EMT-B Quiz Questions

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? Select one: A. Alzheimer dementia B. Schizophrenia C. Depression D. Anxiety conditions

A. Alzheimer dementia

What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? Select one: A. Heart, blood vessels, blood B. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets C. Heart, brain, lungs D. Arteries, veins, capillaries

A. Heart, blood vessels, blood

Which of the following may help reduce your patient's nausea? Select one: A. Low-flow oxygen B. Positive-pressure ventilation C. Cricoid pressure D. Oral glucose

A. Low-flow oxygen

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: Select one: A. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. B. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. C. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest. D. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries.

A. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: Select one: A. back is bent forward at the hips. B. force is exerted straight down the spine. C. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. D. hands are held close to the legs.

A. back is bent forward at the hips.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: Select one: B. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.

A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. cleaning. B. sterilization. C. disinfection. D. high-level disinfection.

A. cleaning.

The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. diaphragm B. mediastinum C. costal arch D. costovertebral angle

A. diaphragm

When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. Select one: A. guarding. B. distention. C. crepitus. D. instability.

A. guarding.

When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: Select one: A. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. B. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. C. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. D. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.

A. have a female EMT remain with her if possible.

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: Select one: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle. D. shunting of blood to vital organs.

A. pupillary constriction.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: Select one: A. quadruples. B. is not affected. C. triples. D. doubles.

A. quadruples.

Activated charcoal is an example of a(n): Select one: A. suspension. B. elixir. C. gel. D. solution.

A. suspension.

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: A. the four-person log roll. B. the direct patient carry. C. the use of a scoop stretcher. D. the clothes drag.

A. the four-person log roll.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. tolerance. B. withdrawal. C. dependence. D. addiction.

A. tolerance.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: A. Generalized weakness B. A rapid heart rate C. Syncope or dizziness D. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min

B. A rapid heart rate

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Labored breathing B. Dependent edema C. Pulmonary edema D. Flat jugular veins

B. Dependent edema

What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Intraosseous B. Intramuscular C. Intravenous D. Sublingual

B. Intramuscular

Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? Select one: A. Agitated delirium B. Psychosis C. Schizophrenia D. Suicidal

B. Psychosis

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? Select one: A. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. B. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. C. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. D. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher.

B. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.

Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? Select one: A. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. C. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.

B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: Select one: A. palpate his radial pulses. B. administer high-flow oxygen. C. apply ice to the hematoma. D. perform a neurologic exam.

B. administer high-flow oxygen.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. elevate his legs and keep him warm. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. D. ensure that his airway is patent.

B. apply direct pressure to the wound.

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT: Select one: A. speaking privately with the patient. B. at a distance when the patient is first seen. C. when the patient is in the ambulance. D. speaking with family members or bystanders first.

B. at a distance when the patient is first seen.

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: Select one: A. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. B. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. C. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat. D. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury.

B. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. be alert for personal hazards. C. look for drug paraphernalia. D. observe the scene for drug bottles.

B. be alert for personal hazards.

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: Select one: A. acute schizophrenia. B. delirium tremens. C. alcohol intoxication. D. acute hypovolemia.

B. delirium tremens.

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: Select one: A. state-sponsored terrorism. B. domestic terrorism. C. apocalyptic violence. D. an ecoterrorist attack.

B. domestic terrorism.

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. is a more contagious type of disease. B. has a greater ability to produce disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. is less resistant to treatment.

B. has a greater ability to produce disease.

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. D. a collapsible undercarriage.

B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. allow extrication to commence. B. perform a primary assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. begin treating his or her injuries.

B. perform a primary assessment.

Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. removal from a dangerous situation or position. C. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.

B. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.

B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. left ventricle. B. right atrium. C. right ventricle. D. left atrium.

B. right atrium.

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. the study of how medications affect the brain. B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body. C. the study of drug excretion from the human body. D. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.

B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? Select one: A. 75% B. 65% C. 55% D. 45%

C. 55%

The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically: Select one: A. 90 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 60 beats/min.

C. 70 beats/min.

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 7. B. 9. C. 8. D. 6.

C. 8.

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: Select one: A. 88°F (31°C). B. 98°F (37°C). C. 95°F (35°C). D. 90°F (32°C).

C. 95°F (35°C).

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? Select one: A. Flail chest B. Forehead lacerations C. Aortic rupture D. Extremity fractures

C. Aortic rupture

Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient? Select one: A. A patient with an altered level of consciousness B. An alert adult patient C. Medical direction approval D. A patient with stable vital signs

C. Medical direction approval

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? Select one: A. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. B. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. C. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. D. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma.

C. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: Select one: A. part of the body that sustained secondary injury. B. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. D. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted.

C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. Select one: A. flying debris B. penetrating trauma C. blunt trauma D. high-velocity weapons

C. blunt trauma

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. septic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock.

C. cardiogenic shock.

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: Select one: A. paraplegia. B. dysphagia. C. dysarthria. D. aphasia.

C. dysarthria.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. immediately resume CPR. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

C. immediately resume CPR.

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: Select one: A. arthritis. B. scoliosis. C. kyphosis. D. miosis.

C. kyphosis.

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. Select one: A. perineum; anus B. fallopian tubes; uterus C. labia majora; labia minora D. vagina; cervix

C. labia majora; labia minora

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. Select one: A. only the patient's torso B. both arms at the patient's sides C. one arm above the head D. both arms above the head

C. one arm above the head

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: Select one: A. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. B. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment. C. open his airway and assess his breathing status. D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.

C. open his airway and assess his breathing status.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.

C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: Select one: A. ischemic stroke. B. heart failure. C. pneumonia. D. osteoporosis.

C. pneumonia.

A palpable pulse is created by: Select one: A. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction. B. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries. C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. D. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.

C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: Select one: A. pubic symphysis. B. femoral shaft. C. proximal femur. D. pelvic girdle.

C. proximal femur.

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: Select one: A. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it. B. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. D. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.

C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx

You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: Select one: A. ventilate with less pressure. B. thoroughly suction the stoma. C. seal the mouth and nose. D. thrust the jaw forward.

C. seal the mouth and nose.

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. whether or not the patient is deteriorating. B. the nature of any newly identified problems. C. the reason why the patient called EMS. D. the patient's response to your treatment.

C. the reason why the patient called EMS.

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the number of patients in each triage category. B. the total number of patients that have been triaged. C. the recommended transport destination for each patient. D. recommendations for movement to the treatment area.

C. the recommended transport destination for each patient.

Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: Select one: A. alcohol consumption. B. cold water temperature. C. too rapid of an ascent. D. too rapid of a descent.

C. too rapid of an ascent.

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 200 lb B. 150 lb C. 50 lb D. 100 lb

D. 100 lb

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: A. 7; 90 lb B. 6; 70 lb C. 5; 50 lb D. 8; 100 lb

D. 8; 100 lb

A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between: Select one: A. 70 and 140 mm Hg. B. 80 and 120 mm Hg. C. 60 and 120 mm Hg. D. 90 and 140 mm Hg.

D. 90 and 140 mm Hg.

Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself. Select one: A. injected poison B. irritating toxin C. deadly venom D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Vaginal trauma C. Spontaneous abortion D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? Select one: A. Pulmonary contusion B. Aortic dissection C. Myocardial contusion D. Aortic rupture

D. Aortic rupture

Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: A. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. B. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. C. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? Select one: A. Intrusion into the vehicle B. Dismounted seats C. Steering wheel deformity D. Deployment of the air bag

D. Deployment of the air bag

A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? Select one: A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15 B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure C. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 D. He is currently not prescribed any medications

D. He is currently not prescribed any medications

Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Medical conditions B. Overall health C. Medications D. Increased weight

D. Increased weight

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. C. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition. B. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. C. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. D. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

D. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: Select one: A. dilate. B. become larger. C. not react. D. become smaller.

D. become smaller.

Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. water in the lungs following submersion in water. B. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water. C. temporary survival after submersion in water. D. death from suffocation after submersion in water.

D. death from suffocation after submersion in water.

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: Select one: A. stabilize her legs with long board splints. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: Select one: A. frontal collisions. B. rollover collisions. C. rear-end collisions. D. lateral collisions.

D. lateral collisions.

While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.

D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: Select one: A. start of infancy. B. toddler period. C. premature phase. D. neonatal period.

D. neonatal period.

Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: Select one: A. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. B. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. C. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord. D. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

D. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: Select one: A. splenic dysfunction. B. intentional overdose. C. pancreatic failure. D. renal insufficiency.

D. renal insufficiency.

Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. clotting of the line. B. a local infection. C. bleeding around the line. D. rupture of a central vein.

D. rupture of a central vein.

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. Select one: A. perfusion B. hypoxia C. hypotension D. shock

D. shock

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: Select one: A. second-degree burn. B. partial-thickness burn. C. full-thickness burn. D. superficial burn.

D. superficial burn.

A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. B. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. C. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. D. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.

D. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. Select one: A. direct other incoming EMS units B. assist in the search on foot C. assume medical command D. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

D. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? Select one: A. Prone B. Supine C. Recumbent D. Dorsal

A. Prone

Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: Select one: A. whenever you touch nonintact skin. B. during routine cleaning of the ambulance. C. while handling needles or other sharps. D. when performing endotracheal intubation.

D. when performing endotracheal intubation.

The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. B. the removal of fluid from around the heart. C. a surgical opening made in the heart. D. surgical repair of the sac around the heart.

B. the removal of fluid from around the heart.

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery B. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery D. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion

C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Preventing insurance fraud B. Controlling insurance costs C. Protecting patient privacy D. Ensuring access to insurance

C. Protecting patient privacy

The root "melan/o" means: Select one: A. white. B. gray. C. black. D. red.

C. black.

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? Select one: A. "Have you had a sonogram?" B. "Do you feel the need to push?" C. "When are you due?" D. "Is this your first baby?"

A. "Have you had a sonogram?"

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 1 minute B. 30 seconds C. 1 hour D. 30 minutes

A. 1 minute

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? Select one: A. 12-20 breaths/min B. 15-30 breaths/min C. 40-60 breaths/min D. 25-50 breaths/min

A. 12-20 breaths/min

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. Select one: A. 30 B. 10 C. 20 D. 15

A. 30

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: A. 72-hour B. 96-hour C. 24-hour D. 48-hour

A. 72-hour

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? Select one: A. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing B. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations C. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations D. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume

A. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. A concrete barricade B. Behind a car door C. A large cluster of shrubs D. Stacked empty barrels

A. A concrete barricade

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? Select one: A. Abnormal spinal curvature B. Naturally deformed bones C. Patient disorientation D. Joint flexibility

A. Abnormal spinal curvature

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? Select one: A. Air splint B. Cardboard splint C. Vacuum splint D. Sling and swathe

A. Air splint

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Trachea D. Capillaries

A. Alveoli

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? Select one: A. Displaced fracture B. Moderate sprain C. Hairline fracture D. Severe strain

A. Displaced fracture

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation B. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? Select one: A. Ears B. Scalp C. Back D. Soles of the feet

A. Ears

Select one: A. Rohypnol B. MDMA C. Ketamine D. GHB

A. Rohypnol

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? Select one: A. Secondary sexual development begins. B. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. C. The systolic blood pressure decreases. D. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.

A. Secondary sexual development begins.

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: A. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. B. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. C. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. D. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion.

A. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? Select one: A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. B. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body. C. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward. D. When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.

A. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.

Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? Select one: A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto). B. The patient has a history of hypertension. C. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours. D. The patient had a stroke 5 years prior.

A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto).

When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others B. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior C. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened D. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member

A. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. a blowout fracture. B. optic vessel compression. C. a lacerated globe. D. a ruptured eyeball.

A. a blowout fracture.

In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. B. make decisions based on their conscience. C. look for approval from their peers and society. D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

A. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. B. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. C. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. D. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea.

A. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: Select one: A. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes. D. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.

A. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan). B. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon). C. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate. D. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan).

Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: Select one: A. at the feet. B. en route to the hospital. C. in the ambulance. D. at the head.

A. at the feet.

Pale skin in a child indicates that the: Select one: A. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. child is in severe decompensated shock. D. child's core body temperature is elevated.

A. blood vessels near the skin are constricted.

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. break in the continuity of the bone. B. abnormality in the structure of a bone. C. total loss of function in a bone. D. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.

A. break in the continuity of the bone.

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. brief and easily understood. B. lengthy and complete. C. spoken in a loud voice. D. coded and scripted.

A. brief and easily understood.

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: Select one: A. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. C. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. D. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest.

A. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: Select one: A. capsules. B. caplets. C. pills. D. tablets.

A. capsules.

EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: Select one: A. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team. B. perform and document more accurate patient assessments. C. determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses. D. more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition.

A. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team.

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): Select one: A. contusion. B. crush injury. C. abrasion. D. hematoma.

A. contusion.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: Select one: A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. B. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. C. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. D. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs.

A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: Select one: A. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. B. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. C. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. D. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately.

A. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building.

The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________. Select one: A. erythrocytes and leukocytes B. transport and clotting C. platelets and plasma D. hemoglobin A and S

A. erythrocytes and leukocytes

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. B. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. D. have a false positive home pregnancy test result.

A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. Select one: A. fallopian tubes B. cervix C. egg D. abdomen

A. fallopian tubes

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: A. family history. B. lack of exercise. C. hyperglycemia. D. excess stress.

A. family history.

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. fluid accumulation outside the lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.

A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: A. flulike symptoms. B. signs of shock. C. respiratory distress. D. pulmonary edema.

A. flulike symptoms.

A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: Select one: A. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. B. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. C. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out. D. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing.

A. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. B. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures. C. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. D. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol.

A. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot.

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. intersect B. stop signs. C. railroad crossings. D. stop lights.

A. intersect

A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. is excessively thirsty. B. is unable to swallow. C. urinates frequently. D. has low blood sugar.

A. is excessively thirsty.

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: Select one: A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen. B. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles. C. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. D. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.

A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. liver failure. B. kidney failure. C. gastric ulcers. D. CNS depression.

A. liver failure.

As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. locally accepted protocols. B. the wishes of the general public. C. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. D. the priorities of the medical director.

A. locally accepted protocols.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: Select one: A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. B. proceed with normal extrication procedures. C. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. D. remove the lines with a nonconductive object.

A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. medical director. B. EMS supervisor. C. state EMS office. D. local health district.

A. medical director.

When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. not disclosing his or her name. B. refraining from objective statements. C. withholding medical history data. D. using coded medical language.

A. not disclosing his or her name.

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed _______. Select one: A. perfusion B. hypoperfusion C. coagulation D. hemorrhage

A. perfusion

The EMT's first priority is __________. Select one: A. personal safety B. rapid response C. treatment and transport D. empathy for all patients

A. personal safety

Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: A. primary assessment B. scene size-up C. patient history D. secondary assessment

A. primary assessment

"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. respiratory patients B. seizure patients C. stroke patients D. cardiac patients

A. respiratory patients

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. side effect. B. therapeutic effect. C. unpredictable effect. D. untoward effect.

A. side effect.

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. slander B. negligence C. assault D. libel

A. slander

You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: Select one: A. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers. B. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient-specific information. C. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital. D. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded.

A. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers.

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: Select one: A. are far less infectious. B. respond to antibiotics. C. are usually not treatable. D. do not replicate in the body.

B. respond to antibiotics.

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. Whooping cough B. MRSA C. H1N1 D. Avian flu

B. MRSA

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting D. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients

B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? Select one: A. Incision B. Abrasion C. Laceration D. Avulsion

B. Abrasion

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? Select one: A. Inadequate perfusion B. Acute anxiety C. Drug overdose D. Poisoning

B. Acute anxiety

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Obstructive lung disease

B. Acute myocardial infarction

Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? Select one: A. Automatic transport ventilators B. Automated external defibrillator C. Needle decompression D. Multilumen airways

B. Automated external defibrillator

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Bacterial vaginosis

B. Gonorrhea

Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? Select one: A. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. B. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age. C. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism. D. Autism affects females four times greater than males.

B. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? Select one: A. Hypovolemic B. Obstructive C. Cardiogenic D. Neurogenic

B. Obstructive

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Severe anxiety C. Pulmonary edema D. Narcotic overdose

B. Severe anxiety

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? Select one: A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. C. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. D. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.

B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.

Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Use codes to speed communication. B. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. C. Answer questions with "yes" or "no." D. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth.

B. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: A. How long ago was the substance taken? B. Why was the substance ingested? C. What type of substance was taken? D. How much of the substance was taken?

B. Why was the substance ingested?

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: Select one: A. auscultate bowel sounds. B. assess for an exit wound. C. apply a cervical collar. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

B. assess for an exit wound.

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. Select one: A. neurogenic shock B. cardiogenic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. septic shock

B. cardiogenic shock

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. bacterial infection. B. cardiovascular disease. C. reactive airway disease. D. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

B. cardiovascular disease.

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. B. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. C. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. D. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.

B. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Select one: A. properly store B. decontaminate C. throw out D. incinerate

B. decontaminate

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: Select one: A. assessment. B. disease. C. protocol. D. medication.

B. disease.

The suffix "-pathy" means: Select one: A. enlargement. B. disease. C. specialist. D. study of.

B. disease.

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration.

B. gastric distention.

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: A. provide specific information about the chemical being carried. B. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. C. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. D. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures.

B. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.

You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose reads "high." She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. C. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. D. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia.

B. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. B. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. C. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. D. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented.

B. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. D. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.

B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

"Myo" in the word myocarditis means: Select one: A. vein. B. muscle. C. bone. D. cartilage.

B. muscle.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.

B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. immediate cardiac arrest. B. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. C. paralysis of the diaphragm. D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.

B. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. operations section. B. planning section. C. finance section. D. logistics section.

B. planning section.

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. cardiac tamponade. B. pneumothorax. C. myocardial contusion. D. flail chest.

B. pneumothorax.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. dyspepsia. B. polyphagia. C. dysphasia. D. polydipsia.

B. polyphagia.

A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. apply an AED and assess his BP. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. apply bulky dressings to the sternum. D. determine if he has cardiac problems.

B. prepare for immediate transport.

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. supine. B. prone. C. horizontal. D. on a firm surface.

B. prone.

The stinger from a honeybee should be: Select one: A. Left in place and covered. B. scraped away from the skin. C. irrigated with copious amounts of water. D. squeezed with tweezers and removed.

B. scraped away from the skin.

Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: Select one: A. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur. B. secretions can build up in and around the tube. C. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. D. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube.

B. secretions can build up in and around the tube.

You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: Select one: A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. C. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end. D. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end.

B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end.

Shock due to severe infection is called ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. septic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. neurogenic shock

B. septic shock

Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. altered mental status. B. sunken fontanelles. C. a stiff or painful neck. D. headache and fever.

B. sunken fontanelles.

Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: Select one: A. full-thickness. B. superficial. C. partial-thickness. D. third-degree.

B. superficial.

Older adults frequently ___________. Select one: A. are able to increase their muscle mass B. take multiple medications C. experience a decrease in body fat as they age D. are unable to overcome medical problems

B. take multiple medications

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. D. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula.

B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.

You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). B. tuberculosis. C. pneumonia. D. influenza Type A.

B. tuberculosis.

Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. "-al" and "-ology" B. "-ic" and "-ology" C. "-al" and "-ic" D. "-ology" and "-oma"

C. "-al" and "-ic"

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? Select one: A. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness B. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea C. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis D. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

C. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? Select one: A. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself B. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job C. A person violently attacking family members D. A person who is experiencing a panic attack

C. A person violently attacking family members

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A generalized seizure without incontinence B. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly C. A seizure that begins in one extremity D. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura

C. A seizure that begins in one extremity

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? Select one: A. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. B. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. C. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. D. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately.

C. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? Select one: A. Administer high-flow oxygen. B. Triage the patient as delayed. C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses. D. Assess his or her neurologic status.

C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? Select one: A. Larynx B. Oropharynx C. Bronchus D. Pharynx

C. Bronchus

Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? Select one: A. Oral glucose B. Inhaled bronchodilator C. DuoDote Auto-Injector D. Vacuum splint

C. DuoDote Auto-Injector

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. the lead EMT's decision. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. EMS research. D. local protocols.

C. EMS research.

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? Select one: A. Reproductive B. Skeletal C. Endocrine D. Nervous

C. Endocrine

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: A. A rapid, irregular pulse B. Widening pulse pressure C. Engorged jugular veins D. Diminished breath sounds

C. Engorged jugular veins

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Formal B. Implied C. Expressed D. Informed

C. Expressed

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? Select one: A. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? Select one: A. Direct contact B. Airborne transmission C. Indirect contact D. Vector-borne transmission

C. Indirect contact

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Pressure and pain perception B. Sensory reception C. Metabolic coordination D. Temperature regulation

C. Metabolic coordination

Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct.

C. Tightness in the chest or throat

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. Select one: A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital B. confirm the patient's diagnosis C. address the patient's symptoms D. correct the patient's underlying problem

C. address the patient's symptoms

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: Select one: A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. B. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. C. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect. D. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place.

C. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. damage to the eyes. B. cervical spine injury. C. airway compromise. D. mandibular immobility.

C. airway compromise.

"Chondro" in the word chondritis means: Select one: A. joint. B. rib. C. cartilage. D. tendon.

C. cartilage.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: Select one: A. acute retinitis. B. a detached retina. C. conjunctivitis. D. a corneal abrasion.

C. conjunctivitis.

Signs of excited delirium include: Select one: A. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. B. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. C. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations. D. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.

C. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. intercostal margin. B. costovertebral angle. C. diaphragm. D. anterior rib cage.

C. diaphragm.

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. Select one: A. superior B. dorsal C. distal D. proximal

C. distal

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. Select one: A. contraindication B. indication C. dose D. side effect

C. dose

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: Select one: A. trench foot. B. frostnip. C. frostbite. D. immersion foot.

C. frostbite.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. B. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. C. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. D. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR.

C. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. glucagon. B. dextrose. C. insulin. D. oxygen.

C. insulin.

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. determine if additional units are needed. C. observe the scene for safety hazards. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

C. observe the scene for safety hazards.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. anywhere on the arms. B. on either side of the chest. C. on the thighs or ankles. D. on the lower abdomen.

C. on the thighs or ankles.

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ____________. Select one: A. organic brain syndrome and altered mental status B. functional and nonfunctional C. physical and psychological D. All of these answers are correct.

C. physical and psychological

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. punitive action and the loss of a job. B. low morale and frequently missed shifts. C. substandard or inappropriate patient care. D. tension among coworkers and supervisors.

C. substandard or inappropriate patient care.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ventilate her with a BVM. D. contact the poison control center.

C. ventilate her with a BVM.

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? Select one: A. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day." B. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle." C. "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved." D. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated."

D. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated."

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: Select one: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 400 mm Hg. C. 200 mm Hg. D. 300 mm Hg.

D. 300 mm Hg.

The normal blood glucose level is between: Select one: A. 30 and 150 mg/dL. B. 60 and 80 mg/dL. C. 160 and 200 mg/dL. D. 80 and 120 mg/dL.

D. 80 and 120 mg/dL.

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? Select one: A. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin B. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

D. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should ________. Select one: A. apply direct pressure first B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? Select one: A. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. C. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? Select one: A. Clotting B. Coagulation C. Vasoconstriction D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________. Select one: A. protect itself B. go on alert C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Animal bites B. Gunshot wounds C. Spousal abuse D. Cardiac arrest

D. Cardiac arrest

Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. the experiences of EMTs B. the opinions of physicians C. an EMS agency's fiscal resources D. EMS research

D. EMS research

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? Select one: A. Lateral impact to the spine B. Secondary fall after the initial impact C. Direct trauma to the spinal column D. Energy transmission to the spine

D. Energy transmission to the spine

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? Select one: A. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. B. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering. C. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. D. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.

D. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Intracranial bleeding B. A postictal state C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypovolemia

D. Hypovolemia

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion B. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites C. General weakness and diaphoresis D. Local swelling and ecchymosis

D. Local swelling and ecchymosis

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Scoop stretcher B. Wheeled stretcher C. Portable stretcher D. Long backboard

D. Long backboard

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Select one: A. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion C. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension D. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

D. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? Select one: A. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA B. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA C. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA

D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA

Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose? Select one: A. Middle adults B. Females C. Patients with asthma D. Pediatric patients

D. Pediatric patients

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? Select one: A. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle B. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog C. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel D. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status

D. Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status

Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Urinary system B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Blood vessels D. Skeletal system

D. Skeletal system

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. B. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. C. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. D. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.

D. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? Select one: A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. B. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. C. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. D. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

D. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. B. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. C. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? Select one: A. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. B. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate. C. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. B. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. C. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. D. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

D. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: A. Vagina B. Cervix C. Perineum D. Uterus

D. Uterus

When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? Select one: A. Do you know what substance was ingested? B. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? C. What time did the ingestion occur? D. Why did your child ingest the poison?

D. Why did your child ingest the poison?

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: Select one: A. a separation of chromosome 21. B. an extra pair of chromosomes. C. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes. D. a triplication of chromosome 21.

D. a triplication of chromosome 21.

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. signs of putrefaction are present. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. a valid living will is unavailable.

D. a valid living will is unavailable.

You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: Select one: A. against ambulance advice. B. acute abdominal assessment. C. acute abdominal aneurysm . D. abdominal aortic aneurysm.

D. abdominal aortic aneurysm.

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft. B. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. prescription medication use. B. alcohol abuse and dependence. C. chronic medical conditions. D. an acute onset of dementia.

D. an acute onset of dementia.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: Select one: A. placenta previa. B. gestational diabetes. C. preeclampsia. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

D. an ectopic pregnancy.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. request the rescue team to extricate him. B. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. C. break the window and unlock the door. D. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

D. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. mental disorders. B. fear of medical personnel. C. history of chronic disease. D. assessment by the EMT.

D. assessment by the EMT.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: A. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. C. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm. D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. B. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.

D. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed.

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: Select one: A. superior diaphragm. B. pubic bone. C. xiphoid process. D. belly button.

D. belly button.

The three major parts of the brain are the: Select one: A. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord. B. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. C. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: Select one: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. improve over time C. come back automatically when needed D. deteriorate over time

D. deteriorate over time

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma B. hypoglycemic crisis C. hyperglycemic crisis D. diabetic ketoacidosis

D. diabetic ketoacidosis

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: Select one: A. aorta. B. spleen. C. stomach. D. diaphragm.

D. diaphragm.

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: A. olecranon process. B. radial head. C. proximal radius. D. distal humerus.

D. distal humerus.

American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. theories ready for field trial B. trends in the EMS community C. opinions from a core group of cardiologists D. evidence-based research

D. evidence-based research

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. B. place her legs together and position her on her left side. C. elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket. D. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.

D. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

D. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons.

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A. hypnotic. B. sympathomimetic. C. cholinergic. D. opioid.

D. opioid.

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. Select one: A. assist with the rescue operation B. park as close to the incident as possible C. determine if rescuers are operating safely D. park at least 500 feet from the incident

D. park at least 500 feet from the incident

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: A. begin searching for the patient B. split up and request a search grid C. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s) D. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

D. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. B. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. C. vital signs should be monitored frequently. D. prompt transport to the hospital is essential.

D. prompt transport to the hospital is essential.

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. remove him or her using a short backboard. D. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

D. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. B. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. C. assuming that other drivers will not see you. D. regularly using the siren as much as possible.

D. regularly using the siren as much as possible.

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only B. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient C. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone D. remain outside the danger (hot) zone

D. remain outside the danger (hot) zone

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: Select one: A. irregular. B. weak. C. rapid. D. slow.

D. slow.

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: Select one: A. applying chemical ice pack. B. keeping the patient warm. C. applying a tourniquet. D. splinting the extremity.

D. splinting the extremity.

"Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: Select one: A. tongue. B. intestine. C. bowel. D. stomach.

D. stomach.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: Select one: A. a large laceration overlies the fracture. B. bone ends protrude through the skin. C. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. heart rate and pupil reaction. B. the right side of the face. C. breathing and blood pressure. D. the right side of the body.

D. the right side of the body.

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication: Select one: A. ibuprofen. B. acetaminophen. C. aspirin. D. nitrostat.

Select one: A. ibuprofen.

You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. the state motor vehicle department b. your medical director c. the receiving nurse or doctor d. law enforcement personnel

c. the receiving nurse or doctor

Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances? Select one: a. Food and medications b. Insect or animal bites and stings c. Plant material d. All of these answers are correct.

d. All of these answers are correct.

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. b. c. in patients who are intubated. d. when the airway is completely obstructed. e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. Select one: A. online access to patient records B. public forums with their medical director C. an anonymous reporting system D. a privacy officer to answer questions

D. a privacy officer to answer questions

Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? Select one: A. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever B. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic C. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination

D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? Select one: A. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route. B. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient. C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. D. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated.

C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. B. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. C. position her legs well above the level of her heart. D. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible.

A. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? Select one: A. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest B. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe C. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe D. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere

A. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? Select one: A. Somatic B. Autonomic C. Sensory D. Central

A. Somatic

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Exacerbation of his COPD C. Acute pulmonary embolism D. Rupture of the diaphragm

A. Spontaneous pneumothorax

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. C. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

A. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? Select one: A. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. B. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. C. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. D. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression.

A. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.

Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? Select one: A. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands. B. Most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work. C. They are typically receiving social security and must budget with a fixed income. D. The majority of middle adults still have small children who live at home with them.

A. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands.

Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? Select one: A. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions B. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter C. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear D. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem

A. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions

During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates: Select one: A. a lower airway obstruction. B. fluid in the alveoli. C. secretions in the airway. D. swelling of the upper airway.

A. a lower airway obstruction.

A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. B. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. C. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. D. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.

A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. a seizure. B. respiratory distress. C. an acute stroke. D. a febrile convulsion.

A. a seizure.

The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: Select one: A. abdominal or joint pain. B. difficulty with vision. C. tightness in the chest. D. dizziness and nausea.

A. abdominal or joint pain.

A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease will typically complain of _________. Select one: A. abdominal pain associated with menstruation B. nausea and vomiting associated with intercourse C. bleeding associated with stress D. aches and fever associated with urination

A. abdominal pain associated with menstruation

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. diminished breath sounds. C. normal breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds.

A. abnormal breath sounds.

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: Select one: A. absent urine output. B. bulging fontanelles. C. moist oral mucosa. D. excessive tearing.

A. absent urine output.

While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. B. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. C. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest. D. recognize that he needs a needle decompression.

A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: Select one: A. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. B. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. D. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard.

C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? Select one: A. A police officer requests a copy to place on file B. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. The patient is competent and signs a release form

D. The patient is competent and signs a release form

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Severe pulmonary edema B. Carbon monoxide poisoning C. Increased body temperature D. His extremities are cold

B. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. agonal respirations. B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. ataxic respirations.

B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Chlamydia C. Genital herpes D. Ovarian cysts

B. Chlamydia

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Baseline vital signs B. Index of suspicion C. Medical history D. Primary assessment

C. Medical history

When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? Select one: A. Only when ordered by medical direction B. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury D. Always during the secondary assessment

C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury

A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms? Select one: A. Warm, red, and dry skin B. Deep, rapid respirations C. Pale, cool, and clammy skin D. Hypertension

C. Pale, cool, and clammy skin

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? Select one: A. Nondisplaced long bone fractures B. An amputated extremity C. Pelvic fracture with hypotension D. Bilateral femur fractures

C. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? Select one: A. Intravenous fluid administration B. Early administration of oxygen C. Rapid transport to a trauma center D. Elevation of the lower extremities

C. Rapid transport to a trauma center

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? Select one: A. Atria B. Left C. Right D. Ventricles

C. Right

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? Select one: A. Lateral and rollover B. Frontal and rotational C. Rotational and rollover D. Rear-end and rotational

C. Rotational and rollover

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select one: A. Paralysis B. Brain tumors C. Seizure disorder D. Type 2 diabetes

C. Seizure disorder

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rales B. Wheezing C. Stridor D. Rhonchi

C. Stridor

When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if the patient has been hospitalized before. B. if there is a family history of a stroke. C. when the patient last appeared normal. D. the patient's overall medication compliance.

C. when the patient last appeared normal.

Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________. Select one: A. men B. active adults C. women D. sedentary adults

C. women

Spina bifida is defined as: Select one: A. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid. B. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. C. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae. D. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.

D. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. a low blood glucose level B. abdominal pain C. seizures D. a fever

D. a fever

You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. Select one: A. abdominal distention B. nausea C. dyspnea D. a hematoma in the flank region

D. a hematoma in the flank region

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: Select one: A. an abnormally slow pulse rate. B. skin that is cherry red and hot. C. an abnormally slow respiratory rate. D. a normal pulse oximetry reading.

D. a normal pulse oximetry reading.

Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? Select one: a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. b. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS.

a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report.

At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. Select one: A. an uncomfortable depression in the skin B. a large area of red, blotchy skin C. a series of small, raised pustules D. a raised, well-defined area of the skin

D. a raised, well-defined area of the skin

An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. hypovolemic shock. B. acute hyperglycemia. C. a subdural hematoma. D. a systemic infection.

D. a systemic infection.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. B. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing. C. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. D. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

D. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. severe bronchoconstriction B. mucus in the larger airways C. narrowing of the upper airways D. air passing through fluid

D. air passing through fluid

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: A. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. B. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. C. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. D. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

D. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. reduce expenses at the local and state levels B. unify EMS providers under a single medical director C. facilitate a national EMS labor group D. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States

D. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States

In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: Select one: A. a low blood pressure. B. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. C. diaphoresis and pale skin. D. weakness or dizziness.

D. weakness or dizziness.

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: Select one: A. victim's statements. B. the type of call. C. the location type. D. weather conditions.

D. weather conditions.

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: A. 10; 70 B. 10; 40 C. 20; 60 D. 11; 50 Correct

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: A. 10; 70 B. 10; 40 C. 20; 60 D. 11; 50 Correct

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: Select one: A. use a toe-to-head assessment approach. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. refrain from taking a blood pressure. D. rely solely on the parent for information.

v

A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her ideal weight. Select one: A. 30% or more B. 10% or more C. 20% or more D. 40% or more

A. 30% or more

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? Select one: A. 30:2 B. 5:1 C. 30:1 D. 3:2

A. 30:2

The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. Select one: A. regulate blood flow B. regulate glucose and calcium C. produce glandular secretions D. maintain homeostasis

D. maintain homeostasis

The upper jawbones are called the: Select one: A. mastoid. B. mandible. C. zygoma. D. maxillae.

D. maxillae.

During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? Select one: A. The amount of time since of the patent's last menstrual cycle B. The possibility that the patient may be pregnant C. If the patient is sexually active D. All of these answers are correct.

. All of these answers are correct.

The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: Select one: A. 60 to 90 seconds. B. 90 to 120 seconds. C. 120 to 180 seconds. D. 30 seconds.

A. 60 to 90 seconds.

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal? Select one: A. A Level I or Level II trauma center B. Only a Level I trauma center C. A Level IV or Level III trauma center D. Any designated trauma center is acceptable.

A. A Level I or Level II trauma center

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. B. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. C. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. D. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member.

A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? Select one: A. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others B. Disruptions to activities of daily living C. Visual or auditory hallucinations D. Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community

A. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. B. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody. C. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport. D. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her.

A. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan.

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Widespread atelectasis C. Early pulmonary edema D. Acute asthma attack

A. Aspiration pneumonia

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? Select one: A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. D. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.

A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMT B. EMR C. AEMT D. Paramedic

A. EMT

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? Select one: A. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency. B. EMTs respond with law enforcement. C. It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large. D. EMTs have to restrain patients.

A. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency.

When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. En route to the hospital B. During the primary assessment C. Prior to transport D. Immediately after the injuries are discovered

A. En route to the hospital

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: A. Extrication B. Treatment C. Transport D. Triage

A. Extrication

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. I B. III C. II D. IV

A. I

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? Select one: A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. B. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. C. The kidneys are not well protected. D. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma.

A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? Select one: A. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. B. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost.

A. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.

A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. Mallory-Weiss tear. B. esophagitis. C. esophageal varices. D. acute pancreatitis.

A. Mallory-Weiss tear.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? Select one: A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. B. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. C. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment. D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.

A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Liver

A. Pancreas

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? Select one: A. Pulmonary embolism B. Severe hypoglycemia C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Congestive heart failure

A. Pulmonary embolism

Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues? Select one: A. Red blood cells B. Platelets C. Plasma D. White blood cells

A. Red blood cells

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? Select one: A. Chlamydia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Gonorrhea

B. Pelvic inflammatory disease

You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: Select one: A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. B. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. C. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula. D. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance.

A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother.

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: Select one: A. adsorption. B. digestion. C. suspension. D. absorption.

A. adsorption.

A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): Select one: A. advance directive. B. physician directive. C. power of attorney. D. statute of care.

A. advance directive.

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: Select one: A. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. B. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. C. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. D. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.

A. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: Select one: A. an air embolism. B. a spinal fracture. C. an ischemic stroke. D. nerve fiber damage.

A. an air embolism.

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. septic shock C. neurogenic shock D. psychogenic shock

A. anaphylactic shock

Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. animals or insects. B. direct contact. C. smoke or dust. D. inanimate objects.

A. animals or insects.

The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. Select one: A. apex B. base C. septum D. dorsum

A. apex

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: Select one: A. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. B. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. C. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. D. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally.

A. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. B. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. C. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm. D. open his airway and give two rescue breaths.

A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: A. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. B. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. C. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. D. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging

A. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.

After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. B. position him supine and elevate his legs. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. request a paramedic to administer atropine.

A. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. B. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. C. transport him in a supine position. D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.

A. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: Select one: A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact. B. before you load the patient into the ambulance. C. immediately after completion of your primary assessment. D. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.

A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: A. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. B. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. C. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. D. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. bilateral. B. medial. C. proximal. D. unilateral.

A. bilateral.

Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________. Select one: A. cholecystitis B. a hernia C. appendicitis D. kidney stones

A. cholecystitis

Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. B. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. C. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. D. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question.

A. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: Select one: A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. B. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. D. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.

A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. C. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. D. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.

A. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. B. requesting permission from medical control. C. checking the medication's expiration date. D. assessing the patient's mental status.

A. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. epinephrine. B. a beta-antagonist. C. albuterol. D. an antihistamine.

A. epinephrine.

When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: Select one: A. exercise reasonable care and act prudently. B. function above his or her scope of practice. C. contact medical control on every EMS call. D. consistently exceed the standard of care.

A. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.

The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________. Select one: A. fontanelles B. cranial valleys C. sutures D. ventricles

A. fontanelles

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one: A. foramen magnum. B. spinous foramen. C. foramen ovale. D. vertebral foramen.

A. foramen magnum.

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. B. have a weak immune system. C. received a hepatitis B vaccination. D. are older than 35 years of age.

A. have been infected with hepatitis in the past.

To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: Select one: A. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. B. dismiss the family members from the room or area. C. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. D. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.

A. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time.

Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. immune system. B. cardiovascular system. C. endocrine system. D. respiratory system.

A. immune system.

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider. Select one: A. injection B. absorption C. ingestion D. inhalation

A. injection

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. B. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults.

A. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: Select one: A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. B. does not cause pressure within the skull. C. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. D. results from a laceration to the brain tissue.

A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: A. irreversible renal failure. B. severe insulin shock. C. hypoxia and overhydration. D. acidosis and dehydration.

A. irreversible renal failure.

When a light is shone into the pupil: Select one: A. it should become smaller in size. B. both pupils should dilate together. C. it should become larger in size. D. the opposite pupil should dilate.

A. it should become smaller in size.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: Select one: A. just anterior to the tragus. B. slightly above the ear. C. at the angle of the jaw. D. over the mastoid process.

A. just anterior to the tragus.

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: Select one: A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. B. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. C. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. D. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position.

A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: Select one: A. may rise as high as the nipple line. B. is less prone to penetrating trauma. C. descends below the level of the navel. D. contracts and flattens inferiorly.

A. may rise as high as the nipple line.

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: Select one: A. medical director approval. B. the patient's condition. C. an order from a paramedic. D. the transport time to the hospital.

A. medical director approval.

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Select one: A. minute volume is decreased. B. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. C. overall tidal volume is increased. D. inspiratory reserve is increased.

A. minute volume is decreased.

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: Select one: A. move all walking patients to a designated area. B. focus on the patients who are unconscious. C. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. D. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding.

A. move all walking patients to a designated area.

Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.

A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history

A. nature of illness

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: Select one: A. nonrebreathing mask. B. nasal cannula. C. mouth-to-mask device. D. bag-valve mask.

A. nonrebreathing mask.

The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________. Select one: A. normal B. too shallow C. too fast D. too slow

A. normal

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. D. usually does not require the incident command system process.

A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

You are attending to a 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. Your patient has been having lower abdominal pains and cramping for the past two hours. In placing your patient on the stretcher and preparing for transport, you should place her: Select one: A. on her left side. B. in a position of comfort. C. supine with her legs elevated. D. in the Fowler position.

A. on her left side.

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: A. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. B. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. D. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.

A. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. orbit B. sphenoid C. mastoid D. occiput

A. orbit

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. oxycodone (Percocet). B. ecstasy. C. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). D. crack cocaine.

A. oxycodone (Percocet).

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. peer-assisted B. patient-assisted C. EMT-administered D. paramedic-administered

A. peer-assisted

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: Select one: A. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport. B. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport. C. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. D. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.

A. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. whole blood. D. red blood cells.

A. plasma.

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. position the ambulance upwind. B. quickly gain access to the patient. C. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. D. park downhill from the scene.

A. position the ambulance upwind.

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min B. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min D. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min

B. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: A. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. B. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma. C. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. D. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure.

A. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: Select one: A. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. B. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. C. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure. D. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain.

A. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: Select one: A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital. B. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present. C. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position. D. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain.

A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: Select one: A. put on high-visibility safety vests. B. assist with vehicle stabilization. C. quickly begin the triage process. D. report to the incident commander.

A. put on high-visibility safety vests.

When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. Select one: A. quickly, within 30 minutes. B. slowly, over several hours. C. slowly, over more than 30 minutes. D. quickly, within 30 seconds.

A. quickly, within 30 minutes.

You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. recovery position and transport. B. oral glucose gel and transport. C. high-flow oxygen and transport. D. ventilatory assistance and transport.

A. recovery position and transport.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: Select one: A. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. B. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. C. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. D. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater.

A. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________. Select one: A. self-motivation B. diplomacy C. time management D. self-confidence

A. self-motivation

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: Select one: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. a decrease in neurons. C. blood vessel dilation. D. meningeal deterioration.

A. shrinkage of the brain.

Some women experience ___________ during ovulation. Select one: A. slight cramping B. hypotension C. severe abdominal pain D. severe bleeding

A. slight cramping

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: Select one: A. spleen. B. gallbladder. C. pancreas. D. liver.

A. spleen.

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. D. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations.

A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: Select one: A. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. C. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. D. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center.

A. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. B. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. back up and take an alternate route to the scene.

A. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. B. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. C. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. D. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient.

A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: Select one: A. systolic blood pressure. B. poor general appearance. C. the mechanism of injury. D. clinical signs and symptoms.

A. systolic blood pressure.

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: A. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation B. severe enough to warrant transport C. controlled directly by the patient D. not caused by traumatic injury

A. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.

A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) upon standing because: Select one: A. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. B. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain. C. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. D. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume.

A. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes.

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: Select one: A. the cells function with adequate oxygen. B. the cells function without oxygen. C. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. D. circulating blood glucose levels fall.

A. the cells function with adequate oxygen.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. B. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. C. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. D. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization.

A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: A. the patient is clinically unstable. B. transport time is less than 15 minutes. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. the patient is in severe pain.

A. the patient is clinically unstable.

Children are often "belly breathers" because _______. Select one: A. their intercostal muscles are not developed B. they are routinely hypoxic C. their diaphragm is not functional D. they are consciously controlling ventilations

A. their intercostal muscles are not developed

A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: Select one: A. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. B. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted. C. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. D. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate.

A. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume.

Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: Select one: A. ureters. B. renal duct. C. urethra. D. prostate.

A. ureters.

The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________. Select one: A. use a human body as a home B. kill their human host C. cause an immune response D. spread disease and destruction

A. use a human body as a home

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: Select one: A. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. B. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. C. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. D. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient.

A. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: Select one: A. ventilation. B. oxygenation. C. diffusion. D. respiration.

A. ventilation.

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: Select one: A. wash your hands in between patient contacts. B. undergo an annual physical examination. C. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. D. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.

A. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: Select one: A. wear gloves and facial protection. B. consider the mechanism of injury. C. manually stabilize the patient's head. D. closely assess the patient's airway.

A. wear gloves and facial protection.

Force acting over a distance is the definition of: Select one: A. work. B. latent energy. C. kinetic energy. D. potential energy.

A. work.

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? Select one: A. Consistently increasing heart rate B. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag C. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult D. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag

B. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. Select one: A. more protected by the thorax compared to adults B. larger in proportion to the abdomen C. less likely to bleed when injured D. smaller in proportion to the abdomen

B. larger in proportion to the abdomen

A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock? Select one: A. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min B. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg C. Capillary refill time of 4 seconds D. Pulse rate greater than 120/min

B. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? Select one: A. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions B. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them C. By interfering with normal neurologic function D. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs

B. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. B. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. C. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. D. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer.

B. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? Select one: A. 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4

B. 3

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension

B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: Select one: A. 8:00. B. 7:57. C. 7:53. D. 7:59.

B. 7:57.

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? Select one: A. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed C. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma D. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree

B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: A. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities D. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities

B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing

Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: A. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients B. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances C. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building D. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity

B. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances

Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? Select one: A. Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition. B. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition. C. In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. D. In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver.

B. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? Select one: A. Check for a pulse. B. Control the bleeding. C. Administer oxygen. D. Open the airway.

B. Control the bleeding.

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind B. Developing a social network outside of EMS C. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption

B. Developing a social network outside of EMS

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. B. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. C. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

B. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? Select one: A. The broken window B. His large body size C. His clenched fists D. His shouting of obscenities

B. His large body size

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. C. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head. D. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head.

B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? Select one: A. Hollow-organ rupture B. Improperly placed lab belt C. Stabbing D. Ejection of unrestrained driver

B. Improperly placed lab belt

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: A. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. C. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin. D. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.

B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea

B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? Select one: A. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph. B. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. C. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells. D. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells.

B. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body.

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Orthostatic vital signs B. Lung sounds C. Blood glucose levels D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation

B. Lung sounds

Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response? Select one: A. Closed-ended questions B. Open-ended questions C. Multiple questions asked at once D. Yes or no questions

B. Open-ended questions

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? Select one: A. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide. B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. D. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct? Select one: A. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. B. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. C. Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. D. An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality.

B. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. High-flow oxygen administration B. Rapid transport to a trauma center C. Full immobilization of her spine D. Intravenous fluid administration

B. Rapid transport to a trauma center

Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function? Select one: A. Large intestine B. Spleen C. Stomach D. Small intestine

B. Spleen

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Cecum B. Spleen C. Liver D. Stomach

B. Spleen

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: A. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. B. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning. C. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours. D. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis.

B. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells. B. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. C. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. D. Most cells will function normally without glucose.

B. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.

What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates C. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call

B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates

What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Select one: A. To connect the ovaries B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus C. To supply blood to the uterine lining D. To produce progesterone and estrogen

B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. C. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent.

B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: A. Suctioning to clear the airway B. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation C. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask D. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway

B. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: Select one: A. a splint and elevate the extremity. B. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. C. digital pressure to a proximal artery. D. additional sterile dressings.

B. a tourniquet proximal to the injury.

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. B. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. C. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. D. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route.

B. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport. B. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly.

B. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.

B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: A. apply retardant to the leaking fuel B. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle C. disconnect the car battery D. search the vehicle for occupants

B. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle

Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: Select one: A. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. B. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. C. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. D. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual.

B. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. B. after receiving approval from the incident commander. C. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. D. only if the patient has experienced a major injury.

B. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.

B. after the primary assessment has been completed.

When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: Select one: A. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. B. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. C. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. D. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling.

B. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her.

An open pneumothorax occurs when: Select one: A. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. C. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung. D. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung.

B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body.

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. a physician arrives at the scene. B. all the patients have been triaged. C. area hospitals have been notified. D. the number of patients is known.

B. all the patients have been triaged.

Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. check for a pulse B. allow full chest recoil C. administer a breath D. remove your hands from the chest

B. allow full chest recoil

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. C. apply pressure to the brachial artery. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. Select one: A. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock B. are rarely life-threatening C. usually result in permanent damage D. are often life-threatening

B. are rarely life-threatening

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. B. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. C. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.

B. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother.

Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. Select one: A. describe the status of the suspect(s) B. be objective and factual C. include your opinion of the nature of the incident D. be subjective and summarize the crime

B. be objective and factual

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. sheds and is expelled externally. B. becomes engorged with blood. C. diverts blood flow to the vagina. D. thins and begins to separate.

B. becomes engorged with blood.

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will.

B. begin CPR until an AED is available.

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: A. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. C. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. D. induces vomiting and empties the stomach.

B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption.

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: Select one: A. involuntary muscles of the nervous system. B. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. C. nervous system's control over the muscles. D. connective tissue that supports the skeleton.

B. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.

The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. spinal cord and sensory nerves. B. brain and spinal cord. C. motor and sensory nerves. D. brain and sensory nerves.

B. brain and spinal cord.

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: Select one: A. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water. B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water. C. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. D. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution.

B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________. Select one: A. and needs medication administered to control them B. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill C. because mental illness affects everyone D. and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT

B. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. tell the patient that you want to help. B. calmly identify yourself to the patient. C. approach the patient with caution. D. quickly tend to the bleeding wound.

B. calmly identify yourself to the patient.

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: A. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks. C. may be confused with rheumatoid arthritis. D. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash.

B. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: Select one: A. glucose and lactic acid. B. carbon dioxide and water. C. ATP and glucose. D. uric acid and nitrogen.

B. carbon dioxide and water.

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: Select one: A. divert traffic away from the scene. B. carefully assess the situation. C. rope off the entire perimeter. D. retrieve all critical patients.

B. carefully assess the situation.

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: Select one: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. conjunctivitis. D. glaucoma.

B. cataracts.

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an embolism. B. cerebral vasodilation. C. a thrombus. D. an acute arterial rupture.

B. cerebral vasodilation.

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.

B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: A. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. B. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults. C. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. D. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin.

B. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): Select one: A. intestinal shunt. B. colostomy. C. gastric stoma. D. gastrostomy.

B. colostomy.

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. Select one: A. irreversible shock B. compensated shock C. decompensated shock D. late shock

B. compensated shock

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: Select one: A. evaporation. B. conduction. C. radiation. D. convection.

B. conduction.

You are attending to a 23-year-old female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital. B. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care. C. ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident. D. immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport.

B. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. C. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. D. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient.

B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.

A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: Select one: A. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. B. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. D. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.

B. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: Select one: A. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. B. delaying transport of a critically injured patient. C. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. D. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.

B. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. B. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. C. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. D. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.

B. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.

A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: Select one: A. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds. B. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar. C. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. D. attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem.

B. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar.

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: Select one: A. incubation. B. dissemination. C. weaponization. D. aerosolization.

B. dissemination.

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: Select one: A. acute respiratory distress. B. drooling or congestion. C. skin that is cool and dry. D. extreme restlessness.

B. drooling or congestion.

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. place the patient supine. B. encourage the patient to cough. C. administer back blows. D. perform abdominal thrusts.

B. encourage the patient to cough.

Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hot items on a stovetop. B. entrapment in a structural fire. C. scalding water in a bathtub. D. exposure to caustic chemicals.

B. entrapment in a structural fire.

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: Select one: A. chemical weapons. B. explosive weapons. C. nuclear weapons. D. biologic weapons.

B. explosive weapons.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. C. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. D. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.

B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: Select one: A. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. C. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. D. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate.

B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. diving. B. hangings. C. falls. D. compression.

B. hangings.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: Select one: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. has bleeding within the brain. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. is older than 60 years of age.

B. has bleeding within the brain.

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Select one: A. is restless and is working hard to breathe. B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. C. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. D. has an increased heart rate and retractions.

B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: Select one: A. hypertension. B. heart disease. C. arthritis. D. altered mental status.

B. heart disease.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. diabetes mellitus. B. hypertension. C. heavy exertion. D. severe stress.

B. hypertension.

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: Select one: A. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. B. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. C. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism. D. increase in muscle strength and reflexes.

B. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.

You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: Select one: A. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. B. increased patient comfort and dignity. C. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load. D. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground.

B. increased patient comfort and dignity.

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: Select one: A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. B. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM. C. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. D. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status.

B. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.

The amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: A. assist in fetal development. B. insulate and protect the fetus. C. remove viruses from the fetus. D. transfer oxygen to the fetus.

B. insulate and protect the fetus.

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: Select one: A. sensory and motor functions remain intact. B. it causes a problem managing the airway. C. lateral immobilization has been applied. D. the patient adamantly denies neck pain.

B. it causes a problem managing the airway.

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one: A. pericardial tamponade. B. laceration of the aorta. C. massive hemothorax. D. tension pneumothorax.

B. laceration of the aorta.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. C. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. D. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age.

B. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: Select one: A. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment. B. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. C. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem. D. most life-threatening condition that you discover.

B. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.

If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. C. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. D. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same.

B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.

As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: A. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. C. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. D. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.

B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: Select one: A. lower extremity fractures. B. neck and facial injuries. C. blunt trauma to the head. D. open abdominal trauma.

B. neck and facial injuries.

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. B. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

B. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.

B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. C. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. D. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.

B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: Select one: A. in a supine position with her legs spread. B. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches. C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. D. on her left side with the right leg elevated.

B. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. B. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. C. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area. D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.

B. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. begin ventilatory assistance. B. partially remove the dressing. C. call for a paramedic ambulance. D. begin rapid transport at once.

B. partially remove the dressing.

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: Select one: A. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. B. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. D. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia.

B. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.

Your patient complains of chronic "burning" stomach pain that improves after eating. You should suspect: Select one: A. pneumonia. B. peptic ulcer disease. C. aortic aneurysm. D. kidney stones.

B. peptic ulcer disease.

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. an increased heart rate B. peripheral vasoconstriction C. peripheral vasodilation D. hypothermia

B. peripheral vasoconstriction

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. D. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.

B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: A. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. B. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. D. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters.

B. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. C. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: Select one: A. sulfur mustard. B. sarin. C. lewisite. D. phosgene oxime.

B. sarin.

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. acute respiratory depression. B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias. C. an increase in her blood pressure. D. a sudden outburst of violence.

B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: Select one: A. .22-caliber pistol. B. shotgun. C. handgun. D. .357 magnum.

B. shotgun.

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: A. doomsday cult. B. single-issue group. C. extremist political group. D. violent religious group.

B. single-issue group.

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. C. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. D. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.

B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): Select one: A. displaced mandible. B. spinal column injury. C. airway obstruction. D. basilar skull fracture.

B. spinal column injury.

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. ureters. B. spleen. C. bladder. D. stomach.

B. spleen.

A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: Select one: A. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. B. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. C. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. D. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring.

B. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: Select one: A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness. D. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema.

B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. B. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. C. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. D. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion.

B. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

The Adam's apple is: Select one: A. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. C. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea. D. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages.

B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: Select one: A. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. B. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. C. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. D. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor.

B. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.

You are providing care to a 61-year-old female complaining of chest pain that is cardiac in origin. Your service utilizes a multiplex communication system. You wish to transmit the patient's electrocardiogram to the hospital. In order to accomplish this, you must: Select one: A. wait until you reach the hospital to transmit the information. B. use the multiplex system to transmit the information . C. be aware that only audio or data transmissions can be sent at any one time. D. send the electrocardiogram from the back of the ambulance.

B. use the multiplex system to transmit the information .

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma? Select one: A. Head tilt-chin lift B. Head tilt-neck lift C. Jaw-thrust maneuver D. Tongue-jaw lift

C. Jaw-thrust maneuver

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Kidney D. Gallbladder

C. Kidney

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis. B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. C. inflammation of the bronchioles. D. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.

B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________. Select one: A. altered LOC B. vomiting C. hypotension D. GI trauma

B. vomiting

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: A. who have taken up to two doses. B. who have experienced a head injury. C. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg. D. with a history of an ischemic stroke.

B. who have experienced a head injury.

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. B. with one or two hands. C. until a radial pulse is felt. D. 80 to 100 times per minute.

B. with one or two hands.

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? Select one: A. Bladder B. Stomach C. Liver D. Intestine

C. Liver

Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)? Select one: A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Gastrointestinal system D. Skeletal muscle

C. Gastrointestinal system

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. Select one: A. APGAR B. CQI C. HIPAA D. DCAP

C. HIPAA

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. B. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation. C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. D. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion.

C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.

Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct? Select one: A. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field. B. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control. C. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. D. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user.

C. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users.

Which of the following suffixes mean "two"? Select one: A. "primi-" and "bi-" B. "bi-" and "null-" C. "dipl-" and "bi-" D. "primi-" and "dipl-"

C. "dipl-" and "bi-"

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.1; 0.01 B. 0.03; 0.3 C. 0.3; 0.15 D. 0.01; 0.1

C. 0.3; 0.15

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: Select one: A. 3 weeks. B. 1 week. C. 1 month. D. 2 weeks.

C. 1 month.

Children of which age group are considered toddlers? Select one: A. 3-6 years B. Over 6 years C. 1-3 years D. 1 month to 1 year

C. 1-3 years

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. Select one: A. 5 to 10 inches B. 20 to 30 inches C. 15 to 20 inches D. 10 to 15 inches

C. 15 to 20 inches

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: Select one: A. 8 hours. B. 4 hours. C. 16 hours. D. 10 hours.

C. 16 hours.

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. Select one: A. 27% B. 45% C. 18% D. 36%

C. 18%

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 25 and 35 years. B. 21 and 30 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years.

C. 19 and 25 years.

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. Select one: A. 10% B. 5% C. 20% D. 15%

C. 20%

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: A. 72 hours. B. 1 week. C. 21 days. D. 6 months.

C. 21 days.

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: Select one: A. 10. B. 11. C. 9. D. 8.

C. 9.

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? Select one: A. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen B. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back D. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest

C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. B. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? Select one: A. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move. B. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move. C. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment. D. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.

C. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis D. Celiac sprue

C. Cystic fibrosis

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. Select one: A. SAMPLE B. OPQRST C. DCAP-BTLS D. AVPU

C. DCAP-BTLS

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask

C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest

What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? Select one: A. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments. B. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times. C. Follow the agency's written protocols. D. Deviate from established standards when necessary.

C. Follow the agency's written protocols.

__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. Select one: A. Alpha B. Neutron C. Gamma D. Beta

C. Gamma

In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? Select one: A. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. B. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress. C. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. D. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic.

C. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area.

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: A. The time of year in which the exposure occurred B. The patient's family history C. The environment in which the patient is found D. The patient's general physical appearance

C. The environment in which the patient is found

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? Select one: A. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. B. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. D. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow.

C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? Select one: A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. C. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx.

C. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.

You are attending to a 32-year-old male patient. The patient's wife tells you that he returned from Afghanistan last year. While he initially seemed fine, lately he has become withdrawn and distanced himself from his family and friends. He does not talk about it, but she knows that he has been having terrible nightmares that wake him up. The most appropriate question to ask regarding his experience in Afghanistan is: Select one: A. Can you tell me about your experience? B. Have you ever been diagnosed with PTSD? C. Were you shot at or under fire? D. Were you in combat?

C. Were you shot at or under fire?

Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient? Select one: A. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport. B. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment. C. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment. D. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient.

C. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment.

During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: Select one: A. air-trapping within the alveoli. B. baseline respiratory distress. C. a decreased ability to cough. D. an increased risk of COPD.

C. a decreased ability to cough.

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: A. hyperglycemia. B. hypoglycemia. C. a heart attack. D. an acute stroke.

C. a heart attack.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.

C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: Select one: A. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. D. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.

C. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. CSF leakage from the ears. B. decerebrate posturing. C. a rapid, thready pulse. D. widening pulse pressure.

C. a rapid, thready pulse.

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: Select one: A. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. B. bystanders may destroy the evidence. C. a secondary explosive device may detonate. D. weather conditions may change quickly.

C. a secondary explosive device may detonate.

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. B. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. C. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay.

C. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her.

A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication. B. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. C. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. D. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.

C. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.

An abdominal aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.

C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. B. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. D. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder.

C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on: Select one: A. providing immediate transport. B. obtaining baseline vital signs. C. airway, breathing, and circulation. D. gathering medical history data.

C. airway, breathing, and circulation

According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): Select one: A. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department. B. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured. C. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. D. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical.

C. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay.

You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance. B. perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. D. notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status.

C. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: Select one: A. distraction. B. hyperflexion. C. axial loading. D. hyperextension.

C. axial loading.

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion. B. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. D. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.

C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. Select one: A. neck B. eye C. body D. extremity

C. body

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. B. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. D. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume.

C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. Select one: A. self-confidence B. teamwork and diplomacy C. communication D. scene leadership

C. communication

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. simple access B. incident management C. complex access D. vehicle stabilization

C. complex access

You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: Select one: A. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. B. transport with minimal care. C. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet. D. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order.

C. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. B. contact medical control. C. dry the chest if it is wet. D. perform CPR for 30 seconds.

C. dry the chest if it is wet.

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. B. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. C. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. D. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash

C. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: Select one: A. approach him from behind and ask him not to move. B. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. C. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. D. assess his mental status by having him move his head.

C. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.

The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: Select one: A. convection. B. radiation. C. evaporation. D. conduction.

C. evaporation.

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: Select one: A. has separated from the placenta. B. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. C. is wrapped around the baby's neck. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

C. is wrapped around the baby's neck.

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: Select one: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular relaxation. C. ventricular contraction. D. ventricular filling.

C. ventricular contraction.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. D. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport.

C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. stomach. B. kidneys. C. gallbladder. D. pancreas.

C. gallbladder.

A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: Select one: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. acute appendicitis. C. gastrointestinal bleeding. D. intrathoracic hemorrhaging.

C. gastrointestinal bleeding.

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.

C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: Select one: A. noticed the change during a meal. B. regularly sees a family physician. C. has a history of eye surgeries. D. is allergic to any medications.

C. has a history of eye surgeries.

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. are older than 40 years of age. B. regularly take illegal drugs. C. have chronic hypertension. D. have had a stroke in the past.

C. have chronic hypertension.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. his blood clots too quickly. B. he has thrombophilia. C. he has hemophilia A. D. he has a thrombosis.

C. he has hemophilia A.

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. oxygen. B. lactic acid. C. heat. D. nitrogen.

C. heat.

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. swelling. B. a wheal. C. hives. D. burning.

C. hives.

Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. infection. B. poisonings or ingestion. C. hyperglycemia. D. electrolyte imbalances.

C. hyperglycemia.

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. alternate drive B. CO2 drive C. hypoxic drive D. COPD drive

C. hypoxic drive

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: Select one: A. perform a focused secondary exam. B. insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. immediately request ALS support. D. obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

C. immediately request ALS support.

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. Select one: A. hemorrhage B. hypovolemia C. infection D. evisceration

C. infection

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: Select one: A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: Select one: A. a fracture of the skull. B. airway compromise. C. intracranial bleeding. D. spinal cord injury.

C. intracranial bleeding.

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. occurs every 24 months. B. is delivered by computer. C. involves hands-on practice. D. is self-paced and brief.

C. involves hands-on practice.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. B. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. D. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport.

C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: Select one: A. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. B. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. C. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. D. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults.

C. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level.

A simple pneumothorax: Select one: A. heals on its own without any treatment. B. often has a nontraumatic cause. C. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. D. is caused by penetrating chest trauma.

C. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: A. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. B. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. C. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots. D. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.

C. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: Select one: A. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. B. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. C. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. D. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties.

C. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.

The proper technique for using the power grip is to: Select one: A. hold the handle with your fingers. B. position your hands about 6² apart. C. lift with your palms up. D. rotate your palms down.

C. lift with your palms up.

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.

C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: Select one: A. back of the neck. B. dorsum of the hand. C. lips or oral mucosa. D. forehead and face.

C. lips or oral mucosa.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. often presents with acute pain. B. is typically not as severe. C. may be relatively painless. D. can be controlled in the field.

C. may be relatively painless.

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: Select one: A. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. D. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.

C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.

While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: Select one: A. categorize him as deceased. B. categorize him as immediate. C. palpate for a carotid pulse. D. deliver 5 rescue breaths.

C. palpate for a carotid pulse.

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: A. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. B. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. D. type of material used to manufacture the device.

C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: Select one: A. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia. B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. D. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.

C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops. B. placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum. C. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. D. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine.

C. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward.

When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: Select one: A. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll. B. force the head into a neutral alignment. C. place blankets behind the patient's head. D. secure the patient's head before the torso.

C. place blankets behind the patient's head.

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. thorough drying with a towel. B. some form of tactile stimulation. C. positive-pressure ventilations. D. suctioning of the upper airway.

C. positive-pressure ventilations.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. B. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. D. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.

C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. rapidly transport her to the hospital. B. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen. C. protect her airway from aspiration. D. keep her supine and keep her warm.

C. protect her airway from aspiration.

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: Select one: A. leave her bicycle helmet on. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. stabilize her entire spine. D. inspect the helmet for cracks.

C. stabilize her entire spine.

You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: Select one: A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. C. protect the affected part from further injury. D. rewarm his foot in 102°F to 104°F (38.9°C to 40°C) water.

C. protect the affected part from further injury.

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pulmonary contusion. D. traumatic asphyxia.

C. pulmonary contusion.

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. intrauterine bleeding. B. spontaneous pneumothorax. C. pulmonary embolism. D. acute pulmonary edema.

C. pulmonary embolism.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: Select one: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance. B. careful monitoring her vital signs. C. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. D. quickly immobilizing her spinal column.

C. rapidly transporting her to the hospital.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: Select one: A. visceral pain. B. radiating pain. C. referred pain. D. remote pain.

C. referred pain.

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. locate the safety officer B. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue C. remain with the ambulance D. stay with the incident commander

C. remain with the ambulance

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. leave it in place B. continue chest compressions C. remove it D. place the patient on his or her side

C. remove it

A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: Select one: A. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing. B. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. D. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial.

C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.

An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: Select one: A. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. B. advise the child that he will need rabies shots. C. report the incident to the appropriate authorities. D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

C. report the incident to the appropriate authorities

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. touches another person without his or her consent. B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. C. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. D. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts.

C. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should: Select one: A. call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out. B. insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome. C. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient. D. inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and management.

C. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. severe chest trauma. C. respiratory arrest. D. a drug overdose.

C. respiratory arrest.

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Select one: A. coccyx B. ischium C. sacrum D. thorax

C. sacrum

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes _________. Select one: A. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical B. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance D. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification

C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. B. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. C. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. D. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance.

C. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. atrioventricular node. B. bundle of His. C. sinoatrial node. D. coronary sinus.

C. sinoatrial node.

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: Select one: A. start of one to the end of the next. B. end of one to the start of the next. C. start of one to the start of the next. D. end of one to the end of the next.

C. start of one to the start of the next.

You are attending to a 27-year-old patient with a history of depression. The patient's family tells you that she has been openly talking about harming herself and suicide, and they got scared when she tried to overdose on some medications. The patient did not take the pills and is alert and oriented. Despite all of your best efforts to convince her, the patient refuses to go to hospital for treatment. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. call for the police to attend the scene and, once they arrive, release responsibility for patient transport to them B. ensure that the patient is competent and completes the required documentation, and leave her in the care of her family. C. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists. D. restrain the patient and transport her to the hospital as she represents a threat to her safety.

C. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists.

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance.

C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: Select one: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM. B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. D. immobilize his spine and transport immediately.

C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.

Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: A. parasympathetic B. cardiac C. sympathetic D. respiratory

C. sympathetic

Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. Select one: A. Kussmaul respirations B. agonal respirations C. tachypnea D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

C. tachypnea

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: Select one: A. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. D. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney.

C. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: Select one: A. ligaments. B. fascia. C. tendons. D. cartilage.

C. tendons.

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. Select one: A. support phase B. transfer phase C. termination phase D. hazard-control phase

C. termination phase

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: Select one: A. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. B. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. C. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. D. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.

C. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.

C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.

C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: Select one: A. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. B. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. C. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. D. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.

C. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem.

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: A. the lungs. B. the brain. C. the skin. D. the heart.

C. the skin.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. B. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.

C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.

C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. B. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. C. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. D. the way in which traumatic injuries occur.

C. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: A. Alcoholism B. Hepatitis B C. Depression D. Blindness

D. Blindness

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Spinal cord injury B. Simple pneumothorax C. Liver laceration D. Cardiac tamponade

D. Cardiac tamponade

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: Select one: A. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. B. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube? Select one: A. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube. B. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax. C. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube. D. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.

D. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.

Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by sinus congestion? Select one: A. The headache began suddenly B. There is associated neck stiffness C. There is numbness in the extremities D. The pain is worse when bending over

D. The pain is worse when bending over

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs B. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? Select one: A. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. B. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. C. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing. D. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.

D. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct? Select one: A. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment. B. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. C. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.

D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? Select one: A. Activities of daily living B. Behavior that is acceptable to the community C. Dressing, eating, or bathing D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. B. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.

D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.

Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? Select one: A. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles B. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms C. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate D. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located

D. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? Select one: A. Always work toe-to-head. B. Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs. C. Examine extremities first. D. Avoid touching without permission.

D. Avoid touching without permission.

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? Select one: A. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. B. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. C. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. D. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours.

D. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure? Select one: A. A gradually decreasing level of consciousness B. A rapidly improving level of consciousness C. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation D. Confusion and fatigue

D. Confusion and fatigue

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? Select one: A. An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury B. Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution C. Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene D. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

D. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? Select one: A. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. B. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. C. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. D. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.

D. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.

Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? Select one: A. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. B. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy. C. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. D. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night.

D. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night.

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. Albuterol (Ventolin) C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Insurance card B. Social Security card C. Voter registration card D. Driver's license

D. Driver's license

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? Select one: A. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. B. Everyone has some form of mental illness. C. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous. D. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick."

D. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick."

You are transporting a 54-year-old male in respiratory arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner are caring for the patient. Which of the following is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? Select one: A. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise the staff of the situation. B. Call the receiving hospital with your cell phone while providing patient care. C. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise the staff of your arrival. D. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital.

D. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital.

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? Select one: A. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. B. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume. C. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. D. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

D. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis. B. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. C. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.

D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? Select one: A. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. B. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. C. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. D. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.

D. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Alzheimer disease B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Substance abuse

D. Substance abuse

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one: A. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. D. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

D. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. B. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.

D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: Select one: A. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one. B. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. C. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. D. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.

D. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. C. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment. B. apply a nonrebreathing mask. C. obtain baseline vital signs. D. assist the patient's ventilations.

D. assist the patient's ventilations.

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: Select one: A. activated charcoal and glucose. B. amyl nitrate and naloxone. C. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. D. atropine and pralidoxime chloride.

D. atropine and pralidoxime chloride.

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: A. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. B. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. C. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. pertussis. B. epiglottitis. C. croup. D. bronchiolitis.

D. bronchiolitis.

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: Select one: A. begin documenting the call on the patient care form. B. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. C. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. D. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.

D. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency. B. medical emergency. C. trauma emergency. D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: Select one: A. asthma. B. epiglottitis. C. bronchitis. D. croup.

D. croup.

Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. B. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. C. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. D. decomposition of the body's tissues.

D. decomposition of the body's tissues.

Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. B. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. C. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. D. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

D. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: Select one: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. B. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. C. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level. D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.

D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.

Peritonitis may result in shock because: Select one: A. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions. B. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature. C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. D. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.

D. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. grasping the throat. B. acute cyanosis. C. inability to speak. D. forceful coughing.

D. forceful coughing.

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: A. undermining. B. logistical chaos. C. single command. D. freelancing.

D. freelancing.

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: A. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. B. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: Select one: A. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. B. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. turnout gear. B. safety goggles. C. face shields. D. hazardous materials gear.

D. hazardous materials gear.

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hematemesis. B. hemiplegia. C. hemolysis. D. hemostasis.

D. hemostasis.

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: Select one: A. tachycardia. B. hypovolemia. C. diaphoresis. D. hypothermia.

D. hypothermia.

For a patient with a gastrointestinal complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to _________. Select one: A. avoid transporting the patient if the condition is minor B. perform all interventions prior to transport C. determine the cause of the patient's complaint D. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport

D. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. call medical control for further direction. B. request law enforcement for traffic control. C. begin triage to determine injury severity. D. immediately request additional resources.

D. immediately request additional resources.

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: Select one: A. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication. B. use the rapid extrication technique. C. maintain slight traction to his neck area. D. immobilize him with a vest-style device.

D. immobilize him with a vest-style device.

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: Select one: A. near the side or rear door. B. on the ambulance stretcher. C. inside the jump kit. D. in the driver's compartment.

D. in the driver's compartment.

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: A. injection B. absorption C. inhalation D. ingestion

D. ingestion

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. confusion among team members. B. unnecessarily wasting time. C. causing patient anxiety or fear. D. injury to you or your patient.

D. injury to you or your patient.

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: Select one: A. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. B. use a direct carry whenever possible. C. flex at the waist instead of the hips. D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

D. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: A. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status. B. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma. C. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water. D. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.

D. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.

Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: Select one: A. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired. B. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.

D. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. midaxillary. B. midclavicular. C. lateral. D. medial.

D. medial.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. B. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. C. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.

D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: A. cardiovascular system. B. renal system. C. respiratory system. D. nervous system.

D. nervous system.

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. endocrine B. respiratory C. cardiac D. neurologic

D. neurologic

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. epidemics. B. parasitic infection. C. uncontrolled outbreaks. D. pandemics.

D. pandemics.

You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. Select one: A. abuse of authority B. scope of practice C. undue hardship D. patient advocacy

D. patient advocacy

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. caller's phone number. B. nature of the call. C. location of the patient(s). D. patient's medical history.

D. patient's medical history.

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. it commonly protrudes through the injury site. B. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. C. the abdomen will become instantly distended. D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours.

D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours.

Online medical control requires __________. Select one: A. the presence of an advanced-level provider B. written protocols approved by medical control C. a physician's presence on the scene of the call D. phone or radio contact with the medical director

D. phone or radio contact with the medical director

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. Select one: A. financial B. psychological C. emotional D. physical

D. physical

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: Select one: A. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs. B. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. C. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. D. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

D. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should: Select one: A. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured. B. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient. C. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance. D. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

D. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: A. only seen with open fractures. B. indicators of a severe sprain. C. most common with dislocations. D. positive indicators of a fracture.

D. positive indicators of a fracture.

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: Select one: A. cold-water immersion. B. an air embolism. C. alcohol intoxication. D. possible spinal injury.

D. possible spinal injury.

In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. ventral. B. inferior. C. anterior. D. posterior.

D. posterior.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: Select one: A. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. B. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. C. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries. D. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

D. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did. C. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the: Select one: A. distance between the two AED pads on the chest. B. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body. C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver. D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. C. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: Select one: A. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. B. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. C. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. D. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

D. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: A. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia. B. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. C. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs. D. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.

D. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. contact medical control. B. notify law enforcement. C. quickly access the patient. D. take standard precautions.

D. take standard precautions.

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: Select one: A. an expected finding in full-term infants. B. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. C. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. D. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

D. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

Atherosclerosis is defined as ________. Select one: A. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels B. dilation of the arteries C. constriction of the blood vessels D. the blockage of a coronary artery

D. the blockage of a coronary artery

You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: Select one: A. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. B. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. C. the organ involved is enlarged. D. the problem is with the patient's liver.

D. the problem is with the patient's liver.

Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding. B. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. C. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control. D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.

D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.

The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. Select one: A. patient empathy B. patient advocacy C. integrity D. time management

D. time management

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: Select one: A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline. B. use tweezers to try to remove the object. C. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. D. transport her to the emergency department.

D. transport her to the emergency department.

If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________. Select one: A. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department. B. not approach the vomitus. C. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary. D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

Effective therapeutic communication skills require _________. Select one: A. supervision by advanced life support personnel B. correct use of complex medical terminology C. English-speaking patients or family members D. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques

D. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques

Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Select one: A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. B. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. C. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. D. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease.

Select one: A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.