Exam 2 (Ch. 5-8)
Bone stores ____% of body's calcium and phosphate.
99
Why are lines of cleavage clinically significant?
A cut parallel to a cleavage line will remain closed.
Which of the following factors does not increase the time needed for repair of an injury to the integument?
A narrow slit-like wound
Which statement concerning endochondral ossification is the most accurate?
A primary ossification center begins replacing cartilage in the central region of the cartilage rod.
What mechanism allows standing for prolonged periods without continually contracting the extensor muscles?
A slight lateral rotation of the tibia tightens the anterior cruciate ligament and joins the meniscus between the tibia and the femur.
What is the name of the large, concave socket that articulates with the head of the femur?
Acetabulum
What is the term for a slightly movable joint?
Amphiarthrosis
Which of the following is the largest fontanelle and is commonly called the "soft spot" in newborn babies?
Anterior fontanelle
What are the primary tissues comprising the hypodermis?
Areolar and adipose
What is the term for rheumatic diseases that affect the synovial joints?
Arthritis
What is the name of the first cervical vertebra?
Atlas
Which bones conduct sound vibrations from the tympanum to the inner ear?
Auditory ossicles
What rough area of the ilium marks the site of articulation with the sacrum?
Auricular surface
Which type of synovial joint is the most freely movable and performs all combinations of angular and rotational movements?
Ball-and-socket
Which of the following describes an articulation that allows movement along two axes?
Biaxial
What is the first step of integument repair following an injury?
Bleeding and inflammation
Which of the following statements describes the immediate response of the skin to an injury?
Bleeding occurs, and mast cells trigger an inflammatory response.
Which bones are not formed by intramembranous ossification?
Bones of the appendages
What important function is associated with the ribs?
Breathing
Which of the following would result in the loss of large portions of skin and lead to increased risk of infection and fluid loss?
Burns
Which of the following tarsals forms the bone of the heel?
Calcaneus
Which of the following is an orange-yellow pigment that is found in certain food items, such as carrots and squash?
Carotene
Which type of gland produces earwax?
Ceruminous gland
You have been called to the whiteboard in geometry class, and told to draw a circle, 1 foot in diameter, on the board. What movement would you be doing with your arm to draw the circle?
Circumduction
The only joint between the upper appendage and the axial skeleton involves which bones?
Clavicle and sternum
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
Contraction
Which of the following does NOT occur during fracture repair?
Dead tissue next to the break is left in the break area and is covered by new bone tissue.
What change in the integument causes older people to be more sensitive to hot temperatures?
Decreased glandular activity (sweat glands are less active=more likely to overheat)
Which of the following is not brought about by parathyroid hormone?
Decreased production of calcitriol
The reticular layer of the dermis is composed of what kind of tissue?
Dense irregular connective tissue
What are the two layers of the cutaneous membrane (skin)?
Dermis and epidermis
What is the term for the condition that results when articulating bone surfaces are subjected to severe stress and are forced out of their normal positions?
Dislocation
In which of the following does bone replace existing cartilage?
Endochondral ossification
What type of bone growth is the doctor most likely looking for in the example above?
Endochondral ossification
What is the initial response of the skin to being exposed to the ultraviolet rays of sunlight?
Epidermal cells produce cholecalciferol.
Which of the following is not an accessory structure in the integumentary system?
Epidermis
The presence of which structure is a clear indication that the person has reached their adult height and has stopped growing?
Epiphyseal line
Which bones make up the nasal septum?
Ethmoid and vomer
Because of its position in the skull, there is one bone that forms part of the floor of the cranium, the roof of the nasal cavity, a wall of the eye orbit, and divides the nasal cavity into two parts. Which bone does all this?
Ethmoid bone
The superior and middle nasal conchae are part of which bone?
Ethmoid bone
Full-thickness or third-degree burns are the most serious. Which of the following is not a major concern in the treatment and repair of these types of burns?
Excessive blood loss
Which structure is an accessory structure rather than part of the cutaneous membrane?
Exocrine glands
Spongy bone is found primarily at which part of long bones?
Expanded ends, where long bones articulate with other skeletal elements
When you are doing pushups and you start in the prone position, what movement of the elbow joint is performed to raise your body up?
Extension
Why can the skull be distorted without damage during birth?
Fibrous connective tissue connects the cranial bones.
What is the structural classification of the joints that form when the bones of the cranium grow and articulate as a structure in an infant?
Fibrous joints
Which of the following ligaments does NOT connect the tibia and the femur?
Fibular collateral ligament
Which part or parts of the vertebral column do not contain intervertebral discs?
First and second cervical vertebrae Sacrum Coccyx
Which of the following describes movement that reduces the angle between two articulating bones?
Flexion
Which bone is NOT part of the floor of the cranium?
Frontal
Where is epidermal growth factor produced?
Glands of the duodenum
Bill, age 15, is still growing, but his older sister Andrea, age 19, has stopped. What has changed in Andrea's bones?
Her epiphyseal plates have ossified.
What type of joint is the elbow?
Hinge
Which joint includes structures such as the acetabulum, ligamentum teres, and iliofemoral ligament?
Hip
Which of the following bones does NOT directly articulate with the skull but is an important site for muscle attachment for the larynx, pharynx, and tongue?
Hyoid bone
What are the primary effects of calcitriol on the body? Check all that apply.
Increase blood concentration of calcium. Increase blood concentration of phosphorus.
You are hiking in the mountains and the trail goes around the side of the mountain. The trail slopes outwards such that your feet are tilted and one foot is below the other. What are the movements to position your feet that let you walk on the tilted trail?
Inversion and eversion
Why is limited exposure to the UV light in sunlight beneficial?
It converts a steroid into vitamin D3.
Regarding the vertebral arch, what is the significance of the lamina?
It forms the "roof" of the vertebral foramen. Submit
The crista galli, a structural feature of the ethmoid bone, is described as which of the following?
It is a bony ridge that projects superior to the anteromedial floor of the cranium.
Which of the following statements about bone tissue is FALSE?
It is made primarily of cells.
What is the major advantage or advantages of bones undergoing continual remodeling?
It may change the shape of a bone. It may change the internal structure of a bone. It may change the total amount of minerals deposited in the bones.
Which of the following is NOT a function of synovial fluid?
Joining the bones together
The hardness of the nails protects the dorsal surfaces of the fingers and toes. What substance causes the hardness?
Keratin
Which type of cell is the most abundant epithelial cell in the body and dominates the cellular composition of the epidermis?
Keratinocyte
Fibrocartilage pads are important in stabilizing which joint?
Knee
A decrease in the number of __________ leads to increased damage and infection associated with age.
Langerhans cells
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the femur?
Lateral malleolus
Which of the following does the integument not synthesize or produce?
Lipids
The humerus and the femur are examples of what shape of bone?
Long bones
What type of vertebrae are characterized by short, stumpy spinous processes and large bodies?
Lumbar vertebrae
Which are the largest and most massive of the vertebrae?
Lumbar vertebrae
Which of the following features, found on the tibia and fibula, provide(s) support for the ankle joint?
Malleoli
Which of the following forms the lower jaw?
Mandible
Which condition, due to excessive cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages, results in individuals who are very tall, with long, slender limbs?
Marfan syndrome
A tall, slender person with unusually long, slender limbs because of excess cartilage formation at the epiphyseal cartilages has what disorder?
Marfan's syndrome
Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone?
Maxilla
Which nasal complex structure is paired with the correct description?
Maxillary sinuses - Largest of the sinuses, and produce mucus secretions that flush the inferior surfaces of the nasal cavities
Which of the following is a dark brown, yellow-brown, or black pigment produced by pigment cells in the stratum basale?
Melanin
Why does a person's hair turn white or gray with age?
Melanocyte activity decreases.
Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the integumentary system?
Melanocyte activity increases, darkening the skin.
What type of tissue is replaced by bone in intramembranous ossification?
Mesenchyme or embryonic fibrous connective tissue
Which bones form the palm of the hand?
Metacarpals
In what area of a long bone would it probably be easiest to observe the cartilage the orthopedic doctor refers to?
Metaphysis
Calcium is a very important substance for the proper functioning of various body systems. Which function of the skeletal system helps maintain calcium homeostasis?
Mineral storage
Where is a sesamoid bone most often found?
Near joints at the knees, the hands, and the feet
Which of the following collections of bones include bones that are unpaired in the skull?
Occipital and frontal bones
Which bone forms the posterior and inferior portions of the cranium and contains a large opening called the foramen magnum?
Occipital bone
Which feature of the ulna forms the point of the elbow?
Olecranon
What is responsible for the dynamic nature of the skeleton and its continual remodeling?
Osteoblast and osteoclast activity
Which of the following types of bone cells are responsible for removing and recycling bone?
Osteoclasts
What is the term for a reduction in bone mass that is large enough to compromise the normal function of bone?
Osteoporosis
All the following result in decreased calcium levels in the bloodstream EXCEPT __________.
PTH stimulation of osteoclasts
What are the two layers of the dermis?
Papillary and reticular layers
If the level of calcium in the blood drops below normal levels, which hormone is produced to correct this homeostatically?
Parathyroid hormone
What is the large sesamoid bone found in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris?
Patella
What are the two types of joints that allow rotation?
Pivot joints and ball-and-socket joints
If you are standing on your tiptoes to reach something on the upper shelf, what movement are you doing with your feet?
Plantar flexion
A fracture of the ankle where both the distal ends of the tibia and fibula broken is called a ________ fracture.
Pott's
Ankle fractures that affect both bones of the leg are called __________.
Pott's fractures
Compared to the axial skeleton, which of the following is not a function of the appendicular skeleton?
Protecting abdominal and thoracic organs
Shielding the soft organs like the brain, spinal cord, and heart with its hard, strong matrix is an example of which function of the skeletal system?
Protection
Which component of bone is responsible for blood cell formation?
Red bone marrow
One function of bone is to produce red and white blood cells. These cells are made in what substance in bone?
Red marrow
What is the term for the process in which the organic and mineral components of bone are continuously recycled and renewed?
Remodeling
Which of the following is an autoimmune disease affecting the joints?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the ribs are referred to as vertebral ribs?
Rib pairs 11 and 12
Which ribs are named false ribs?
Rib pairs 8-12
What structure of the hair or hair follicle lets you feel your hair being blown out of place by the wind?
Root hair plexus
Which of the following consists of five fused vertebrae and articulates with the pelvic girdle?
Sacrum
Which gland produces an oily secretion that lubricates the hair and skin?
Sebaceous gland
Sebaceous glands release which type of secretion?
Sebum
Which part of the sphenoid bone houses the pituitary gland?
Sella turcica
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of synovial joints?
Short fibers connecting two bones
According to the textbook, which of the following organs is stimulated by calcitriol?
Small intestine
Why does the adult vertebral column have fewer vertebrae than that of a newborn?
Some vertebrae fuse together after birth.
Which vertebral process projects posteriorly?
Spinous process
Which of the following is not an effect of epidermal growth factor (EGF) on the epidermis?
Stimulating the synthesis of melanin
In which layers of the epidermis do mitotic divisions occur?
Stratum basale and stratum spinosum
In thick skin, what is the thickest (most cell layers) stratum of the epidermis?
Stratum corneum
What is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
Stratum corneum
Which epidermal stratum is the most superficial and is composed of 15-30 layers of dead, keratinized cells that eventually are shed from its surface?
Stratum corneum
The adipose tissue in the hypodermis performs a variety of functions. Which function does the adipose tissue not perform?
Strengthening the hypodermis
Which of the following functions of the skeletal system is possible because bone has a hard and strong extracellular matrix?
Support Leverage Protection
What is the term for an immovable joint that holds together the flat bones of the skull?
Suture
Joints, or articulations, are classified on the basis of their degrees of movement. From the following selections, choose the group of terms that identifies the joints in this order: no movement, slightly movable, freely movable.
Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
Which joint results from the fusion of two bones?
Synostosis
There are structures that prevent excessive movement and stabilize the joint. Which structure does NOT help stabilize a synovial joint?
Synovial fluid
Which of the following functions is NOT associated with the skin?
Synthesis of B vitamins
What is the only bone in the ankle that articulates with the tibia and the fibula?
Talus
Which of the following bones contains the auditory ossicles?
Temporal bone
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the orbital complex?
Temporal bone
Which bones of the skull form the lateral walls of the cranium, house the inner ear, articulate with the mandible, and have attachments for muscles that move the jaw and head?
Temporal bones
What structure is NOT part of a synovial joint but may still support it?
Tendons
Which ligaments connect the bodies of the vertebrae together?
The anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments
Which of the following joints is NOT classified as a synovial hinge joint?
The atlantoaxial articulation
In a ball and socket shoulder joint, what structure is the ball and what is the socket?
The ball is the head of the humerus and the socket is the glenoid cavity.
Which of the following is an effect of stress on a bone?
The bone will become thicker.
Which of the following statements about the knee is FALSE?
The bones that articulate with the knee joint are the femur, tibia, and fibula.
Why is the elbow joint quite stable?
The capsule is reinforced by stout ligaments. The bony surfaces of the humerus and ulna interlock. The articular capsule is very thick.
How is the tendon connected to a bone so that it will withstand the force that must be applied by the muscle to move the bone?
The collagen fibers of the tendon as well as the periosteum are incorporated into the bone tissue.
The elbow joint is much more stable than the shoulder joint. Which of the following is NOT a cause for the stability in the elbow joint?
The elbow has a cuff of muscular tendons stabilizing the joint.
Why are malignant melanomas extremely dangerous and life-threatening?
The melanocytes grow rapidly and metastasize through the lymphatic system.
The cartilage the doctor is referring to will disappear when
The osteoblasts work faster than cartilage producing cells
Which of the following statements is most accurate comparing the differences in male and female pelvic girdle?
The pelvic inlet in the female is more open and circular.
What bones connect the axial skeleton and the lower appendicular skeleton?
The sacrum and the pelvic girdle
Which of the following statements about the thoracic cage is FALSE?
The sternum does not ossify until an individual reaches 30 years of age.
Which of the following statements regarding the homeostasis regulation of blood calcium is FALSE? -PTH is secreted by the parathyroid glands and raises blood calcium levels that are below 8.5 mg/dL. -Calcitonin inhibits the action of osteoclasts while having no effect on osteoblast activity. This helps to lower the blood calcium level whenever it exceeds 11 mg/dL. -The three main organs that serve as the site for the regulation of blood calcium levels are the bones, the intestines, and the pancreas. -The homeostasis of blood calcium is regulated by a negative feedback mechanism.
The three main organs that serve as the site for the regulation of blood calcium levels are the bones, the intestines, and the pancreas.
Which region of the vertebral column articulates with the ribs?
Thoracic
What is the function of the intervertebral foramina?
To connect spinal nerves to the spinal cord.
Which of the following are NOT structural components of compact bone?
Trabeculae
What is the natural factor responsible for varying shades of hair color?
Type of melanin present
The trochlea of the humerus articulates with what bone?
Ulna
Which of the following bones is accurately described as an irregular bone?
Vertebra
What is the term for the opening in the vertebrae that encloses the spinal cord?
Vertebral foramen
What is the difference between vertebrosternal ribs and vertebrochondral ribs?
Vertebrosternal ribs connect directly to the sternum, whereas vertebrochondral ribs do not.
Bone strength and density decrease as a person ages. There are multiple factors that can cause this. What change in the integumentary system can contribute to this?
Vitamin D3 production decreases. (from epidermis becoming thinner)
It seems like we hear about hip fractures occurring often in elderly people. Why are hip fractures likely in this strong joint?
Weight distribution is not aligned along the shaft of the femur.
Which component of the bone stores energy?
Yellow marrow
Sagging and wrinkling of the integument are due to __________.
a decrease in the elastic fiber network of the dermis
If the nucleus pulposus breaks through the outer fibrocartilage ring of the intervertebral disc, this condition is called ____________.
a herniated disc
When scar tissue formation continues beyond the requirements of tissue repair, __________ is formed.
a keloid
The hypodermis is useful for subcutaneous injection by hypodermic needle because it has __________.
a limited number of capillaries and no vital organs
The result of overproduction of growth hormone after puberty can result in a condition called ___________.
acromegaly
If you run your fingers along the superior surface of the shoulder joint, you will feel the process called the __________.
acromion
When the body temperature becomes abnormally high, thermoregulatory homeostasis is maintained by __________.
an increase in sweat gland activity and an increase in blood flow to the skin
Appositional growth on the outer surface of bones results in __________.
an increase in the diameter of a growing bone
Darcy wrecks her bike and experiences a break in the distal portion of her radius, which now projects out of her skin. Which type of fracture does she have?
an open Colles' fracture
The basic functional unit(s) of compact bone tissue is/are __________.
an osteon
Where can you find an apocrine sweat gland?
armpits, nipples, and pubic region
Special smooth muscles in the that produce 'goose bumps' when they contract are called __________.
arrector pili
The joint surfaces of the bones of a synovial joint are covered with _______________.
articular cartilage
Even though the specific cause varies, arthritis always involves damage to the __________.
articular cartilages
C1 and C2 have specific names, which are the __________.
atlas and the axis
The popliteal ligaments extend between the femur and the heads of the tibia and fibula, reinforcing the __________.
back of the knee joint
What type of joint is the shoulder joint?
ball-and-socket
The color of the nail bed underneath the body of the nail is due to__________.
blood vessels
Unlike compact bone, spongy bone (also called cancellous bone) resembles a network of bony struts separated by spaces that are normally filled with __________.
bone marrow
The general appearance of the female pelvis is different from that of the male pelvis in that the female pelvis is __________.
broad, light, and smooth
When the nucleus pulposus is compressed by the adjacent vertebrae, causing distortion of the anulus fibrosus into the spinal canal, the result is a __________.
bulging disc
A fluid-filled pocket containing synovial fluid that is found in joints and protects where a tendon or ligament rubs against a bone is a __________.
bursa
Which of the following are small pockets filled with synovial fluid and are found where a tendon or ligament rubs against other tissues?
bursae
The hormone synthesized in the kidneys that regulates absorption of calcium and phosphate ions in the digestive tract is __________.
calcitriol
Narrow passageways that allow osteocytes to communicate with neighboring osteocytes are called _____________.
canaliculi
The small passageways that exist in the bone matrix to allow living bones cells to obtain nutrients and get rid of wastes are called __________.
canaliculi
The region known as the epiphyseal plate is the area where __________.
cartilage is not replaced by bone until after puberty
Several hours after an injury to the skin and a scab has formed, cells from which integumentary layer undergo rapid divisions and begin to migrate along the edge of the wound?
cells of the stratum basale of the epidermis
The only vertebrae that have transverse foramina in the transverse processes are __________.
cervical
Of the following, which correctly identifies the sequence of the vertebrae from superior to inferior?
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx
What are the two basic factors that interact to produce skin color?
circulation and pigment concentration
Patterns established by these fibers determine the lines of cleavage.
collagen and elastic fibers
Fractures that shatter a bone into many small fragments are called __________ fractures.
comminuted
The type of fracture that occurs in vertebrae that are subject to extreme stresses is a __________ fracture.
compression
A large, rounded, articulating process of bone is a _________.
condyle
Which of the following is NOT one of the three parts of the sternum?
costal groove
The endosteum is found in all of the following places except the __________.
covering the outside surface of the bones
The axial skeleton creates a framework that supports and protects organ systems in the __________.
cranial and thoracic cavities
A prominent ridge where ligaments or tendons attach to the bone is called a __________.
crest
The term that refers to a bluish coloration of the skin is ___________.
cyanosis
What is the composition of the nail body?
dead cells
Hair turns gray or white because of __________.
decreased melanocyte activity
With aging, hair turns gray or white due to which of the following causes?
decreased melanocyte activity
Synovial joints are classified functionally as:
diarthroses
If an abnormal rearrangement or alignment of the bones results from a fracture, it is called a __________ fracture.
displaced
The head of the ulna is located __________ to the ulnar tuberosity.
distal
The term for the expanded end of a long bone where the joint surfaces are located is the __________.
epiphysis
The tissue that overlays the exposed nail is the __________.
eponychium or cuticle
The term for the redness that develops with a first-degree burn is __________.
erythema
Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands located in the __________.
external auditory canal
Structures that are associated with a synovial joint but are commonly superficial to the joint capsule and that help protect the articular cartilage are ____________.
fat pads
Which bone is NOT formed via intramembranous ossification?
femur
The type of tissue that comprises the outer ring of the intervertebral disc is _______.
fibrocartilage
Thin bones that form the roof of the skull, the sternum, and the scapulae are considered ________.
flat bones
Movements of the vertebral column are limited to __________.
flexion and extension, lateral flexion, and rotation
Which anatomical term describes a rounded passageway for blood vessels or nerves?
foramen
The foramen that allows the medulla of the brainstem to connect with the spinal cord is the __________.
foramen magnum
Which foramen is the passageway for nerves to exit the cranium and innervate the jaw and its associated structures?
foramen ovale
The result of overproduction of growth hormone before puberty can result in a condition called ___________.
gigantism
The type of joint that involves flat or slightly curved joint surfaces and that allows slight nonaxial movement is a ________ joint.
gliding
The type of joint that allows flexion, lateral flexion, and rotation of the vertebral column is a ____________.
gliding joint
Which hormone, released during times of stress, can loosen the connections between keratinocytes?
glucocorticoids
The fibrous joint that holds a tooth in the bony socket of the jawbone is a ____________.
gomphosis
Which structure supports the larynx and attaches to muscles that move the tongue?
greater horns of the hyoid bone
A fracture in which one side of the shaft is broken and the other side is bent is a __________.
greenstick fracture
When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones __________.
grow longer
Accessory structures of the skin include the __________.
hair follicles and the sebaceous and sweat glands
An expanded joint surface shaped like a ball and found on the articular end of the epiphysis is called a __________.
head
Abnormal development of bone in non-skeletal tissues is called _____________ ossification.
heterotopic
A hard ossified bone in an adult actually begins within the embryo as a miniature version composed of __________.
hyaline cartilage
Two-thirds of a bone's weight is composed of calcium phosphate which interacts with calcium hydroxide to form crystals of __________.
hydroxyapatite
What is the subcutaneous layer that separates the integument from the deep fascia around other organs?
hypodermis
Which of the following layers is composed of adipose and areolar tissues and is the site where subcutaneous injections are given?
hypodermis
How do third-degree burns differ from first- and second-degree burns?
hypodermis, dermis, and epidermis are destroyed
Calcitonin does all of the following except ____________________.
increase osteoblast activity
Parathyroid does all of the following except __________.
increase the activity of osteoblasts
Appositional growth __________.
increases the diameter of a long bone, forms circumferential lamellae, and involves both osteoblasts and osteoclasts
When the calcium ion concentration of the blood rises above the normal level, secretion of the hormone calcitonin __________.
increases the rate of calcium ion excretion from the kidneys
Remnants of osteons, which have been almost completely recycled by osteoclasts, are known as __________.
interstitial lamellae
The enlarged roughened projection that bears your weight when you are sitting is the __________.
ischial tuberosity
The structure that bears the body's weight when one is seated is which of the following?
ischial tuberosity
The outer dense connective tissue of a bone, the periosteum, ________.
isolates the bone from surrounding tissues, provides a route for circulatory and nervous supply, and actively participates in bone growth and repair
All the following are characteristics of periosteum EXCEPT __________.
it is an incomplete cellular layer that lines the medullary cavity
What is the water-resistant, fibrous protein that fills the cells of the outer layers of the epidermis and helps slow dehydration?
keratin
Which organ prevents calcium loss in response to PTH stimulation?
kidney
The bones that make up the eye socket, or orbit, include the __________.
lacrimal, ethmoid, and sphenoid
The spaces in the bony matrix where osteocytes exist are __________.
lacunae
The sutures that articulate the bones of the skull are the __________ sutures.
lambdoidal, sagittal, coronal, and squamous
Compact bone is characterized by many cylindrical osteons. Osteons are formed by layers of nested cylinders each called a(n) _____________.
lamella
The malleolus of the fibula is always on the __________ aspect of the leg.
lateral
Changing the magnitude and direction of forces generated by skeletal muscles is an illustration of the skeletal function of __________.
leverage
The anterior fontanelle __________.
lies at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures
Weight transfer occurs along the __________ of the foot.
longitudinal arch
The clavicles articulate with a bone of the sternum called the __________.
manubrium
The three components of the adult sternum are the __________.
manubrium, body, and xiphoid process
Immediately after an initial injury to the skin, bleeding and __________ occur.
mast cell activation
What is the term for the pad of fibrocartilage found between opposing bones in some synovial joints?
meniscus
What mode of secretion do the eccrine sweat glands utilize?
merocrine
The narrow zone that connects the epiphysis and the diaphysis of long bones is the _________.
metaphysis
The stage of repair of a wound in which a fibroblast moves into the wound area is called the __________.
migratory phase
The surfaces of the scapulae and clavicles are extremely important as sites for __________.
muscle attachment
Nail production begins at the __________.
nail root
The soft, gelatinous core of the intervertebral disc is called the __________.
nucleus pulposus
Which structures are the joint surfaces that allow the cranium to articulate with the vertebral column?
occipital condyles
Which of the following is the term for a fracture in which the broken bone breaks through the skin?
open or compound
The passageway that allows the optic nerve to reach the eyeball for the sense of vision is the __________.
optic canal
The process of replacing other tissues with bone is called __________.
ossification
Cells that produce new bone matrix are called __________.
osteoblasts
Cells of the perichondrium need to take on a new role as ossification begins. They will become __________.
osteoblasts and begin to deposit bone matrix
As osteoclasts absorb and remove bone matrix, they leave shallow depressions called a(n) _________.
osteoclastic crypt
Giant, multinucleated cells involved in the process of osteolysis are __________.
osteoclasts
The process of osteolysis is performed by which cell population?
osteoclasts
Mature bone cells found in lacunae are called __________.
osteocytes
Even as an adult, we have populations of primitive cells that can produce osteoblasts. These primitive cells are called __________.
osteogenic cells
The process of bone breakdown or erosion is called __________.
osteolysis
What condition accelerates after menopause because of a decline in circulating estrogen?
osteoporosis
Canals that extend perpendicularly through bone to supply blood to deeper osteons and to tissues of the medullary cavity are ___________________ canals.
perforating
Which bone-associated structure is continuous with the capsule of the joint, adding strength and helping to stabilize the joint?
periosteum
The intervertebral foramina __________.
permit the passage of nerves to and from the spinal cord
The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to __________.
position the shoulder joint and provide a base for arm movement
The integumentary system has a protective function. From which of the following does the skin not protect us?
pressure and pain stimuli
In endochondral ossification, blood vessels penetrate and invade the central region of the cartilaginous model. This first area that is invaded is called the __________.
primary ossification center
A general term for a bony projection, often where a muscle, tendon, or ligament attaches to a bone is called a _______.
process
The stage of repair of deep skin injury in which epidermal cells migrate under the scab is called the __________.
proliferation phase
The movement in which the palm is moved to face posteriorly is _______.
pronation
Which of the following is not a function of the axial skeleton?
providing attachments for muscles that move the legs and feet
At which joint do pronation and supination occur?
proximal radio-ulnar joint
The amphiarthrotic articulation that allows limited movement between the two pubic bones is the __________.
pubic symphysis
Pain and stiffness affecting the skeletal and/or muscular system may be caused by __________.
rheumatism
Which appendicular joint firmly attaches the axial skeleton to the pelvic girdle?
sacro-iliac joint
At its proximal end, the round head of the humerus articulates with the __________.
scapula
The practical limit to the healing process of the skin is the formation of inflexible, fibrous, noncellular __________.
scar tissue
The secretion that lubricates the skin and inhibits growth of bacteria is called __________.
sebum
Excessive exposure of the skin to ultraviolet radiation may cause redness, edema, blisters, and pain. The presence of blisters characterizes the burn as __________.
second-degree
The carpals or wrist bones are examples of __________.
short bones
A chamber within in a bone, normally filled with air, is a ___________.
sinus
Air-filled cavities found in some bones of the skull are called __________.
sinuses
The bony skeleton begins to form about __________ after fertilization and usually does NOT stop growing until about age __________ years.
six weeks; 25
The fibers of tendons intermingle with those of the periosteum, attaching __________.
skeletal muscles to bones
The three main organs that serve as the site for the regulation of blood calcium levels are the bones, the intestines, and the pancreas.
sphenoid, frontal, ethmoid, and maxillary bones
Which suture forms the boundary between the temporal bone and the parietal bone of that side?
squamous suture
An important function of the hypodermis is to __________.
stabilize the position of the skin in relation to underlying tissues
Psoriasis is a skin disorder in which there is abnormally increased mitotic activity in the __________.
stratum basale
What is the correct order of strata from the basement membrane to the free surface of the epidermis?
stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum
Which epidermal layer is found only in thick skin?
stratum lucidum
The term for a partial dislocation of a joint is a __________.
subluxation
Small, flat, irregularly shaped bones found between the flat bones of the skull are called ________
sutural bones.
A fibrous joint that is slightly movable is called a ____________.
syndesmosis
A freely movable diarthrotic joint is always what type of structural joint?
synovial
The structures that pass across or around a joint, limiting range of motion and providing support, are __________.
tendons
The type of hairs that are found on the head of an adult and are actively growing are __________.
terminal hairs
In a shoulder separation, __________.
the acromioclavicular joint undergoes partial or complete separation
As a group, the metatarsals are the bones that comprise __________.
the arch of the foot
Which structure acts as a passageway for blood vessels that provide oxygen and nourishment to the brain?
the carotid canal
Beginning at the superior end of the vertebral canal and proceeding inferiorly, __________.
the diameter of the vertebral foramen decreases, and the size of the vertebral body increases
Differences in skin color among individuals are the result of __________.
the different levels of melanin synthesis
All of the following are true of the dermis EXCEPT that __________. -the papillary layer of the dermis underlies the epidermis -the hypodermis is part of the dermis -the reticular layer of the dermis underlies the papillary layer -the reticular layer of the dermis is composed of dense irregular fibrous connective tissue
the hypodermis is part of the dermis
The ligamentum flavum is a ligament that connects __________.
the laminae of adjacent vertebrae
In dark-skinned individuals, __________.
the melanosomes are more numerous
The sagittal suture joins __________.
the parietal bones to each other
Which skull structure encloses the structures of the inner ear?
the petrous part of the temporal bone
As blood vessels extend into the spaces left by dying chondrocytes, the models begin to ossify internally. Where does internal ossification begin?
the primary ossification center in the diaphysis
The joint between the two coxal bones is called the __________.
the pubic symphysis
A complete dislocation of the knee is extremely unlikely because of __________.
the seven major ligaments that stabilize the knee joint
The skeleton of the chest, or thorax, consists of __________.
thoracic vertebrae, ribs, and sternum
Sensible perspiration released by the eccrine sweat glands serves __________.
to cool the surface of the skin, to reduce body temperature, and to dilute harmful chemicals
The primary benefit of having fingernails and toenails is __________.
to protect the dorsal surface of the tips of the fingers and toes
The meshwork of supporting bundles of fibers that make up spongy bone are __________.
trabeculae
A fracture that results in the break of a bone across the long axis of the shaft is called a _________ fracture.
transverse
The distal carpals are the __________.
trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate
A smooth, grooved articulating process of bone shaped like a pulley is a ___________.
trochlea
The first seven ribs are called __________, and they connect to the sternum by individual costal cartilages.
true ribs
A muscle attachment site, which appears as a slightly raised and roughened area on the bone is called a __________.
tuberosity
Ribs pairs 8, 9, and 10 are called __________.
vertebrochonral ribs
Depressions, grooves, and tunnels in bone indicate __________.
where blood vessels or nerves lay alongside or penetrated bones