EPPP - Psych Assessment

What are the four Indexes of the WAIS-IV?

Working memory, verbal comprehension, processing speed, and perceptual reasoning

Structured personality tests present examinees with ______ stimuli and are usually developed on the basis of four strategies: logical content method, theoretical method, empirical criterion keying, factor analysis.

unambiguous

What three-point code is referred to as Psychotic V or the "paranoid valley" on the MMPI-2?

6-7-8

The correlation for identical twins reared together is about ______, while the correlation for biological siblings reared together is ______.

.85; .45

What three-point code is referred to as Conversion V or the "neurotic triad" on the MMPI-2?

1-2-3

Scores on the Glasgow Coma Scale can range from ______ with ______ scores indicating more severe brain injury.

3-15; lower

Research suggests that what 2 levels of the Big Five personality traits were highest in African nations?

Agreeableness and Conscientiousness

According to Sternberg (1996), "successful intelligence" consists of: A. eight intelligences (e.g., linguistic, spatial, interpersonal). B. "g" (general intelligence) plus specific cognitive abilities related to the task. C. three abilities - analytical, creative, and practical. D. a combination of fluid and crystallized intelligence.

C. three abilities - analytical, creative, and practical.

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 2 refers to what?

Depression - depression, hopelessness, dissatisfaction with self

Research suggests that what 3 levels of the Big Five personality traits tend to be lowest in East Asian nations?

Extraversion, agreeableness, and openness to experience

The NEO-PI-3, developed by Costa and McCrae identifies what to be the Big Five personality traits?

Extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 1 refers to what?

Hypochondriasis - preoccupation with physical symptoms

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 9 refers to what?

Hypomania - unstable mood, impulsivity, grandiosity, flight of ideas

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 3 refers to what?

Hysteria - repression, denial, immaturity, somatic complaints

In the case of ______, the court concluded that IQ tests must not be used to place African American students in special education classes.

Larry P v. Riles

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 5 refers to what?

Masculinity-Femininity - stereotypic masculine or feminine interests

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 6 refers to what?

Paranoia - paranoia, cynicism, interpersonal sensitivity

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 7 refers to what?

Psychasthenia - anxiety, obsessions, compulsions

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 4 refers to what?

Psychopathic Deviate - antisocial behaviors, rebelliousness, social alienation

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 8 refers to what?

Schizophrenia - psychosis, unusual thought processes, social alienation

On the MMPI-2, an elevated score on Scale 0 refers to what?

Social Introversion - shyness, social withdrawal/avoidance

The WISC-V is appropriate for individuals ages 6-16 and provides a Full Scale IQ score along with scores on what five Primary Indexes?

Verbal Comprehension, Visual-Spatial, Fluid Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed

A high score on the ______ scale suggests an attempt to "fake bad," deliberate malingering, eccentricity, or response carelessness. a. F scale b. K scale c. L scale d. Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)

a. F scale

A low score on the ______ scale may indicate an attempt to "fake good," a tendency toward social conformity, denial of problems, or an absence of significant psychopathology. a. F scale b. K scale c. L scale d. Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)

a. F scale

As defined by Horn and Cattell (1966) intellectual ability consists of: a. three general components - analytical, creative, and practical. b. two general components - fluid and crystallized. c. a "g" (general) factor plus specific factors unique to the task. d. eight distinct abilities (e.g., linguistic, spatial, interpersonal).

a. Incorrect Sternberg describes intelligence as consisting of analytical, creative, and practical components. b. CORRECT Horn and Cattell distinguish between two general intelligences: Fluid intelligence enables the individual to solve novel problems and perceive relations and similarities and does not depend on specific instruction. In contrast, crystallized intelligence consists of acquired knowledge and skills and is affected by educational and cultural experiences. c. Incorrect This answer describes Spearman's theory of intelligence. d. Incorrect This answer describes Gardner's theory of intelligence.

Which of the following are the routing subtests for the Stanford-Binet, 5th Edition? a. Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary b. Quantitative Reasoning and Memory for Sentences c. Vocabulary and Quantitative Reasoning d. Picture Absurdities and Verbal Absurdities

a. Object Series/Matrices and Vocabulary

Administration of the ________________ involves asking the examinee to make up stories about pictures that include one or more human figures in order to obtain information about unconscious aspects of the examinee's personality. a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator c. Rorschach Inkblot Test d. Bender-Gestalt Test

a. Thematic Apperception Test (The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective personality test that consists of picture cards that depict one or more human figures. The examinee is asked to make up a story about each picture and his/her responses are scored and interpreted using one of several scoring and interpretation systems).

Which of the following statements is true regarding actuarial and clinical predictions a. actuarial predictions are more accurate than clinical judgment when used alone b. both actuarial predictions and clinical judgment are equally accurate c. clinical judgment is more accurate than actuarial predictions d. using both actuarial predictions and clinical judgment in tandem is most accurate

a. actuarial predictions are more accurate than clinical judgment when used alone

When using Holland's Self-Directed Search, the frequency with which the examinee's Summary Code occurred in different normative groups is referred to as: a. commonness b. consistency c. coherence d. congruence

a. commonness

Percent correct is an example of what type of score? a. criterion-referenced b. self-referenced (ipsative) c. norm-referenced d. other-referenced

a. criterion-referenced

What type of score permits interpreting an examinee's performance in terms of what they can do or know w/regard to clearly defined content domain or in terms of performance/status on an external criterion: a. criterion-referenced b. self-referenced (ipsative) c. norm-referenced d. other-referenced

a. criterion-referenced

In scoring the Rorschach, what category refers to what in the inkblot determined the examinee's response? a. determinants b. content c. popularity/frequency of occurrence d. location

a. determinants

When using Holland's Self-Directed Search, the degree of distinctiveness of an examinee's measured interests is referred to as: a. differentiation b. consistency c. coherence d. congruence

a. differentiation

What is occurring when mean scores on the predictor differ for different groups and involves the predictor consistently over- or underpredicting performance on the criterion for members of one group? a. intercept bias b. test bias c. slope bias d. rater bias

a. intercept bias

What describes the degree to which a test measures what it was designed to measure? a. validity b. reliability c. clinical prediction d. multiple regression

a. validity

An examinee whose highest clinical scale scores on the MMPI-2 are on scales ________ is most likely to have a history of alcohol and drug abuse, antisocial behavior, and/or sex offenses. a. 2 and 6 b. 4 and 9 c. 9 and 0 d. 2 and 1

b. 4 and 9

A high score on the ______ scale indicates a high degree of defensiveness or denial, a desire to "fake good," or responding "false" to all items and is associated w/resistance and poor treatment prognosis. a. F scale b. K scale c. L scale d. Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)

b. K scale

A very low score on the ______ scale suggests excessive frankness, self-criticism, or a desire to "fake bad." a. F scale b. K scale c. L scale d. Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)

b. K scale

The ______ scale score is identified as a "suppressor variable" and is used to correct an examinee's scores on some of the clinical scales. a. F scale b. K scale c. L scale d. Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)

b. K scale

Which of the following would be most appropriate as a rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling, and math skills? a. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities (ITPA-3) b. Wide-Range Achievement Test (WRAT-4) c. Wechsler Individual Achievement Test (WIAT-III) d. Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT)

b. Wide-Range Achievement Test (WRAT-4)

When using Holland's Self-Directed Search, the similarity of an examinee's 2 strongest measured interests is referred to as: a. commonness b. consistency c. coherence d. congruence

b. consistency

In scoring the Rorschach, what scoring category refers to the category the perception falls into (human, animal, or nature)? a. determinants b. content c. form quality d. location

b. content

The Cattell-Horn-Carroll Theory of Cognitive Intelligence identifies what factor(s) as most relevant? a. analytical, creative, and practical intelligence b. general (g) factor, broad (crystallized/fluid) intelligence, and narrow (specific forms of cog abilities) c. 1 general intelligence (g) factor d. convergent and divergent thinking

b. general (g) factor, broad (crystallized/fluid) intelligence, and narrow (specific forms of cog abilities)

A psychologist administers the MMPI-2 to a 36-year old man who has exhibited a number of symptoms suggestive of neurosis. The man receives a very low K Scale score, and, on the basis of this score, the psychologist can tentatively conclude that the man: a. tried to present himself in a favorable light. b. is very self-critical. c. has a personality disorder. d. may have an organic brain disorder.

b. is very self-critical. (a very low score on the K scale indicates excessive frankness or self-criticism or an attempt to "fake bad)."

In the context of cognitive ability tests, "testing-the-limits" refers to: a. readministering the test to an examinee using standardized procedures after a period of formal instruction or training. b. readministering the test (or portions of it) to an examinee while modifying the standardized procedures. c. determining the accuracy of test results for predicting academic or job performance. d. determining the accuracy of test results for a highly heterogeneous group of examinees.

b. readministering the test (or portions of it) to an examinee while modifying the standardized procedures. (Testing-the-limits is done to obtain additional qualitative information about an examinee (e.g., how the examinee derived his/her responses or how the examinee responds when given cues or additional time to answer items). Testing-the-limits is done after the test has been administered using standardized procedures).

What describes the degree to which test scores are free from effects of measurement error? a. validity b. reliability c. clinical prediction d. multiple regression

b. reliability

What type of score permits intraindividual comparisons such as comparing an examinee's scores on 1 scale w/their scores on other scales? a. criterion-referenced b. self-referenced (ipsative) c. norm-referenced d. other-referenced

b. self-referenced (ipsative)

The Bender-Gestalt II was designed to be a measure of: a. fine motor skills. b. visual-motor integration. c. cognitive flexibility. d. suicide risk.

b. visual-motor integration. (The Bender-Gestalt II is a drawing test that requires the examinee to copy several geometric figures. It is used to assess visual-motor integration and to assist in the assessment of perceptual disorders, organic brain dysfunction, and psychopathology).

The Stanford-Binet is a hierarchical measure of intelligence derived from what theory of cognitive abilities? a. Sternberg's triarchic theory b. Spearman c. Cattell-Horn-Carroll d. Gardner

c. Cattell-Horn-Carroll

Which of the following is a test of general reasoning ability that does NOT require verbal responses or fine motor skills and is useful for children w/brain damage, intellectual disability, speech impairments, hearing loss, or limited English proficiency? a. Haptic Intelligence Scale for Blind b. Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude c. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale (CMMS) d. Leiter-3

c. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale (CMMS)

Which of the following would be the most appropriate test to detect the presence of brain damage and determine its severity and possible location in individuals ages 15+ and produces an Impairment Index that ranges from 0-1.0? a. Glasgow Coma Scale b. Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning c. Halsteid-Reitan d. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

c. Halsteid-Reitan

Which of the following best describes the Flynn effect (Flynn, 1998)? a. IQ scores gradually decline over the lifespan. b. Performance IQ declines more than Verbal IQ over the lifespan. c. IQ test scores have gradually increased in developed nations in recent decades. d. IQ test scores have gradually decreased in developed nations in recent decades.

c. IQ test scores have gradually increased in developed nations in recent decades.

A high score on the ______ scale indicates an attempt to present oneself in a favorable light or a lack of insight into one's own motivation. a. F scale b. K scale c. L scale d. TRIN scale

c. L scale

A low score on the ______ scale suggests frankness in responding, exaggeration of negative characteristics, or independence. a. F scale b. K scale c. L scale d. Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN)

c. L scale

Individuals with Mild Alzheimer's Disease, Major Depressive Disorder, ADHD, and TBI's obtain the lowest score on the ______ Index. a. Working Memory b. Verbal Comprehension c. Processing Speed d. Perceptual Reasoning

c. Processing Speed

Who is known for the triarchic model of intelligence that involves analytical, creative, and practical intelligence? a. Cattell b. Spearman c. Sternberg d. Gardner

c. Sternberg

When administering the __________, the examinee is presented with a list of color names that are printed in a color that differs from the name (e.g., the name red might be printed in blue or green ink) and the examinee is asked to go through the list and say the ink color rather than read the color name. a. Beery Test b. Benton Test c. Stroop Test d. Glasgow Scale

c. Stroop Test

When using Holland's Self-Directed Search, the degree to which an examinee's expressed interests belong to the same RIASEC categories is referred to as: a. commonness b. consistency c. coherence d. congruence

c. coherence

When the validity coefficient for a predictor differs for different groups, what is said to be occurring? a. incremental validity b. discriminant validity c. differential validity d. face validity

c. differential validity

In scoring the Rorschach, what category refers to how similar the examinee's perception is to the actual shape? a. determinants b. content c. form quality d. location

c. form quality

Which of the following is an advantage of the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children? a. it can be used for individuals from birth to 17 b. it is the most accurate measure of intelligence for children c. it is said to be a culture-fair test by minimizing verbal instructions and responses d. it has a high ceiling and a low floor

c. it is said to be a culture-fair test by minimizing verbal instructions and responses

Raven's Progressive Matrices is a: a. measure of simultaneous and sequential processing. b. measure of inductive and deductive reasoning. c. nonverbal measure of general intelligence. d. culture-fair measure of academic achievement

c. nonverbal measure of general intelligence.

Percentile ranks and standard scores are examples of what type of score: a. criterion-referenced b. self-referenced (ipsative) c. norm-referenced d. other-referenced

c. norm-referenced

These types of scores permit comparisons b/t an examinee's test performance and performance of individuals in the norm group: a. criterion-referenced b. self-referenced (ipsative) c. norm-referenced d. other-referenced

c. norm-referenced

In scoring the Rorschach, what category refers to how often a certain inkblot or portion of an inkblot elicits a particular response? a. determinants b. content c. popularity/frequency of occurrence d. location

c. popularity/frequency of occurrence

What is occurring when there is differential validity, and as a consequence, the predictor is more accurate for one group than another? a. intercept bias b. test bias c. slope bias d. rater bias

c. slope bias

Early age-related declines are most likely to be found when a ______ design is used because this design is very susceptible to ______ effects.

cross-sectional; cohort (intergenerational)

In the Seattle Longitudinal Study, Schaie and his colleagues used a ______ design and found that, of the six mental abilities they assessed, only ______ showed significant declines prior to age 60.

cross-sequential; perceptual speed

The ______ provides scores on four cognitive functions identified by Luria (planning, attention, simultaneous process, and sequential processing) and is appropriate for examinees ages 5-17. It is helpful in assisting with differential diagnosis, determining eligibility for special education, and instructional planning. a. WAIS-IV b. MMPI-2 c. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (KABC-II) d. Cognitive Assessment System (CAS)

d. Cognitive Assessment System (CAS)

The influence of the environment on intelligence is demonstrated by research on the ______ which found a steady increase in IQ test scores in the U.S. and other industrialized countries. a. Hawthorne effect b. Barnum (Forer) effect c. Premack Principle d. Flynn effect

d. Flynn effect

Which of the following tests of cognitive abilities is identified as being culture-fair and can be administered without verbal instructions? a. Woodcock-Johnson b. Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence c. Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude d. Leiter-3

d. Leiter-3

Which of the following tests measures receptive vocabulary and is useful for people with a motor or speech impairment? a. Raven's Progressive Matrices b. Leiter-3 c. WISC-V d. PPVT-4

d. PPVT-4 (Peabody Picture Vocab Test)

Which of the following tests would be most appropriate in assessing recovery during the first few weeks to months following a head injury and involves rating the patient in terms of ten levels with lower scores indicating more severe symptoms and more assistance needed? a. Glasgow Coma Scale b. Halsteid-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery c. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery d. Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning

d. Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning

What test is most appropriate in assessing an individual's ability to form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback and for individuals with impaired performance can be linked to alcoholism, schizophrenia, depression, and malingering? a. Halsteid-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery b. Bender-Gestalt II c. Stroop Color-Word Association Test d. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

d. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

Which of the following is a short test of cognitive ability for adults that is used primarily by employers to assist with hiring decisions? a. Leiter-3 b. Raven's Progressive Matrices c. Denver Developmental Screening Test d. Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised (WPT-R)

d. Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised (WPT-R)

Which of the following tests would be most appropriate to assess intelligence, diagnose learning problems, and identify appropriate interventions in individuals ages 2-80+? a. Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude b. WISC-V c. MMPI-2 d. Woodcock-Johnson

d. Woodcock-Johnson

When using Holland's Self-Directed Search, the degree of match between an examinee's personality and the characteristics of a particular job or career is referred to as: a. commonness b. consistency c. coherence d. congruence

d. congruence

______ is used to choose items for a test. These items are connected to an external criterion and used to differentiate those that have something versus those that don't. a. objective test b. projective test c. ipsative scoring d. empirical criterion keying

d. empirical criterion keying

A psychologist would use the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) to: a. determine if a child has a learning disability. b. determine if an adult has a psychotic disorder. c. evaluate the quality of life of an adult with a physical disability. d. evaluate the cognitive functioning of an older adult

d. evaluate the cognitive functioning of an older adult

The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is most useful for assessing _____ lobe functioning. a. parietal b. temporal c. occipital d. frontal

d. frontal

In general, interest inventories are least useful for predicting: a. job choice. b. job satisfaction. c. job persistence. d. job performance.

d. job performance.

In scoring the Rorschach, what category refers to where in the inkblot the examinee's perception is located? a. determinants b. content c. popularity/frequency of occurrence d. location

d. location

On the Rorschach Inkblot Test, confabulation is most suggestive of which of the following? a. giftedness b. antisocial personality disorder c. an attempt to "fake bad" d. organic brain dysfunction

d. organic brain dysfunction

All of the following are examples of advantages of the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery except: a. less time-consuming than Halsteid-Reitan b. more highly standardized in content, administration, and scoring c. more precise identification of brain damage d. research suggests it is the most accurate neuropsychological battery

d. research suggests it is the most accurate neuropsychological battery

A score of 50 on the Beck Depression Inventory-II suggests: a. no or minimal depression. b. mild depression. c. moderate depression. d. severe depression

d. severe depression

An examinee whose highest score on Holland's Self-Directed Search is on the realistic scale would probably be least interested in pursuing a career as a: a. farmer. b. bookkeeper. c. technical writer. d. social worker.

d. social worker.

What is the term coined by Vygotsky for providing an examinee w/additional cues, suggestions, or feedback, and is ordinarily done after standard administration of a test to preserve the test's norms? a. interactive approach b. dynamic approach c. shaping d. testing the limits

d. testing the limits

Development of the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) was developed using empirical criterion keying but involved considering only the responses of people in ______

different occupations

The Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were developed on the basis of ______, which involved comparing the responses of males and females in different occupational groups to those of men and women in a general representative sample.

empirical criterion keying

Horn and Cattell distinguished between ______ and ______ and concluded that ______ intelligence is strongly affected by education and cultural experiences.

fluid; crystallized; crystallized

Administration of the Rorschach ordinarily involves two phases: the ______ phase, which is usually followed by the ______ phase.

free association; inquiry

Spearman's two-factor theory predicts that performance on any cognitive task depends on ______ plus one or more specific abilities.

g (general intelligence)

One advantage of the Stanford-Binet is that it has a ______ ceiling and a ______ floor.

high; low

Although males and females do not differ consistently in terms of mean scores on IQ tests, females tend to outperform males on measures of ______ ability, while males obtain higher scores on measures of certain ______ and math skills.

verbal; spatial

The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess consciousness following brain injury and involves rating the patient in terms of three responses - i.e., ______, ______, and ______.

visual response, best motor response, best verbal response