exam 3 pharm_unit 6,7

fungal infections are known as__

mycoses

___ anti-infectives kill bacteria

bacteriocidal

____ bacteria •Grow optimally without oxygen

anaerobic

what test is needed to determine what pathogen is causing infection

culture and sensitivity

___ is an infection caused from cat feces. The parasite can pass to a baby during pregnancy.

toxoplasmosis

_____a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite.

trichomoniasis

this antibiotic is effective against only gram positive organisms

vancomycin

RBC normal range

4.2-6.2 million

•Elevated AST and ALT is common with what med

remdesivir

___cause disease due to their ability to invade tissues or secrete toxins

pathogens

four sources of HAI infections

patient flora invasive devices (cath / scopes) medical workers medical environment

At least 60% of S. aureus (MRSA) infections now resistant to ___

penicilin

adverse effects of remdesivir include:

bradycardia, hypotension, decreased kindney function elevated liver labs elevated BG levels

_____one of the oldest and safest groups of antibacterials, are primarily active against gram-positive bacteria

penicillins

gentamicin will be deactivated if mixed together with __

penicillins

gram positive bacteria have__cell walls that will retain the stain. if the color keeps and is purple, bacteria is ___

thick positive (positive keeps color)

gram negative bacteria have ___ cell walls which cause the bacteria to ___ stain gram negative bacteria will change __ color

thin lose pink - don't keep the color.

contraindication / caution of imipenem - cilastatin

those with head injuries or hx of seizures

adverse effects of linezolid

thrombocytopenia / myelosuppression.. monitor CBC

this anti fungal drug causes nephrotoxicty

amphotericin B

three anti fungal meds

amphotericin B fluconazole nystatin

80% of patients who take___can experience nephrotoxicity

amphotericin B Deoxycholate

Fungistatic or fungicidal; binding to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, causing them to become permeable. This describes MOA of ___

amphotericin B Deoxycholate

___ has to be infused slowly to prevent hypotension, hypokalemia and shock

amphotericin B Deoxycholate

____ is only compatible with D5W

amphotericin B Deoxycholate

___ is the drug of choice for systemic mycoses

amphotericin B deoxycholate

__ and __ are systemic antifungals

amphotericin B deoxycholate fluconazole

three antifungal meds

amphotericin B deoxycholate fluconazole nystatin

patients with a prosthetic heart valve is given an anti-infective prior to surgery to prevent___

bacterial endocarditis

Which client finding would be considered a risk factor for the administration of amphotericin B (Abelcet)? A. White blood cell count: 9.8 cells/mm3 B. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN): 16 mg/dl C. Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST): 18 u/L D. Potassium: 3.3 mEq/L

D

Which lab result would indicate possible nephrotoxicity in a patient who is currently taking an aminoglycoside antibiotic for a postoperative wound infection? A. Antibiotic peak level B. Decreased blood urea nitrogen C. Decreased white blood cell count D. Elevated serum creatinine

D

cefazolin MOA contraindications: drug interactions

bactericidal; inhibits cell wall synthesis renal impairments nephrotoxicity with concurrent use of nephrotoxic meds increased anticoagulant effect of warfarin

____ anti-infectives slow bacterial growth, allowing natural body defenses to eliminate microorganisms

bacteriostatic

cephalosporins 1st generation description: ___ generation is widely used 5th generation was developed for __

1st gen is used for gram + infection. cant cross BBB 3rd and 4th MRSA

What education should the nurse include when teaching patient about a fluoroquinolone antibiotic (Select all that apply) A.Avoid consuming dairy products or antacids B.Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day C.Limit vitamin C intake in both diet and oral vitamins D.Limit your caffeine consumption E.Take the medication with an antihistamine

A, B, D

Organisms that produce___ are resistant to many penicillin and cephalosporin antibiotics

beta-lactamase

What percentage of healthcare-associated infections is Pseudomonas aeruginosa responsible for

10

Normal Creatinine

0.6-1.2

Which of the following drugs are used to treat systemic mycoses? Select all that apply. 1. sulconazole (Exelderm) 2. fluconazole (Diflucan) 3. tioconazole (Vagistat-1) 4. ketoconazole (Nizoral) 5. amphotericin B (Abelcet)

2, 4, 5

a physician prescribes 2g of Cefepime HCl (Maxipeme) IV to be given over 1 hour in 100 mL. The tubing is 20 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute should the patient receive? (round to the nearest whole number)

33

Normal WBC count

5,000-10,000

In addition to the exemplar drug vancomycin (Vancocin), which other miscellaneous cell wall inhibitors are mentioned in the textbook? Select all that apply. A. aztreonam (Azactam) B. telavancin (Vibativ) C. doripenem (Doribax) D. bacitracin E. amikacin (Amikin)

A, B, D

Acyclovir (Zovirax) has been ordered intravenously for a patient with a herpes zoster infection to the upper torso and face. Which nursing intervention will help prevent a common adverse effect? 1. Administer the drug slowly IV over an hour, and encourage fluid intake throughout the day. 2. Keep skin areas dry to prevent fungal overgrowth. 3. Administer antihistamines 1 hour before giving the infusion to prevent itching. 4. Assess visual acuity periodically and provide for eye comfort such as lubricating eye drops.

Answer: 1 Rationale: Acyclovir is associated with nephrotoxicity, especially when given IV. The drug should be administered IV slowly, over a minimum of 1 hour, and increased fluid intake encouraged throughout the day to prevent adverse renal effects.

The nurse is teaching a patient who recently was diagnosed with an upper respiratory infection and prescribed ampicillin. The nurse would evaluate the session as being successful if the patient states which of the following? 1. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water." 2. "I can expect my tongue to become black and furry." 3. "Once I stop coughing, I should stop taking this medication." 4. "If I miss a dose, I should take two doses together to catch up."

Answer: 1 Rationale: Ampicillin should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure adequate absorption.

A nurse is monitoring a patient receiving metronidazole (Flagyl) for potential adverse effects. Which symptom, if present, would cause the nurse to discontinue the medication and notify the prescriber? 1. Ataxia and confusion 2. Nausea and diarrhea 3. Anorexia and thirst 4. Weight gain and irritability

Answer: 1 Rationale: An acute onset of any CNS abnormality may indicate metronidazole toxicity. If ataxia and confusion suddenly develop after the initiation of metronidazole, the nurse should discontinue the medication and contact the healthcare provider

The healthcare provider orders gentamicin (Garamycin) for a patient with a postoperative wound infection. Which laboratory result should prompt the nurse to consult with the prescriber about possible nephrotoxicity of this drug? 1. Elevated serum creatinine level 2. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 3. Increased white blood cell (WBC) count 4. Elevated serum iron level

Answer: 1 Rationale: Drug-induced nephrotoxicity would cause an elevated serum creatinine level and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

A patient has been receiving levofloxacin (Levaquin) IV for septicemia for 2 weeks and will be given the drug orally at home. Which discharge instruction would be most appropriate for the nurse to give this patient? 1. Report any unusual joint or tendon pain or difficulty with movement or walking. 2. Take a daily multivitamin supplement with the levofloxacin. 3. Exposure to direct sunlight will help increase absorption of vitamin D, which is impaired by this medication. 4. Limit fluid intake to less than 1500 mL per day.

Answer: 1 Rationale: Fluoroquinolones such as levofloxacin have been associated with tendonitis and tendon rupture, especially in patients over age 65. Any unusual joint or tendon pain or difficulty moving or walking should be reported to the provider.

The patient who is taking imipenem-cilastatin (Primaxin) reports shortness of breath, mouth and tongue swelling, and generalized itching. For which of the following does the nurse initially assess the patient? 1. Hypersensitivity reaction 2. Blood dyscrasias 3. Beta-lactamase induction 4. Drug toxicity

Answer: 1 Rationale: Shortness of breath, mouth and tongue swelling, and generalized itching are signs of hypersensitivity reaction.

Nystatin suspension has been ordered for treatment of thrush (oropharyngeal Candida) in a 6-week-old infant. What instructions should the caregiver receive? (Select all that apply.) 1. Give the infant a small amount of water after feedings and before the drug to rinse the mouth. 2. Using an applicator or syringe, distribute the solution around the mouth and tongue, allowing the infant to swallow the remainder. 3. Chill the suspension in the refrigerator before giving for better taste. 4. Give the suspension before feeding the infant to prevent adverse GI effects. 5. Add the suspension to a bottle of formula for easier administration.

Answer: 1, 2 Rationale: Unless otherwise directed by the provider, small amounts of water after a feeding will rinse the mouth of milk proteins and sugars that can provide an ideal medium for Candida to grow. The suspension should be applied to all surfaces of the mouth and tongue, by syringe or applicator, and the infant should swallow the remainder to treat possible GI Candida.

The patient is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) IV for a significant infection. While the patient is receiving this drug, what assessment data will the nurse gather to monitor for adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) 1. Serum creatinine 2. Signs of muscle weakness 3. Liver function studies 4. Urine output 5. Hearing and balance assessments

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5 Rationale: Aminoglycosides are renal, oto-, and neurotoxic. They may also cause neuromuscular blockade. Increases in serum creatinine may indicate nephrotoxicity. Urine output should also be monitored. Dizziness, vertigo, or tinnitus may be signs of ototoxicity. Muscle weakness may indicate neuromuscular blockade and may last for several days.

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for systemic fungal infections. Amphotericin B has been ordered and the nurse will administer this drug slowly IV. When administered too rapidly, amphotericin B may cause what significant adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) 1. Laryngeal spasms 2. Hypotension 3. Hypokalemia 4. Shock 5. Hypoglycemia

Answer: 2, 3, 4 Rationale: When administered too rapidly, amphotericin B may cause hypotension, hypokalemia, and shock.

The nurse knows that pretreatment with corticosteroids, antihistamines, and antipyretics prior to the administration of amphotericin B is given for what effect? 1. To enhance the effectiveness of amphotericin B 2. To eliminate toxic by-products of amphotericin B 3. To reduce the severity of adverse effects associated with amphotericin B 4. To increase the half-life of amphotericin B

Answer: 3 Rationale: Amphotericin B can cause a number of serious adverse effects including fever, chills, and headache. Pretreatment with corticosteroids, antihistamines, and antipyretics may reduce the severity of these distressing adverse effects.

Which instruction should the nurse give a 21-year-old female patient being treated with ampicillin? 1. . Stop taking oral contraceptives because serious adverse effects could occur. 2. . Use oral contraceptives as prescribed because antibiotics do not react with birth control pills. 3.. The antibiotic may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. 4. The antibiotic when taken with oral contraceptives causes toxicity.

Answer: 3 Rationale: Ampicillin may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, and the patient should be instructed to use a barrier method to avoid unwanted pregnancies while on the antibiotic and until the next cycle of oral contraceptives is started.

A patient with diabetes treated with oral antidiabetic medications is receiving oral fluconazole (Diflucan) for treatment of long-standing tinea cruris (jock itch). The nurse will instruct the patient to monitor blood sugar more frequently while on this drug because of what potential drug effects? 1. Fluconazole (Diflucan) antagonizes the effects of antidiabetic drugs. 2. Fluconazole (Diflucan) may increase blood sugar levels. 3. Fluconazole (Diflucan) may decrease blood sugar levels. 4. Fluconazole (Diflucan) may enhance the effects of antidiabetic drugs.

Answer: 3 Rationale: Depending on which oral antidiabetes medication is used (e.g., glyburide), fluconazole (Diflucan) may decrease blood sugar levels, and an adjustment in antidiabetes treatments may be required.

A patient is being treated with metronidazole (Flagyl) for Giardia lamblia infection. When instructing the patient about this drug, the nurse should caution about the possibility of which adverse reaction? 1. Flatus and intestinal bloating 2. Halitosis 3. Unpleasant metallic taste 4. Alopecia

Answer: 3 Rationale: Many patients report experiencing an unpleasant metallic taste that can be caused by metronidazole.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin). Which symptom, if present, may indicate that the patient is experiencing drug-induced ototoxicity? 1. Erythema of the earlobes and ear canal 2. Inner ear pruritus after infusion is completed 3. Tinnitus and dizziness when remaining still 4. Ocular pain with purulent drainage

Answer: 3 Rationale: Ototoxicity is associated with serum concentrations of vancomycin above 60 to 80 mcg/mL and manifests with tinnitus, dizziness, or balance and coordination effects.

The patient is receiving ribavirin (Copegus) for treatment of chronic hepatitis B. Which manifestation, if present in the patient, would the nurse conclude is an adverse effect of this medication? 1. Neurologic symptoms such as headaches and dizziness 2. Respiratory symptoms such as dyspnea and congestion 3. Skin disruptions such as acne and ulcerations 4. Hematologic symptoms such as excessive fatigue or dizziness

Answer: 4 Rationale: Ribavirin is associated with an increased risk of hemolytic anemia. Increased fatigue, dizziness, headache, abdominal pain, pallor, and chest pain are associated with this anemia.

what causes the development of superinfections

Anti-infective antibiotic kills host flora that serve useful purposes, such as killing pathogenic organisms • Pathogenic microorganisms grow unchecked and develops into superinfections,

Which populations are at increased risk of developing a systemic fungal infection? Select all that apply. a. People with a history of liver disease b. Clients with extensive burns c. Clients with HIV d. People receiving long-term corticosteroids

B, C, D

Which steps by the nurse will help limit the development of resistance? (Select all that apply) A. Take antibiotics early when you feel you are getting sick B. Maintain conscientious hand hygiene C. Practice appropriate donning and doffing of PPE D. Promote immunizations as recommended E. Discontinue antibiotics when you are better so you don't take more than needed

B,C,D

Which of the following is the most common microbial cause of a healthcare-associated infection? A. methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) B. carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae (CRE) C. C. difficile D. vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)

C

Third Generation Cephalosporins

Ceftriaxone

three shapes of bacteria

Coccus - spherical, bacillus- rod shaped, spirillum - spiral

name adverse effects of metronidazole

GI related effects dry mouth , metallic taste

where is enterococci found

GI tract and female genital tract, wounds and pressure ulcers

aminoglycosides must be given __ known for their toxicity to __ and __

IV kidneys ears - hearing loss

___ is the most frequently acquired in hospitals and long-term care facilities in patients with weakened immune systems

MRSA

five resistant strains what cause clinical problems

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) carbapenem- resistant enterobacteria (Ex: E.coli) clostridium difficilie (C=diff) pseudomonas aeruginosa

Superficial fungal infections may take months to treat. Which of the following are considered superficial fungal infections? Select all that apply. a. onychomycosis b. cryptococcosis c. tinea corporis d. tinea cruris e. blastomycosis

a, c, d

____ is the ability of an organism to become unresponsive over time this is worsened by :

acquired resistance improper use of anti-infectives

___ is the Drug of choice for herpes viruses does it cure herpes?

acyclovir no- herpes is always there once you have it

three antiviral meds

acyclovir remdesivir ribavirin

what three exemplar meds are antivirals

acyclovir remdesivir ribavirin

___ bacteria thrive in an oxygen-rich environment

aerobic

____are effective against aerobic gram-negative organisms but have the potential to cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.

ahminoglycosides

name drug interactions that can happen while taking metronidazole

alcohol triggers disulfiram response elevation of lithium levels

six protozoan infections

amebiasis cryptosporidiosis giardiasis toxoplasmosis malaria trichomoniasis

___ are drugs that end in "mycin" or "micin"

aminoglycosides

bacterial protein synthesis inhibits includes the class of ___

aminoglycosides

. a patient with AIDS has been given a prescription for oral fluconazole (Diflucan) to prevent Candida infection. Considering the patient's primary diagnosis and the order for fluconazole, what essential teaching will the nurse provide? 1. Keep a food diary and request antinausea medication if eating becomes problematic. 2. Maintain regular low-impact exercise daily to avoid loss of muscle mass. 3. Wear a high-filtration mask if going out in public. 4. Avoid all fat-based soaps and allow the body to air-dry after bathing.

answer: 1 Rationale: Patients who take fluconazole (Diflucan) may experience nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Nutritional intake is especially important to maintain optimal health in a patient with AIDS. Keeping a food diary will assist the provider in determining overall calorie and fluid intake. Antinausea medication may be helpful if nausea or vomiting is severe.

___drugs are classified by their susceptible organisms, chemical structures, and mechanisms of action.

anti-infective

Treating viruses with ___ actually increases drug resistance

antibiotics

____ inhibit microbial protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial ribosome

antibiotics

___ is the least effective of all anti-infective classes

antiviral therapy

_____are the preferred drugs for many mycoses due to their efficacy and favorable safety profile

azoles

____ is IV or inhaled for cystic fibrosis

aztreonam

____ is a monobactum antibiotic that causes bactericidal effect

aztreonam

A nurse is administering amphotericin B (Ambelcet) to a client for a severe fungal infection. Which lab results would be most concerning? a. Hematocrit 38.0 b. Creatinine 2.4 c. White blood count- 5,500 d. Aspartate transaminase (AST) 35

b

What is the therapeutic use for the drug acyclovir (Zovirax)? a. rotovirus b. herpes-simplex virus-1 & 2 (HSV-1 & HSV-2) c. rhinovirus d. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

b

extended - spectrum penicillins are ___ antibiotics. was made to combat__ why do you have to separate giving ESPS from aminoglycosides

broad spectrum pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram -) because penicillins inactivate aminoglycosides

If the infecting pathogen is unknown, a ___ may be used until the pathogen identified.

broad spectrum antibiotic

if infection is severe and the pathogen is unknown, provider may order ___ until pathogen is identified and then switch to __

broad spectrum antibiotic narrow spectrum

three common superinfections

candida albicans in the vagina streptococci in mouth Cdiff in colon

___ is an alternative to penicillin

carbapenem

___ contain a beta-lactam ring that inhibits construction of bacterial cell walls

carbapenems

____are resistant to beta-lactamase and are broad-spectrum alternatives to penicillin

carbapenems

name two common adverse effects of ribavirin

cardiac effects: cardiac arrest, hypotension psychiatric effects: suicidal ideation

adverse effects of levofloxacin

cardiotoxicity - prolonged QT, dysrhythmias neurotoxicity / psychoses hypoglycemia coma

___ is a first generation cephalosporin

cefazolin

2. Cephalosporins

cefazolin ceftriaxone

two cephalosporins meds

cefazolin ceftriaxone

____are similar in structure and function to the penicillins and are widely prescribed for gram-negative infections

cephalosporins

symptoms of ___ appear __ days after exposure what med has been used for treatment of Covid

covid 2-14 remdesivir

•Infections should be __to identify the correct antibiotic

cultured

name the two drug interactions that can happen with acyclovir

decreases elimination of probenecid which is used for gout which can lead to toxic levels can cause nephrotoxicity with other drugs that affect renal function

examples of subcutaneous / cutaneous mycoses

deep skin layers, dermis and subq

five different mechanisms of resistance for bacteria

destroying the drug preventing drug entry into pathogen removal by pumps alteration of drug site development of alternative metabolic pathways

Which lab result would indicate possible nephrotoxicity in a client who is currently taking gentamicin (Garamycin) for a post-operative wound infection?

elevated serum creatinine

BBW of ribavirin

hemolytic anemia

___ is the brain eating amebae

emediasis

____ are harmful non-protein chemicals that are part of the outer layer of the normal cell wall of gram-negative bacteria

endotoxins

when the cell dies ___ are released into surrounding tissues causing inflammation

endotoxins

____ are proteins released by bacteria into surrounding tissues that have the ability to inactivate or kill host cells

exotoxins

___ has many IV incompatibilities. it can increase bleeding with warfarin, increase serum level with phenytoin, cause hypoglycemia, and prolong the effects of fentanyl

fluconazole

___ is an antifungal that is rapidly absorbed when given PO and penetrates CNS, bone, eye, urinary tract, and respiratory tract

fluconazole

___ works well and is penetrated anywhere is our system

fluconazole

____ is used in combo with antibiotics to prevent yeast infections

fluconazole

____Interferes with the synthesis of ergosterol

fluconazole

__prolongs the effects of meds that cause liver toxicity

fluconazole

this anti fungal drug causes hepatotoxicity

fluconazole

this prototype anti fungal med is aiavable IV, oral suspension, and tablet

fluconazole

when ___ is taken with erythromycin it can increase the risk of cardiotoxicity and death

fluconazole

half of these half been removed from the US market by the FDA for safety concerns

fluoroquinolones

this class of drugs are used for infections in hard to treat areas such as deep in the lungs, GI, GU or skin/soft tissue areas

fluoroquinolones

there is an Increased risk of ototoxicity with concurrent use of drugs affecting the eighth cranial nerve with ___

gentamicin

___ is an aminoglycoside

gentamycin

three black box warnings of this med are ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity and neuromuscular blockade

gentamycin

The more often an antibiotic is prescribed, the___

greater chance of it becoming resistant

Infections acquired in the health care setting are called__

health care associated infections

The primary goal of anti-infective therapy is to ___

help body get rid of pathogen

Even though the virus may be controlled, the latent virus can be activated by stress, trauma, fever, exposure to sunlight, sex, menstruation, or treatment with immunosuppressants this describes what virus

herpes virus

peak when is it drawn

highest level 30 - 60 min

A nurse is caring for a client taking imipenem-cilastin (Primaxin). The client reports tongue swelling, generalized itching, and shortness of breath. Which of the following should the nurse suspect?

hypersensitivity reaction

contraindications /cautions for linezolid

hypoglycemia in diabetics HTN with sympathomimetics

name 3 risks associated with fluoroquinolones

hypoglycemic coma psychiatric effects aortic aneurysm

what 2 electrolyte imbalances are seen with amphotericin B Deoxycholate

hypokalemia and hypomagnesmia

____ is a broad spectrum-effective against most gram-positive and gram-negative microbes, including anaerobic bacteria

imipenem - cilastatin

___ is a carbopenem

imipenem-cilastin

what examplar med is a carbapenem

imipenem-cilastin

two ways to prevent infection

immunizations cath care

reasons why you would give anti-infectives for prophylaxis

immunosuppressed patients prior to surgery exposure preventing transmission of HIV to newborns

contraindications and precautions when giving pipercilllin and tazobactam

increase bleeding time with coagulation meds sodium overload with HF patients

drug interactions with vancomycin

increases risk of lactic acidosis with metformin

Vancomycin (Vancocin) may cause a syndrome of flushing, hypotension, tachycardia, and rash on the upper body known as vancomycin flushing syndrome. What actions can the nurse perform to minimize the risk of vancomycin flushing syndrome?

infuse over at least 60 min

MOA of pipercillin and tazobactam

inhibit bacterial wall synthesis,

Which of the following routes of administration is contraindicated with the administration of nystatin (Nystop)?

parenteral

example of systemic mycoses

internal organs, lungs, brain, digestive organs

•Viruses are____and must be inside a host cell to replicate

intracellular parasites

____ is the ability of the pathogen to grow extremely rapidly and cause direct damage to surrounding tissues by their sheer numbers

invasiveness

___ has decreased absorption with antacids or mineral supplements

levofloxacin

___ is a fluoroquinolones

levofloxacin

___ slows the hepatic metabolism of xanthines (increases theophylline levels and caffeine side effects)

levofloxacin

____ can increase muscle weakness in patients with myasthenia gravis

levofloxacin

____ is associated with tendonitis and tendon ruptures

levofloxacin

this exemplar med is a fluoroquinolone

levofloxacin

What education should the nurse include when teaching a client about ciprofloxacin (Cipro)? Select all that apply.

limit caffeine avoid dairy

___ belongs in the class of oxazolidones

linezolid

___ is a bacterial protein synthesis inhibitor

linezolid

2 bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors

linezolid aminoglycosides (gentamicin)

What is neutropenia?

low neutrophil count

trough when to collect

lowest level 30 min before next dose

___are alternatives to penicillin for many gram-positive infections

macrolides

Black Box Warning: Carcinogenic in lab animals this is from what med?

metronidazole

Enters pathogens and binds to DNA, RNA, and intracellular protein, resulting in cell death this describes the MOA of:

metronidazole

___ crosses the BBB so it can help those suffering from brain eating amoebas

metronidazole

___ is used for the Treatment of amebiasis and anaerobic bacterial infections

metronidazole

___ the antiprotozoan exemplar med

metronidazole

alcohol may trigger a disulfiram-like response while taking this medication

metronidazole

this anti fungal is effective against both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

metronidazole

what exemplar med is in the class: anti protozoan

metronidazole

____ are singled-celled or multicellular organisms. three examples:

mushroom, yeasts, molds

___ is the Ability of an organism to cause disease

pathogenicity

common side effects of antibiotics

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and rash

antibiotics are excreted from kidney and can cause __ they may also cause __

nephrotoxic hypersensitivity and allergic reactions

gentamicin is known for its black box warning of__

neurotoxicity

what patients are at high risk for mycoses

neutropenia burns indwelling caths organ transplant

is gentamicin ok with pregnancy?

no - avoid with pregnancy and breastfeeding

___ can cause minor skin irritation or contact dermatitis. it is safe with pregnancy

nystatin

___ is a topical antifungal

nystatin

___ is used for Superficial fungal infections

nystatin

___ is used for athletes for and thrush but it doesn't work as well because its a topical med

nystatin

best way to take antibiotics

on empty stomach

this is given for influenza A and B in clients over 12 months old

oseltamivir

name 3 common adverse effects of amphotericin B Deoxycholate

phlebitis nephrotoxicity - 80% hypokalemia / hypomagnesemia hepatotoxicity

___ is an extended spectrum penicillin

piperacilllin-tazobactam (zosyn)

____ are two extended-spectrum penicillin

pipercacillin and tazobactum

___are diverse, single-celled organisms that can cause widespread disease. found it water, soil, and animal hosts

protozoa

Do not give _____ concurrently with chloroquines / hydroxycholorquine, phenytoin, St. John's Wort and other cyp3a4 inducers

remdesivir

What medication has been helpful in the treatment of Coronavirus-19?

remdesivir

_____ is an antiviral, also effective against SARS, MERS

remdesivir

•Inhibitor of the viral RNA-dependent, RNA polymerase this describes MOA of ___

remdesivir

what is the common contraindication with acyclovir

renal impairment

contraindications of vancomycin

renal impairment hearing loss hx

___ is a Broad-spectrum antiviral, often combined with interferon

ribavirin

____ requires patient to be in negative pressure room

ribavirin

_____ is a known teratogen is all animals, category X no pregnant caregivers allowed in room PPE required

ribavirin

example of superficial mycoses

scalp, skin, nails and mucous membranes

adverse reactions of ceftriaxone

seizure risk GI issues, risk for Cdiff

Once a resistant strain appears, it permanently loses __to that specific drug and often to other drugs in the same class

sensitivity

indications for giving pipercillin and tazobactam (zosyn)

skin, blood, sinus, CNS, respiratory infections. Often given for surgical infection prophylaxis

adverse effects of aztreonam

spuperinfections C-diff

three classifications of mycoses

superficial subcutaneous / cutaneous systemic

___can occur when an anti-infective antibiotic kills host flora

superinfections

The fluoroquinolone class of antibacterial drugs have a black box warning that addresses which of the following risks?

tendinitis and tendon rupture

nursing interventions for those being treated for mycoses

treatment can last for months frequent labs: CBC, hepatic, electrolytes, renal ensure hydration of patient monitor for allergic reactions with first dose ototoxicity, hepatic toxicity, thrombophlebitis

The nurse is caring for a client who is complaining of tinnitus and dizziness. This is an indication of toxicity for which antibiotic? A. vancomycin (Vancocin) B. levofloxacin (Levaquin) C. ceftriaxone (Rocephin) D. ciprofloxacin (Cipro

vancomycin

2 misc. cell wall inhibitors

vancomycin aztreonam

two cell wall inhibitors

vancomycin aztreonam

adverse effects of vancomycin

vancomycin flushing syndrome ototoxicity nephrotoxicity

protozoa spread by __ such as:

vectors flies mosquitoes mites ticks

___ is a Quantitative measure of an organism's pathogenicity

virulence

____are non-living agents that contain none of the cellular organelles necessary for self-survival that are present in living organisms

viruses

nursing considerations with imipenem-cilastatin

•Concurrent use of cilastatin sodium with imipenem prevents the destruction of imipenem and allows for higher serum levels of the antibiotic

nursing considerations with vancomycin

•Usually administered by slow (2+hours) IV infusion for systemic infections

three ways to differentiate bacteria

•staining, shape, and oxygen-use