exam 1 questions
Which of the following situations would MOST likely disqualify a person for EMS certification? A.) A misdemeanor committed at age 17 B.) Driving under the influence of alcohol C.) Possessing a valid driver's license from another state D.) A mild hearing impairment that is corrected with hearing aids
B
77. The root "melan/o" means: A) white. B) black. C) red. D) gray.
B
81. "Myo" in the word myocarditis means: A) cartilage. B) muscle. C) bone. D) vein.
B
talus
ankle bone
maxilla + zygoma
orbit (eye socket)
finger bones
phalanges
coccyx
tail bone
lateral portion of the cranium
temporal bones
shoulder girdle
clavicle, scapula, humerus
hand bones
metacarpals
calcaneus
heel, largest tarsal bone
upper non movable jaw bone
maxillae
expiratory reserve
maximum amount of air you can forcibly breathe out after a normal breath (1,200)
You arrive at a scene where an older woman is complaining of chest pain. In assessing her, she holds her arm out for you to take her blood pressure. This is an example of: A.) implied consent. B.) informed consent. C.) expressed consent. D.) emergency consent.
C
You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. negligence B. assault C. slander D. libel
C
61. As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: A) pleura. B) alveoli. C) bronchi. D) capillaries.
B
62. Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? A) Spleen B) Kidneys C) Gallbladder D) Ascending aorta
B
7. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A) EMT. B) paramedic. C) advanced EMT (AEMT). D) EMR.
B
74. The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. A) costal arch B) diaphragm C) mediastinum D) costovertebral angle
B
9. Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A) EMT. B) paramedic. C) AEMT. D) EMR.
B
A disease that can be spread from person-to-person is known as: A.) an infectious disease. B.) a communicable disease. C.) a transmittable disease. D.) a spreadable disease
B
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. unilateral. B. bilateral. C. medial. D. proximal.
B
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? Select one: A. Dorsal B. Prone C. Recumbent D. Supine
B
During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. B. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. C. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. D. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you.
B
Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. B. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. C. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. D. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable.
B
In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? Select one: A. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. B. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. C. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. D. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing.
B
Protective measures that prevent health care workers from coming into contact with germs are referred to as: A.) exposure. B.) standard precautions. C.) transmission. D.) PPE.
B
The EMT has a legal duty to act if he or she is: A.) off duty and witnesses a major car accident. B.) a volunteer, is on duty, and is dispatched on a call. C.) paid for his or her services, but is not on duty. D.) out of his or her jurisdiction and sees a man choking.
B
The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. motor and sensory nerves. B. brain and spinal cord. C. brain and sensory nerves. D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.
B
The meaning "around" can have which of the following prefixes? Select one: A. "epi-" and "sub-" B. "peri-" and "circum-" C. "sub-" and "infra-" D. "infra-" and "peri-"
B
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. inanimate objects. B. animals or insects. C. direct contact. D. smoke or dust.
B
Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? Select one: A. Spousal abuse B. Cardiac arrest C. Animal bites D. Gunshot wounds
B
Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? Select one: A. Needle decompression B. Automated external defibrillator C. Automatic transport ventilators D. Multilumen airways Feedback
B
Which of the following is an example of care that is provided using standing orders? A.) Medical control is contacted by the EMT after a patient with chest pain refuses EMS care. B.) The EMT defibrillates a patient in cardiac arrest, begins CPR, and then contacts medical control. C.) A physician gives the EMT an order via radio to administer oral glucose to a diabetic patient. D.) Following an overdose, the EMT contacts the medical director for permission to give activated charcoal.
B
Which of the following pieces of patient information is of LEAST pertinence when giving a verbal report to a nurse or physician at the hospital? A.) The patient's name and age B.) The patient's family medical history C.) Vital signs that may have changed D.) Medications that the patient is taking
B
Which of the following statements regarding a "dedicated line" is correct? Select one: A. It is a constantly open line of communication that is under exclusive control of a single user. B. It is a constantly open line of communication that cannot be accessed by outside users. C. It is a frequency that is used exclusively by EMTs to communicate with one another in the field. D. It is a designated frequency on a portable radio that provides direct access to medical control.
B
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. D. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT.
B
Quality control in an EMS system is the ultimate responsibility of the: A.) paramedic. B.) lead EMT. C.) medical director. D.) EMS administrator.
C
Prefixes can indicate: A.) color. B.) conditions. C.) body parts. D.) procedures.
A
Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. EMS research B. the opinions of physicians C. an EMS agency's fiscal resources D. the experiences of EMTs
A
normal respiratory rate for an infant
30 - 60 breaths/ minute
normal respiratory rate for an adult
12 - 20 breaths/ minute
normal respiratory rate for a child
12 - 40 breaths/minute
60. The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: A) aorta. B) carotid. C) brachial. D) femoral.
A
A body part that lies closer to the midline when compared to another is considered to be: A.) medial. B.) distal. C.) lateral. D.) proximal.
A
The MOST effective way of preventing the spread of disease is: A.) handwashing. B.) keeping your immunizations up-to-date. C.) placing a HEPA respirator on the patient. D.) wearing goggles, gloves, a gown, and a mask.
A
The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. diaphragm B. costovertebral angle C. costal arch D. mediastinum
A
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Select one: A. foramen magnum. B. spinous foramen. C. foramen ovale. D. vertebral foramen.
A
The five most common hazards associated with a structural fire include: A.) smoke, oxygen deficiency, high ambient temperatures, toxic gases, and building collapse. B.) smoke, oxygen deficiency, inhalation of tar particles, injury from breaking glass, and building collapse. C.) smoke, high ambient temperatures, toxic gases, electric shock, and inhalation of tar particles. D.) oxygen deficiency, high ambient temperatures, toxic gases, electric shock, and injury from breaking glass.
A
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. C. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. D. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children.
A
Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. "-al" and "-ic" B. "-al" and "-ology" C. "-ology" and "-oma" D. "-ic" and "-ology"
A
28. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: A) always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. B) provide competent care that meets current standards. C) use universal precautions with every patient encounter. D) utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.
B
3. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A) shift supervisor. B) medical director. C) EMS administrator. D) field training officer.
B
Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth. B. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. C. Use codes to speed communication. D. Answer questions with "yes" or "no."
B
2. Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? A) Obtaining a manual blood pressure B) Bleeding control using a tourniquet C) Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D) Administration of supplemental oxygen
B
25. Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? A) Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B) Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury C) Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D) Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs
B
50. The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: A) sacrum and ischium. B) ilium, ischium, and pubis. C) pubis and acetabulum. D) ilium, pubis, and sacrum.
B
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Select one: A. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. B. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. C. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. D. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion.
B
What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? Select one: A. Deviate from established standards when necessary. B. Follow the agency's written protocols. C. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times. D. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments.
B
Which stage of grieving commonly results in blame? A.) Denial B.) Anger, hostility C.) Bargaining D.) Depression
B
While caring for a trauma patient, the EMT has blood splashed into her eyes. This is an example of: A.) infection. B.) exposure. C.) indirect contact. D.) transmission
B
You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. the state motor vehicle department b. the receiving nurse or doctor c. law enforcement personnel d. your medical director
B
Movement of the arm toward midline is referred to as: A.) flexion. B.) extension. C.) adduction. D.) abduction.
C
The statement, "the lungs are superior to the bladder" indicates that the lungs are closer to the: A.) feet. B.) surface of the skin. C.) head. D.) trunk.
C
The suffix "-pathy" means: Select one: A. specialist. B. study of. C. disease. D. enlargement.
C
The unauthorized confinement of a person is called: A.) assault. B.) battery. C.) false imprisonment. D.) slander.
C
Upon arriving at the scene of a domestic dispute, you hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should: A.) immediately gain access to the patient. B.) carefully enter the house and then call the police. C.) retreat to a safe place until the police arrive. D.) tell the patient to exit the residence so you can provide care.
C
When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior B. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member C. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others D. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened
C
Which of the following statements about the patient care report (PCR) is true? A.) It is not a legal document in the eyes of the law. B.) It cannot be used for patient billing information. C.) It helps ensure efficient continuity of patient care. D.) It is intended for use only by the prehospital care provider.
C
Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? Select one: a. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. b. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. c. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. d. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented.
C
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? Select one: A. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. B. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. C. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. D. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving proces
C
Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. Stacked empty barrels B. Behind a car door C. A concrete barricade D. A large cluster of shrubs
C
You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: Select one: A. against ambulance advice. B. acute abdominal assessment. C. abdominal aortic aneurysm. D. acute abdominal aneurysm .
C
______ is the fuel to make the body run. A.) Sleep B.) Exercise C.) Food D.) Work/life balance
C
21. The final stage of death and dying MOST commonly takes the form of: A) anger. B) denial. C) depression. D) acceptance.
D
37. You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do? A) Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport. B) Make continuous attempts to contact medical control. C) Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation. D) Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.
D
41. The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: A) gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. B) notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. C) informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. D) gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.
D
66. The carpal bones form the: A) foot. B) ankle. C) hand. D) wrist.
D
79. In relation to the chest, the back is: A) ventral. B) inferior. C) anterior. D) posterior.
D
The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. mastoid B. sphenoid C. occiput D. orbit
D
The plural form of the word bronchus is: A.) bronchae. B.) bronches. C.) bronchices. D.) bronchi.
D
This is used to identify a body part that is on the "belly side" or anterior surface of the body. A.) Deep B.) Superficial C.) Dorsal D.) Ventral
D
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. B. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. C. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. D. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
D
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Pressure and pain perception B. Sensory reception C. Temperature regulation D. Metabolic coordination
D
Which of the following is an example of abandonment? A.) An EMT leaves the scene after a competent adult has refused care. B.) An EMT transfers care of a patient to an emergency department nurse. C.) An AEMT transfers care of a patient to a paramedic. D.) An AEMT transfers patient care to an EMT.
D
spinal column in descending order
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx
thyroid cartilage
adam's apple, anterior part of the larynx
contra-
against opposite
skeletal muscle
attaches to the bones of the skeleton
ab-
away from
oxygen flows from
blood to capillaries to tissue cells
wrist bones
carpals
inspiratory reserve volume
deepest breath you can take after an normal one (3,000 mL)
cricoid cartilage
directly below the thyroid cartilage
joint capsule
fibrous sac that hols bone ends together, composed of a connective tissue
ligaments
fibrous tissues that connecct bones
forehead bone
frontal bone
residual volume
gas remains in the lungs after exhalation to keep the lungs open
cardiac output
heart rate x stroke volume
ulna
helps to form the elbow joint larger in the forearm (proximal forearm)
acetabulum
hip socket
pelvic bones
ilium, ischium, pubis
smooth muscle
in blood vessels + intestines
systemic circulation
in the body, carries oxygen rich blood from the left ventricle to right atrium
pulmonary circulation
in the lungs, carries oxygen poor blood from the right ventricle to the left atrium
intra-
inside, within
nephr-
kidney
radius
larger in the distal forearm
lower, movable jaw
manible
xiphoid process
lower, narrow portion of the sternum
neur-
nerves
agonal gasps
occasional, gasping breaths
medulla oblongata
portion of the brain stem, sensitive to pH changes
left side of the heart gets blood from
pulmonary veins from the lungs
minute volume
respiratory rate x tidal volume
tendons
ropelike structures that connect muscles to bones
ipsi-
same
alveoli
tiny, grapelike sacs that the bronchioles end in, where gas exchange happens
stroke volume
the volume of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each heartbeat
chordae tendinea
thin bands of fibrous tissue that attaches to heart valves
CO2 & cell waste flow from
tissue cells to capillaries to blood
ad
to, toward
transverse (axial) plane
top & bottom
right side of the heart gets blood from
vena cava
carina
where trachea ends
cheek bones
zygomas
1. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: A) insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. B) apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. C) use an automatic transport ventilator. D) give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.
A
10. Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: A) requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. B) touches another person without his or her consent. C) stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. D) makes rude remarks about a person's body parts.
A
An 8-year-old boy was struck by a car, is unconscious, and is bleeding from the mouth. A police officer tells you that he is unable to contact the child's parents. You should: A.) continue to treat the child and transport as soon as possible. B.) cease all treatment until the child's parents can be contacted. C.) continue with treatment only if authorized by medical control. D.) provide only airway management until the parents are contacted.
A
70. Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: A) prostate. B) ureters. C) urethra. D) renal duct.
B
71. Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? A) It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph. B) Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. C) It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells. D) It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells.
B
83. The suffix "-pathy" means: A) enlargement. B) study of. C) specialist. D) disease.
D
15. Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? A) Increased interest in daily activities B) Isolation from the rest of the crew C) Hyperactivity during an EMS call D) Acute increase in appetite
B
19. Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct? A) Vaccination against hepatitis B provides partial immunity for life. B) OSHA requires that your employer offer you the vaccine free of charge. C) The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection against the disease for 2 years. D) Vaccination with the hepatitis B vaccine confers immunity against hepatitis A
B
32. In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? A) The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. B) A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. C) The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. D) A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing.
B
38. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? A) Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks B) Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance C) Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs D) Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers
B
45. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: A) using coded medical language. B) not disclosing his or her name. C) withholding medical history data. D) refraining from objective statements.
B
48. Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: A) shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. B) elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. C) placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. D) providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response.
B
54. Both areas of the pons are used to: A) provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. B) augment respirations during emotional or physical stress. C) ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing. D) set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person.
B
55. Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? A) Epidermis B) Subcutaneous C) Dermal D) Sebaceous
B
58. The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: A) ventral pedis. B) dorsalis pedis. C) anterior tibial. D) posterior tibial.
B
A condition characterized by reexperiencing an event and overresponding to stimuli that recall the event is called: A.) acute stress reaction. B.) delayed stress reaction. C.) cumulative stress reaction. D.) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D
After receiving an order from medical control over the radio, the EMT should: A.) carry out the order immediately. B.) disregard the order if it is not understood. C.) obtain the necessary consent from the patient. D.) repeat the order to the physician word for word.
D
Which of the following statements about records and reports is FALSE? A.) Legally, if it was not documented, it was not performed. B.) A complete, accurate report is an important safeguard against legal problems. C.) An incomplete or untidy patient care report is evidence of incomplete or inexpert emergency medical care. D.) Your patient care report does not become a part of the patient's hospital record because your treatment was provided outside the hospital.
D
31. You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: A) initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. B) confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order. C) transport with minimal care. D) confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.
D
11. At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: A) proceed with normal extrication procedures. B) remove the lines with a nonconductive object. C) advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. D) mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.
D
12. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? A) An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. B) A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C) An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. D) An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
D
13. Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: A) whenever you touch nonintact skin. B) during routine cleaning of the ambulance. C) while handling needles or other sharps. D) when performing endotracheal intubation.
D
17. The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: A) vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. B) be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. C) get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to. D) activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible.
D
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. B. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. D. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. Feedback
D
While caring for a 5-year-old boy with respiratory distress, you should: A.) avoid direct eye contact with the child, as this may frighten him. B.) avoid letting the child hold any toys, as this may hinder your care. C.) avoid alerting the child prior to a patient procedure. D.) allow a parent or caregiver to hold the child if the situation allows.
D
44. Ethnocentrism is defined as: A) understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. B) suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C) subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. D) considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
D
46. As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A) place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B) inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C) leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D) respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.
D
75. What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? A) Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. B) The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. C) Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. D) The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
D
infra-
below, under
frontal (coronal) plane
divides into a front & back portion
sagittal (lateral) plane
divides into left & right
UPPER airway
nose, mouth, tongue, jaw, pharynx, larynx
posterior portion of the cranium
occiput
cardiac muscles
only in the heart + creates + conducts electrical impulses
cartilage
smooth connective tissue that covers the ends of bones @ mobile joints
parietal pleura
smooth tissue covering the chest cavity
visceral pleura
smooth tissue covering the lungs
The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. the removal of fluid from around the heart. B. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. C. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. D. a surgical opening made in the heart.
A
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. B. have a weak immune system. C. received a hepatitis B vaccination. D. are older than 35 years of age
A
39. Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: A) confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. B) ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. C) ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. D) request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive.
A
4. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A) individual EMT. B) State Bureau of EMS. C) EMS training officer. D) EMS medical director.
A
40. A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: A) an informed refusal. B) authorized by a judge. C) reported to the police. D) witnessed by a notary.
A
43. Which of the following will help improve radio communications? A) Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. B) Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth. C) Use codes to speed communication. D) Answer questions with "yes" or "no."
A
49. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A) brief and easily understood. B) coded and scripted. C) spoken in a loud voice. D) lengthy and complete.
A
5. Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A) A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device B) A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin C) A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen D) A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain
A
51. Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: A) waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. B) available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen. C) high levels of oxygen remain in the cells and can cause significant damage. D) carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cells, but oxygen cannot.
A
52. The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter." A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) brain stem D) diencephalon
A
59. The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: A) hypoxic drive. B) pneumotaxic drive. C) hypocarbic drive. D) oxyhemoglobin drive.
A
What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Select one: A. To transport a mature egg to the uterus B. To connect the ovaries C. To produce progesterone and estrogen D. To supply blood to the uterine lining
A
When communicating with an older patient, you should: A.) approach the patient slowly and calmly. B.) step back to avoid making the patient uncomfortable. C.) raise your voice to ensure that the patient can hear you. D.) obtain the majority of your information from family members.
A
When requesting medical direction for a patient who was involved in a major car accident, the EMT should avoid: A.) using radio codes to describe the situation. B.) questioning an order that seems inappropriate. C.) relaying vital signs unless they are abnormal. D.) the use of medical terminology when speaking
A
6. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B) demand that the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. C) ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D) reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
A
63. ___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. A) Hydrostatic B) Osmotic C) Oncotic D) Diffusion
A
65. The bones of the forearm are called the: A) radius and ulna. B) tibia and radius. C) humerus and ulna. D) radius and humerus.
A
67. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: A) pulmonary veins. B) pulmonary arteries. C) inferior venae cavae. D) superior venae cavae.
A
76. If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: A) minute volume is decreased. B) inspiratory reserve is increased. C) overall tidal volume is increased. D) expiratory reserve volume is decreased.
A
82. The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. A) apex B) base C) dorsum D) septum
A
14. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A) allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. B) use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C) clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. D) spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.
A
16. You are dispatched to the scene of a crash involving a large tanker truck. While you are en route, dispatch advises you that there are multiple patients and that the fire department is en route as well. As you approach the scene, you should: A) maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars. B) cordon off the area and quickly remove all of the injured patients. C) immediately begin evacuating residents who live near the crash site. D) don personal protective equipment and quickly triage all patients.
A
20. A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: A) retreat and notify law enforcement personnel. B) tell the family member that it is not your fault. C) subdue the family member until the police arrive. D) ignore the family member and assess the patient.
A
23. The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT: A) family history of hepatitis. B) postvaccine antibody titers. C) vaccine safety and efficacy. D) record keeping and tracking.
A
24. The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: A) careless handling of sharps. B) lack of proper immunizations. C) excessive blood splashing or splattering. D) noncompliance with standard precautions.
A
26. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? A) A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT. B) An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. C) A physician assumes patient care from an EMT. D) An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.
A
27. Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? A) A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. B) Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. C) Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital. D) Once the patient is in the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment.
A
29. The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A) medical director. B) state EMS office. C) EMS supervisor. D) local health district.
A
30. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? A) Driver's license B) Insurance card C) Social Security card D) Voter registration card
A
34. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A) Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. B) Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C) Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D) Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.
A
35. Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? A) It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. B) EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. C) Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. D) Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS.
A
36. Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? A) Scanner B) Duplex station C) Simplex station D) Mobile repeater
A
A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. B. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. C. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability.
A
All of the following are responsibilities of the EMS medical director, EXCEPT: A.) evaluating patient insurance information. B.) serving as a liaison to the medical community. C.) ensuring that the appropriate standards are met by EMTs. D.) ensuring appropriate EMT education and continuing training.
A
American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. evidence-based research B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists C. theories ready for field trial D. trends in the EMS community
A
Effective therapeutic communication skills require _________. Select one: A. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques B. English-speaking patients or family members C. supervision by advanced life support personnel D. correct use of complex medical terminology
A
Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: Select one: A. when performing endotracheal intubation. B. during routine cleaning of the ambulance. C. while handling needles or other sharps. D. whenever you touch nonintact skin.
A
In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. posterior. B. anterior. C. ventral. D. inferior.
A
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight.
A
Placards are used on: A.) buildings. B.) individual packages. C.) storage lockers. D.) storage papers.
A
Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. decomposition of the body's tissues. B. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. C. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. D. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.
A
Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. B. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. C. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. D. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability.
A
Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response? Select one: A. Open-ended questions B. Closed-ended questions C. Multiple questions asked at once D. Yes or no questions
A
Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Spleen B. Stomach C. Liver D. Cecum Feedback
A
You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. Select one: A. patient advocacy B. undue hardship C. scope of practice D. abuse of authority
A
You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. C. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. D. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared.
A
You are treating a patient with an apparent emotional crisis. After the patient refuses treatment, you tell him that you will call the police and have him restrained if he does not give you consent. Your actions in this case are an example of: A.) assault. B.) battery. C.) negligence. D.) abandonment.
A
You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. transport the patient without providing any treatment. B. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. C. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. D. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment.
B
33. During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: A) acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B) adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. C) are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. D) violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved.
C
42. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. B) acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. C) using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. D) holding the microphone about 2 to 3 inches from your mouth.
C
47. Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct? A) A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. B) Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. C) A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport. D) Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.
C
53. Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? A) When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. B) Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine. C) Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. D) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function.
C
56. The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: A) ilium. B) ischium. C) acetabulum. D) femoral condyle.
C
57. The diaphragm is unique because it: A) is the exclusive muscle of breathing. B) does not receive impulses from the brain. C) is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. D) does not have striations like skeletal muscle.
C
64. The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: A) carpals. B) metacarpals. C) phalanges. D) metatarsals
C
68. The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: A) bile. B) insulin. C) pancreatic juice. D) glucose.
C
69. The descending aorta branches into the: A) deep femoral arteries. B) internal carotid arteries. C) common iliac arteries. D) external carotid arteries.
C
72. Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: A) medication. B) assessment. C) disease. D) protocol.
C
73. Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? A) Blood vessels B) Urinary system C) Skeletal system D) Gastrointestinal tract
C
78. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A) medial. B) proximal. C) bilateral. D) unilateral
C
8. Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A) Radio B) Online C) Off-line D) Direct
C
80. "Chondro" in the word chondritis means: A) tendon. B) rib. C) cartilage. D) joint.
C
A device that receives a low-frequency signal and then transmits it at a relatively higher frequency is called a: A.) duplex. B.) scanner. C.) repeater. D.) receiver.
C
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. urinates frequently. B. is unable to swallow. C. is excessively thirsty. D. has low blood sugar.
C
A patient who requires cardiac monitoring in the field would require, at a minimum, which level of EMS provider? A.) EMR B.) EMT C.) Paramedic D.) AEMT
C
An advance directive is: A.) a set of specific guidelines that clearly defines the different types of consent. B.) a formal list that defines by state law whether a patient has decision-making capacity. C.) a written document that specifies the care you should provide if the patient is unable to make decisions. D.) a verbal order given to you by a dying patient's family regarding whether treatment should be provided.
C
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: Select one: A. the transport time to the hospital. B. an order from a paramedic. C. medical director approval. D. the patient's condition.
C
Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. mental disorders. B. history of chronic disease. C. assessment by the EMT. D. fear of medical personnel.
C
EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: Select one: A. more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition. B. perform and document more accurate patient assessments. C. communicate effectively with other members of the health care team. D. determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses.
C
Failure of the EMT to provide the same care as another EMT with the same training is called: A.) libel. B.) slander. C.) negligence. D.) abandonment.
C
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery D. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
C
When treating a potentially hostile patient, you should try to diffuse the situation by: A.) assuming an aggressive posture. B.) staring at the patient. C.) speaking calmly, confidently, and slowly. D.) verbally threatening the patient.
C
Which of the following components of a medical term conveys its essential meaning? A,) Prefix B.) Suffix C.) Word root D.) `Combining vowels
C
Which of the following is NOT a component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)? A.) Periodic review of run reports B.) Discussion of needs for improvement C.) Negative feedback given to those who make mistakes while on a call D.) Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director
C
Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? Select one: A. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph. B. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells. C. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body. D. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells.
C
Which of the following is a professional responsibility of the EMT? A.) Telling the family of a dying patient that everything will be OK B.) Maintaining only the skills that he or she feels uncomfortable with C.) Maintaining a professional demeanor in even the most stressful situations D.) Advising an emergency department nurse that patient reports are given only to a physician
C
Which of the following patients is competent and can legally refuse EMS care? A.) A confused young female who states that she is the president B.) A man who is staggering and states that he drank only three beers C.) A conscious and alert woman who is in severe pain from a broken leg D.) A diabetic patient who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date
C
All of the following are functions of the emergency medical dispatcher, EXCEPT: alerting the appropriate EMS response unit. screening a call and assigning it a priority. providing emergency medical instructions to the caller. providing medical direction to the EMT in the field.
D
Emergency patient care occurs in progressive phases. What occurs first? A.) Activation of EMS B.) Initial prehospital care C.) The patient receives definitive care D.) Incident recognition
D
Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: Select one: A. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. B. circulating blood glucose levels fall. C. the cells function without oxygen. D. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
D
The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. Select one: A. APGAR B. DCAP C. CQI D. HIPAA
D
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. EMS supervisor. B. local health district. C. state EMS office. D. medical director.
D
What is the second stage of response in the stress response known as the general adaptation syndrome? A.) Recovery B.) Exhaustion C.) Alarm D.) Reaction and resistance
D
When health care providers force their cultural values onto their patients because they believe their values are better, they are displaying: A.) ethnocentrism. B.) proxemics. C.) nonverbal communication. D.) cultural imposition.
D
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.
D
Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Voter registration card B. Social Security card C. Insurance card D. Driver's license
D
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
D
Which of the following should be the EMT's highest priority? A.) Controlling severe bleeding B.) Maintaining a patient's airway C.) Ensuring patient safety D.) Ensuring personal safety
D
18. You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: A) depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity. B) begin chest compressions if she experiences cardiac arrest. C) provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. D) make her comfortable and provide emotional support.
D
22. While you are on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: A) tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on the job. B) warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. C) notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. D) tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.
D
tidal volume
amount of air that goes in & out during each breath (500 mL)
iliac bones
connect with the sacrum laterally, forming the sacroiliac joints (pelvis)
abduction
motion away from midline
adduction
motion toward the midline
extra-
outside, in addition
cranium bones between the temporal of occiput
parietal bones
