Exam 4 Genetics
What term most specifically describes when a polyploid organism contains an equivalent of four haploid genomes derived from two separate species?
Allotetraploidy (Amphidiploid)
Recombinant DNA
Also called gene splicing DNA created by joining together pieces of DNA from various sources
What is the last common ancestor of sauropods and pterosaurs?
Ornithodirans
How are restriction sites typically added to the ends of a gene?
PCR with primers containing restriction sites
TTT -> TTC
Silent
Discovered bacterial transformation while researching pneumonia
Frederick Griffith
Lampbrush chromosomes are an unusual type of chromosome that:
are found in meiotic cells
RNA component for small nuclear ribonucleoproteins that splice mRNA
snRNA
The spliceosome removes ______ and joins ______ together to process mRNA.
Introns; exons
In incomplete dominance, the heterozygote ___________.
Is a blend of the two homozygous phenotypes
What is the function of cAMP in regulation of the lac operon?
It activates an activator protein
Which of the following elements allows for homologous pairing of the X and Y chromosomes in meiosis?
PARS
Which term refers to the complex of proteins that is involved in the replication of DNA?
Polymerase Holoenzyme
Which of the following represent multiple copies of paired homologs?
Polytene chromosomes
At a position in a BLAST alignment one protein has an arginine and the other protein has a lysine. Arginine and Lysine are both basic, positive amino acids. How would BLAST classify this position?
Positive
Electrophoresis
Separates DNA and/or RNA Fragments by size on a gel
Origin of Replication
Sequence that allows copies of the plasmid to be made
Pattern Baldness is dominant in males but recessive in females. Pattern Baldness is a _______ trait.
Sex Influenced
Women do not generally grow facial hair but have genes related to facial hair growth they can pass to their offspring. Beards are a ___________ trait in humans.
Sex-limited
Female spiders are usually significantly larger than male spiders. This phenomena is called _________.
Sexual Dimorphism
In regards to mRNA stability, what is the effect of decapping enzymes?
The m7G cap of mRNAs is removed causing mRNAs to be degraded from the 5' end.
The sequence of the coding strand of DNA at the beginning of a gene is 5' ATGCCC 3'. What is the mRNA sequence of this gene?
5' AUGCCC 3'
The mutagen that is an analog of thymine and which anomalously pairs with guanine is/are ________.
5-bromouracil
Programmed cell death or self destruction is called what?
Apoptosis
Single Strand Binding Protein
Binds the separated DNA strands and prevents them from reannealing until a complementary strand is synthesized
The gene of interest wasn't inserted into the plasmid
Blue Colonies
The procedure worked
Blue and white colonies
M
Formation of spindle-fiber system and attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores associated with centromeres are monitored.
________ refers to observations that a genetic disorder occurs at an earlier age in successive generations.
Genetic anticipation
G1 Phase (Gap 1 )
a. G1: The cell grows in size, and cellular components, such as organelles and proteins, are synthesized. The cell prepares for DNA synthesis.
Height in a species of plant is controlled by 4 genes with additive alleles. Which of the following is a genotype you would expect for a plant of average height?
aaBBCcDd
Which of the following factors is typically monitored during the M checkpoint?
attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores
Which of the following elements of the trp operon is involved in a process that "weakens or impairs" expression of the operon?
attenuator
Fruit flies homozygous for the eyeless mutation demonstrate various gradations in phenotype. This represents an example of ________.
expressivity
Which of the following mediates the protein folding process by excluding the formations of alternative incorrect folding patterns?
chaperones
Which of the following are the areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis?
chiasma
Mendel's significant contributions in genetics published in 1866 went largely unnoticed until the discovery of ________.
chromosomal patterns during meiosis
Migration of chromosomes is made possible by the binding of the spindle to the ________.
kinetochore
Which of the following is the side of the replication fork where synthesis is discontinuous?
lagging strand
Middle repetitive DNA sequences can be used for DNA fingerprinting because they differ among individuals in the:
length of the repeated sequence
Middle repetitive DNA sequences can be used for DNA fingerprinting because they differ among individuals in the
length of the repeated sequence.
In a population of birds, mating happens more often between birds that are the same color. What type of nonrandom mating is this?
positive assortative
The clearing made by bacteriophages in a "lawn" of bacteria on an agar plate is called a ________.
plaque
lacI codes for a(n) ________, and when lacI is mutated, the lac operon is ________.
repressor; constitutively expressed
Which technique can make cDNA from RNA?
reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)
During translation elongation in bacteria, peptide bond formation is catalyzed by:
ribozyme activity of the 23S rRNA.
What level of protein structure includes alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets?
secondary
The process that leads to the development of haploid gametes is best described as ________.
segregation of alleles
Metagenomics
sequencing all of the genomes present in a sample of a particular environment
If an allele is recessive for one sex but dominant in the other sex, the gene is __________.
sex-influenced
In a population of plants has 80% purple flowers, 20% yellow flowers. The wind carries seeds from these plants to a new location. The seeds that germinate in this new location happen to be mostly yellow, leading to a new population that's 70% yellow, 30% purple. What is this an example of?
the founder effect
Bioinformatics includes all of the following except_______
using enzymes to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube
In a Chi-square analysis, what general condition causes one to reject (fail to accept) the null hypothesis?
usually when the probability value is less than 0.05
A genetic condition that may be responsible for some forms of fragile-X syndrome, as well as Huntington disease, involves ________.
various lengths of trinucleotide repeats
Multiple Cloning Site
where the gene of interest is inserted
Klinefelter's
XXY
Which DNA marker uses Restriction Enzymes to digest DNA into fragments?
RFLPs
CRISPR-Cas9 uses a _____ template to identify phage _____.
RNA; DNA
If you observed 20 double crossovers when 4 were expected, what would be the Interference value (I)?
-4
Hexaploid
6n
Outside agents that damage DNA are called what?
Mutagens
DNA polymerase I
Primers are DNA, don't need to be replaced
Rho factor functions in prokaryotic _____.
Transcriptional termination
Turner's
X0
Which of the follow represents a period of anagenesis?
c
Which of the follow is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?
Only DNA contains phosphate groups
DNA Ligase
Only one primer attaches to one strand, so there's no lagging strand or Okazaki fragments
Triploid
3n
This a normal karyotype? If not, what is the disorder?
Edward's Syndrome
Histones are ______ charged, DNA is __________ charged
positively;negatively
How many gametes are involved in the formation of dizygotic twins?
4
This a normal karyotype? If not, what is the disorder?
Poly-X
Oogenesis produces _____ egg(s), while Spermatogenesis produces _____ sperm.
4 Large; 1 Small
Klinefelter syndrome in humans, which leads to underdeveloped testes and sterility, is caused by which chromosomal condition?
47, XXY
Which of the following base changes in DNA is an example of a transition?
A to G
define pcr variants Quantitative real-time PCR (qPCR):
(Real-time PCR allows researchers to quantify amplification reactions as they occur in real time.)
Proteomics allows for comparison of the proteins expressed by:
-Different organisms -Different cell types in an organism -The same cell type under different conditions or at different times -Diseased and healthy tissue
•Proteomics provides information on:
-Protein structure and function -Post-translational modifications -Protein-protein, protein-nucleic acid, protein-metabolite interactions -Cellular localization of proteins -Protein stability and aspects of translational and post-translational level of gene-expression regulation -Shared domains and evolutionary history of proteins.
Opossums can be grey or white, with the grey allele being dominate. If the frequency of the grey allele is 0.6, what frequency do you expect for white opossums?
0.16
The frequency of a genetic disorder caused by a recessive allele is 0.01 in a population. What is the frequency of carriers are in the population?
0.18
In snapdragons, the red and white flower alleles exhibit incomplete dominance. If the frequency of the red alleles is 0.3, what frequency of pink flowers do you expect in the population?
0.42
Due to the production of polar bodies, 1 round of oogenesis produces how many eggs?
1
If both parents are heterozygous (Ss) for the recessive genetic disorder sickle cell anemia, what are the odds that EITHER of their 2 children will have sickle cell anemia?
1 in 2
Three steps of the pcr cycle, define pcr variants
1.) Denaturation-dsDNA is denatured into single strands 2.) Hybridization/Annealing-- Primers bind to ssDNA--starting point for DNA polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands 3.) Extension--DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA strands
A normal female Drosophila fly has what ratio of autosome sets and X chromosomes?
1.0
Albinism, lack of pigmentation in humans, results from an autosomal recessive gene. Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child. What is the probability that BOTH of their next two children will be albino?
1/16
The white-eye gene in Drosophila is recessive and sex-linked. Assume that a white-eyed female is mated to a wild-type male. What would be the phenotypes of the offspring?
1/2 wild-type females, 1/2 white-eyed males
The autosomal (not X-linked) gene for brachydactyly, short fingers, is dominant to normal finger length. Assume that a female with brachydactyly in the heterozygous condition is married to a man with normal fingers. What is the probability that their first child will be a brachydactylous girl?
1/4
The chance of a couple having a boy for their first AND second child is ____.
1/4
Many of the color varieties of summer squash are determined by several interacting loci: AA or Aa gives white, aaBB or aaBb gives yellow, and aabb produces green. Assume that two fully heterozygous plants are crossed. Give the phenotype ratio of the offspring.
12(white): 3 (yellow): 1 green
If an organism has the alleles t and V on one chromosome, T and v on the other, and the genes are 14 map units apart, what percentage of the organism's gametes should be recombinant?
14
The diploid chromosome number of an organism is usually represented as 2n. Humans have a diploid chromosome number of 46. What would be the expected haploid chromosome number in a human?
15
What are expected ratios for monohybrid and dihybrid testcrosses, respectively in which the parent with the dominant phenotype is heterozygous for all traits?
1:1 and 1:1:1:1
With incomplete dominance, a likely ratio resulting from a monohybrid cross (Aa x Aa) would be ________.
1:2:1
Assume that a cross is made between two organisms that are both heterozygous for a gene that shows incomplete dominance. What phenotypic and genotypic ratios are expected in the offspring?
1:2:1 and 1:2:1
Prokaryotes have ______ origin(s) of replication, while eukaryotes have ______ origin(s) of replication.
1; multiple
What is the ratio expected for offspring of a cross between two yellow mice if the yellow allele is recessive lethal?
2 yellow: 1 agouti
Approximately what percentage of the human genome is comprised of functional genes?
2%
Genes A and B are 10 map units apart and genes B and C are 20 map units apart, with gene B located between genes A and C. What would be the expected amount of double crossovers for a trihybrid test cross?
2.0%
If an organism has the alleles E and F on one chromosome, e and f on the other, and the genes are 40 map units apart, what percentage of the organism's gametes should be eF?
20
Which of the following represents the trihybrid ratio for AaBbCc x AaBbCc?
27:9:9:3:3:3:1
If a species has a haploid number of 10, how many chromosomes would an individual of this species have if it were 3n - 2?
28
Diploid
2n
Trisomy
2n+1
Monosomy
2n-1
How many nucleotides are in a codon?
3
If one is testing a goodness of fit to a 9:3:3:1 ratio, how many degrees of freedom would be associated with the Chi-square analysis?
3
Calculate the standard deviation of the following values: 8, 12, 8 and 4.
3.26
Assume that two genes are 30 map units apart on chromosome II of Drosophila and that a cross is made between a doubly heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male. What percent recombination would be expected in the offspring of this type of cross?
30%
Eye color in humans is a polygenic trait influenced by 16 genes. How many phenotypic classes of eye color would you expect?
33
In a sample of double stranded DNA, 15% of the nucleotides are adenine. Which of the following statements is most likely true?
35% are guanine
If an organism has the alleles y and Z on one chromosome, Y and z on the other, and the genes are 14 map units apart, what percentage of the organism's gametes should be yZ?
43
Assume that two genes are 80 map units apart on chromosome II of Drosophila and that a cross is made between a doubly heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male. What percent recombination would be expected in the offspring of this type of cross?
50%
A recessive allele in dogs causes white spots. If two solid colored dogs are mated and produce a spotted offspring, what is the percentage chance their next puppy would be solid colored?
75%
Insulators
A DNA sequence that blocks or insulates the effect of enhancers
Enhancers
A DNA sequence that can stimulate transcription from a long distance away from promoter
Which of the following is a true statement?
A bacterial colony found on minimal media consists of cells derived from a single prototroph cell
Which of the following features is an example of protein tertiary structure?
A disulfide bond between cysteine R groups
DNA polymerases can only add to what?
A free 3'OH
Selectable Marker
A gene that allows the identification of bacteria that have been successfully transformed and taken up the plasmid
A population of fish has and variety of body colors and patterns. After an oil spill, only white fish with red stripes remain. What is this an example of?
A genetic bottleneck
Which of the following correctly describes a polysome?
A mature mRNA with multiple ribosomes
Which of the following are the three parts of a nucleotide? (check three)
A nitrogenous base A phosphate group A sugar
The tortoise shell coat pattern in cats requires one orange allele and one black allele for the O gene. The O gene is located on the X chromosome. Which of the following cats CANNOT have the tortoise shell coat pattern?
A normal female
What is an open reading frame (ORF)?
A nucleotide sequence that is translated into a protein
Which if the following components is included in every nucleotide?
A pentose sugar
DNA replication requires all the following EXCEPT what?
A phospholipid scaffold
The DEAD box is a conserved amino acid sequence that can give a protein a particular function (helicase activity). What is this an example of?
A protein domain
In humans, the genetic basis for determining the sex "male" is accomplished by the presence of ________.
A region on the Y chromosome
A reporter gene was created by combining the cis-acting regulatory elements from gene X with the open reading frame from the green fluorescent protein (GFP). If a deletion in the gene X region of the reporter gene results in increased expression of GFP in the cell, what is the most likely location of this mutation?
A silencer element
Although the most frequent forms of Down syndrome are caused by a random error, the nondisjunction of chromosome 21, Down syndrome occasionally runs in families. The cause of this form of familial Down syndrome is ________.
A translocation between chromosome 21 and chromosome 14
If an F2 generation from a F1 self-cross always yields offspring in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio, which of the following P crosses could have occurred?
AA x aa
What is the initiator triplet (start codon) in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Which amino acid does this triplet recruit?
AUG; methionine
Under what conditions does one expect a 1:1:1:1 ratio?
AaBb x aabb
When crossover occurs within a paracentric inversion the chromatids will be ________.
Acentric and Dicentric
Enhanceosomes are made up of what?
Activators and Coactivators
Positive control operons are regulated by _____, while negative control operons are regulated by _____.
Activators; Repressors
Which of the following regions does NOT usually contain repetitive DNA sequences?
Active genes
Which of the following is used to calculate Narrow-sense heritability?
Additive variance
Which of the following cells are least likely to use the enzyme telomerase?
Adult neurons
Which of the following cells are most likely to use the enzyme telomerase in an adult?
Adult stem cells in the bone marrow
Which of the following organisms have the same code?
All viruses and cells use the same code
Which of the following are the three parts of an amino acid? (select all three)
An amino group A side chain/R group A carboxylic acid
The condition that exists when an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes but not a complete haploid set is known as ________.
Aneuploidy
miRNA and siRNA partner with ______ proteins.
Argonaut
Which enzyme is responsible for converting androgens into estrogens?
Aromatase
The image below shows wild and domesticated peaches. What is this an example of?
Artificial selection
Primase
Artificial, premade primers are used
Where in a chromosome territory are regions of transcriptionally active genes found?
At the edges of the territory near inter-chromatic compartments
A diploid gamete that is fertilized by a haploid gamete from the same species would be an example of ________.
Autopolyploidy
A bacterium that cannot synthesize the essential amino acid phenylalanine and must have phenylalanine in its environment to grow is a(n) ___________.
Auxotroph
Showed that DNA is responsible for bacterial transformation
Avery, MacLeod, & McCarty
Who determined what the transforming principle was using DNAse, RNAse, and Protease?
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
_______ tumors grow uncontrollably but do not metastasize..
Benign
Which model organism consists mostly hermaphrodites with two X chromosomes and rarely males with only one X chromosome?
C. elegans
G1/S
Check point monitors cells size and determines whether DNA has been damaged.
Acetylation of histones usually has what effect?
Chromatin becomes less compact and genes are more active
Methylation of DNA usually has what effect?
Chromatin becomes more compact and genes are less active
Metaphase
Chromosomes align at the cell's equatorial plane (metaphase plate).
Prophase
Chromosomes condense, the nuclear envelope breaks down, and the mitotic spindle forms.
Telophase
Chromosomes de-condense, and nuclear envelopes reform around the separated chromatids.
In unicorns, the C gene controls horn color. CB CB unicorns have blue horns, CP CP unicorns have pink horns, and CB CP unicorns have striped horns that are pink AND blue. This is an example of ______.
Co-Dominance
Pharmacogenomics
Comparing genomic data to drug response data. Can be used to customize dosages and treatment plans
What is a form of recombination in bacteria that involves the F plasmid?
Conjugation
For the trp operon, when charged tryptophan tRNAs are not abundant, the ribosome stalls at the trp codons in the mRNA and transcription ________.
Continues unimpeded
Which of the following molecules helps to "turn off" genes in an operon?
Corepressor
What is meant by "charging" of a tRNA?
Covalent linkage of an amino acid to the appropriate tRNA molecule.
Primase
Creates RNA primers for other polymerases to build off of
The Dicer protein does what?
Cut double stranded RNA to make small RNAs
The Dicer protein does what?
Cuts double stranded RNA to make small RNAs
With regard to the critical checkpoints used to regulate the progression of the cell cycle, which of the following events occurs first?
Cyclins bind to and activate kinase enzymes
How are restriction fragments put together?
DNA Ligase
Which of the following ALWAYS causes chromatin to become more compact, making genes are less active?
DNA methylation
Cloning Vectors
DNA molecules that accept DNA fragments and replicate these fragments when vectors are introduced into host cells
Which polymerase has both 3' -> 5' and 5 -> 3' exonuclease activity?
DNA polymerase I
Which of the following enzymes can proofread DNA using a 3`-> 5` exonuclease activity?
DNA polymerase I, II, and III
All of these are known to cause cancer EXCEPT
DNA repair
S Phase (Synthesis)
DNA replication occurs during this phase. Each chromosome is duplicated, resulting in the formation of sister chromatids.
When the amino group of cytosine is converted to a ketone, its a ________ mutation.
Deamination
Histone deacetylases (HDACs) have what effect on gene expression?
Decreases
Original: ATG TTT CGG TGT GAG CCC TGA Mutant B: ATG TTT CGT GTG AGC CCT GA
Deletion that causes a frameshift
Original: ATG TTT CGG TGT GAG CCC TGA Mutant A: ATG CGG TGT GAG CCC TGA
Deletion that does not cause a frameshift
Expression vectors
Designed to ensure mRNA expression of cloned gene--to produce many copies of encoded protein in host cell Some plasmids only carry DNA and do not signal for protein
If a haploid cell is treated with colchicine during mitosis, what will be its ploidy (i.e. how many chromosomes will it have) after the cell cycle is complete?
Diploid
Which of the following correctly describes the genome of most eukaryotes?
Diploid with multiple linear chromosomes
In a species of Galapagos finch, thick beaked individuals excel at cracking nuts, while thin beaked individuals excel at picking out grubs from trees. Individuals with intermediate beaks aren't good at either task. This is an example of what?
Disruptive selection
Skin color is determined by multiple genes that control the production and deposition of melanin. However, alleles that cause albinism completely prevent the production of melanin and mask the expression of other genes involved in skin color. If an allele for albinism is dominant, it is an example of what type of inheritance?
Dominant Epistasis
What is independent assortment?
During gamete formation, a pair of unit factors segregates randomly from another pair of unit factors.
What is segregation?
During gamete formation, allele pairs are separated to form haploid gametes.
The PCR (polymerase chain reaction) protocol that is currently used in laboratories was facilitated by the discovery of a bacterium called Thermus aquaticus in a hot spring inside Yellowstone National Park, in Wyoming. This organism contains a heat-stable form of DNA polymerase known as Taq polymerase, which continues to function even after it has been heated to extremely high temperatures. Why would such a heat-stable polymerase be beneficial in PCR?
Each cycle includes a "hot" denaturation phase (95°C), which separates the hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of the template DNA together.
Which of the following would you use to determine if a PCR produced the correct size fragment?
Electrophoresis
Introns are most common in ____________.
Eukaryotes
The condition that exists where complete haploid sets of chromosomes are present (no incomplete sets) is known as ________.
Euploidy
Which of the following contains genes for sex pilus formation?
F Factor plasmids
What occurs when a F+ cell is mated to a F- cell?
F- cells become F+ cells with rare transfer of chromosomal genes
Double crossovers are more common than single crossovers.
False
Genes that are close together on a bacterial chromosome are LESS likely to be co-transformed or co-transduced.
False
What would usually be the sex of a XX:AA fruit fly?
Female
Which of the following is used to study chromosomes and detect duplications and deletions?
Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
Who used X-ray diffraction to examine DNA, helping other scientists determine its structure?
Franklin
When cells withdraw from the continuous cell cycle and enter a "quiescent" phase, they are said to be in what stage?
G0
List the steps of interphase
G1 Phase (Gap 1 ), S phase (Synthesis) G2 Phase (Gap 2 )
_____ mutations produce new activity in a gene product or protein and are usually dominant.
Gain-of-function
Genomic DNA isolated from the nuclei of a nerve cell and a muscle cell was digested with DNAse I and then DNA was probed for three gene sequences: gene A, gene B, and gene C. The results of the experiment are shown below: Gene A Gene B Gene C Nerve digested intact digested Muscle intact digested digested Which of the three genes is transcribed in nerve cells but not muscle cells?
Gene A
___________ are required for transcription to occur in eukaryotes.
General Transcription Factors
Eukaryotic genes often contain introns, which are not present in prokaryotes, presenting an obstacle in expressing eukaryotic genes in bacteria. How is this issue dealt with?
Generating cDNA from a mature mRNA
Which of the following can overlap?
Genes
The sequencing of the human genome led to the realization that chromosome 19 contains many genes while chromosomes 13 and Y contain relatively few. What does this finding imply about the density of genes in a genome?
Genes are not uniformly distributed and appear in clusters separated by gene deserts
How do germ-line mutations differ from somatic mutations?
Germ-line mutations can be passed to offspring, while somatic mutations cannot.
If an organism has the alleles G and H on one chromosome, g and h on the other (GH/gh), which of the following gametes would be considered recombinant? (select all that apply)
Gh and gH
The CAP-cAMP complex is necessary for optimal binding of RNA polymerase in the promoter region of the lac operon. How does the presence of glucose in the cell prevent the CAP-cAMP/promoter interaction when the lac operon is repressed?
Glucose inhibits adenylate cyclase, decreasing the amount of cAMP in a cell
Who discovered the transforming principle in Streptococcus pneumonia?
Griffith
Which of the following is true about histone acetyltransferase (HAT)?
HATs are usually linked to increasing gene expression
Rho-Independent transcriptional termination requires the formation of RNA secondary structure called a _____.
Hairpin
Which of the following correctly describes the genome of most bacteria?
Haploid with one circular chromosome
Sister chromatid exchanges (SCEs) have been observed during mitosis, creating __________. Research into the function of these exchanges is ongoing.
Harlequin Chromosomes
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacteria and the Kozak sequence in eukaryotes have the same function, which is _____.
Helping Ribosomes find the translation start site
Showed that phages inject their DNA, not protein, into the bacteria.
Hershey & Chase
Which scientists provided evidence supporting DNA as the genetic material by conducting experiments with Escherichia coli and its infecting virus, bacteriophage T2?
Hershey and Chase
Which of the following statements correctly describes the structure of chromatin?
Heterochromatin is highly condensed and inactive, whereas euchromatin is less compact and more active.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the two main types of chromatin?
Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.
Which of the following ALWAYS causes chromatin to become less compact, making genes are more active?
Histone acetylation
In eukaryotes, DNA is organized around proteins called ______.
Histones
Which of the following characteristics is not associated with histones?
Histones are negatively charged.
Which of the following molecular characteristics allows histones to bind tightly to DNA?
Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged
Which of the following molecular characteristics allows histones to bind tightly to DNA?
Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.
DNA strands anneal to one another via what type of bonds between bases?
Hydrogen
Alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets are examples of protein secondary structures. How are these structures stabilized?
Hydrogen bonds between the carboxyl groups and amino groups of different amino acids
What technique would you use to the determine melting temperature (Tm) of DNA?
Hyperchromic shift
Which is the correct order of experiments for creating recombinant bacteria? I. Use PCR to amplify a gene of interest.II. Transform bacteria with the plasmidIII. Perform a ligation reaction with the gene of interest and the plasmid.IV. Digest the gene of interest and a plasmid with restriction enzymes.
I--> IV --> II --> II
Gene regulation in eukaryotes is more complicated than bacterial gene regulation. Which of the following describes a gene regulation event that occurs in eukaryotes but not in bacteria?
In eukaryotes, histones must be added or removed to regulate gene expression.
The Philadelphia chromosome is a translocation between chromosomes 22 and 9 that leads to the translation of a BCR-ABL fusion protein. The normal ABL gene is a proto-oncogene that codes for a kinase involved in a cell signaling pathway. How does this chromosome abnormality lead to cancer?
In the fusion protein, the ABL protein is always active
Have many different effects including epigenetic regulation and sequestering miRNAs
IncRNA
When a true breeding eight tentacled kraken is mated with a true breeding twelve tentacled kraken, the resulting offspring have ten tentacles. This is an example of ______.
Incomplete Dominance
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the ABO gene locus?
Incomplete dominance
How does trisomy usually affect gene dosage?
Increases
Acetylation of histones usually _____ the rate of transcription for a gene. Methylation of DNA usually _____ the rate of transcription for a gene.
Increases;decreases
Original: ATG TTT CGG TGT GAG CCC TGA Mutant D: ATG TTT CAG GTG TGA GCC CTG A
Insertion that causes a frameshift
Original: ATG TTT CGG TGT GAG CCC TGA Mutant C: ATG TTT AGA CGG TGT GAG CCC TGA
Insertion that does not cause a frame shift
Label the parts of the cell cycle
Interphase and mitotic (M) phase
What effect does isopropylthiogalactoside (IPTG) have on the lac operon?
It acts as an inducer of the lac operon, but is not metabolized by the gene products of the lac operon.
What does it mean if a disorder is polygenic?
It involves mutations in multiple genes
A new gene is discovered during the sequencing of a bacterial genome. After a BLAST analysis, the new gene aligns with a known sequence from the same bacterium. The sequence identity is 95%. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship of the newly discovered gene and the known gene?
It is a paralog to the known gene and is a result of an older gene duplication
Which of the following describes an expression quantitative trait loci (eQTL)?
Lactose tolerance level is determined by lactase enzyme alleles with different mutations in the promoter that influence the gene's mRNA levels
The group II introns are removed as ______ structures that are degraded.
Lariat
Manx cats are a breed of tailless cats. The tailless trait is caused by a single gene. Homozygous Manx cats are impossible to obtain and matings between two Manx cats always results in a 2:1 ratio of Manx to non-Manx kittens. What type of allele is the Manx allele?
Lethal
When two genes fail to assort independently, the term normally applied is ________.
Linkage
Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring occur in the following numbers: 206 AaBb, 48 Aabb, 52 aaBb, 194 aabb. These results are most consistent with ________.
Linkage with the genes 20 map units apart
Which of the following is an example of G x E interaction?
Lobsters with allele A grow larger than lobsters with allele a in cold water environments. In warm tropical waters lobsters with allele a grow larger
If lysine 182 is mutated to alanine in the human glucokinase protein, it no longer has catalytic activity. What type of mutation is this?
Loss-of-function
All of the following are checkpoints in the cell cycle EXCEPT ________.
M/G1
How are most eukaryotic genomes organized?
Many linear chromosomes
Which technique would be used to sequence the amino acids in a protein?
Mass spectrometry
You find the heritability of height of in a population water oak trees in upstate South Carolina to be 0.67. Your colleague finds the heritability of height of in a population water oak trees in south Alabama to be 0.44. How is this possible?
Measured heritability depends on environmental variation present in population being studied
Hyperchromic shift
Measures UV absorption during DNA denaturation to determine melting temperature (Tm).
Showed that replication is semiconservative in bacteria
Meselson and Stahl
Which scientist(s) used density gradient centrifugation to demonstrate semiconservative replication?
Meselson and Stahl
Which scientist(s) used density gradient centrifugation to demonstrate semiconservative replication?
Messelson and Stahl
When does independent assortment of chromosomes occur during meiosis?
Metaphase II
In general, mutations in genes that code for cell-adhesion molecules, cytoskeleton regulators, and proteolytic enzymes lead to which feature of malignant cancer cells?
Metastasis
define pcr variants (Reverse Transcription PCR (RT-PCR)
Methodology for studying gene expression (mRNAproduction by cells or tissues)
Which of the following is not true about bisulfite sequencing?
Methylated cytosines are removed an replaced with artificial bases
CAT -> CAA
Missense
A sense codon is changed to a different sense codon for a different amino acid
Missense mutation
List the steps of the Mitotic M phase
Mitosis, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis
Aneuploidy is common in cancer cells. What is the correct term for a cancer cell with 2 copies of every chromosome except only one copy of chromosome 20?
Monosomy
If a species has a haploid number of 10, what term would we use to describe an individual with 19 chromosomes?
Monosomy
The why is heritability of having two eyes very low?
Most of the variation in eye number is due to accidents and injuries
You are studying the Virginia opossum, Didelphis virginiana. You find 11 genes that influence the weight of newborn joeys, and that the mother's diet also influences birth weight. What term best describes this trait?
Multifactorial
How was the codon code figured out?
Mutating genes in E. coli to see what the effect is
Which of the following is NOT true about Non-Homologous End Joining (NHEJ) and Homologous Recombination (HR)?
NHEJ doesn't involve a sister chromatid like HR
Match the result with the cause for the Blue-White screening results below:
No colonies
Chromosome translocations can result from which of the following DNA repair mechanisms?
Non-homologous end joining
What is the most common cause of polyploidies and aneuploidies?
Nondisjunction
Which of the following is viewed as a major cause of aneuploidy?
Nondisjunction
Which of the following has one Barr body? (check all that apply)
Normal Female Klinefelter's
This a normal karyotype? If not, what is the disorder?
Normal Male
Which of the following describes the order of DNA compaction in chromosomes from least compact to most compact?
Nucleosomes, 30nm fiber, looped domains, chromatid fiber, chromatid
mRNA processing takes place in the ______.
Nucleus
A mutation in a gene that results in a loss of a functional product of that gene best defines what type of mutation?
Null
Which of the following describes Preformationism?
Offspring arise from homunculi found in the sperm
Short fragments of DNA made on the lagging strand during replication are called what?
Okazaki fragments
Which of the following statements regarding DNA replication is true?
On the leading strand, there is continuous synthesis in the 5` -> 3` direction.
What type of inversion has break points that do not proximally flank the centromere?
Paracentric
Which of the following is an example of sexual selection?
Peahens prefer peacocks with large and colorful tails, so those peacocks get to mate more frequently
Alleles with mutations in the BRCA1 gene cause breast cancer, and are considered dominant. However only 80% of women with a BRCA1 mutation eventually develop breast cancer. This is an example of a gene with incomplete _______.
Penetrance
Which of the following is NOT one of Chargaff's findings about DNA bases in organisms?
Percentage of (G + C) is equal to percentage of (A + T)
What type of inversion has break points that flank the centromere?
Pericentric
Which of the following is NOT a major point of the multiple-gene hypothesis?
Phenotypic traits show discontinuous variation and can be cannot be quantified, only qualified
Which if the following components is included in every nucleotide?
Phosphate
Nucleotides in a DNA strand are connected by what type of bonds?
Phosphodiester
G2/M
Physiological conditions and DNA integrity are checkedprior to mitosis.• M: Formation of spindle-fiber system and attachment of spindlefibers to kinetochores associated with centromeres are monitored.
G2/M
Physiological conditions are checked prior to mitosis
Name the general category into which small double-stranded circular extrachromosomal DNA elements such as F factors, ColE1, and R would fall. Group of answer choicesPlasmidsTransposonsVirusesPlaques
Plasmids
The CTFR gene involved in cystic fibrosis has multiple roles in the body and people with cystic fibrosis have many different symptoms/phenotypes involving both the respiratory and digestive systems. The CFTR gene could be described as ________.
Pleiotropic
Which of the following is the correct order of levels or protein structure, from most basic to most complex?
Primary → Secondary → Tertiary → Quaternary
Identify the phase of mitosis below:
Prometaphase
Viral DNA that has integrated into a bacterial chromosome is referred to as a ________.
Prophage
Identify the phase of mitosis below:
Prophase
________ are multi-subunit structures that possess protease activity.
Proteasomes
Transcription Factor
Proteins that bind consensus sequences in the promoter. They are the basic machinery needed for RNA polymerase to bind
Transcriptional Activators
Proteins that bind promoters AND/OR enhancers. They stimulate transcription but are not required.
Transcriptional Repressors
Proteins that bind to silencers that inhibit transcription
A bacterium that can synthesize all the compounds it needs "from scratch" and grow in minimal media is called a(n) _________.
Prototroph
DNA & RNA contain two types of nitrogenous bases: ______ that are larger and have two rings, and ______ that are smaller and have one ring.
Purines; Pyrimidines
Which type of DNA marker requires restriction endonuclease enzymes?
RFLP
Crosses between black and white possums give the following phenotypic ratios: 9 Black : 3 Gray : 4 white What is the most likely type of inheritance?
Recessive Epistasis
Clones
Recovered copies of recombinant DNA Cloning here just means making copies. We're making copies of DNA sequences, not whole organisms
Gyrase
Relieves strain in the DNA by breaking swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands. Removes twists and unwinds the DNA
DNA polymerase I
Removes RNA nucleotides of primer and replaces them with DNA nucleotides
Which term describes a segment of DNA produced following a single replication initiation?
Replicon
The ilv-leu operon is involved in the synthesis of branched-chain amino acids (valine, isoleucine, and leucine). The operon is normally active, but can be turned off when branched-chain amino acids are abundant in the cell. What type of operon is ilv-leu?
Repressible
Which of the following operon types are normally turned on and active?
Repressible
Tools of recombinant DNA technology
Restriction enzymes Cloning vectors
What process uses RNA as a template for DNA production?
Reverse Transcription
What process uses RNA as a template for DNA production?
Reverse transcription
What is the function of ribosomal RNA?
Ribosomal RNA is a major component of ribosomes.
Did all the X-ray Crystallography experiments necessary to create the first accurate model of DNA's structure but was not properly credited
Rosalind Franklin
During what stage of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
S
Which DNA marker has the most locations in a genome and involves variation in a single DNA base?
SNPs
Which DNA. marker is a set of repetitive sequences called microsatellites?
SNPs
Which of the following elements is responsible for determining male sex in humans?
SRY
In which of the following biochemical reactions is it common to use ddNTPs (dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates)?
Sanger sequencing
Mediators
Scaffolding proteins that hold the transcription complex together
_________ under go self-excision involving two transesterification reactions.
Self Splicing Introns
A sense codon is changed to a synonymous codon (different codon same amino acid)
Silent mutation
Which of the following DOESN'T protect telomeres?
Single strand binding protein
Anaphase
Sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite poles of the cell.
How does CRISPR behave as a form of bacterial adaptive immunity?
Spacer sequences provide a molecular memory of past viral attacks.
Organized by the centrioles, what structures are important in the movement of chromosomes during cell division?
Spindle Fibers
Random mutations that occur from errors in replication, crossing over, or DNA repair are called what?
Spontaneous mutations
What is the difference between standard deviation and standard error?
Standard error takes sample size into account
There are three different ______ codons but only one ______ codon.
Stop; start
When considering the initiation of transcription, one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA polymerase(s) binds. Which of the following is a common consensus sequence?
TATA Box
______ helps extend and maintain the ends of linear chromosomes so that they are not shortened after DNA replication.
Telomerase
Imagine you discover an unknown species of reptile that has a male to female ratio that is very low in the winter but during the summer you notice that the male to female ratio increases. What mode of sex determination appears to be involved?
Temperature dependence
The first part of a prokaryotic mRNA that the small subunit of the ribosome binds to is called what?
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Which of the following mechanisms is not a way that large numbers of trinucleotide repeats in a DNA coding region can lead to disease?
The abnormal mRNA is targeted for degradation in the cell.
What is Spliceopathy?
The abnormal splicing of genes, usually results in a disorder or disease
Which of the follow would replicate its DNA with a single origin of replication?
The bacteria Escherichia coli
G2 Phase (GAP 2)
The cell continues to grow and prepares for mitosis. During this phase, the cell checks for any errors in DNA replication.
Cytokinesis
The division of the cytoplasm and other organelles occurs, resulting in the formation of two daughter cells.
M
The formation of spindle fiber system and attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores associated with centromeres are monitored
A species of beetles have different horn shapes. A group of two-pronged horn beetles are in log that floats to a remote island. A population of beetles form on the island and they all have two-pronged horns. What is this an example of?
The founder effect
Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a genetic disease caused by mutations in the nucleotide excision repair (NER) pathway. In an experiment, scientists fused somatic cells from different individuals affected with XP. Which of the following results would indicate that two individuals had a mutation in different genes in the NER pathway?
The fused cell is capable of NER.
It has been recently determined that the gene for Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is more than 2000 kb (kilobases) in length; however, the mature mRNA produced by this gene is only about 14 kb long. What is a likely cause of this discrepancy?
The introns have been spliced out during mRNA processing.
Mitosis
The nucleus of the cell divides, and the duplicated chromosomes are distributed into two daughter nuclei. Mitosis is further divided into several stages:
During mismatch repair after replication, how does the cell "know" which DNA strand is new and which is the older template strand?
The older template strand has epigenetic modifications and the new strand does not.
DNA polymerase III
The one replication protein that's actually needed for PCR
A mutation prevents repression of the trp operon, maps near the structural genes of the trp operon, and cannot be rescued by adding a wild-type copy of the sequence on a plasmid. Where is this mutation most likely located?
The operator of the trp operon
Why isn't DNA polymerase I not needed for PCR?
The primers are made of DNA
In the presence of excess tryptophan, what happens to the genes within the trp operon?
The regulator protein with tryptophan bound prevents the genes from being transcribed.
What happens to the lac operon in the absence of lactose?
The repressor protein binds to the operator and prevents the transcription of the structural gene.
Transcriptomics
The study of the entire set of RNAs expressed by a given type of cell under certain environmental conditions •Studies expression of genes by genome qualitatively and quantitatively: -Qualitatively: identifies which genes are expressed and which are not -Quantitatively: measures varying levels of expression of different genes •RNA sequencing (RNA-seq): -Whole transcriptome sequencing ▪ RT-PCR followed by shotgun sequencing -Allows for quantitative analysis of all RNA s expressed in tissue, organ, cell type, etc. -Provides actual sequence data.
Glycomics
The study of the entire set of carbohydrates in a given type of cell under certain environmental conditions
Epigenomics
The study of the entire set of epigenetic marks in a given type of cell under certain environmental conditions •Bisulfite sequencing for DNA methylation •Mass Spec of histones.
Metabolomics
The study of the entire set of lipids in a given cell type under certain environmental conditions
Lipidomics
The study of the entire set of lipids in a given type of cell under certain environmental conditions
Proteomics
The study of the entire set of proteins expressed by a given type of cell under certain environmental conditions •Identification, characterization, and quantitative analysis of all proteins •Proteins are sequenced using mass spectrometry -Proteins are digested into peptide fragments using proteases -The peptides are identified by their mass/charge ratio -Proteins are reconstructed using overlap and amino acid sequences predicted from DNA sequence data Proteomes
You attempt to insert a gene into a plasmid and transform bacteria with the result using blue-white screening. All of the resulting colonies are blue. What happened?
The transformation worked, but the gene insertion didn't
DNA Helicase
Thermocycler uses heat to denature the DNA and keep the strands separate
DNA gyrase
Thermocycler uses heat to denature the DNA and keep the strands separate
Initiator Proteins
Thermocycler uses heat to denature the DNA and keep the strands separate
Single Strand Binding Proteins
Thermocycler uses heat to denature the DNA and keep the strands separate
How do heat shock and electroporation allow for transformation of bacteria?
These techniques destabilize the bacterial membrane, causing pores to open that foreign DNA can pass through.
Which of the follow is NOT true about Retroviruses?
They MUST integrate into the host genome
Which of the following is characteristic of only retrotransposons?
They transpose through an RNA intermediate and require reverse transcriptase.
G1/S, G2/M, and M checkpoints
Three distinct checkpoints where cell monitors internal and external signals Cells decide whether to proceed to next stage of cell cycle.
Which of the following macromolecules is a trans-acting element found in eukaryotes?
Transcription Factor IID (TFIID)
In the majority of riboswitches, the default conformation is the antiterminator conformation; when a ligand binds to this riboswitch what happens?
Transcription of the genes regulated by the riboswitch terminates prematurely.
Viral-mediated transfer of bacterial DNA is referred to as ________.
Transduction
Which of the following requires viruses to occur?
Transduction
Electroporation and Heat Shock can be used to ________ bacteria with plasmids.
Transform
Which of the following is extensively used in laboratories for plasmid work?
Transformation
The process of making a Protein using mRNA is called _____ and occurs _____ in the Central Dogma.
Translation, Second
Short interspersed elements (SINEs) and long interspersed elements (LINEs) are types of what?
Transposons
If a species has diploid number of 10, but gave rise to progeny with 15 chromosomes (complete sets), what term would we use to describe the progeny?
Triploid
Viruses are not technically living things and can have RNA or DNA based genomes.
True
This a normal karyotype? If not, what is the disorder?
Turner's
Which of the following is an example of behavioral isolation?
Two groups of jumping spider don't mate because of differences in their courtship dances
Plasmids are introduced into bacteria via transformation:
Two main techniques: Using calcium ions and brief heat shock Electroporation: a brief but high-intensity pulse of electricity to move DNA into bacterial cells
Which base is found only in RNA?
Uracil
Bioinformatics
Use of computer hardware and mathematical software applications to organize, share and analyze biological data, particularly omics data -Comparing DNA sequences -Identify genes in genomic DNA sequence -Finding gene-regulatory regions (promoters and enhancers) -Identify telomeric sequences -Predicting amino acid sequences -Deducing evolutionary relationships between genes
Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
Uses fluorescent probes that will hybridize only with specific chromosomal areas. Used to study chromosomes and detect duplications and deletions.
The data below is from a twin study. Which of these traits are monozygotic twins most likely to be discordant for?
Uterine cancer
If an organism has the alleles U and v on one chromosome, u and V on the other (Uv/uV), which of the following gametes would be considered parental or non-recombinant? (select all that apply)
Uv, uV
Building on the work of others, the first accurate 3D model of DNA was described by _________.
Watson and Crick
The ability of some tRNAs to recognized multiple codons that differ only in their third nucleotide is called what?
Wobble
In Drosophila, sex is determined by a balance between the number of haploid sets of autosomes and the number of ________.
X chromosomes
What type of inheritance is shown in the pedigree below?
X-Linked Dominant
The Protenor mode of sex determination is the ________.
XX/XO scheme
The Lygaeus mode of sex determination is the ________.
XX/XY scheme
Poly-X
XXX+
Normal Male
XY
Which of the following elements represents a large untranslated transcript involved in inactivation?
Xist
The pedigree shown below is for a rare genetic disorder. What is the most likely mode of inheritance?
Y-linked
A certain type of congenital deafness in humans is caused by a rare autosomal dominant gene. In a mating involving a deaf man and a deaf woman, could all the children have normal hearing?
Yes, assuming that the parents are heterozygotes (because the gene is rare), it is possible that all of the children could have normal hearing.
What is a cDNA molecule?
a DNA copy of an RNA molecule produced by reverse transcription
CRISPR was discovered in what type of organism?
a bacterium
A wild type ion channel is open when a ligand is bound to the channel and closed when the ligand is absent. A mutant version of the ion channel is always open regardless of whether the ligand is present or absent. The mutation in the gene that codes for the ion channel is:
a gain-of-function mutation
Cancer is:
a genetic disease caused by an accumulation of mutations in somatic cells.
A cross between two individuals with different phenotypes that resulted in approximately 50% of each type of offspring would indicate the cross was ________.
a heterozygous dominant crossed to a homozygous recessive
Which statement best describes an example of a cancer causing mutation in a tumor-suppressor gene?
a mutation that makes a cell unable to undergo programmed cell death
DNA polymerase III
adds a DNA nucleotide to the RNA primer and then continues adding DNA nucleotides, complementary to the parental DNA template strand, to the growing end of the new DNA strand
Which of the following statements would be the most likely scenario of offspring of a woman exhibiting an X-linked recessive disorder and a man that does not exhibit the trait?
all daughters will not have the disorder and all sons will have the disorder
Which of the follow isn't a limitation of heritability studies?
all of these are true
Transposons, or jumping genes, are DNA elements that move within the genome. In which organisms are transposons found?
all organisms
Mendel indicated that traits were made up of unit factors. Today, we call unit factors ________.
alleles
A molecule that can change shape, and therefore function, in its interactions with other molecules is called ________.
allosteric
The process that makes different proteins from the same pre-mRNA is:
alternative splicing
A Constitutively expressed gene is _____.
always on
A tRNA moves through the sites of a ribosome in what order?
aminoacyl -> peptidyl -> exit
What is a Barr Body?
an inactivated X chromosome
During meiosis, chromosome number reduction takes place in ________.
anaphase I
The function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases is to
attach appropriate amino acids to corresponding tRNAs.
The function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases is to:
attach appropriate amino acids to corresponding tRNAs.
What part of the mRNA is involved in initiation of translation in eukaryotes?
both 3' poly A tail and m7cap
How does one target specific DNA sequences of the template to be amplified by polymerase chain reaction?
by designing primers complementary to regions on both sides of the specific target
Enhancer sequences:
can act on more than one gene
What defines a competent bacterial cell?
capability of uptake of foreign DNA from their environment
Any agent that causes damage to DNA is a potential ________.
carcinogen
Aligning genome sequences from different organisms to study gene and genome evolution is referred to as ________.
comparative genomics
Individuals from two separate true-breeding strains of white deer mice are crossed yielding all grey offspring. White is recessive to gray color based on crossing mice from each strain with a grey mouse. Which of the following would best explain this result?
complementation
Lipidomics
complete set of lipids
Metabolomics
complete set of metabolites
Using modern techniques of sequencing by synthesis and the shotgun approach, sequences are assembled into contigs by ________.
computer analysis looking for sequence overlaps
Which of the following is not a feature of a Col plasmid?
confers antibiotic resistance to recipient cells
When an amino group in cytosine or adenine is converted to a keto group it is called ________.
deamination
The codons CCU, CCC, CCA, and CCG all code for the amino acid proline. This example describes the __________ of the genetic code.
degeneracy/redundancy
Which of the following correctly lists the processes in order for one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
dentature DNA; anneal primers; extend primers
What do we call an element that directs initiation from a number of weak transcription start sites?
dispersed core promoter
What type of mutation can lead to "families" of genes with similar functions?
duplication
Long terminal repeats (LTRs) in retrotransposons:
encode a promoter and polyadenylation site.
Which of the following would be an example of a cis acting eukaryotic gene regulatory element?
enhancer
A condition in which one gene pair masks the expression of a nonallelic gene pair is called ________.
epistasis
Which of the following would be considered an alkylating agent?
ethylmethane sulfonate
Living organisms are categorized into two major groups based on the presence or absence of a nucleus. What group is defined by the presence of a nucleus?
eukaryotes
Which term describes an element that directs initiation of transcription at a single specific start site?
focused core promoter
Which of the following kinds of mutations is MOST likely to be a loss-of-function mutation?
frameshift
Intercalating agents cause
frameshift mutations
Intercalating agents cause:
frameshift mutations.
DNA polymerases can only add to what?
free 3' OH
The cross GE/ge × ge/ge produces the following progeny: GE/ge 404, ge/ge 396, gE/ge 97, Ge/ge 103. From these data, one can conclude that the recombinant progeny are ________.
gE/ge and Ge/ge
R plasmids often contain ________.
genes for antibiotic resistance
Which of the following is a type of mutation where one wild-type allele in a heterozygote is not able to produce the wild-type phenotype?
haploinsufficiency
Mendel utilized the garden pea, Pisum sativum for his studies based on features that include all but ________.
has visible features with a wide spectrum of intermediates
In humans, males are _____ and females are _____ .
heterogametic males; homogametic females
A mating between an Hfr strain of E. coli with an F- strain will yield ________.
high rate of recombination and rare transfer of the F factor
Which of the following is incorrect?
homologous chromosomes contain identical genetic information
When some varieties of rice are crossed, the hybrids are viable, but subsequent generations are smaller and have less fitness. This is an example of what?
hybrid breakdown
An F' cell is generated by ________.
imprecise excision of the F factor from the bacterial chromosome
A genetic bottleneck 12,000 years ago led to ______ in cheetahs, causing deleterious recessive alleles to become much more common.
inbreeding
The genes on a chromosome involved in a trisomy would (in general) have their expression or dosage ________.
increased
In a Chi-square test, as the value of the χ2 increases, the likelihood of rejecting the null hypothesis ________.
increases
Which of the following postulates was not attainable from a monohybrid cross?
independent assortment
When taken up by a cell, which of the following molecules binds to a repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator?
inducer
One major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes is that eukaryotic genes can contain internal sequences, called ________, which get removed in the mature message.
introns
DNA Ligase
joins the sugar phosphate backbones of all the Okazaki fragments into a continuous DNA strand
Bacteriophages engage in two interactive cycles with bacteria. What are these cycles?
lytic and lysogenic
Carries information from gene to protein, template used by ribosomes to make polypeptides
mRNA
What will happen to a sequence targeted by a miRNA?
mRNA with that sequence will be bound by RISC and unavailable for translation
The enzyme histone deacetylase (HDAC):
makes DNA less accessible for transcription.
Identify the phase of mitosis below:
metaphase
Small RNA made by cutting up foreign RNA
miRNA
The RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC) requires what to operate?
miRNA or siRNA
A researcher is studying plant development. She isolates a mutant and discovers that the piece of DNA that is mutated does not code for a protein. However, this piece of DNA is complimentary to a gene known to function in early embryonic plant development. The mutant she identified most likely functions as a(n) ________.
microRNA (miRNA)
White clover plants produce hydrogen cyanide gas in response to herbivore insects feeding on them, deterring or even killing them. Recently white clover in urban areas was found to lack this mechanism. Its thought that since there are less herbivore insects in urban areas, the plant can save energy and resources by not producing hydrogen cyanide. This would be considered an instance of ______. Group of answer choices
microevolution
Which DNA marker is a set of repetitive sequences?
microsatellites
Many DNA interacting proteins contain a DEAD box. DEAD box sequences are________that give a protein helicase activity. The DEAD box sequence contains 9 ___________, short conserved sequence patterns associated with distinct functions of a protein.
motifs, domains
The presence of more than two alternative forms of a given gene would be called ________.
multiple alleles
Monosomy
n
The trp repressor is an example of _______ control.
negative
__________ control is a type of gene regulation in which gene expression occurs unless it is turned off by a regulatory molecule (a repressor).
negative
Which of the following repair pathways focusses on double-strand break repair?
nonhomologous end joining
TGC -> TGA
nonsense
A sense codon is changed to a stop codon
nonsense mutation
When sequencing a genome, coverage is the:
number of times a particular base is found in the same location in multiple reads of a sequence
The Chi-square test involves a statistical comparison between measured (observed) and predicted (expected) values. One generally determines degrees of freedom as ________.
one less than the number of categories being compared
What is the name of the protein that appears to regulate the entry of cells into an S phase (along with other functions)? This protein is also known as the "guardian of the genome" and is mutated in ~50% of cancers.
p53
Which type of mutation is known to accumulate in cancer cells but has no direct contribution to the cancer phenotype?
passenger mutations
What type of inversion mutation affects the centromere?
pericentric
The physical expression of a trait is referred to as a(n) ________.
phenotype
The cell cycle is regulated by kinases, which are enzymes that ____________ histones and affect chromosome packing at specific times during the cell cycle.
phosphorylate
Molecular hybridization
probes are used to identify complementary sequences in DNA or RNA samples
Operons are only found in _________.
prokaryotes
What type of gene encodes products that normally promote appropriate cell growth and division?
proto-oncogene
Apurinic sites (AP sites) involve a spontaneous loss of a ________ in an intact double-helix DNA molecule.
purine
Ultraviolet light causes what type of DNA lesion?
pyrimidine dimers
You are studying corn and find that higher stalk height is correlated with larger cob size. Which of the following r values would be expected for this relationship?
r= +0.78
Makes up part of ribosome structure
rRNA
Polytene chromosomes:
represent multiple copies of paired homologs
Restriction endonucleases are especially useful if they generate "sticky" ends. What makes an end sticky?
single-stranded complementary tails
The human genome is predicted to have approximately 20,000 genes while the human proteome is predicted to have approximately 290,000 proteins. Which of the following is not an explanation for why the human proteome is so much larger than the human genome?
some genes are duplicated in the genome
According to the wobble hypothesis:
some tRNAs can bind to more than one codon in an mRNA
Which of the following pathogens have an RNA genome?
some viruses
What is the CORRECT genetic map with respect to gene order (right gene in the middle) and distances (in m.u.) for these three genes?
st--bs--gf, 20,13, and 1,4,6,8
SS individuals have normal hemoglobin and are susceptible to malaria. Ss individuals have mostly normal hemoglobin and are resist to malaria. ss individuals have sickle cell anemia. This is an example of _______.
stabilizing selection
Which of the following is a type of mutation that relieves the effects of a previous mutation?
suppressor mutation
Palindrome
symmetry exhibited by recognition sequences sticky ends (cohesive ends) fragments produced with overhangs Blunt ends: fragments produced with double-stranded ends
Codons with different nucleotide sequences that encode the same amino acid are called ______ codons.
synonymous
Carrier molecule that brings amino acids to ribosomes
tRNA
Structures located at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes are called ________.
telomeres
A bacteriophage that is capable of entering either a lytic or lysogenic cycle is called a(n) ________.
temperate bacteriophage
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about mitochondria?
the mitochondrial genome is contained in the nucleus
Expression vectors differ from cloning vectors by ________.
the presence of necessary sequences to initiate transcription and translation (promoter, terminator, etc.)
Which of the following is are sources of genetic variation in meiosis? (select all that apply)
the random lining up of chromosomes on the metaphase plate crossing over
Nutrigenomics is the study of ________.
the relationship between diet and the genome •field of nutritional science: -Considers genetics and diet. -Focuses on understanding interactions between nutrition and genes. •Nutrigenomic tests analyze your genome: -Provides customized nutritional report on nutritional metabolism based on genes associated with medical conditions.
By their experimentation using the Neurospora fungus, Beadle and Tatum were able to propose the far-reaching hypothesis that ________.
the role of a specific gene is to produce a specific enzyme
The genetic code is said to be universal, which means:
the same code is used in all organisms from simple bacteria and viruses to more complex eukaryotes.
The primary structure of a protein is determined by ________.
the sequence of amino acids
An Hfr strain (met+,his+, arg+, strs) is mated with an F- strain (met-, his-, arg-, strr), grown in complete media, then plated on minimal media supplemented with streptomycin, histidine, and arginine. The few colonies that grow on the plate indicate that ________.
the wild-type methionine gene has been transferred from Hfr to F-
When examining the genetic code, it is apparent that ________.
there can be more than one codon for a particular amino acid
A regulatory gene that affects distant genes on different chromosomes is referred to as _____.
trans acting
The appearance of puffs within polytene chromosomes is thought to be a visible manifestation of ________.
transcription of RNA
When referring to attenuation in regulation of the trp operon, it would be safe to say that when there are high levels of tryptophan available to the organism, ________.
transcriptional termination is likely
The investigative approach of genetics attributed to Gregor Mendel is ________.
transmission genetics
Linkage mapping becomes less accurate as the distance between two genes increases.
true
For an individual with XXX chromosomal composition, the expected number of Barr bodies in interphase cells is ________.
two
Which of the the following functions as a "tag" that marks misfolded, damaged, or unneeded proteins to be moved to the proteosome?
ubiquitins
Helicase
unzips DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands at the replication fork
The secondary structure of a protein includes ________.
α-helix and β-pleated sheet
Toxicogenomics
•comparing genomic data and response to toxins
Comparative genomics
•comparing the genomes of different organisms to determine evolutionary relationships