DSM ch. 10, DSM (ch. 6,, A&P Lecture Ch. 8,9,11, DSM ch 9, DSM ch. 8, HW (CH. 6-10, DSM (ch 7,

Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Gomphosis.

"Peg-in-socket" fibrous joint

Your patient is returning for follow-up 6 weeks after sustaining a nondisplaced fracture of his radius. He tells you that his forearm is no longer painful, but he is concerned that he can palpate a "lump" in the bone at the site of the healing fracture. What is your response? "That lump may be a sign of infection. We need to obtain cultures from the site." "The lump means that the fracture was not set properly. I'm concerned that the ends of the fracture aren't properly aligned." "I'm concern

"That bump is a normal part of bone healing at this stage. As your body completes the process, the cells in your bone will gradually remodel it to its previous shape."

You have a young patient with severe lordosis in the lumbar region. How would you explain to her why her leg often goes numb?

"The excessive curvature of your lower spine is putting pressure on the nerves that go to your leg."

Match the functional group classification with the description: The muscles that perform most of the action in producing the movement. Synergists Agonists Fixators Antagonists

Agonists

Click and drag the description of the part of the excitation-contraction coupling to the correct order of occurrence from left to right. Do not overlap any steps.

Coupling begins with an action potential after the arrival of ACh and graded potentials, and it ends before cross bridge cycling.

Match the following: Articular cartilages.

Cover the ends of most bones at moveable joints

Identify the step of the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle indicated by "C."

Cross bridge detachment

A person dies, and within hours, the skeletal muscles develop a locked contraction known as rigor mortis. Calcium ions leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into cytoplasm. From your knowledge of cross bridge cycling, what best explains this rigor?

Cross bridge detachment cannot occur. Detachment requires ATP, which is produced only during life. -After ATP attaches to the myosin head, the bond between actin and myosin is weakened and the cross bridge breaks.

Identify the step of the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle indicated by "A."

Cross bridge formation

Match the following chemical with its function: Calmodulin. Neurotransmitter released into the neuromuscular junction Released by terminal cisternae into the sarcoplasm to bind with troponin Cytoplasmic, calcium-binding protein Enzyme released into neuromuscular junction to break down acetylcholine

Cytoplasmic, calcium-binding protein

What would occur if a muscle became totally depleted of ATP? Muscle fatigue Muscle relaxation due to an inability to sustain actin-myosin cross bridges. Death of muscle cells and rigor mortis All of the listed responses are correct.

Death of muscle cells and rigor mortis

Select the muscle that is named for its shape. Deltoid Gluteus maximus Transversus abdominis Temporalis Adductor longus

Deltoid

Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle? Infraspinatus Deltoid Subscapularis Teres minor

Deltoid

Match the following term with the correct description: End plate potential.

Depolarization occurring only at the neuromuscular junction

Which of the following is true? Bone formation exceeds bone resorption in young adults. In about the second decade, bone mass increases with age. Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density. Bone resporption is slower than bone formation in old age.

Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density.

Select the statement that best describes most long bones at the time of birth.

..A bony diaphysis with a widening medullary cavity, and two cartilaginous epiphyses

Which of the following is a special adaptation present in skeletal muscle cells, but absent in most other cells? Muscle cells have mitochondria; most other cells do not. Muscle cells use ATP to do work; most other cells do not. Muscle cells have myoglobin; most other cells do not. Muscle cells have a nucleus; most other cells do not.

Muscle cells have myoglobin; most other cells do not.

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease that destroys acetylcholine receptors?

Myasthenia gravis

In which type of axon will velocity of action potential conduction be the fastest?

Myelinated axons with the largest diameter -Yes! The large diameter facilitates the flow of depolarizing current through the cytoplasm. The myelin sheath insulates the axons and prevents current from leaking across the plasma membrane.

Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Rodlike contractile element within a muscle fiber containing myofilaments. Sarcoplasmic reticulum Myofibril Sarcolemma Sarcoplasm

Myofibfril

Match the following muscle chemical with the correct name: Oxygen storage molecule in skeletal muscle.

Myoglobin

"Cross bridges" that link between the thick and thin filaments directly involve__________.

Myosin

Which selection best describes the initial event in contraction?

Myosin heads bind to the newly exposed myosin-binding sites on actin to form cross bridges. -Contraction begins when myosin binds to actin and forms cross bridges.

Part complete The concentrations of which two ions are highest outside the cell?

Na+ and Cl−

Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "C."

Neck Of Rib

Identify the articulation site that allows us to nod our head "yes".

Occipital bone - atlas

Which of the following describes the action of using a pry bar to move a heavy rock? Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage Power lever working at a mechanical advantage Speed lever working at a mechanical advantage Power lever working at a mechanical disadvantage

Power lever working at a mechanical advantage

Correctly match the following term: Markings include glenoid cavity and acromion.

Scapula

Correctly match the definition and disorder: Abnormal lateral spinal curvature that occurs most often in the thoracic region, or "twisted disease."

Scoliosis

Which of the following statements about second-class levers is correct?

Second-class levers have great strength, but are slow and have little range of motion.

Select the muscle that is sometimes called the "boxer's muscle" because its actions include horizontal arm movements used for pushing and punching.

Serratus anterior

Sesame seed-shaped bone formed in a tendon.

Sesamoid bone

Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "E."

Shaft of rib

Correctly match the opening or depression in bone with its correct name: Fossa.

Shallow, basinlike depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface

Correctly match the description of the projection with its name: Spine.

Sharp, slender, often pointed projection

Select the description of an aponeurosis. Rope-like indirect attachment that anchors a muscle Sheet-like indirect attachment that anchors a muscle Muscle area that moves towards the less movable bone Direct attachment between muscle and bone

Sheet-like indirect attachment that anchors a muscle

Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activities best-suited for fast-glycolytic fibers.

Short-term intense movements

Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activities best-suited for fast-glycolytic fibers. Endurance-type activities Sprinting, walking None of the listed responses is correct. Short-term intense movements

Short-term intense movements

Dislocation of a joint is a common orthopedic problem. Which of these joints is MOST likely to be dislocated?

Shoulder (glenohumeral) -The articulation between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity allows for maximum flexibility but sacrifices stability.

Correctly match the term and description: Epiphyseal plate.

Site of length increase in long bones

Which of the following muscle types is both voluntary and striated? Smooth muscle only Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle only Skeletal muscle only

Skeletal muscle only

Which of the following are inward invaginations of the sarcolemma that run deep into the cell between the terminal cisterns? Sarcomeres T tubules Striations Triads

T tubules

Which of the following are inward invaginations of the sarcolemma that run deep into the cell between the terminal cisterns? Triads T tubules Striations Sarcomeres

T tubules

Which of the following contributes to contractile force, but its primary function is to produce smooth, continuous muscle contractions?

Temporal summation

Identify the muscle indicated by "C."

Temporalis

Correctly match the definition and disorder: Common in those carrying a "large load up front," such as men with "potbellies" and pregnant women.

Temporary lordosis

Mary fractured her pisiform bone in a fall. What part of her body was injured?

Wrist

Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "C."

Xiphoid Process

Match the following description of muscles that move the head and trunk with its appropriate name: Composite muscle forming part of the deep layer of intrinsic back muscles, located along the back from thoracic region to head.

YOU WERE SURE AND CORRECT Semispinalis capitis, cervicis, and thoracis

Osteoarthritis is considered __________.

a degenerative joint disease, or "wear-and-tear arthritis"

Myasthenia gravis is a disease resulting from an autoimmune attack on the ACh receptors of the motor end plate. Binding of antibodies to the ACh receptors results in generalized muscle weakness that progresses as more ACh receptors are destroyed. Which of the following medications would help alleviate the muscle weakness?

a drug that binds to and inactivates acetylcholinesterase (neostigmine) -The progressive destruction of ACh receptors leads to a progressive decline in the strength of end-plate potentials. To counteract this problem, drug therapy focuses on increasing the concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft. Drugs that bind to acetylcholinesterase and prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine can help restore some muscle strength by allowing acetylcholine to interact with the ACh receptors longer. Neostigmine is one such drug and is used to treat myasthenia gravis.

groove

a furrpw

Which of the following forces to the knee would be the most dangerous? A medial force to the flexed knee A force which tears the menisci free A vertical blow to the knee A lateral force to the extended knee

a lateral force to the extended knee

Identify the inferred action of a muscle based upon the position of the muscle relative to the joint it crosses. The type of movement for "D" is __________.

a muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces flexion

Identify the inferred action of a muscle based upon the position of the muscle relative to the joint it crosses. The type of movement for "B" is __________.

a muscle that crosses on the medial side of a joint produces adduction

Identify the inferred action of a muscle based upon the position of the muscle relative to the joint it crosses. The type of movement for "C" is __________.

a muscle that crosses on the posterior side of a joint produces extension

A muscle that assists the muscle primarily responsible for a given action is __________.

a synergist

yellow marrow is useful as

a tissue that may revert back to red marrow if a person needs more red blood cells

Correctly match the term and definition: Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.

abduction

The prefix supra- means

above, higher than, or dorsal.

Identify the articulation site for the femur.

acetabulum

The articulation formed by the tip of the scapula and the clavicle is called the

acromioclavicular joint.

Identify the region of the scapula that articulates with the clavicle.

acromion process

Which region of the scapula does articulate with another bone?

acromion process

The thin myofilaments of skeletal muscle are composed chiefly of __________.

actin

Correctly match the term and definition: Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body in the frontal plane.

adduction

Select the muscle that is named for its action.

adductor longus

Where does 95% of the energy needed for contraction come from during moderate exercise?

aerobic respiration

The prefix meta- means

after, along, or behind.

A slightly movable joint is a(n) __________.

amphiarthrosis

The eleventh and twelfth ribs are called floating ribs because they lack __________.

an anterior attachment to the sternum

The __________ assists the triceps brachii in forearm extension.

anconeus

Yes! The large diameter facilitates the flow of depolarizing current through the cytoplasm. The myelin sheath insulates the axons and prevents current from leaking across the plasma membrane.

anterograde transport -This transport mechanism defines movement of material from the cell body (soma) of a neuron toward the axon terminals (synaptic knobs).

Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "C."

articular (hyaline) cartilage

Correctly match the description to the structure of synovial joints: Composed of the fibrous and synovial layers.

articular capsule

What is the name of the first cervical vertebra?

atlas

Identify the articulation site that allows us to rotate our head, e.g. shaking the head "no".

atlas-axis

The bones in the long axis of the body make up the __________.

axial skeleton

What is the name of the second cervical vertebra?

axis

Lyme disease is an inflammatory disease caused by __________.

bacteria transmitted by tick bites

The prefix inter- means

between or among.

Which structure is seen at the arrow?

bone collar

During bone growth, which significant event occurs at the surface indicated by the letter D?

bone resorption As the bone widens, the matrix at the endosteal surface is resorbed to maintain the proper thickness of the walls surrounding the medullary cavity.

Acetylcholinesterase __________.

breaks down acetylcholine

Flattened fibrous sacs that reduce friction between adjacent structures are called __________.

bursae

"Water on the knee" is caused by __________.

bursitis of the prepatellar bursa

Match the description to the correct zone in longitudinal growth of a long bone: Dead cartilage cells appear; matrix begins deteriorating.

calcification zone

Select the hormone that lowers blood calcium levels when administered at high pharmacological doses.

calcitonin

Which of the following hormones is currently thought to decrease plasma calcium levels in pregnant women and children? calcitonin thyroid hormones parathyroid hormone (PTH) calcitrio

calcitonin

PTH promotes the formation of which hormone?

calcitriol

Which hormone works directly in the intestine to increase plasma calcium levels?

calcitriol

Bones serve as an important reservoir for __________.

calcium

Hydroxyapatites in bone matrix that give bone its hardness are primarily composed of __________.

calcium phosphates

Meatus.

canal-like passageway (ear)

Osteocytes maintain contact allowing them to communicate and permitting nutrients and wastes to be relayed from one osteocyte to the next through __________.

canaliculi

Which of the following are tiny canals that connect the central canal of an osteon to the osteocytes?

canaliculi

Match the following description with the appropriate type of muscle: Usually contracts at a fairly steady rate and can contract without stimulation from the nervous system.

cardiac muscle

Match the following description with the correct type of muscle: Striated and involuntary

cardiac muscle

Correctly match the following term: Triquetrum.

carpal bone

Correctly match the following: Capitate.

carpal bone

Correctly match the bone type with its example: Short bone.

carpal of the wrist

A joint held together by fibrocartilage would be classified as a __________ joint.

cartilaginous -Cartilaginous joints are held together by cartilage. Fibrocartilage holds together symphyses.

Correctly match the following joint: Symphysis.

cartilaginous joint

Match the following: Bones united by cartilage.

cartilaginous joint

Sinus.

cavity within a bone

Correctly match the following term: Zygomatic bone.

cheekbone

What event at letter B leads to elongation of the bone?

chondrocyte hypertrophy and deterioration

Cartilage tissue features __________ within small cavities called lacunae.

chondrocytes

Sphincters have a __________ arrangement of fascicles.

circular

Identify the type of movement of the upper limb at the shoulder indicated by "C."

circumducrtion

A patient is brought to the emergency room with a broken bone. According to the x-ray, the bone is fragmented into three pieces. This would be considered a __________.

comminuted fracture

Correctly match the following joint: Metacarpophalangeal joint.

condylar joint

Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "A."

condylar joint

Costal cartilages.

connect the ribs to the sternum

Identify the part of the ethmoid bone indicated by "B."

cribriform plate

Identify the part of the ethmoid bone indicated by "A."

crista galli

A muscle cell runs out of ATP. Even though these are cyclic reactions, what step of the cross bridge cycle given is most directly inhibited or terminated?

cross bridge detachment -When ATP is added to the myosin, myosin detaches from actin.

Which ligaments prevent backward displacement of the tibia or forward sliding of the femur?

cruciate

The major abductor muscle of the upper arm is the __________.

deltoid

An action potential is self-regenerating because __________.

depolarizing currents established by the influx of Na+‎ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment -Yes! The Na+‎ diffusing into the axon during the first phase of the action potential creates a depolarizing current that brings the next segment, or node, of the axon to threshold.

The sella turcica is best described as:

depression

False ribs lack

direct sternal attachment

Correctly match the term and definition: Displacement of a bone from its normal position at a joint.

dislocation

Match the following: False ribs.

do not have a direct sternal attachment

Match the functional characteristic of muscle with the appropriate descriptive term: Ability of a muscle to resume its resting length after being stretched.

elasticity

The prefix acro- means

end or tip.

The prefix acro- means end or tip.

end or tip.

Which bone-forming process is shown in the figure?

endochondral ossification

The layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the entire skeletal muscle is the __________.

epimysium

Correctly match the definition and term: Expanded portion of the long bone at its ends.

epiphysis

Correctly match the term and definition: Forms part of the nasal septum and the lateral walls and roof of the nasal cavity.

ethmoid

The crista galli is a projection from which bone?

ethmoid

Identify the paranasal sinuses indicated by "B."

ethmoidal air cells

Identify the sinuses in the ethmoid bone indicated by "C."

ethmoidal air cells

Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "D."

external acoustic meatus

elastic cartilage

external ear, epiglottis

The muscular wall of the abdomen is in part composed of __________.

external oblique and rectus muscles

The hip bone is part of the axial skeleton.

false

The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines.

false

Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the __________. pubis femur os coxae ischium ilium

femur

The gluteal tuberosity is a bone marking found on the __________.

femur

Which bone articulates in the acetabulum?

femur

Which of the following have bone markings called trochanters?

femur only

In a(n) __________, the vertebral column is formed from 33 separate bones.

fetus

The padlike menisci of the knee joints contain __________.

fibrocartilage

Correctly match the following joint: Syndesmosis.

fibrous joint

Match the following: Bones united by collagen fibers.

fibrous joints

Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "D."

fibrous layer

Before eight weeks, the skeleton of the human embryo is composed of __________.

fibrous membranes and hyaline cartilage

Identify the bone found lateral to the tibia.

fibula

Intramembranous ossification is mostly responsible for forming which type of bone?

flat bone

Correctly match the term and definition: A movement permitted by the elbow joint.

flexion

Decreasing the angle between bones in the sagittal plane is called __________.

flexion

Identify the location of the sphenoid bone.

floor of the skull

Which of the following contributes most directly to the hardness of bones? hydroxyapatite osteoid articular cartilage periosteum

hydroxyapatite Hydroxyapatite, or mineral salts such as calcium phosphate, accounts for the most notable characteristic of bone—its exceptional hardness, which allows it to resist compression.

Select the bone that does not articulate directly with another bone.

hyoid bone

Identify the type of movement at the neck indicated by "A."

hyperextension

Match the description to the correct zone in longitudinal growth of a long bone: Older cartilage cells enlarge.

hypertrophic zone

The __________ nerves innervate all of the extrinsic tongue muscles.

hypoglossal

The ridge like superior edge of the ilium is known as the _____.

iliac crest

The prime mover for flexion of the thigh is the __________ muscle.

iliopsoas

Since mastoid infections may spread to the brain, surgical removal of the mastoid process was once considered to be the best way to prevent brain inflammation. Unfortunately, this also had the side-effect of causing ____________.

impaired head and neck movements

The jugular notch on the sternum is __________.

in line with the second and third thoracic vertebra, where the left common carotid artery is issued from the aorta

Which of the following would NOT be a way that parathyroid hormone (PTH) could alter plasma calcium levels? (Which one of the following is FALSE?) increase osteoclasts increase osteoblasts on bone increase reabsorption of calcium in the kidney

increase osteoblasts on bone

Remember Liliana from the Clinical Case Study in Chapter 5? After we last heard about her she was admitted for further treatment. Relative to her skeletal system, the following notes have been added to her chart. Fracture of superior right tibia (shinbone); 3.5-cm laceration where bone protrudes. Area cleaned and the bone subjected to internal (open) reduction. Cast applied. Nutrient artery of tibia damaged. Medial meniscus (fibrocartilage disc) of right knee joint crushed; knee joint inflamed,

infection

Forms part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. Inferior nasal concha Zygomatic bone Nasal bone Lacrimal bone Vomer

inferior nasal concha

The external intercostal muscles are used primarily in __________.

inhalation

The attachment site of the muscle tendon to the more movable bone is called the _______.

insertion

Each ______ is made of fibrocartilage and serves as a shock absorber for the spine.

intervertebral disc

A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole inward is called __________.

inversion

When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron,

ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open.

Bone class of B

irregular bone

The female true pelvis __________.

is inferior to the pelvic brim

The female pelvis __________.

is tilted anteriorly (forward) compared to a male pelvis

The bone marking that makes up the portion of the pelvis you sit on is the

ischial tuberosity.

The prefix ischi- means

ischium or hip joint.

The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension, but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens, is called __________.

isometric

Match the following description of muscle contraction with the correct term: Contraction of muscle during which the tension continues to increase but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens.

isometric contraction

C7 is referred to as the "vertebra prominens" because __________.

its spinous process is larger than those of the other cervical vertebrae

Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "B."

joint (articular) cavity

Correctly match the following term: Patella.

kneecap

Match the following: Floating ribs.

lack anterior attachments

Correctly match the following terms: Forms part of the medial orbit wall. Lacrimal bone Zygomatic bone Nasal bone Vomer Inferior nasal concha

lacrimal bone

Match the chemical to its description: Product of anaerobic glycolysis.

lactic acid

Correctly match the bone and location: Radius.

lateral forearm

Tibia and fibia are parts of the

leg

Identify the region of the sphenoid bone that contains the optic canal.

lesser wing

Which of the following is not considered a primary factor influencing the stability of synovial joints?

location of the joint

A

long bone

has length greater than width

long bone

The role of synovial fluid is to __________.

lubricate joints

Correctly match the term and definition: Forms the chin.

mandible

Sinuses are found in all of the following bones, except the __________. mandible mastoid process of the temporal bone maxillary bones frontal bone ethmoid bone

mandible

Sutures connect all the bones of the skull, except the __________.

mandible

The only bone of the facial skeleton that does not articulate with the maxillae is the __________.

mandible

Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "C."

mandibular fossa

The most superior portion of the breastbone is called the __________.

manubrium

Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "E."

mastoid process

Which of the following sinuses is in high risk of infection spreading from the middle ear?

mastoid sinuses

A cleft palate arises when the right and left _____________ bones fail to fuse medially during fetal development.

maxillae

Correctly match the term and definition: Keystone bones of the face.

maxillae

Correctly match the following bones: Facial bone. Maxillary bone Frontal bone Occipital bone Temporal bone Sphenoid bone

maxillary bone

Identify the anatomical landmark resulting in a noticeable bump found on the medial surface of the ankle.

medial malleolus

Correctly match the bone of the upper limb with its description: Bones of the palm of your hand

metacarpals

When moving proximally from the toes, the set of bones after the phalanges are the

metatarsals.

Correctly match the following: Auditory ossicles.

middle ear bones

Complete the following sentence. The operation of the Na+−K+ ATPase pump __________.

moves 3 Na+ to the ECF and 2 K+ to the cytoplasm -The pumps move more Na+ than K+, which counteracts the effect of the membrane's being more permeable to K+ (more K+ leak channels than Na+).

A sarcomere is part of a(n) __________.

myofibril

The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following, except __________.

myofibril composition of the muscle

In the sliding filament model of muscle contraction, the myofilaments slide over each other, resulting in the overlapping of actin and __________.

myosin

Crest

narrow ridge of bone

Which of the following bones do not contain a sinus? Sphenoid Nasal Maxillary Frontal

nasal

The condition known as a "fractured hip" is most often a break in the femur. Where is the femur particularly susceptible to a fracture?

neck

A molecule that carries information across a synaptic cleft is a

neurotransmitter -Neurotransmitter molecules carry information across a synaptic cleft.

Identify the large hole found in this bone. (hip bone)

obturator foramen

A common injury in the winter is a fall in which someone hits the back of his or her head on the ice. What bone is most likely to be involved in this type of fall?

occipital

Identify the region of the skull that articulates with the atlas.

occipital condyles

Which of the following is the bony part that rests on the table when you lean on your elbows?

olecranon

In multiple sclerosis, the cells that are the target of an autoimmune attack are the _________.

oligodendrocyte -Oligodendrocytes are a type of neuroglial cell that function to form the myelin sheath around the axons of neurons within the central nervous system. These are the glial cells targeted by the immune system in people who have MS.

A motor unit consists of ___________________.

one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it supplies

Bone is broken down by __________.

osteoclasts

Calcium is released by the action of _______,which break down bone matrix.

osteoclasts

The cells that maintain mature compact bone marix are __________.

osteocytes

The lacunae of bone contain __________.

osteocytes

A bone disorder that affects adults and has symptoms that are similar to rickets is called __________.

osteomalacia

All of the following belong to spongy bone, except __________. osteons osteocytes canaliculi lamellae trabeculae

osteons

Correctly match the description to the structure of synovial joints: Can be intracapsular or extracapsular.

reinforcing ligaments

The refractory period in which the muscle will not contract if stimulated occurs during __________ of the muscle cell.

repolarization

Osteoid-producing osteoblasts must rely on this organelle to produce primary structures leading to the formation of collagen and calcium-binding proteins.

ribosomes

Match the word to its correct meaning: Transversus.

right angles

Correctly match the following: Shaking your head "no." Flexion Depression Rotation Elevation

rotation

Correctly match the term and definition: Movement permitted by the atlantoaxial joint.

rotation

The scapula is the site of origin of a group of muscles that stabilize the shoulder joint. Identify this muscle group.

rotator cuff

Which factor is likely to most likely to protect against shoulder dislocation?

rotator cuff muscles -Tendons of the rotator cuff muscles (supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis) surround and provide stability to the shoulder joint.

Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activity best suited for slow-oxidative fibers. Walking Hitting a baseball Running a marathon Sprinting

running a marathon

Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "A."

sacral canal

What region of the vertebral column does the hip bone articulate with?

sacral region

Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "B."

saddle joint

Identify the suture found between the 2 parietal bones.

sagittal suture

The functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle fiber is the __________.

sarcomere

Myofibrils are composed of repeating contractile elements called __________.

sarcomeres

Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber.

sarcoplasm

Which of the following spinal deformities is quite common during late childhood in females?

scoliosis

Identify the region of the sphenoid bone in contact with the pituitary gland.

sella turcica

In adolescence, the "growth spurt" that is observed is mainly attributed to an increase in __________.

sex hormones

The deltoid is a muscle named according to __________.

shape

Match the word to its correct meaning: Brevis.

short

bone class D

short bone

The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the __________ joint.

shoulder

The rotator cuff is part of what joint?

shoulder

Which joint has most notably sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement?

shoulder -In the shoulder joint, stability has been sacrificed to provide the most freely moving joint in the body. The articulating bones provide minimal joint stability because of the size and "fit" of the articulating surfaces. The major stabilizing forces are soft tissue, in particular the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles (via muscle tone).

Correctly match the following term: Scapula.

shoulder blade (carl- "MY SCAPULA")

Match the following description with the appropriate type of muscle: Subject to conscious control.

skeletal muscle

Match the following description with the correct type of muscle: Striated and voluntary.

skeletal muscle

Tubercle

small rounded projection or process

Match the following description to the appropriate type of muscle: Not subject to voluntary control, is nonstriated, and contractions are slow and sustained.

smooth muscle

Match the following description to the muscle type: Visceral, one nucleus per cell, and nonstriated.

smooth muscle

Match the following description with the correct type of muscle: Nonstriated, involuntary, found in the walls of hollow visceral organs.

smooth muscle

Correctly match the term and definition: Foramen ovale is part of this bone.

sphenoid

Select the bone that is considered to be the keystone of the cranium.

sphenoid

Which cranial bone spans the width of the cranial floor?

sphenoid

Which of the following landmarks is found on the posterior surface of the scapula?

spine

Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "A."

spinous process

During a football game, a player fractures his leg bone when his foot plants into the turf, but several opposing players continue to push him forward. The doctor explains that the diagonal break across the bone was due to intense twisting forces. Select the type of fracture involved in this example.

spiral

Correctly match the definition and term: Location of red bone marrow in an adult.

spongy bone

Correctly match the term and definition: Ligaments reinforcing a joint are stretched or torn. Dislocation Sprain None of the listed responses is correct. Cartilage tear

sprain

Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activity best-suited for fast-oxidative fibers. Running a marathon Endurance type activities Sprinting Hitting a baseball

sprinting

Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "A."

squamous part

The oblique popliteal ligament __________.

stabilizes posterior knee joint

Match the description to the correct stage of intramembranous ossification: Immature spongy bone and periosteum form.

stage 3

Match the description to the correct stage of intramembranous ossification: Compact bone replaces immature spongy bone, just deep to the periosteum, and red marrow develops.

stage 4

Match the following type of lever with its appropriate example: Second-class lever. Flexing the forearm with the biceps brachii None of the choices is correct. Lifting your head off your chest Standing on tip-toe

standing on tip toe

Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? sternum: long bone tarsals: short bones femur: long bone cranial bones: flat bones

sternum: long bone

Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "F."

styloid process

__________ refers to rotation of the forearm laterally so that the palm faces anteriorly or superiorly.

supination

nasal cartilage

supports external nose

The hole above the eye orbit is the

supraorbital foramen.

A joint between skull bones is called a __________.

suture

The space between the axon terminal of the motor neuron and the muscle fiber is called the __________.

synaptic cleft

The epiphyseal growth plate is an example of __________.

synchondrosis

A ligamentous connection, such as that between the bones of the lower leg, is called a __________.

syndesmosis

Correctly match the term and definition: A joint formed by fusion of two bones

synostosis

Correctly match the description to the structure of synovial joints: Secreted into the joint cavity and contains hyaluronic acid.

synovial fluid

What factor does not contribute to the strength and stability of a synovial joint?

synovial fluid

Correctly match the following joints: Diarthrosis.

synovial joint

Match the following: Adjoining bones are covered with articular cartilage; a joint cavity is present.

synovial joint

Which of the following has a joint cavity? Synovial joint All of these choices have joint cavities. Cartilaginous joint Fibrous joint

synovial joint

Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "E."

synovial membrane

Correctly match the following: Bursa.

synovial sac

When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the __________.

talus and calcaneus

Correctly match the following term: Cuboid.

tarsal bone

Correctly match the term and location: Mastoid process.

temporal

Correctly match the term and definition: Contains mastoid air cells (sinuses).

temporal bone

Chewing involves the __________ joint.

temporomandibular

The "superstabilizer" of the shoulder joint is the __________.

tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii

The arrow in the figure is pointing to which of the following structures?

the epiphyseal plate During endochondral ossification, a distinct epiphyseal plate is formed at the boundary between primary and secondary ossification centers.

This joint is more likely to dislocate than any other joint.

the jaw, TMJ

Where would a dentist inject lidocaine to prevent pain in the lower teeth?

the mandibular foramen (remeber the MENTAL foramen brings blood supply to the LIP)

If a muscle is applied to a load that exceeds the muscle's maximum tension, __________.

the muscle length will not change during contraction

If a signal from a sending neuron makes the receiving neuron more negative inside,

the receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential. -If the receiving neuron is more negative inside, it is less likely to generate an action potential.

When an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, the most immediate result is __________.

the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron

When calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal,

they cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.

The adult hip bone consists of _____ regions.

three

Correctly match the following term: Pollex.

thumb

Correctly match the definition and term: A hormone that modulates the activity of growth hormone, ensuring proper bone formation.

thyroid hormone

Identify the bone that articulates with the distal end of the femur.

tibia

At its distal end, the femur articulates with the __________.

tibia only

The __________ is the prime mover of dorsiflexion of the foot.

tibialis anterior

The term that means a continued mild or partial contraction of a muscle that keeps it healthy and ready to respond is muscle __________.

tone

Which choice best characterizes K+ leakage channels?

transmembrane protein channels that are always open to allow K+ to cross the membrane without the additional input of energy

What is name given to the regularly spaced infoldings of the sarcolemma?

transverse or T tubules -Yes! T tubules penetrate a skeletal muscle fiber and provide a pathway for excitation into the interior.

Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action, except __________. flexor extensor adductor trapezius pronator

trapezius

Identify the landmark that is unique to the femur.

trochanter

T/F The sphenoid bone contains a sinus.

true

The projection at the inferior end of the greater sciatic notch is the ischial spine.

true

Correctly match the following: Supination.

turning palm up

Correctly match the following: Eversion.

turning the sole of the foot laterally

Correctly match the following: Inversion.

turning the sole of the foot medially

Correctly match the following: Pronation.

turning your palm down

Match the following description of muscle action with the correct term: Type of contraction represented by a single stimulus/contraction/relaxation sequence.

twitch

Correctly match the following term: Olecranon

ulna

The olecranon would be found on the __________.

ulna

In smooth muscle, neurotransmitter is released from ____________.

varicosities

Correctly match the bone type with its example: Irregular bone.

vertebra of the spinal columnb

Rickets can be caused by a deficiency of __________.

vitamin D

The generation of an action potential in a neuron requires the presence what type of membrane channels? Select the best answer.

voltage-gated channels

Correctly match the following terms: Part of the nasal septum.

vomer

Which bone does not form a part of the orbits of the eyes? Vomer Maxilla Ethmoid Frontal Lacrimal

vomer

Which of the following is a facial bone?

vomer

Bones do NOT have a role in __________. fat storage support movement blood cell formation waste removal

waste removal

Select the example of a resistance exercise. Swimming None of the listed responses is correct. Weight lifting Biking Running

weight lifting

Match the word to its correct meaning: Carpi.

wrist

The bones of the skeleton store energy reserves as fat in __________.

yellow marrow

Correctly match the following terms: Forms the cheek and part of the orbit.

zygomatic process

Identify the part of the temporal bone indicated by "B."

zygomatic process

Identify the general class of bone indicated by "C."

Flat bone

Identify the type of movement at the neck indicated by "C."

Flexion

Which of the following adducts the hand?

Flexor carpi ulnaris

Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "E."

Floating R

Correctly match the term and definition: Vertebral ribs.

Floating ribs

The flat surface of the tibia that articulates with the femur is the superior surface of which landmark?

Medial and lateral condyles

Identify the best description for the location of the head of the femur.

Medial and proximal

Correctly match the bone and location: Ulna.

Medial forearm

Match the muscle action involving mastication with its appropriate muscle name: Protracts the mandible and moves the mandible side to side.

Medial pterygoid

Correctly match the definition and term: Hollow space in the shaft of a long bone.

Medullary cavity

Correctly match the following term: Bones that form most of the sole of the feet.

Metatarsals

Identify the muscle indicated by "B."

Middle scalene

Match the muscle fiber to the appropriate characteristic: Fast oxidative muscle fiber.

Moderately fatigue resistant

Match the muscle fiber to the appropriate characteristic: Fast oxidative muscle fiber. Fatigues quickly Fatigue resistant Moderately fatigue resistant None of the listed responses is correct.

Moderately fatigue resistant

Select the correct description of ion movement at the neuromuscular junction that produces the end plate potential.

More sodium enters the muscle fiber than potassium leaves the muscle fiber.

Which of the following is true with respect to hyaline cartilage? Located in the external ear and epiglottis Surrounded by periosteum Most abundant skeletal cartilage Highly compressible with great tensile strength

Most abundant skeletal cartilage

What structure most directly stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber to contract?

Motor neuron -The motor neuron transmits action potentials from the brain or spinal cord to muscle fibers by releasing acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "B."

Motor neuron stimulates muscle fiber

Correctly match the following term: Glenoid cavity.

Scapula

Remember Liliana from the Clinical Case Study in Chapter 5? After we last heard about her she was admitted for further treatment. Relative to her skeletal system, the following notes have been added to her chart. Fracture of superior right tibia (shinbone); 3.5-cm laceration where bone protrudes. Area cleaned and the bone subjected to internal (open) reduction. Cast applied. Nutrient artery of tibia damaged. Medial meniscus (fibrocartilage disc) of right knee joint crushed; knee joint inflamed,

"The only supplement I should need would be calcium, so I will take a calcium supplement every morning." Liliana needs to know that to absorb the calcium from those supplements, she will require vitamin D.

You are counseling a patient with osteoporosis about strategies for avoiding fractures. Which of the following comments would NOT be appropriate? "You should avoid weight-bearing exercise and strength training because these types of exercise will further weaken your bones." "Be sure to consistently take any calcium and vitamin D supplements prescribed by your provider." "Weight-bearing exercises like walking and strength training for your muscles will help to strengthen your bones." "Adequate pr

"You should avoid weight-bearing exercise and strength training because these types of exercise will further weaken your bones." Remember that Wolff's law states that bone density increases in response to mechanical stress. Appropriate activity is an essential component of the treatment for this condition.

Assume you have a membrane with only potassium leakage channels. The RMP is -90mV. Predict the RMP if we add Na+ leakage channels.The most likely RMP value of Na+ is __________.

-70 mV

How many regions of the vertebral column are there?

5

To what percent of its length can a ligament be stretched and not snap?

6%

How many cervical vertebrae are there in a normal adult?

7

Match the following component of a muscle fiber with its description: Area of the sarcomere with overlapping thick and thin filaments. I band H band Z disc A band

A Band

Select the statement that best describes most long bones at the time of birth. Ossification is complete and hyaline cartilage is restricted to the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages. A bony diaphysis with a widening medullary cavity, and two cartilaginous epiphyses The epiphyses consist solely of hyaline cartilage and a bone collar surrounds the diaphysis. The epiphyses contain secondary ossification centers and the diaphysis is filled with spongy bone.

A bony diaphysis with a widening medullary cavity, and two cartilaginous epiphyses

Cl− is a common, negatively charged extracellular ion. Predict the effect on the RMP if many Cl− gated channels are suddenly opened

A more negative RMP would result. -Correct! Cl− is negatively charged and has a higher concentration in the ECF. The opening of Cl− channels would allow more negative charge to attempt to enter the cytoplasm. If the cell's normal RMP were -70mV, it would now become more negative. The farther away the RMP is from zero, either in the positive or in the negative direction, the greater the separation of charges is. This is called hyperpolarization. When the RMP moves closer to 0 mV, depolarization occurs.Congratulations! You've successfully examined the construction of the resting membrane potential, an important concept in any human cell.

Which of the following movements is an example of circumduction movement?

A pitcher winding up to throw the ball

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Lever.

A rigid bar that moves on a fixed point

Which of the following choices best summarizes excitation-contraction coupling?

A series of events in which an electrical stimulus is conveyed to a muscle fiber to enact contraction -Congratulations! You have completed the final activity in this tutorial. The tutorial covered the sequence of events in excitation-contraction coupling that links the excitation of the membrane to the cross bridge cycling of the contracting proteins. Great job!

A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. How are these components connected?

A series of proteins that control calcium release. -Yes! When action potentials propagate along T-tubules, a voltage-sensitive protein changes shape and triggers a different protein to open it's channels, resulting in the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae.

Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "A."

ACh released; binds to receptors on sarcolemma.

Which energy source provides high yields of ATP necessary for prolonged-duration exercise? ATP is formed from creatine phosphate and ADP (direct phosphorylation). ATP is generated by breakdown of several nutrient energy fuels by the aerobic pathway. Glycogen stored in muscles is broken down to glucose, which is oxidized to generate ATP (anaerobic pathway). ATP stored in muscles

ATP is generated by breakdown of several nutrient energy fuels by the aerobic pathway.

Match the type of cartilage to its correct description: Fibrocartilage.

Able to withstand heavy loads and absorb shock

Which of the following characteristics is unique to smooth muscle? Consists of elongated cells Individual cells are called fibers. Absence of striations Involuntarily controlled

Absence of striations

Identify the part of thick or thin filaments in skeletal muscle indicated by "D."

Actin subunits

Identify the step in excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle indicated by "A."

Action potential is propagated along the sarcolemma and down the T tubules.

Action potentials (nerve impulses) are changes in the membrane potential that, once started, will affect the entire excitable membrane. The first action potential is usually generated at the initial segment of the neuron's axon. This activity will test your understanding of the sequence of events that occur at the membrane of the initial segment of the axon during generation of an action potential. Place the events involved in generation of an action potential in the correct order of occurrence

Action potentials are all-or-nothing events. Once an action potential is generated at the initial segment, it will continue to propagate (move) along the entire length of the axon.

Identify the type of movement of the upper limb at the shoulder as indicated by "B."

Adduction

Select the muscle that belongs to the medial compartment of the thigh.

Adductor longus

Match the following function of bone to its description: Anchorage.

As a result, we can walk, grasp objects, and breathe

The resting membrane potential is dependent upon two important factors: 1) differences in sodium and potassium concentrations across the membrane (electrochemical gradients) and 2) differences in sodium and potassium membrane permeability. This activity will help you to review how the resting membrane potential of cells are generated and maintained. Use the provided ions to correctly complete each sentence about the resting membrane potential. Ions may be used more than once, or not at all.

All living cells have a membrane potential that varies depending on its cellular activities.

Consider how the action potential that initiates contraction is delivered to the muscle cell. Which of the choices below correctly describes how an action potential generated at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is converted to excitation in the muscle fiber?

An action potential in the motor neuron causes ACh to be released into the synaptic cleft. Binding of ACh to sarcolemma receptors initiates graded potentials. -Yes! An action potential traveling down a motor neuron arrives at the axon terminal and causes exocytosis of the neurotransmitter ACh into the synaptic cleft. ACh diffuses into the synaptic cleft, binds to the receptor proteins on the junctional folds of the muscle sarcolemma (motor end plate), and initiates graded potentials. These graded potentials sum to an action potential, thus initiating excitement of the muscle fiber.

Match the following muscle action with its appropriate term: Muscles that relax when the prime mover and synergists are contracting.

Antagonists

__________ are muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement.

Antagonists

What do floating ribs lack?

Anterior attachments

Select the muscle compartment that flexes the wrist and fingers.

Anterior compartment of forearm

Correctly match the ligaments to their function: Prevent forward sliding of the tibia and checks hyperextension of the knee

Anterior cruciate ligaments

Identify the muscle indicated by "C."

Anterior scalene

Cartilage can grow in which of the following ways?

Appositional growth and interstitial growth

Match the word to its correct meaning: Brachium. Short Right angles Triangle Arm Straight

Arm

The occipital bone articulates with which of the following bones?

Atlas

Correctly match the following terms: Dens.

Axis (C2)

Match the following area with the correct term: Contains vesicles filled with acetylcholine.

Axon terminal

In which of the labeled parts of the adult long bone would hematopoietic tissue be located?

B Hematopoietic tissue is found in the red bone marrow within certain body locations consisting of spongy bone. Examples include the diploe of flat bones and the proximal epiphyses of the femur and humerus (pictured).

Identify the major weight bearing part of a vertebra.

BODY

Correctly match the following joint: Glenohumeral joint.

Ball-and-socket joint

Correctly match the term and definition: Intercostal.

Between Ribs

Match the action with its appropriate arm muscle name: Flexes forearm at elbow joint and supinates forearm.

Biceps brachii

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Effort.

Biceps brachii

Match the action on the leg/knee joint with its appropriate muscle: Flexes and laterally rotates leg at knee.

Biceps femoris

Select the muscle that belongs to the hamstrings of the posterior thigh.

Biceps femoris

Match the following protein with its action: Troponin.

Binds Ca2+ and starts the contraction cycle

Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "E."

Body

Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "B."

Body

Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Syndesmoses.

Bones connected exclusively by ligaments

Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Synchondrosis.

Bones united by plate of hyaline cartilage

Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Symphysis.

Bones united mainly by fibrocartilage

Match the following joint type to its characteristic: Sutures.

Bony edges interlocked by short fibers

Botulism and myasthenia gravis are conditions that cause muscle weakness. Which of these statements is NOT true?

Both conditions are caused by an inability of the body to produce adequate acetylcholine. -Although both conditions affect normal activity at the neuromuscular junction, failure to produce acetylcholine is not the mechanism.

Graded muscle contractions are smooth and varying in strength as different needs are placed on them. How can muscle contractions be graded?

Both temporal summation and recruitment

A bimalleolar fracture is a common sports injury that affects the lateral malleolus and the medial malleolus. Which of the following does this fracture impact?

Both the tibia and fibula

Identify the muscle indicated by "B."

Buccinator

Correctly match the following terms: Transverse processes contain foramina. Cervical vertebrae C3-C7 None of the listed responses is correct. Thoracic vertebrae T1-T12 Lumbar vertebrae L1-L5

C3-C7 Cervical vertevrae

The cross bridge cycle starts when _________.

Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to troponin -The release of Ca2+ is triggered by the propagation of an action potential along a skeletal muscle fiber. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and into the sarcoplasm of the muscle fiber. When Ca2+ concentration is high in the sarcoplasm, Ca2+ binds to troponin causing change in its shape. This shape change alters the position of tropomyosin and moves it away from myosin binding sites on actin, thus allowing the myosin head to bind actin and form a cross bridge.

Identify the stage of long bone growth at the epiphyseal plate indicated by "D."

Calcification zone

Correctly match the ligaments to their function: Prevent lateral or medial rotation when the knee is extended.

Fibular and tibial collateral ligaments

Which selection correctly describes the role of calcium in coupling?

Calcium binds to troponin, which moves tropomyosin and exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin. -The thin filament in a sarcomere is composed of actin, troponin, and tropomyosin. Troponin and tropomyosin are attached to one another, both overlaying actin. When a muscle is relaxed, tropomyosin blocks actin's myosin-binding sites. Calcium binds to troponin, initiating a shape change that removes the blocking action of tropomyosin. This exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin to the myosin heads for cross bridging.

What is the cause of rigor mortis?

Calcium influx and lack of ATP

Which of the following provides the final "go signal" for contraction? Acetylcholine Sodium ions Muscle action potential Myosin cross bridges Calcium ions

Calcium ions

Which of the following is most directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction of skeletal muscle fibers?

Calcium ions. -Yes! Action potentials propagating down the T-tubule cause a voltage-sensitive protein to change shape. This shape change opens calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing calcium ions to flood the sarcoplasm. This flood of calcium ions is directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction in skeletal muscle fibers.

Excitation of the sarcolemma is coupled or linked to the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. What specific event initiates the contraction?

Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction. -Yes! Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the specific name given to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. It is especially abundant and convoluted in skeletal muscle cells. It functions in the storage, release, and reuptake of calcium ions.

Which one of the following binds calcium ions in a smooth muscle, causing contraction?

Calmodulin

Correctly match the bone of the upper limb with its description: Forms the wrist joint with the radius and ulna.

Carpals

Correctly match the following term: Bones that form the wrist.

Carpals

Correctly match the following term: The wrist bones.

Carpals

The hip bones join anteriorly at the pubic symphysis joint. During pregnancy, this joint loosens to provide a little movement. Select the correct classification of this joint. Synovial and amphiarthrosis Unselected Synovial and diarthrosis Unselected Cartilaginous and diarthrosis Unselected Cartilaginous and amphiarthrosis

Cartilaginous and amphiarthrosis

The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "A" is __________.

Circular

Correctly match the following term to this descriptor: Doubly curved and acts as a shoulder brace.

Clavicle

All of the following belong to the thoracic cage, except __________. thoracic vertebrae costal cartilages sternum All of the choices belong to the thoracic cage. clavicles

Clavicles

Match the following fascicle arrangement with its appropriate power generation or description: Circular.

Close body openings by contracting

Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "D."

Coccyx

Identify the region of the vertebral column indicated by "E."

Coccyx

Identify the step of the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle indicated by "D."

Cocking of the myosin head

Match the description to the correct answer regarding bone tissue: Major organic fiber of bone.

Collagen

What element of fibrous joints gives the joint its ability to resist stretching and control the amount of movement at the joint?

Collagen fibers

Match the following description of muscle contraction with the correct term: The muscle shortens and does work.

Concentric contraction

Which type of contraction involves a muscle shortening and doing work, for example picking up a book?

Concentric isotonic contraction

What type of conduction takes place in unmyelinated axons?

Continuous conduction -Yes! An action potential is conducted continuously along an unmyelinated axon from its initial segment to the axon terminals. The term continuous refers to the fact that the action potential is regenerated when voltage-gated Na+‎ channels open in every consecutive segment of the axon, not at nodes of Ranvier.

Select the characteristic of muscle tissue that sets it apart from all other tissue types. Contractility Excitability Responsiveness Elasticity

Contractility

Select the characteristic of muscle tissue that sets it apart from all other tissue types. Elasticity Responsiveness Excitability Contractility

Contractility

Select the characteristic of muscle tissue that sets it apart from all other tissue types. Responsiveness Excitability Contractility Elasticity

Contractility

The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "B" is __________.

Convergent

Identify the process on the scapula that does not articulate with another bone.

Coracoid process

Which of the following is true? Bone resporption is slower than bone formation in old age. In about the second decade, bone mass increases with age. Bone formation exceeds bone resorption in young adults. Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density.

Despite the environmental factors that influence bone density, genetics still plays the major role in determining bone density.

Select the joint type that predominates in the appendicular skeleton.

Diarthroses

In a car accident, the injuries to the driver include a fractured femur. Part of the broken end of the diaphysis of the femur is visibly penetrating through the skin in the thigh area. Which of the following properly classifies this fracture?

Displaced, complete, open (compound)

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Load. Biceps brachii Elbow joint Distal end of forearm, hand Radius

Distal end of forearm, hand

Match the following description of muscle contraction with the correct term: Contraction of muscle in which the muscle generates force as it lengthens.

Eccentric contraction

Match the following term relating to a lever with its appropriate description or example: Second-class lever.

Effort applied at one end of the lever; the fulcrum located at the other; load between them

Match the following term relating to a lever with its appropriate description or example: Third-class lever.

Effort applied between the load and the fulcrum

Match the following term relating to a lever with its appropriate description or example: First-class lever.

Effort is applied at one end of the lever; the load at the other; fulcrum somewhere in between

Which of the following allows recoil of the muscle fiber when contraction ends? Thin filament (tropomyosin) Thin filament (actin) Thin filament (troponin) Elastic filament (titin) Thick filament (myosin)

Elastic filament (titin)

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Fulcrum.

Elbow joint

Correctly match the definition and term: Replacement of hyaline cartilage with bony tissue to form a bone.

Endochondral ossification

Match the following chemical with its function: Acetylcholinesterase.

Enzyme released into neuromuscular junction to break down acetylcholine

People who have hydrocephaly often have an issue with which of these glial cell types?

Ependymal cells -These cells are responsible for the production and circulation of cerebrospinal fluid, and if they are overactive, it can lead to hydrocephaly.

Identify the structure indicated by "A" in this photomicrograph of a cross section of part of a skeletal muscle.

Epimysium

Identify the stage of endochondral ossification indicated by "E."

Epiphyses ossify; hyaline cartilage remains only in epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages.

A patient is brought to the trauma center with head and facial injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. You note a constant flow of clear fluid from her nose. Which bone may be fractured?

Ethmoid

Correctly match the term and definition: Superior and middle nasal conchae are part of this bone.

Ethmoid

Which of the following is true regarding bone remodeling? The entire skeleton is replaced about every five years. None of the listed responses is correct. Spongy bone is replaced about every year. Every year 5 to 10 percent of the skeleton is replaced. Compact bone is replaced every three to four years.

Every year 5 to 10 percent of the skeleton is replaced.

Excitation-contraction coupling is a series of events that occur after the events of the neuromuscular junction have transpired. The term excitation refers to which step in the process?

Excitation, in this case, refers to the propagation of action potentials along the sarcolemma. -Yes! These action potentials set off a series of events that lead to a contraction.

Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "D."

Excitation-contraction coupling occurs

Match the action on the ankle/foot with its appropriate muscle: Plantar flexes and everts the foot.

Fibularis (peroneus) longus and brevis

Which of the following bone markings on the femur is a point of articulation between bones?

Medial Condyle

Damage to which of the following muscles would hinder inspiration? Rectus abdominis Platysma External intercostals Erector spinae Quadratus lumborum

External intercostals

A narrow, slitlike opening in a bone is referred to as a __________.

FISSURE

Correctly match the term and definition: Vertebrochondral.

False Ribs

Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "D."

False Ribs

Match the description to the appropriate term: Type of fibers that have few mitochondria.

Fast-glycolytic fibers

Match the description to the appropriate term: Type of muscle fibers that contract quickly and rely on aerobic respiration for ATP.

Fast-oxidative fibers

Match the muscle fiber to the appropriate characteristic: Fast glycolytic muscle fiber. Moderately fatigue resistant Fatigues quickly Fatigue resistant None of the listed responses is correct.

Fatigues quickly

Correctly match the following bone marking to its bone: Greater trochanter.

Femur

Correctly match the following term: Articulates with both the acetabulum and the tibia.

Femur

Which of the following statements about smooth muscle is true? Smooth muscle is striated and involuntary. Contractions are rapid and forceful. Nuclei are peripherally located in the fibers. Smooth muscle has branching fibers. Fibers are small and spindle-shaped.

Fibers are small and spindle-shaped.

Correctly match the following: Meniscus. Muscle to bone attachment Synovial sac Fibrocartilage disc Bone to bone attachment

Fibrocartilage disc

Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Bone that has the lateral malleolus

Fibula

On a busy orthopedic service, you encounter several patients, each of whom has broken a different bone in the lower extremity. Which complete fracture will probably allow the earliest resumption of normal walking?

Fibular Because the fibula's role is to brace and support the tibia, but not to bear weight, a patient with this fracture may be allowed to bear weight early.

Which of the following foramen convey a branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)? Foramen rotundum Foramen spinosum Optic foramen Foramen lacerum

Foramen rotundum

Match the following: Respiratory cartilages.

Forms the skeleton of the larynx and reinforces other respiratory passages

The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "C" is __________.

Fusiform

Match the description to the muscle function: Release of energy during metabolism.

Generation of heat

Select the muscle that is named for its size. Deltoid Temporalis Transversus abdominis Gluteus maximus Sternocleidomastoid

Gluteus maximus

Correctly match the term and definition: Joint inflammation caused by the deposit of urate crystals in soft joint tissues.

Gouty arthritis

Match the thigh/leg movement with its appropriate muscle name: Adducts thigh, and flexes and medially rotates leg.

Gracilis

Match the following component of a muscle fiber with its description: Area in the center of the A band containing only thick filaments. I band Z disc A band H zone

H Zone

Match the following component of a muscle fiber with its description: Area in the center of the A band containing only thick filaments. Z disc I band A band H zone

H band

Correctly match the bone of the upper limb with its description: Articulates with the scapula.

HUMERUS

Match the following: True ribs.

Have a direct sternal attachment via costal cartilage

Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Articulates with the acetabulum of the pelvis.

Head of Femur

Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "D."

Head of Rib

Which of the following landmarks can be found on both the tibia and fibula?

Malleoli

Select the correct sequence of fracture repair steps. Hematoma forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bony callus forms, bone remodeling occurs Hematoma forms, bony callus forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bone remodeling occurs Fibrocartilaginous callus forms, hematoma forms, bony callus forms, bone remodeling occurs Fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bony callus forms, hematoma forms, bone remodeling occurs Hematoma forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bone remodeling occurs, bony call

Hematoma forms, fibrocartilaginous callus forms, bony callus forms, bone remodeling occurs

Which function of bone tissue occurs in the red bone marrow?

Hematopoiesis

Which of the following is characterized by a ruptured anulus fibrosis?

Herniated disc

Correctly match the term and definition: Movement that increases the angle between two bones along the sagittal plane beyond the anatomical position.

Hyperextension

Which of the following statements is true? Because calcium causes neurotransmitter release, excessive calcium will lead to hyperexcitability. Because calcium causes neurotransmitter release, too little calcium causes non-responsiveness. Sustained decreases in calcium can lead to kidney stones. Hypocalcemia leads to hyperexcitability.

Hypocalcemia leads to hyperexcitability.

Which of the following is the largest region of the hip bone?

Ilium

Which region of the hip bone articulates with the sacrum?

Ilium

Correctly match the following term: Pelvic girdle bone of the appendicular skeleton that articulates with the axial skeleton.

Illium

What changes occur to voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels at the peak of depolarization?

Inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close, while activation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open. -Yes! Closing of voltage-gated channels is time dependent. Typically, the inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close about a millisecond after the activation gates open. At the same time, the activation gates of voltage-gated K+‎ channels open.

Match the description to the event in the generation and propagation of an action potential: Propagation of the action potential.

Increased positive charge inside sarcolemma changes permeability of adjacent areas, opening voltage-regulated Na+ channels

Osteoblasts release which of the following?

Matrix vesicles studded with the enzyme alkaline phosphatase

Correctly match the term and definition: Bone that contains the infraorbital foramen.

Maxilla

Individual vertebrae articulate with each other forming the vertebral column. Identify the part of a vertebra that articulates immediately with the vertebra below it.

Inferior articular processes

Identify the muscle indicated by "B."

Infraspinatus

Identify the muscle indicated by "F."

Infraspinatus

Which of the following structures would not be found within a vertebral foramen? Spinal nerve roots Spinal cord Dura mater Intervertebral discs

Intervertebral discs Submit

Which landmark of the hip bone can be felt on a hard chair?

Ischial tuberosity

The action potential propagates along the sarcolemma. As the action potential spreads down the T tubules of the triads, voltage-sensitive tubule proteins change shape. How does the shape change of these proteins lead to contraction?

It allows calcium to exit the sarcoplasmic reticulum and enter the cytosol. -As the action potential propagates, it changes the shape of T tubule proteins. These proteins are linked to calcium channels in the terminal cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. When these proteins' calcium channels open, a massive amount of calcium flows into the cytosol.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscle? It can contract for long periods of time without tiring. It is voluntary. It contracts rapidly. It can exert tremendous power.

It can contract for long periods of time without tiring.

Identify the friction-reducing structure associated with synovial joints indicated by "C."

Joint cavity containing synovial fluid

Of all body joints, what joint is most susceptible to sports injuries?

KNEE

Correctly match the following: Patella.

Kneecap

Correctly match the definition and disorder: Dorsally exaggerated thoracic curvature, or "hunch back."

Kyphosis

Which bone is NOT considered to be part of the cranium? Ethmoid bone Sphenoid bone Occipital bone Lacrimal bone

Lacrimal Bone

What is the term for the layers of bony matrix surrounding the vessels and nerve?

Lamellae

Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "C."

Lamina

Identify the muscle indicated by "D."

Latissimus dorsi

Match the action with its appropriate muscle name: Extends, adducts, and rotates arm medially.

Latissimus dorsi

Identify the muscle indicated by "D."

Levator scapulae

Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Deep fascia.

Lies between neighboring muscles

Identify the part of a generalized synovial joint indicated by "A."

Ligament

Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Elongated-ridge on posterior of femur.

Linea aspera

Identify the landmark found on the diaphysis of the femur.

Linea aspera

Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "C."

Local depolarization (end plate potential) ignites AP in sarcolemma

Often several criteria are combined in a naming a muscle. Which of the following is not described in the name extensor carpi radialis longus? Muscle location Muscle action Location of the muscle origin Muscle size

Location of the muscle origin

Correctly match the definition and disorder: An accentuated lumbar curvature, or swayback.

Lordosis

People with multiple sclerosis (MS) experience many challenging symptoms. Which statement best explains one cause of these difficulties?

Loss of oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system results in absence of the myelin sheath of neuronal axons, impairing rapid saltatory conduction. -The oligodendrocytes of the central nervous system provide axonal myelin sheaths, which increases the speed of conduction of action potentials. The loss of myelin inhibits this conduction in MS and other demyelinating disorders.

The vertebrae that are characterized by having enhanced weight-bearing capability are the __________.

Lumbar

Match the muscle function to its description: Making one tiny adjustment after another to counteract the never-ending downward pull of gravity.

Maintaining posture

Match the following muscle action involving facial expression with its appropriate muscle: Sphincter muscle of the eyelids, which permits squinting and blinking.

Orbicularis oculi

Identify the muscle indicated by "A."

Orbicularis oris

Match the muscle with its correct origin and insertion: Temporalis.

Origin: temporal fossa Insertion: coronoid process of mandible

Identify the stage of long bone growth at the epiphyseal plate indicated by "E."

Ossification zone

Correctly match the term and definition: A degenerative condition most common in the elderly.

Osteoarthritis

are cells that build bone matrix.

Osteoblasts

Determine the scenario that reduces the mass of a long bone.

Osteoclast activity is greater than osteoblast activity.

is a disease in which bones lose mass and strength, becoming brittle.

Osteoporosis

Correctly match the term and description: Bone stem cell.

Osteoprogenitor cell

Which bone disorder is characterized by excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption?

Paget's disease

Which of the following bone disorders is not treatable with increased calcium and vitamin D? Rickets Osteomalacia Osteoporosis All of the choices are treated with increased calcium and vitamin D. Paget's disease

Paget's disease

The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "D" is __________.

Parallel

The hormonal control of bone remodeling primarily involves which of the following?

Parathyroid Bone

Match the thigh/leg movement with its appropriate muscle name: Flexes and adducts thigh.

Pectineus

Which of the following is part of the appendicular division of the skeletal system? Skull Hyoid bone Vertebral column Auditory ossicles Pectoral girdle

Pectoral girdle

Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "D."

Pedicle

The pattern of fascicle arrangement of the muscle at "E" is __________.

Pennate

Identify structure indicated by "B" in this photomicrograph of a cross section of part of a skeletal muscle.

Perimysium

Correctly match the definition and term: Fibrous connective tissue membrane that covers the outer surface of long bone.

Periosteum

Select the muscle of facial expression that tenses the neck. Mentalis Corrugator supercilii Zygomaticus major Platysma

Platysma

Identify the part of thick or thin filaments in skeletal muscle indicated by "A."

Portion of a thick filament

Correctly match the ligaments to their function: Prevent backward displacement of the tibia or forward sliding of the femur.

Posterior cruciate ligaments

Match the action on the leg/knee joint with its appropriate muscle: Flexes, abducts, and laterally rotates thigh.

Sartorius

Identify the stage of long bone growth at the epiphyseal plate indicated by "B."

Proliferation zone

Match the description to the correct zone in longitudinal growth of a long bone: Cartilage cells undergo mitosis.

Proliferation zone

Match the following term with the correct description: Action potential.

Propagation of an electrical current along the sarcolemma

Match the thigh/leg movement with its appropriate muscle name: Rotates thigh laterally and stabilizes hip joint.

Quadratus femoris

Correctly match the following term: Articulates with the capitulum of the humerus.

Radius

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its appropriate anatomical part: Lever.

Radius

Which muscle flexes and rotates the lumbar region of the vertebral column? This muscle extends vertically from the lower sternum to the pubis.

Rectus abdominis

Match the action on the leg/knee joint with its appropriate muscle: Extends leg at knee and flexes thigh at hip.

Rectus femoris

Inadequate calcium in the neuromuscular junction would directly affect which of the following processes?

Release of acetylcholine from the synaptic vesicles -Calcium ions enter the axon terminal when voltage-gated calcium channels open in response to the arrival of an action potential. The presence of calcium causes synaptic vesicles to release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

Match the following chemical with its function: Ca2+.

Released by terminal cisternae into the sarcoplasm to bind with troponin

Match the following term with the correct description: Repolarization.

Restoration of the membrane potential to resting potential

Match the description to the event in the generation and propagation of an action potential: Repolarization.

Restoring the sarcolemma to its initial polarized state (negative inside, positive outside)

Which of the following joint problems is the result of an autoimmune problem?

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) -In RA, the body's immune system attempts to destroy the tissues in the joints in an apparent case of "mistaken identity."

Identify the muscle indicated by "C."

Rhomboid major

Identify the muscle indicated by "B."

Rhomboid minor

What regions of the hip bones articulate to form a symphysis?

Right and left pubic bodies

Foramen.

Round or oval opening through a bone

Identify the step in the phases leading to muscle fiber contraction indicated by "E."

SR releases Ca2+; Ca2+ binds to troponin; myosin-binding sites (active sites) on actin exposed

Identify the part of the sacrum or coccyx indicated by "C."

Sacral Foramina

Correctly match the following joint: Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

Saddle joint

Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Plasma membrane of skeletal muscle fiber.

Sarcolemma

Match the following cellular component of a skeletal muscle fiber with its description: Plasma membrane of skeletal muscle fiber. Sarcoplasmic reticulum Myofibril Sarcoplasm Sarcolemma

Sarcolemma

Match the description to the appropriate term: Type of muscle fibers that are most resistant to fatigue.

Slow-oxidative fibers

Select the correct description of the voltage-gated ion channels for a region of sarcolemma that is undergoing depolarization.

Sodium channels are open and potassium channels are closed

Select the correct description of the voltage-gated ion channels for a region of sarcolemma that is undergoing repolarization.

Sodium channels close and potassium channels open

Match the action on the ankle/foot with its appropriate muscle: Plantar flexes foot and is important in posture.

Soleus

Which of the following describes the action of a heavy acrobat jumping onto the short end of a seesaw and propelling his lighter partner high into the air?

Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage

Which of the following describes the action of a heavy acrobat jumping onto the short end of a seesaw and propelling his lighter partner high into the air? Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage Power lever working at a mechanical disadvantage Speed lever working at a mechanical advantage Power lever working at a mechanical advantage

Speed lever working at a mechanical disadvantage

Name the vertebral projection found in a median plane.

Spinous process

Match the following description of muscles that move the head and trunk with its appropriate name: Broad two-part superficial muscle that lies on the back of neck between base of skull and the upper thoracic vertebrae.

Splenius capitis and cervicis

Match the following with the type of muscle action: Activity best-suited for fast-oxidative fibers.

Sprinting

Mary is 50 years old. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals that portions of her skeleton show signs of osteoporosis. After reviewing the test results, her physician suggests that she take all of the following courses of action except?

Start taking synthetic parathyroid hormone

Identify the muscle indicated by "A."

Sternocleidomastoid

Match the following description of muscles that move the head and trunk with its appropriate name: Flexes and laterally rotates the head.

Sternocleidomastoid

Match the word to its correct meaning: Rectus.

Straight

Match the following fascicle arrangement with the appropriate power generation or description: Parallel.

Straplike with an expanded belly; great ability to shorten but not usually very powerful

Identify the friction-reducing structure associated with synovial joints indicated by "A."

Subacromial bursa

Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "B."

Superior costal facet

Identify the muscle indicated by "A."

Supraspinatus

Identify the muscle indicated by "E."

Supraspinatus

Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Epimysium.

Surrounds an entire muscle

Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Perimysium.

Surrounds each muscle bundle (fascicle)

Match the following skeletal muscle structure with the correct description: Endomysium.

Surrounds each muscle fiber

Which of the following lists all of the fibrous joint types? Sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses Sutures and syndesmoses Synchondroses and symphyses Gomphoses and syndesmoses

Sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

The small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron is the

Synaptic Cleft -The synaptic cleft is the small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron.

Correctly match the term and definition: An immovable joint.

Synarthrosis

Match the following joint types: Cartilaginous.

Synchondroses and symphyses

Drag and drop the correct concentrations and the direction of the concentration gradient in a cell at RMP. Answers may be used more than once or not at all. The appropriate arrow should be placed on the plasma membrane—the targets appear on either side of the pumps.

The Na+ concentration is higher outside of the cell, while the concentration of K+ is higher inside the cell.

Imagine that the cell membrane from the previous problem becomes more permeable to Na+. Predict how this will affect the RMP.

The RMP will be more positive.

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Effort. The resistance A rigid bar that moves on a fixed point The fixed point upon which a lever moves The applied force

The applied force

You are going to record RMP from a cell using an electrode. You place your electrode and record a resting membrane potential every millisecond. You record an initial value of -70mV; however, over time you notice that your recordings become more and more positive until the RMP reaches 0mV. Assuming that Na+ and K+ are the major determinants of RMP in this cell, which of the following could best explain your results?

The cell's Na+-K+ ATPase pumps have stopped functioning. -Yes! Since the RMP eventually becomes zero, the concentration of ions on either side of the membrane would be roughly equal. Without active processes to maintain concentration gradients, we would expect the concentration of ions on either side of the membrane to equilibrate.

Babies are often born with a slightly misshapen head that corrects itself over time. However, in some children suffering from craniosynostosis, the sutures fuse too early and either surgical intervention or corrective helmets must be worn to help correct the problem. Which set of sutures would most likely be affected if the child's head was too short in the anterior-posterior dimension and too tall in the forehead region?

The coronal sutures -These large sutures separating the frontal and parietal bones allow for normal anterior-posterior growth of the infant's skull.

Which of the following factors contributes the most to the stability of the hip joint?

The deep socket that encloses the femoral head

In the sliding filament model of contraction, which of the following occurs when the muscle cell shortens? The I bands stay the same length. The A bands shorten. The distance between successive Z discs shortens. H zones appear.

The distance between successive Z discs shortens.

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Fulcrum.

The fixed point upon which a lever moves

Why does regeneration of the action potential occur in one direction, rather than in two directions?

The inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+‎ channels close in the node, or segment, that has just fired an action potential. -Yes! At the peak of the depolarization phase of the action potential, the inactivation gates close. Thus, the voltage-gated Na+‎ channels become absolutely refractory to another depolarizing stimulus.

Select the true statement regarding appositional growth of a long bone. Osteoblasts on the endosteal surface of the diaphysis remove bone. Osteoclasts in the periosteum secrete bone matrix on the external bone surface. The long bone increases in length. The long bone increases in thickness, or diameter.

The long bone increases in thickness, or diameter.

Which of the following muscles is voluntary? The muscle in the wall of the urinary bladder The muscle in the wall of the heart The muscle of the stomach The muscle that extends the arm at the elbow

The muscle that extends the arm at the elbow

What is the function of the myelin sheath?

The myelin sheath increases the speed of action potential conduction from the initial segment to the axon terminals. -Yes! The myelin sheath increases the velocity of conduction by two mechanisms. First, myelin insulates the axon, reducing the loss of depolarizing current across the plasma membrane. Second, the myelin insulation allows the voltage across the membrane to change much faster. Because of these two mechanisms, regeneration only needs to happen at the widely spaced nodes of Ranvier, so the action potential appears to jump.

Which mechanism allows the rabies virus to gain access to the central nervous system (CNS)?

The rabies virus uses retrograde movement along the neuronal axon. -Once the rabies virus enters the tissue via a bite, the viral particles use the normal retrograde movement along the axons of the peripheral nervous system to move "upstream" to the CNS.

Match the following term relating to a lever system with its correct function or description: Load.

The resistance

Which of the following bones is most closely associated with the pituitary gland? The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone The styloid process of the temporal bone The zygomatic process of the temporal bone The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

A resting neuron is an unstimulated neuron that is not presently generating an action potential. The resting membrane potential is the separation of the relative positive and negative charges across the membrane of a cell at rest. Drag the charges to the correct side of the membrane to represent the resting membrane potential of a typical neuron.

The separation of charges creates a voltage (electrical potential difference), which can be measured using a voltmeter. The resting membrane potential of a neuron averages -70mV (millivolts). All neural activities begin with a change in the resting membrane potential of a neuron.

Which of the following contributes to the instability of the shoulder joint?

The small size of the glenoid cavity compared to the head of the humerus

Which of the following muscles divides the neck into two triangles?

The sternocleidomastoid

If troponin is a component of both cardiac and skeletal muscle, why is an elevated plasma troponin level useful in diagnosing myocardial damage?

The subunits of the troponin in cardiac muscle are unique to heart muscle. -Although both types of striated muscle contain troponin, the subunits found in cardiac muscle are different from those in skeletal muscle. The laboratory test used to diagnose cardiac muscle damage is specific for those subunits.

Match the following term with the correct description: Refractory period.

The time when a fiber cannot be stimulated until repolarization is complete

Correctly match the synovial joint to its range of motion: Multiaxial.

Three planes

Correctly match the bone of the lower limb with its description: Bone with the bony crest that forms the shin

Tibia

Correctly match the following term: Medial and lateral condyles

Tibia

Name the bone that articulates with the distal end of the femur.

Tibia

Identify the blunt elevation found on the anterior surface of the tibia between the lateral and medial condyles.

Tibial tuberosity

Which muscle laterally parallels the sharp anterior margin of the tibia?

Tibialis anterior

Identify a lateral projection of a vertebra. Superior articular process Lamina Spinous process Transverse process

Transverse Process

Identify the part of a rib and thoracic vertebra indicated by "A."

Transverse costal facet

Identify the part of a typical vertebra indicated by "B."

Transverse process

Select the muscle that is named for the direction of its fibers. Temporalis Gluteus maximus Deltoid Transversus abdominis Adductor longus

Transversus abdominis

Identify the muscle indicated by "A."

Trapezius

Match the word to its correct meaning: Deltoid.

Triangle

Identify the muscle indicated by "C."

Triceps brachii

Identify the part of the thoracic cage indicated by "A."

True Rib

Correctly match the term and definition: Vertebrosternal.

True Ribs

Correctly match the description of the projection with its name: Large, rough, rounded projections.

Tuberosity

What is the relationship between the number of motor neurons recruited and the number of skeletal muscle fibers innervated?

Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron. -Yes! There are many more skeletal muscle fibers than there are motor neurons. The ratio of neurons to fibers varies from approximately one to ten to approximately one to thousands.

Correctly match the following term: Coronoid process.

Ulna

Select the muscle that belongs to the quadriceps femoris of the anterior compartment of the thigh.

Vastus medialis

Trochanter.

Very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process

The linking of thick and thin filaments together is called _____________.

forming a cross bridge

Match the following: Ethmoid bone. Forms a part of the nasal septum Encloses the pituitary Surrounds the external ear canal Is the most anterior part of the cranium Forms the bulk of the cranial ceiling Forms most of the base of the skull

forms part of the nasal septum

Match the description to the correct stage of bone repair: Activity of fibroblasts and osteoblasts creates an overgrown splint around the fracture site.

fribrocartilage callus

Correctly match the following bones: Supraorbital foramen. Frontal bone Occipital bone Temporal bone Sphenoid bone Maxilla bone

frontal bone

Which of the following bones is unpaired? Temporal Parietal Frontal Zygomatic

frontal bone

Identify the paranasal sinus indicated by "A."

frontal sinuses

Identify the socket of the shoulder joint.

glenoid cavity

The term "nonaxial movement" means __________.

gliding movements only

Which of the following is classified as a fibrous joint? Pivot Gomphosis Symphysis Synchondrosis

gomphosis

The presence of uric acid crystals in the joints is a hallmark of __________.

gout

Correctly match the following term: Hallux.

great toe

During infancy and childhood, the single most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is __________ from the anterior pituitary gland.

growth hormone

Correctly match the description of the bony projection with its name: Bony expansion carried on a narrow neck.

head

Identify the region of the femur that forms part of the hip joint.

head

Correctly match the following: Calcaneus

heel bone

Blood cells are formed by the process of

hematopoiesis.

Correctly match the following joint: Interphalangeal joint.

hinge joint

Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "E."

hinge joint

Correctly match the following term: Coxal bone.

hip

When problems with blood forming tissue are suspected, clinicians obtain tissue samples from the _____________ because the red bone marrow in this location is highly active in hematopoiesis.

hip bone

Correctly match the following joint: Iliofemoral ligament.

hip joint

What material makes up most of the structure at A?

hyaline cartilage

The structure indicated by the arrow is composed primarily of what tissue?

hyaline cartilage The cartilage models used to form bones are composed of hyaline cartilage. This tissue persists within the epiphyseal plate at the boundary between primary and secondary ossification centers until early adulthood.

Fetal vertebrae develop through endochondral ossification from a preexisting __________ model. The second step of repair of a fracture of these bones is the formation of a(n) __________ callus.

hyaline cartilage; fibrocartilaginous Submit

Let's consider a scenario in which the resting membrane potential changes from −70 mV to +70 mV, but the concentrations of all ions in the intracellular and extracellular fluids are unchanged. Predict how this change in membrane potential affects the movement of Na+. The electrical gradient for Na+ would tend to move Na+ __________ while the chemical gradient for Na+ would tend to move Na+ __________.

out; in =If the inside of the cell is positively charged compared to the outside, the electrical gradient will favor movement of positively charged sodium ions out of the cell.

Correctly match the term and definition: Forms the posterior hard palate.

palatine bone

When Ca2+ concentration in the blood becomes lower than normal, __________.

parathyroid hormone is released

Sesamoid bone example

patella of the knee

Match the name of the bone to its location: Clavicle.

pectoral girdle

The ___________ is a prime mover of arm flexion.

pectoralis major

Match the name of the bone to its location: Ilium.

pelvic girdle

The extensor digitorum muscle is an example of a __________ muscle.

pennate

The connective tissue membrane that encloses a bone is the.

periosteum

Which of the following correctly pairs the structure at C with its primary component?

periosteum; dense irregular connective tissue

Identify the part of the ethmoid bone indicated by "D."

perpendicular plate

Correctly match the following term: Bones that form the fingers and toes.

phalanges

Match the following: Sphenoid bone encloses the

pituitary

Correctly match the following joint: Proximal radioulnar joint.

pivot joint

Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "F."

pivot joint

Identify the type of synovial joint indicated by "D."

plane joint

When a ballerina or gymnast points their toes, this motion is __________.

plantar flexion

The pectoral girdle does not quite satisfy the features of a true girdle because __________.

posteriorly the medial ends of the scapulae do not join each other

Osteoporosis occurs most often in ____________________.

postmenopausal women

Part complete You are working on a new medication to selectively kill cancer cells. You test the drug on a culture of normal neurons to check for any side effects. Despite the presence of the drug, a normal resting membrane potential of −70 mV is maintained. Look at each of the figures below to analyze how the drug might be affecting the neuron. Figure A shows neuron activity under normal, or control, conditions (without the drug). Figure B shows neuron activity that has been altered due to e

preventing Na+-gated channels from opening

Correctly match the term and description: Diaphysis.

primary ossification center

Correctly match the term and definition: The movement of a body part forward in a transverse plane.

protraction

Collagen fibers do not __________. provide resistance to twisting forces on bone provide for bone hardness provide resistance to stretching forces on bone provide tensile strength to bone

provide for bone hardness