly match the term and definition: Foramen ovale is part of this bone.
sphenoid
Select the bone that is considered to be the keystone of the cranium.
sphenoid
Which of the following landmarks is found on the posterior surface of the scapula?
spine
Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "A."
spinous process
During a football game, a player fractures his leg bone when his foot plants into the turf, but several opposing players continue to push him forward. The doctor explains that the diagonal break across the bone was due to intense twisting forces. Select the type of fracture involved in this example.
spiral
Correctly match the definition and term: Location of red bone marrow in an adult.
spongy bone
Correctly match the term and definition: Ligaments reinforcing a joint are stretched or torn. Dislocation Sprain None of the listed responses is correct. Cartilage tear
sprain
Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activity best-suited for fast-oxidative fibers. Running a marathon Endurance type activities Sprinting Hitting a baseball
sprinting
Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "A."
squamous part
The oblique popliteal ligament __________.
stabilizes posterior knee joint
Match the description to the correct stage of intramembranous ossification: Immature spongy bone and periosteum form.
stage 3
Match the description to the correct stage of intramembranous ossification: Compact bone replaces immature spongy bone, just deep to the periosteum, and red marrow develops.
stage 4
Match the following type of lever with its appropriate example: Second-class lever. Flexing the forearm with the biceps brachii None of the choices is correct. Lifting your head off your chest Standing on tip-toe
standing on tip toe
Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? sternum: long bone tarsals: short bones femur: long bone cranial bones: flat bones
sternum: long bone
Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "F."
styloid process
__________ refers to rotation of the forearm laterally so that the palm faces anteriorly or superiorly.
supination
The space between the axon terminal of the motor neuron and the muscle fiber is called the __________.
synaptic cleft
The epiphyseal growth plate is an example of __________.
synchondrosis
A ligamentous connection, such as that between the bones of the lower leg, is called a __________.
syndesmosis
Correctly match the term and definition: A joint formed by fusion of two bones
synostosis
Correctly match the description to the structure of synovial joints: Secreted into the joint cavity and contains hyaluronic acid.
synovial fluid
Correctly match the term and definition: Contains mastoid air cells (sinuses).
temporal bone
When an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, the most immediate result is __________.
the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron
The adult hip bone consists of _____ regions.
three
At its distal end, the femur articulates with the __________.
tibia only
Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action, except __________. flexor extensor adductor trapezius pronator
trapezius
T/F The sphenoid bone contains a sinus.
true
Correctly match the following term: Olecranon
ulna
In smooth muscle, neurotransmitter is released from ____________.
varicosities
Rickets can be caused by a deficiency of __________.
vitamin D
The generation of an action potential in a neuron requires the presence what type of membrane channels? Select the best answer.
voltage-gated channels
Bones do NOT have a role in __________. fat storage support movement blood cell formation waste removal
waste removal
Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "E."
SR releases Ca2+; Ca2+ binds to troponin; myosin-binding sites (active sites) on actin exposed
Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "C."
Sacral Foramina
Correctly match the following joint: Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Saddle joint
Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Plasma membrane of skeletal muscle fiber.
Sarcolemma
Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Plasma membrane of skeletal muscle fiber. Sarcoplasmic reticulum Myofibril Sarcoplasm Sarcolemma
Sarcolemma
Match the action on the leg/knee joint with its appropriate muscle: Flexes, abducts, and laterally rotates thigh.
Sartorius
Correctly match the following term: Glenoid cavity.
Scapula
Correctly match the following term: Markings include glenoid cavity and acromion.
Scapula
PTH promotes the formation of which hormone?
calcitriol
