EAQ Med Surg Infectious DZ
What is Interleukin-2?
A cytokine that increases growth and differentiation of T-lymphocytes.
What is Thrombopoietin?
A cytokine that increases growth and differentiation of platelets.
Cervicitis caused by?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Hepatitis A virus spreads through?
Contaminated food and water.
Which virus is responsible for mononucleosis and possibly Burkitt's lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus
What cytokine increases growth and maturation of myeloid stem cells?
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor.
What is IgA responsible for?
Has very low circulating levels and is responsible for preventing infection in the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts.
IgG is expressed...
Heavily expressed on second and subsequent exposures to antigens to provide sustained, long-term immunity against invading microorganisms.
Genital herpes is caused by
Herpes simplex virus
What can cause vulvovaginitis?
Herpes simplex virus, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Candida albicans.
Genital warts caused by
Human papillomavirus
IgE is associated with?
IgE has variable concentrations in the blood and is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions.
The first antibody formed after exposure to an antigen?
IgM, provides the primary immune response.
Which drug is considered to be the first-line of medication for the management of anaphylaxis?
Isoproterenol, a beta-adrenergic. Sympathomimetic drug
What causes genital warts?
Klebsiella granulomatis Haemophilus ducreyi
Gonorrhea caused by
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Gonorrhea is caused by?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Dermatitis related to a sexually transmitted infection
Phthirus pubis
IgD is present on? and function?
Presents on the lymphocyte surface. Differentiates B-lymphocytes.
HIV Staging 1-4
Stage 2 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499 cells/mm 3. Stage 1 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm 3. Stage 3 describes a client with a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm 3. Stage 4 describes a client with a confirmed HIV infection but no information regarding CD4+ T-cell counts is available.
What bacteria causes toxic shock syndrome?
Staphylococcus aureus
Which cells are affected in DiGeorge syndrome?
This is a primary immune deficiency disorder in which T-cells are affected.
Cromolyn sodium stabilizes?
This stabilizes mast cells and prevents the opening of mast cell membranes in response to allergens binding to immunoglobulin E.
Syphilis is an STI caused by?
Treponema pallidum
Hypersensitivity reactions Type 1-4
Type I: anaphylaxisType II: Cytotoxic (antibody-IgM and IgG mediated)Type III: Immune complex mediated Type IV: Delayed type (T cell mediated) An example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis. Serum sickness is a type III immune complex reaction. Contact dermatitis is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction. A blood transfusion reaction is a type II cytotoxic reaction.
Name a leukotriene antagonist drug that prevents the synthesis of leukotriene's and helps in managing and preventing hay fever?
Zileuton.
Actinomycin
an antimicrobial medication that acts on susceptible pathogens by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
Hepatitis B,C, and D viruses spread through?
contaminated needles, syringes, and blood products.
What is Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor?
A cytokine that increases numbers and maturity of neutrophils.
Microglial alveolar macrophages Kupffer cells Mesangial cells located...
brain lungs liver kidneys
IgM immmunoglobulin is present in?
plasma
IgE and IgG immunoglobulins are present in?
plasma and interstitial fluids.
erythromycin acts on?
susceptible pathogens by inhibiting biosynthesis and reproduction.
Penicillin acts on?
susceptible pathogens by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
cephalosporin acts on?
susceptible pathogens by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
IgA presents in?
tears, saliva, and breast milk.