Exam 5

Developmental Psychology 73. When helping his younger sister with her homework, an older brother "thinks aloud" while solving problems and gives his sister suggestions and support. This is best described as A mentoring. B scaffolding. C social facilitation. d social referencing.

ANSWER "B" The older brother is using techniques associated with "scaffolding," which was originally described by Vygotsky and refers to the temporary support that parents, teachers, and more experienced children give to a child to help him/her do a task or acquire a skill.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 143. Behavioral treatment for obsessions would most likely involve: A deliberate exposure and thought stopping. B relaxation training and assertiveness training. C contingency contracting and paradoxical intent. d systematic desensitization and differential reinforcement for other behaviors.

ANSWER "A" A number of possible behavioral treatment strategies for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder have been described. Two of the most commonly employed are thought stopping and deliberate exposure with response prevention. Thought stopping, which primarily applies to obsessions, involves teaching the client to yell "STOP!" (or self-apply another aversive technique) when he or she begins to engage in obsessive rumination. Deliberate exposure with response prevention involves exposing the client to situations which evoke obsessions or compulsions and then blocking him or her from engaging in them. Other behavioral techniques used in the treatment of the disorder include relaxation training, paradoxical intent, covert sensitization, and systematic desensitization.

Social Psychology 25. The assumption that prejudice and discrimination are outgrowths of the drive to enhance one's own self-esteem is most consistent with the perspective of which theory? A social identity theory B social comparison C self-perception theory d self-verification theory

ANSWER "A" A. According to Tajfel (1982), people strive to maintain and enhance their self-esteem, and this is associated with two components: personal and social identity. Social identity theory states that social identity, the aspect of self-esteem based on group membership, is enhanced by believing one's own group (the ingroup) is attractive and belittling the members of the other groups (the outgroups). Social comparison theory (b.) proposes people self-evaluate by comparing themselves with similar others when objective information is not available. Self-perception theory (c.) proposes when clear internal cues are absent, individuals infer feelings and beliefs by observed behavior or external cues. Self-verification theory (d.) proposes individuals need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, whether the confirmation is positive or negative.

Research Design and Statistics 170. A within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants is referred to as: A counterbalancing B changing criterion C Latin square d Solomon four-group

ANSWER "A" A. Counterbalancing is a within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants. The goal is to use every possible treatment sequence with equal numbers of participants for each sequence. If the number of participants is too small to permit the use of a completely counterbalanced research design, then researchers may use a type of partial counterbalancing like the Latin square design (c.). This design is useful for determining what exact sequences of treatment will be administered to the different participant groups. The changing criterion design (b.) is a single case design consisting of a series of phases with differing behavioral criterion set for each. The treatment is considered effective if the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase. The Solomon four-group design (d.) is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on internal and external validity.

Developmental Psychology 128. The number of babies born with a chromosomal abnormality is approximately 1 in 200. Characterized by mental retardation and extreme obesity, Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by: A a chromosomal deletion B a chromosomal translocation C an extra chromosome d a missing chromosome

ANSWER "A" A. Prader-Willi syndrome and cru-du-chat are two disorders caused by a chromosomal deletion which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. A chromosomal translocation (b.) occurs when a section of a chromosome is attached to another chromosome. An extra chromosome (c.) results in disorders such as Down Syndrome and Klinefelter Syndrome. A missing chromosome (d.) causes a disorder like Turner Syndrome which occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome

Neuropsychology 122. Of the following, which is most frequently used to detect brain damage in the early stages of emergency room (ER) treatment? A CT B EEG C PET d MRI

ANSWER "A" A. The CAT (Computerized Axial Tomography) or CT scan, and the Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) take a series of images at different levels of the brain giving information and a direct visualization of structures and features. The MRI does this with magnetic fields; the CAT scan uses x-rays. The CAT scan is superior to the MRI in detecting fresh blood in and around the brain and often is repeated to ensure that a brain injury is not becoming more extensive, usually in the early stages of ER treatment. Another difference is CT scans cost substantially less than MRIs. In general, the MRI (d.) provides more detail than the CAT scan and can be used in examining the central nervous system, as well as, used to identify tumors, strokes, degenerative diseases, inflammation, infection, and other abnormalities in organs and other soft tissue of the body. A procedure that uses electrodes on the scalp to record electrical activity of the brain is an Electroencephalogram (EEG) (b.). It is used for detection of epilepsy, coma, and brain death. A PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scan measures metabolic processes, thus allowing an appraisal of how the brain is functioning. It tracks natural compounds, such as glucose, as the brain metabolizes them. By showing the areas of different metabolic activity, it then becomes easier to make diagnoses, such as determining the areas responsible for epileptic seizures.

Test Construction 72. Different regression line slopes in a scatterplot suggests: A differential validity B a lack of factorial validity C divergent validity d a lack of convergent validity

ANSWER "A" A. The slope of a regression line for a test is directly related to the test's criterion-related validity: The steeper the slope, the greater the validity. A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different groups, which is what is suggested by different regression line slopes in a scatterplot. Factorial validity (a.) refers to the extent a test or test item correlates with factors expected to be correlated with in a factor analysis. The extent a test does not correlate with measures of an unrelated construct is referred to as divergent validity (c.). Convergent validity (d.) refers to the degree a test correlates with measures of the same or a similar construct.

Ethics and Professional Practice 187. According to the Ethics Code, under what condition is it acceptable to provide therapy to a former sex partner? A under no condition B when the sexual relationship ended at least two years ago C when the sexual relationship ended at least two years ago and the therapist has determined that the previous relationship will not affect the ability to provide effective therapy d when the therapist determines that the therapeutic relationship will be not be exploitative and is not clinically contraindicated

ANSWER "A" A. This is covered by Standard 10.07 of the Ethics Code, which states that "Psychologists do not accept as therapy patients or clients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies."

Clinical Psychology 48. According to Janet Helms' (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model, the final stage of racial identity development is: A autonomy B disintegration C reintegration d immersion-emersion

ANSWER "A" According to Helms, autonomy is the final stage of racial identity development. Autonomy is characterized by a nonracist White identity based on a realistic understanding of the strengths and weaknesses of White culture. At this stage, Whites value and seek out cross-racial interactions.

Developmental Psychology 195. A 16-year old girl is sexually promiscuous and does not practice safe sex. When confronted with information about sexually transmitted diseases and pregnancy, she states "that could never happen to me." The girl's behavior is characteristic of A adolescent egocentrism. B concrete operational thought. C teenagers who have been sexually abused. d an immature system of defense mechanisms.

ANSWER "A" According to Piaget and researchers who have studied his theories, adolescents are prone to what has been termed "formal operational egocentrism" or "adolescent egocentrism." This is characterized by a number of beliefs and modes of thinking, including the belief that the world can only become a better place through implementation of a grand idealistic system, the belief that others are as concerned with the adolescent's behavior as the adolescent him- or herself is, and (as in this question) a strong faith in one's own invulnerability and uniqueness.

Developmental Psychology 175. The drug most often abused by teenagers is A alcohol. B tobacco. C marijuana. d cocaine.

ANSWER "A" According to the latest survey completed by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (who keep statistics on these types of things) of teenagers aged 12-17, alcohol was their drug of preference. Asked about their drug use in the previous month, 21% had consumed at least one alcoholic drink, 18.2% had smoked cigarettes and 8.3% had used marijuana.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 47. The recurrence of hallucinations long after intoxication is most likely to result from the use of: A Mescaline B PCP C Methamphetamine d Cocaine

ANSWER "A" All of the drugs listed in this question can cause hallucinations during intoxication. However, hallucinations, especially after discontinued use ("flashbacks") are most likely the result of a true hallucinogen. Of the drugs listed, only mescaline is clearly classified as a hallucinogen. PCP (phencyclidine) is sometimes classified as a hallucinogen; other times it's considered a stimulant or pain killer, and it is less likely to cause flashbacks. The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis "Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder" involves the reexperiencing of hallucinations following cessation of use of a hallucinogen. In contrast, "Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder" can be caused by intoxication or withdrawal from many different substances but the symptoms must occur within a month of intoxication or withdrawal and the person must not have insight that the hallucinations (or delusions) are substance induced.

Test Construction 91. A school psychologist is asked to work with a child whose on-task behavior is poor. To monitor the child's on-task behavior, the psychologist is most likely to train the teacher or teacher's assistant in A interval recording. B frequency recording. C continuous recording. d duration recording.

ANSWER "A" All the choices refer to methods of recording behaviors that can be used by observational raters or researchers. In interval recording (the correct answer), the rater observes a subject at given intervals and notes whether or not the subject is engaging in the target behavior during that interval. For instance, a rater might observe a student for 10 seconds every three minutes and record whether on not the student is on-task during those 10 seconds. Interval recording is most useful for behaviors that do not have a fixed beginning or end -- such as being on task. Frequency recording (choice B) involves keeping count of the number of times a behavior occurs; this would not be practical in keeping track of whether or not a person is on task. Continuous recording (choice C) involves recording all the behaviors of the target subject during each observation session. Although it's possible to keep track of whether a person is on-task using this method, it is not as practical or meaningful for this purpose as interval recording. Finally, duration recording involves recording the elapsed time during which the target behavior or behaviors occur. This would not be practical for a behavior that has no fixed beginning or end.

Research Design and Statistics 4. In an ABAB design: A the same subject is administered all treatments. B different subjects are administered treatments. C a treatment is administered to one subject across a number of different settings. d a treatment is administered to the same subject for a number of different behaviors.

ANSWER "A" An ABAB design is a type of single-subject design. It is an example of a reversal design -- a baseline measure of a behavior is obtained (the "A" phase), the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered (the "B" phase), the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is again measured, (the second "A"), and the behavior is again measured after the treatment is re-applied (the second "B"). In other words, the same subject receives all the treatments that are applied (actually, the same treatment at different times; thus, the word "all" might be somewhat misleading, but A is still the best answer). Choices C and D are examples of multiple baseline designs.

Neuropsychology 112. Impressive aphasia is to Wernicke's area as what type of aphasia is to Broca's area. A expressive B global C sensory d receptive

ANSWER "A" Both expressive aphasia and motor aphasia are alternative names for Broca's aphasia. Global aphasia (answer B) is due to damage to several regions of the brain including the cortex and basal ganglia. Answers C (sensory) and D (receptive) and impressive are all alternative names for Wernicke's aphasia.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 93. Criterion contamination would have the effect of A increasing the validity coefficient of a job selection test. B lowering the validity coefficient of a job selection test. C increasing the reliability coefficient, but not necessarily the validity coefficient, of a job selection test. d lowering the reliability coefficient, and therefore the validity coefficient, of a job selection test.

ANSWER "A" Criterion contamination can occur when ratings are used as the criterion measure in a predictive equation. If the rater knows the ratees' scores on the predictor, the rating process can be contaminated. For instance, let's say IQ is used as a predictor of job performance. If the rater of job performance knows that an employee has an IQ of 150, the rater may judge the employee's job performance high simply because he knows the employee is very intelligent. This is criterion contamination, and it results in a spuriously high validity coefficient. Here, for instance, the IQ test will look like a very good predictor of job performance; however, if the raters had not known the ratees' IQs beforehand, the IQ test may not have turned out to be such a great predictor at all.

Neuropsychology 169. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most frequently associated with movement? A Dopamine B Serotonin C Norepinephrine d Endorphins

ANSWER "A" Dopamine plays a key role in movement. For example, in Parkinson's Disease, dopamine-secreting cells in the substantia nigra die - causing the nigra to no longer transmit dopamine to the striatum - which controls various muscular activities such as walking and balance. Norepinephrine is mostly related to arousal, wakefulness, and learning. Serotonin affects mood, eating, and sleep onset and endorphins inhibit the transmission of pain.

Developmental Psychology 160. All of the following are true regarding the relationship between aging and memory, except A observed age-related cognitive and memory declines are believed to be due to artifacts of intelligence tests and experience, rather than physiological changes. B the main locus of observed age-related decline in memory is in long-term memory rather than short-term or sensory memory. C on tests such as the WAIS-III, the least age-related decline is observed on subtests measuring stored knowledge. d age-related declines on complex psychomotor tasks are greater than they are on simple psychomotor tasks.

ANSWER "A" Few, if any, experts believe that age-related declines in cognition and especially memory are solely related to artifacts of experience or testing. These declines have been observed again and again across different cultures and different tests. Certainly, experience and test error can account for some degree of observed decline, but the generally accepted conclusion is that these declines are real and reflect true neuropsychological changes. Choices B, C, and D are true statements about age-related decline in cognition and memory.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 154. Research by Foa et al. (1999) found which of the following treatments most effective for post-traumatic stress disorder? A prolonged exposure B stress inoculation training C response prevention d prolonged exposure combined with stress inoculation training

ANSWER "A" Foa et. al. (1999) compared prolonged exposure, stress inoculation training, combined prolonged exposure and stress inoculation training, and a waiting list control group. The results indicated that all treatments (except the waiting list) were effective; however, prolonged exposure was superior to either stress inoculation training or the combined treatment. Response prevention (C) was not included in the study, and is typically used with disorders that include more of a behavioral component, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder (E. Foa, C. Dancu, E. Hembree, L. Jaycox, E. Meadows, & G. Street, A comparison of exposure therapy, stress inoculation training, and their combination for reducing posttraumatic stress disorder in female assault victims. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 1999, 67(2), 194-200).

Ethics and Professional Practice 196. You've completed a psychological assessment on a child whose parents are divorced. They have joint custody. The child's mother doesn't want the father's girlfriend present for the debriefing session although the father does want her there. What do you do? (The mother paid for the testing). A Have only the custodial parents present B Have only the mother present C Have two sessions, one with the mother, one with the father and his girlfriend d Send everyone a copy of the report and only meet if one of the parents needs further clarification

ANSWER "A" Having just the custodial parents present is probably your best course of action. You don't have the right to breach the child's confidentiality to the girlfriend-that is the father's call. Both parents do have a right to the results unless you can think of a reason that such access would be harmful to the child. Avoiding the situation by just sending a copy of the report isn't in line with the Standard 15.10 of Test Administration, Scoring and Reporting that indicates that those responsible for testing programs should provide appropriate interpretations when test score information is released. Finally, who paid for the testing is not pertinent to who has access to the results.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 167. The theories of Holland and Roe both predict that job satisfaction will be greatest when there is a(n) A personality-job environment match. B interests-job requirements match. C values-job characteristics match. d self-concept-job demands match.

ANSWER "A" Holland and Roe both emphasized the importance of matching the individual's personality to the characteristics of the job. (Roe also focused on needs.) Holland proposed that a person with a conventional personality, for example, will be most satisfied if he/she has a "conventional" job (e.g., is an accountant).

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 129. Research on subordinates' satisfaction with their leader at work has found that the strongest determinant is: A the leader's level of consideration. B the leader's use of a participative decision-making style. C the leader's provision of equitable rewards. d the leader's personality characteristics.

ANSWER "A" If you're familiar with the research on leadership, you might be aware that factor analyses of leadership qualities has, over the years, consistently identified two basic factors -- task orientation (instrumentality) and consideration. Knowing this would have helped you pick the right answer. Also, consideration is a better choice because it is a more general answer and could be conceived of as encompassing the characteristics listed in the other responses.

Research Design and Statistics 23. Excessive variability in a behavior over time can make it difficult to obtain accurate information about the effects of an intervention on that behavior. Such variability poses the biggest threat for which of the following research designs? A single-subject B factorial C split-plot d Solomon four-group

ANSWER "A" In a single-subject research design, the target behavior is measured at regular intervals throughout the baseline and treatment phases. If the behavior changes often in strength, intensity, or frequency, it would be difficult to obtain a clear baseline reading or to determine if the intervention is having the desired effect.

Clinical Psychology 113. A mother, father, and teenage son come to see you for family therapy. The family emigrated to the United States from a Latin American country five years ago. The son is not getting along with his parents and disobeys them constantly. Which of the following is a likely explanation for their problem? A different levels of acculturation within the family B the son has Conduct Disorder C this is a common style of interaction in Latino families d the son is frustrated because he is having trouble with the English language

ANSWER "A" In immigrant families, a possible cause of conflict is differential levels of acculturation within the family -- that is, some members of the family may adopt the values and behavioral patterns of the new culture faster than others. This is especially true when one of the family members is an adolescent, who will likely have both greater contact with and a stronger desire to be accepted by peers in the new culture.

Ethics and Professional Practice 39. A psychologist tests a child from a home in which the parents were divorced at the request of the noncustodial parent. The custodial parent complains that the psychologist acted without her permission. According to accepted professional standards of practice, the psychologist acted A unethically because she failed to obtain proper consent. B ethically but with poor judgment. C ethically because the noncustodial parent still retains this right. d unethically because she first should have consulted a lawyer.

ANSWER "A" In many states, it is illegal to provide assessment or treatment to a child in this situation. Even in states where the non-custodial parent has the right to consent to his or her minor child's psychological treatment, it is not considered ethical to begin treatment (except of course in emergency situations) without the custodial parent's consent. This is because the child's best interests are threatened by such an arrangement.

Social Psychology 95. As a management consultant for a corporation, a psychologist devises a way for employees working in groups to complete their work. The psychologist divides the employees into two teams. Each team has to complete a set of tasks, and all group members are free to work on any or all of the tasks. If all tasks are completed, each team member receives a bonus. If even one of the tasks is not completed, nobody receives a bonus. This is an example of which type of task? A additive B conjunctive C compensatory d disjunctive

ANSWER "A" In the literature on the psychology of groups, a distinction between additive, conjunctive, disjunctive, and compensatory tasks is sometimes made. Additive tasks permit the addition of individual efforts so that the outcome is a combination of individual contributions. This is the type of task described by the question: The combined efforts of all group members will determine if the tasks are completed and team members receive a bonus. Let's briefly go through the other type of tasks: On conjunctive tasks, everyone must achieve a given goal in order for the task to be complete. As a result, task performance depends on the performance of the least competent group member. On disjunctive tasks, the group must choose one of many alternative ways to do the task. Thus, performance on a task depends on the performance of the most competent group member, because if one person can complete the task, the task gets completed. Finally, on compensatory tasks, the average performance of all group members represents the group's product.

Clinical Psychology 50. IPT believes that depression is primarily caused by: A Disturbances in early life especially related to attachment B Biochemical factors C Disturbances in cognitive functioning d Faulty cognitions

ANSWER "A" Interpersonal therapy, described by Klerman and Weisman (Klerman G..L., Rounsanville B.. Chevron E., and Weissman M., 1984 Interpersonal Psychotherapy of Depression. New York: Basic Books) relates depression to difficulties with social roles and interpersonal relationships. These are traceable to a lack of strong attachments early in life. The primary goals of IPT are symptom reduction and improved interpersonal functioning.

Social Psychology 137. According to the recent U.S. Department of Justice's National Violence Against Women Study, ______________ females have the lowest lifetime rate of victimization by an intimate partner. A Asian American B American Indians/Alaska Natives C African American d White American

ANSWER "A" Investigators P. Tjaden and N. Thoennes report in Extent, nature and consequences of intimate partner violence: Findings from the National Violence Against Women Study (July 2000) that Asian/Pacific Islander women reported significantly less intimate partner violence than women of other racial backgrounds with a lifetime victimization rate of 15%. It has been suggested that traditional Asian values emphasizing close family ties and harmony may discourage Asian women from disclosing physical and emotional abuse by intimates. Therefore, the lower rates may be partially due to under-reporting. American Indians/Alaska Native women (response "B") report the highest rates of intimate partner victimization with a lifetime rate of 37.5%. African American females (response "C") report a rate of 29.1% and White females (response "D"), 24.8%. It is unclear how much of the difference between victimization rates among women of differing racial backgrounds may be explained by differences in willingness to report; by demographic, social, and environmental factors; and how much by actual victimization experiences.

Developmental Psychology 189. A child is left alone in a classroom and sees a small toy that he would really like to have. The child doesn't take the toy because he doesn't want his teacher to think he's "bad." According to Kohlberg, this child is in which stage of moral development? A conventional B preconventional C heteronomous d autonomous

ANSWER "A" Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional), and each of these levels is further divided into two stages. The child described in this question is in the first stage of the conventional level, which is sometimes called the "good boy/good girl" stage.

Social Psychology 104. From the perspective of Lewin's field theory, the focus when studying human behavior should be on A the immediate present. B the past factors that determined the present. C the past, the present, and the future. d the past, present, and/or future, depending on the nature of the target problem or behavior.

ANSWER "A" Lewin focused on the individual's "life space" in the immediate present. Although he did not ignore the past or the future, he believed that they were important only to the extent that they had an impact on the individual's current situation.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 136. Depression is often accompanied by memory deficits and other cognitive problems. Memory deficits most often involve: A recall memory. B recognition memory. C implicit memory. d recall and recognition memory but not implicit memory.

ANSWER "A" Memory impairment is one of the characteristics that is useful for distinguishing depression (pseudodementia) from dementia. In depression, recall memory is affected but recognition memory is not; in dementia, recall and recognition memory are both impaired.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 62. An employer is concerned about the high voluntary turnover rates in her company. Which of the following would be most useful for ensuring that she identifies job applicants who are at high-risk for quitting their jobs if they are hired? A a biographical information form B an interview C a personality test d a measure of "g"

ANSWER "A" Meta-analyses of the research on the validity of various selection techniques has looked at the relationship between different predictors and different outcome measures. Of the various commonly-used predictors, biographical information has the highest correlation with turnover.

Clinical Psychology 21. The initial stage in structural family therapy is to "join" the family system. To do so, which of the following would be most useful? A mimesis B enactment C positioning d alignment

ANSWER "A" Mimesis is the term used to describe adopting a family's communication and affective style and is one way of joining the family system.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 120. Research on epilepsy has found that tonic-clonic seizures are associated with: A greater cognitive impairment than other types of seizures. B less cognitive impairment than other types of seizures. C cognitive impairment only when seizures are idiopathic. d cognitive impairment only when seizures are secondary to known pathology.

ANSWER "A" One of the complications of epilepsy is that repeated seizures are correlated, in some cases, with cognitive declines. This is especially true of tonic-clonic seizures regardless of whether they are idiopathic or secondary to (symptomatic of) another disorder.

Clinical Psychology 8. An adolescent's behavior is motivated primarily by her needs for power and attention. Her problems would probably be best addressed by a therapist adopting the approach of: A Adler. B Ellis. C Perls. d Freud.

ANSWER "A" Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge.

Developmental Psychology 53. People with red-green color blindness usually: A inherit the condition from their mothers B inherit the condition from their fathers C develop the condition during adolescence d produce daughters who are always color blind

ANSWER "A" Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. That is, it is carried on the X chromosome. Since males have one X chromosome, donated by the mother, and one Y chromosome, donated by the father, a male child who receives one color blind gene from the mother will be color blind. However, because it is a recessive trait, females (XX) would need to receive the color blind gene from both parents in order to manifest color blindness - which is highly unlikely. This explains why 7% of American males are color blind, but only 0.4% of females are affected by this condition.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 103. The primary triggers of relapse in individuals attempting to quit smoking are withdrawal symptoms and A emotional factors such as negative affect. B environmental factors such as the presence of other smokers. C the use of alcohol, caffeine, or other substances that were associated with smoking in the person's past. d events that are attributed to external, uncontrollable, and global factors.

ANSWER "A" Research suggests that the primary physical factor in maintaining smoking is avoidance of withdrawal, and the primary psychological factor is regulation of emotional states. Specifically, smoking functions to minimize negative affects and evoke positive affects. This is why the most common triggers of relapse are withdrawal symptoms and negative affects.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 110. Chronic alcoholism may cause cognitive impairments. Specifically, following prolonged, heavy drinking, a person is most likely to exhibit: A greater deficits in visuospatial skills than in verbal skills. B greater deficits in verbal skills than in visuospatial skills. C a comparable pattern of deficits in visuospatial and verbal skills. d deficits in either visuospatial or verbal skills, depending on whether the person is left- or right-brain dominant.

ANSWER "A" Studies looking at cognitive impairment due to prolonged, heavy alcohol use have found that it is more likely to involve problems in visuospatial skills than in verbal skills.

Ethics and Professional Practice 168. You are having lunch with a colleague, Dr. O. Timer, who has been a clinical psychologist for over 25 years. You and Dr. Timer start talking about the aspects of your work that are most distressful. Like many psychologists, Dr. Timer mentions that, most often, the ethical dilemmas he encounters in his practice are related to: A deciding when it is acceptable to breach client confidentiality. B dealing with the sexual advances of his female clients. C providing accurate information to insurance companies. d knowing when to continue versus terminate therapy with a client who doesn't seem to be improving.

ANSWER "A" Surveys have been conducted to determine what issues psychotherapists have the most difficulty with at work. When asked what ethical/legal issue they encounter most frequently, confidentiality is cited most often.

Community Psychology 188. Which of the following would represent a tertiary prevention program? A a program that provides counseling to convicts after they have been released from jail B a walk-in psychiatric emergency room C a suicide hotline d a program to educate high school students about the risks of drug use

ANSWER "A" Tertiary prevention takes place after an illness or problem has been treated and is designed to prevent recurrence of the problem. Secondary prevention refers to early detection and treatment of problems before they develop into full-blown illnesses with long-term consequences and is exemplified by responses "B" and "C." Response "D" describes an example of primary prevention, which aims to prevent problems before they occur in the first place.

Ethics and Professional Practice 152. In which of the following circumstances would a psychologist's behavior most likely be considered unethical? A hands out her card to individuals in a tent-city whose homes have been destroyed by a hurricane B receives payment for reviewing a new book in her field, which is published in a popular lay magazine C has her name and picture featured in a magazine ad in which it is indicated her favorite scotch is Dewars d sends out announcements to local businesses that she is available to work as an EAP counselor

ANSWER "A" The Ethical Principles do not ban all forms of solicitation. However, they do ban the solicitation of individuals who are, for whatever reason, "vulnerable to undue influence." Clearly, individuals who have just had their house destroyed are susceptible to undue influence. Thus, the psychologist in choice A would be acting unethically.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 56. A unilateral, severe, and throbbing headache that involves nausea and sensitivity to light is most likely a A migraine headache. B tension headache. C cluster headache. d cranial neuralgia.

ANSWER "A" The International Headache Society (IHS) has developed a headache classification system that divides headaches into thirteen types -- four of which are listed by the choices here. This question best matches the description of a migraine headache. Migraines are felt on one side of the head by a majority of sufferers and are typically throbbing in nature. In addition, nausea (with or without vomiting) as well as sensitivity to light and sound often accompany migraines.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 61. In treating a client suffering from an Anxiety Disorder, a behavior therapist instructs the client to deliberately engage in the anxiety-arousing behavior as often as possible. The therapist's goal in this situation is most likely to A neutralize the anticipatory anxiety that is the real source of the client's problem. B eliminate the client's usual avoidance behavior by evoking his resistance. C extinguish the anxiety-arousing behavior by removing the reinforcement that is maintaining it. d diminish the client's anxiety through interoceptive conditioning.

ANSWER "A" The behavioral technique described in this question is referred to as "paradoxical intention" and is similar in form to the paradoxical techniques used by family therapists, but differs in terms of its theoretical underpinnings. As used by behavior therapists, paradoxical intention is based on the assumption that a person avoids a certain behavior because of the anticipatory anxiety the behavior arouses. When a person deliberately engages in the behavior, a condition of incompatibility is set up and this condition serves to eliminate the anticipatory anxiety. The idea is that engaging in the behavior (or a wish to engage in the behavior) is incompatible with fear of that behavior and, consequently, the fear is neutralized.

Neuropsychology 123. Damage to the hippocampus causes: A Amnesia B Pseudodementia C Weight loss d Tremors.

ANSWER "A" The hippocampus appears to be responsible for memory consolidation or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Bilateral destruction of the hippocampus, amygdala and medial temporal lobes produces a severe permanent anterograde amnesia.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 10. Which of the following represents a good reason to use interval recording in the process of behavioral observation? A the behavior being measured has no clear beginning or end B the behavior has a sudden and discrete onset C the behavior does not occur very often d the behavior is poorly defined and it is therefore difficult to obtain agreement as to whether or not it is occurring

ANSWER "A" The interval recording method involves observing a behavior for a single block of time, such as 30-60 minutes per day. The block of time is divided into smaller intervals (e.g., 30 seconds), and the behavior is recorded as having occurred or not occurred during each interval. This is a good method of recording behaviors with no fixed beginning or end, since the observer does not have to identify at what point the behavior began or ended -- he or she simply has to note whether it is occurring at all during a particular time interval.

Test Construction 157. Item analysis is a procedure used to: A Determine which items will be retained for the final version of the test B Refer to the degree to which items differentiate among examinees C Graph depictions of percentages of people d Help the IRS with an audit

ANSWER "A" The procedure used to determine what items will be retained for the final version of a test is the definition of item analysis. The degree to which items discriminate among examinees is the definition of Item Discrimination. A graph that depicts percentages of people is an item characteristic curve.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 45. Which of the following is the most likely indicator that a person is feigning a memory disorder? A The person has lost memory of personal identity but his memory for most other past events is intact. B The person's semantic memory is impaired but his procedural memory is intact. C Verbal memory is intact but non-verbal memory is impaired. d Memory for recent events in impaired but memory for remote events is intact.

ANSWER "A" The symptom of loss of personal identity is rare. When it does occur (e.g., in Dissociative Fugue, Dissociative Identity Disorder, and sometimes in Dissociative Amnesia) it is almost always associated with loss of memory for other information. The DSM-IV warns clinicians first to rule out malingering when a person presents with loss of personal identity. Intact memory for most other past events would be a strong indicator that such a person is malingering.

Developmental Psychology 150. The effects of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome A are irreversible and long-term. B remit within the first six months in about 25% of cases. C are reversible if proper nutrition is provided to the child. d remit by the age of six except for lingering learning difficulties.

ANSWER "A" The term Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) refers to a set of severe and complex deficits in children produced by prolonged and heavy maternal alcohol use during pregnancy. Symptoms vary depending on the amount of alcohol consumed; typical features included growth retardation, microcephaly, irritability, and a variety of physical illnesses. In most cases, the symptoms are irreversible.

Ethics and Professional Practice 70. Which of these studies would be considered most unethical today? A Milgram's B Bandura C Zimbardo d BF Skinner's study of his own child

ANSWER "A" This is a different twist on a previous question but the answer is still Milgram's study. You may feel a different study is more unethical, but the Ethical Standards are specifically pertinent to Milgram's study. This study involved deception and no debriefing about that deception. Ethical Standard 8.07 (Deception in Research) addresses this, indicating that: "(a) Psychologists do not conduct a study involving deception unless they have determined that the use of deceptive techniques is justified by the study's significant prospective scientific, educational, or applied value and that effective nondeceptive alternative procedures are not feasible. (b) Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress. (c) Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection, and permit participants to withdraw their data."

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 40. A behavior therapist would likely view anxiety as the result of: A classical conditioning, in which an aversive stimulus or negative life event served as an unconditioned stimulus. B classical conditioning, in which an aversive stimulus or negative life event served as a conditioned stimulus. C operant conditioning, in which a negative life event served as a punisher. d operant conditioning, in which the person is negatively reinforced for avoiding an anxiety-evoking stimulus.

ANSWER "A" This is a good question, because it requires you to have a good grasp of the classical conditioning paradigm as well as understand some of the differences between classical and operant conditioning. First, you might remember that classical conditioning is associated with the acquisition of involuntary responses, whereas operant conditioning is associated with voluntary responses. If you remembered this, you should have been able to narrow the choices down to A and B, since anxiety is an involuntary, uncontrollable response. According to the classical conditioning model of anxiety, a stimulus or event that naturally evokes anxiety (the unconditioned stimulus, or US) is paired with a previously neutral stimulus (the conditioned stimulus, CS) until the neutral stimulus comes to elicit anxiety. For example, being stuck in an elevator (the US), by being paired with elevators in general (the CS), might cause an elevator phobia. If you chose D, you may have been thinking about avoidance conditioning, in which the avoidance response is negatively reinforced. However, in avoidance conditioning, the actual experience of anxiety is acquired through classical conditioning. Negative reinforcement is the mechanism that underlies the avoidance behavior, not the anxiety itself.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 60. To save time, a personnel manager interviews 10 job applicants and then picks the best one rather than interviewing all 30 people who applied for the job. This type of decision-making is predicted by the: A administrative model. B rational-economic model. C transactional model. d nonrational model.

ANSWER "A" This is the way that people usually end up making decisions because they don't have the time or resources to consider all possible alternatives. According to the administrative decision-making model, this type of decision-making is referred to as "satisficing." (According to the rational-economic model, decision-making involves considering all possible alternatives.)

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 126. People with which of the following disorders experience a heightened recall of past experiences that have negative connotations with limited recall of past experiences that have neutral or positive connotations? A Major Depression B Hypochondriasis C Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder d Avoidant Personality Disorder

ANSWER "A" This one is so easy that you may have thought it was a trick question and picked the wrong answer! Depressed people are the ones who tend to focus on negative events while ignoring neutral and positive ones.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 165. Which of the following is the best description of flooding? A Exposure to a previously conditioned stimulus in the absence of a real aversive stimulus. B Gradual in-vivo exposure to the feared stimulus while increasing negative responses. C Imaginal exposure to a previously conditioned stimulus while conducting guided imagery. d Exposure to an aversive stimulus at its maximum intensity while the person is engaging in an undesirable act.

ANSWER "A" This question exemplifies how the exam can sometimes take a relatively easy concept and describe it in convoluted language, thereby making the question more difficult than it needs to be. In flooding, a person is exposed to a feared stimulus in order to extinguish the fear. The theory underlying the technique is that the feared stimulus was previously a conditioned stimulus paired with an unconditioned aversive stimulus that naturally produces fear. In other words, choice "A" is one way to describe the technique.

Clinical Psychology 28. Although a therapy group started out with spontaneous, frequent interactions between group members, it has taken on a restrictive interaction pattern in which members speak in rotation so that only two or three members get to talk during each session. This is an example of: A procedural norms. B power maintenance. C task orientation. d family re-enactment.

ANSWER "A" This situation is discussed by Yalom in his book titled The Theory and Practice of Group Psychotherapy. The question describes the procedure the group follows, and it apparently reflects a change in group norms. Therefore, the situation is an example of procedural norms.

School Psychology/Intelligence 81. The Larry P. v. Riles case is important because it: A defined the relationship between standard intellectual assessments and placement in Mental Retardation classes. B was the first time a court addressed bias in job selection in private industry. C relates to how much information must be revealed to research participants. d limited certain restraint of trade clauses in the APA Ethics Code, such as using patient testimonials.

ANSWER "A" This was a California case related to the use of standardized intelligence tests for assessing children for placement in special classes for the mentally retarded. It's one of several famous cases and rulings which questioned the validity of using these tests for this purpose. The ruling, which continues to be challenged, banned the use of IQ tests in the placement of minority children in special education classes.

Clinical Psychology 142. Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy can best be described as: A linear and reductionist B non-linear and holistic C relativistic and abstract d elitist and futile

ANSWER "A" Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy emphasize linear causal relationships and are reductionistic, that is, they tend to explain complex phenomena in terms of relatively simple principles. Non-linear, holistic, and relativistic are terms used to describe non-western and systems approaches.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 34. A friend of yours was involved in a car accident three weeks ago in which the other driver was killed. She tells you she needs to see you for therapy and that she is having dreams about the accident. She has been unable to drive or ride in a car and she tells you that "she feels nothing" about the accident. You refer her to another competent therapist who will probably diagnose your friend with A Acute Stress Disorder. B Post-traumatic Stress Disorder. C Specific Phobia. d Generalized Anxiety Disorder.

ANSWER "A" Your friend will be diagnosed with Acute Stress Disorder. She has witnessed a traumatic event and is reexperiencing it through dreams. She is avoiding activities associated with the trauma and is experiencing a general numbing of feeling. For response B, the same symptoms would need to continue beyond one month. For response C, while your friend may have phobic symptoms, it is related to a specific traumatic event rather than all cars, and for response D, again the symptoms have only been occurring for a few weeks and are specific to the traumatic situation.

Ethics and Professional Practice 174. According to APA's Guidelines for Providers of Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, which of the following suggestions is most useful when working with a client from a minority background? A Therapists should treat the client just like any other client. B Therapists should remember that culture and ethnicity are significantly related to therapeutic issues. C Therapists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client's culture. d Therapists should assume that the client's problems are due to discrimination and bias.

ANSWER "B" APA's Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations were designed to provide suggestions to psychologists working with ethnic, linguistic, and culturally diverse populations. One of the suggestions is to "recognize ethnicity and culture as significant parameters in understanding psychological processes."

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 36. A woman is offered a substantial raise and promotion in her job; however, the new position would also require her to periodically speak at conferences. She would very much like to accept the new position but is too afraid to speak in public due to her history of panic attacks in the past while public speaking. She would most likely be diagnosed with: A Specific Phobia B Social Phobia C Generalized Anxiety Disorder d Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia

ANSWER "B" According to DSM-IV-TR, Social Phobia is characterized by "a marked and persistent fear of one or more social or performance situations in which the person is exposed to unfamiliar people or to possible scrutiny by others...Exposure to the feared social situation almost invariably provokes anxiety, which may take the form of a situationally bound or situationally predisposed Panic Attack." Specific Phobia (A) refers to anxiety about a specific object or situation but it is not diagnosed when better accounted for by another mental disorder, such as Social Phobia. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (C) is for excessive anxiety and worry about several different events or activities. And Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia (D) is not confined to social situations or fear of scrutiny by others.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 22. A 19-year-old college student has depressed mood, suicidal thoughts, and has been missing classes for the past week. The student's score on the global assessment of functioning scale (GAF) would most likely be: A 20 B 40 C 60 d 80

ANSWER "B" According to the DSM-IV-TR, the presence of serious symptoms (e.g., suicidal ideation) or any serious impairment in social, occupational, or school functioning indicates a GAF score of approximately 40 - 50.

Social Psychology 58. According to Rutter, the risk patterns that are accurate predictors for child psychopathology are: A Small family size, parental criminality, marital discord B Severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status C Large family size, high socioeconomic status, parental psychopathology d Low socioeconomic status, small family size

ANSWER "B" Again, getting this question correct involves a willingness to read carefully through the answer choices. As you learned if you took Test 3, Rutter listed low socioeconomic status, severe marital discord, large family size, parental criminality, and placement of children outside the home as predictors of child psychopathology.

Neuropsychology 9. Anosognosia is: A an inability to recognize objects B a failure to recognize one's own functional impairment C a loss in ability to perform motor acts d a ritual among certain cultures of rubbing noses together

ANSWER "B" Anosognosia is an inability, or unwillingness, to recognize one's own functional impairment. It usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe. Agnosia (A) is an inability to recognize objects. Apraxia (C) is a loss in ability to perform motor acts.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 30. You would consider a diagnosis of Borderline Intellectual Functioning for an adolescent if his score on the Wechsler intelligence test is between __________ standard deviations below the mean. A .5 and 1.0 B 1.0 and 2.0 C 2.0 and 3.0 d 3.0 and 4.0

ANSWER "B" As defined in DSM-IV, Borderline Intellectual Functioning requires an IQ score in the range of 71 to 84. On the Wechsler intelligence tests, the mean is 100 and the standard deviation is 15. This means that a score of 71 is slightly less than two standard deviations below the mean, and a score of 84 is slightly more than one standard deviation below the mean.

Developmental Psychology 102. Adapting attitudes and behaviors to fit the expectations of what girls or boys are "supposed to do" within a sociocultural environment is reflective of which gender-role identity development theory? A Kagan's social learning theory B Bem's gender schema theory C Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory d Freud's psychodynamic theory

ANSWER "B" B. Bem's gender schema theory states children develop schema about what is expected of them as girls or boys and then apply those schemas to their own behavior. Because it emphasizes both social, notably sociocultural factors, and cognitive processes, it is classified as a social-cognitive approach. Kagan's social learning theory (a.) focuses on social factors role on the development of gender-role identity, yet focuses primarily on the impact of modeling and reinforcement. Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory (c.) emphasizes the cognitive processes that underlie gender-role identity development. Resolution of the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage of development is the emphasis of Freud's theory of gender-role identity (d.).

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 108. A primary determinant of whether an individual would be more appropriately diagnosed with Borderline Intellectual Functioning (BIF) instead of Mental Retardation is: A IQ of 71 to 75 with significant deficits in adaptive functioning B IQ of 71 to 75 without significant deficits in adaptive functioning C IQ of 71 to 84 with significant deficits in adaptive functioning d IQ of 71 to 84 without significant deficits in adaptive functioning

ANSWER "B" B. Included in "Other Conditions that may be a Focus of Clinical Attention," a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of Borderline Intellectual Functioning is defined as "an IQ in the 71-84 range." Given the somewhat vague definition, BIF may be difficult to distinguish from Mental Retardation. To determine the differential diagnosis, the DSM states that a diagnosis of Mental Retardation may be appropriate when IQ is between 71 and 75 and there are significant deficits in adaptive functioning. Therefore, level of adaptive functioning for people with IQs between 71 and 75 is a primary determinant of whether the appropriate diagnosis is BIF or Mental Retardation.

Developmental Psychology 176. A baby uses his/her hand to grab a toy and then squeezes it which produces an interesting sound, and this leads to the baby repeating the action. This is an example of what Piaget described as a: A primary circular reaction B secondary circular reaction C tertiary circular reaction d reflexive circular reaction

ANSWER "B" B. Most of the cognitive development that occurs during the sensorimotor stage, according to Piaget, is the result of circular reactions - wherein a child learns to do something that produces an interesting or pleasurable experience which originally had happened by chance. Primary circular reactions (a.) center around the baby's own body and involve simple motor actions like thumb sucking. Secondary circular reactions are actions involving an other person or object and are predominate from 4 to 8 months of age. Tertiary circular reactions (c.) involve seeing what occurs when an original action is varied on an external object. This is predominate from 12 to 18 months of age. Piaget associated reflexes (d.) with cognitive development from birth to 1 month of age.

Neuropsychology 98. Brain imaging techniques have identified abnormalities in which areas among people with Tourette Syndrome, Autistic Disorder, and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder? A frontal lobes and thalamus B frontal lobes and basal ganglia C parietal lobes and amygdala d parietal lobes and thalamus

ANSWER "B" B. Research has consistently implicated pathology in the basal ganglia and frontal lobes in all three disorders.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 41. Employee creativity is impacted by personal and contextual characteristics. Creativity is diminished by: A reduced density of work environment B expecting a critical evaluation of work C scoring high on a measure of openness to experience d supportive supervision

ANSWER "B" B. Research investigating the impact of personal and contextual characteristics on the creativity of employees indicates increasing the physical distance between workers (a.), providing supportive supervision (d.), and being informed evaluations will be developmental rather than judgmental has a positive effect on employee creativity. The expectation that one's work will be critically evaluated tends to diminish creativity. Of the five personality factors, openness to experience (c.) has been most strongly related to creativity. [See: Shalley, C., Zhou, J., & Oldham, G. (2004). The effects of personal and contextual effects on creativity: Where should we go from here?, Journal of Management, 30(6), 933-958.]

Clinical Psychology 1. According to Sue and Sue (2003), what represents an "invisible veil" which operates outside the level of conscious awareness? A class-bound values B worldviews C cultural-bound values d cultural-universality

ANSWER "B" B. Sue and Sue state that individuals are products of cultural conditioning with their worldviews, or values and beliefs, representing an "invisible veil" which operates outside the level of conscious awareness. The resulting assumption is that everyone shares the same reality and truth regardless of race, culture, ethnicity, or gender. This assumption of universality is erroneous yet seldom questioned due to being firmly ingrained in one's worldview, and often results in people operating on misinformation. Cultural universality (d.) refers to the assumption that Western concepts of normality and abnormality can be considered universal and equally applicable across all cultures. Cultural relativism, including lifestyles, class values (a.), cultural values (c.) and worldviews, affect the expression and determination of deviant behavior. (Sue, D.W., & Sue, D. (2003). Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice (4th ad.). New York: John Wiley.)

Clinical Psychology 11. The first, non-pathologizing model of homosexual identity formation is associated with which of the following individuals? A Troiden B Cass C Sophie d Hanley-Hackenbrunch

ANSWER "B" B. Vivienne Cass proposed individuals go through a six-stage, non-age specific, process of homosexual identity development. The stages are: identity awareness (conscious of being different); identity comparison (believes may be homosexual, acts heterosexual); identity tolerance (realizes is homosexual); identity acceptance (begins to explore gay community); identity pride (becomes active in gay community); and synthesis (fully accepts self and others). Richard Troiden (a.) outlined a four-stage age-graded model: sensitization, identity confusion, identity, identity assumption, and commitment. (See: Cass, V. C. (1979). Homosexual identity formation: A theoretical model. Journal of Homosexuality, 4, 219-235) Sophie (c.) postulated a four-stage coming out process: first awareness, testing and exploration, identity acceptance, and commitment. Hanley-Hackenbruch developed a three-stage model: prohibition; ambivalence/practicing or compulsion/exploration; and consolidation/integration. Two limitations shared by all four of the models are: the assumption of a stable, core sexual orientation which, at least in the final stages, excludes bisexual or transgender identity development; and the cross-cultural applicability of the developmental models.

Test Construction 65. In designing a new test of a psychological construct, you correlate it with an old test the new one will replace. Your assumption in this situation is that: A the old test is invalid. B the old test is valid but out of date. C the old test is better than the new test. d the old test and the new test are both culture-fair.

ANSWER "B" Choice "B" is the only one that makes logical sense. In the assessment of the construct validity of a new test, a common practice is to correlate that test with another test that measures the same construct. For this technique to work, the other test must be a valid measure of the construct. So in this situation, it is assumed that the old test is valid, but at the same time, it is being replaced. Of the choices listed, only "B" provides a reason why a valid test would be replaced.

Clinical Psychology 79. All of the following statements about Beck's cognitive theory of the origin and maintenance of depression are true, except A experiences in early childhood play a role in the development of depression in adulthood. B depressed individuals are suffering from personality pathology due to relatively stable and omnipresent dysfunctional models of the world. C the cognitive triad of depressive cognitions is negative beliefs about the self, future, and the world. d automatic depressive thoughts are the result of logical errors that occur when the individual tries to interpret a situation in terms of a dysfunctional schema.

ANSWER "B" Choice B is not true of Beck's theory. According to Beck, dysfunctional schemas (i.e., models of the world) are not always present. Rather, they are activated by particular environmental events -- often, events that bear some resemblance to events earlier in life that caused the schema to develop. For instance, a business failure could activate the schema "no matter what I try, I'll fail because I'm inadequate" that might have been formed due to experiences in childhood. Unless activated by such events, schema lie dormant and don't affect functioning. You might have thought that choice A sounded more like the psychoanalytic than the cognitive viewpoint. However, as should be clear from this explanation, Beck also believes that past experiences play a role in the development of mental illness.

Clinical Psychology 132. Depressogenic schemata such as arbitrary inference and selective abstraction are associated with: A Lewinsohn B Beck C Seligman d Ellis

ANSWER "B" Depressogenic schemata, or cognitive distortions, such as overgeneralization, personalization, magnification, arbitrary inference, and selective abstraction are reflected statements in Beck's "depressive cognitive triad." Lewinsohn (response "A") is associated with the findings that depressed individuals' self-evaluations reflect an unbiased perception of reality and more accurately correspond with observer evaluations, Seligman (response "C") is associated with the theory of learned helplessness, and Ellis (response "D") with Reactive Emotive Therapy (RET).

Social Psychology 87. Experimenters find conformity is lowest when the: A group size is reduced from 15 to 6. B subject has a "partner" in the group who shares his or her opinion. C subject is "deserted" by a partner. d stimuli to be judged are highly ambiguous.

ANSWER "B" Experimenters have found that just having a "partner" in a group liberates an individual to latch on to the partner and defy the wrong majority. Reducing the size isn't correct, since, if anything, reducing the size is likely to increase group cohesiveness and thereby increase conformity. The remaining choices also are incorrect because they would increase the pressure to conform.

Neuropsychology 186. Failure to recognize one's functional deficits is referred to as: A agnosia B anosognosia C apraxia d receptive aphasia

ANSWER "B" Failure to recognize one's functional deficits is referred to as anosognosia. It usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe. Agnosia (A) is an inability to recognize objects. Apraxia (C) is a loss in ability to perform motor acts. And receptive aphasia (D), also known as Wernicke's aphasia, is the loss of the ability to comprehend language, which also results in the production of inappropriate language.

Social Psychology 146. Which of the following would most likely improve the quality of decision making in a group? A increasing the cohesiveness of the group B decreasing the cohesiveness of the group C increasing emphasis on group consensus d use of a directive leader

ANSWER "B" Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group which often results in poor decision-making. You should be familiar with the factors which contribute to groupthink, which include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. Since increasing cohesiveness increases the pressure to conform, it is likely that decreasing the cohesiveness of a group should decrease the pressure to conform. In some circumstances, seeking consensus or unanimity can actually improve decision-making; however, it often becomes detrimental when the drive for consensus prevents full consideration of alternative decisions.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 178. In implosive therapy: A the client is gradually exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time. B a client is immediately exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity. C the client is gradually exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time. d a client is immediately exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity.

ANSWER "B" Implosive therapy involves imaginal exposure to a feared stimulus. The person is immediately exposed to the stimulus at its maximum intensity. The purpose of implosive therapy is to extinguish a person's fear; in addition, the technique incorporates psychodynamic themes thought to underlie the fear into the imagery.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 159. In Super's theory of career development, the rainbow is used to illustrate: A the skills, abilities, and knowledge that a person brings to a job. B the different roles a person assumes during the course of his or her life. C the stages of career maturity. d the social and other environmental determinants of career choice.

ANSWER "B" In his recent writings, Super depicts various aspects of his theory of career development with illustrations. His "life career rainbow" depicts nine major life roles (e.g., student, parent, spouse) that have an impact on a person's career choice.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 119. To study perception in infants, you present an infant with a sight or sound until he/she stops looking at or turning toward it. The phenomenon you are using to study infant perception is called A satiation. B habituation. C equilibration. d adaptation.

ANSWER "B" In learning theory, habituation occurs when an individual no longer responds to punishment. More generally, the term is used when a person no longer responds to a stimulus that is repeatedly presented. Habituation is often used to study infant perception.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 181. A man is able to achieve erections during sleep, but, has difficulty achieving or maintaining erections during sexual activities. The most appropriate diagnosis would be: A Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder B Male Erectile Disorder C Sexual Aversion Disorder d Sexual Dysfunction Not Otherwise Specified

ANSWER "B" Male Erectile Disorder is characterized by a persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an erection until completion of sexual activity. This best fits the description in this question. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (A) is diagnosed when a person has persistently deficient or absent sexual fantasies and desire for sexual activity. Since the question did not indicate that the man in this question lacked sexual desire, we should not assume that to be the case. Although, if a lack of desire was also present, both diagnoses would be given. There also is no evidence of extreme aversion to, or avoidance of, all genital contact with a sexual partner - which eliminates Sexual Aversion Disorder (C). And Sexual Dysfunction NOS (D) is reserved for sexual dysfunctions that do not meet the criteria for any specific sexual dysfunction.

Developmental Psychology 64. Disorganized-disoriented attachment in infancy is somewhat predictive of __________ in preschool. A behavioral inhibition B hostility toward other children C over-dependence on adults d separation anxiety

ANSWER "B" Most of the studies on the long-term effects of early attachment have focused on secure attachment. However, there is some evidence that insecure and disorganized-disoriented attachment patterns are associated with negative outcomes. For example, the disorganized-disoriented pattern (which is associated with child abuse) predicts hostile behavior toward other children at age five. See K. Lyons-Ruth et al., Disorganized infant attachment classification and maternal psychosocial problems as predictors of hostile-aggressive behavior in the preschool classroom, Child Development, 1993, 64, 572-588.

Clinical Psychology 85. According to recent research studies, which of the following statements is most true regarding therapy with African-American clients conducted by Caucasian therapists? A It is likely to be less effective as compared to therapy conducted by an African-American therapist. B The effectiveness of therapy is related to a number of client and therapist variables, such as the client's suspiciousness of Caucasians in general and the therapist's own racial identity development. C The effectiveness of therapy is likely to be enhanced if the therapist ignores racial issues in the early stages of therapy, but brings them up in the later stages of therapy after an alliance has been established. d Race is not likely to be an important issue in therapy with African-American clients.

ANSWER "B" Most research (especially recent research) suggests that client-therapist racial or ethnic similarity per se does not have a significant impact on therapy outcome. However, ethnic or racial matching does interact with a number of other variables in affecting outcome. For instance, recent research with African-American clients shows that cultural mistrust, or suspiciousness of Caucasians due to the historical animosity between the two racial groups, is negatively correlated with therapy effectiveness. Other research has suggested that Caucasian therapists' own racial identity development is moderately correlated with their multicultural counseling skills. By the way, the opposite of choice C is true: The research suggests that the impact of cultural differences can be lessened if the therapist attends to and raises racial issues during the early stages of therapy.

Clinical Psychology 182. A treatment approach that focuses on helping clients resolve their ambivalence about changing their behavioral patterns is: A Cognitive-behavioral B Motivational interviewing C Conflict-Resolution therapy d Solution-Oriented Therapy

ANSWER "B" Motivational interviewing was originally developed by William Miller and is based on Prochaska and DiClemente's trans-theoretical model of change which views change as a process that occurs in stages. Motivational Interviewing is a therapeutic approach designed to help clients build commitment, resolve ambivalence, and reach a decision to change. It attempts to match therapeutic interventions with the client's stage of readiness to change.

Clinical Psychology 183. In contrast to feminist therapists, non-sexist therapists: A emphasize the importance of therapist self-disclosure B focus more on individual change than social change C de-emphasize the effects of gender on personality development d stress the egalitarian nature of the therapist-client relationship

ANSWER "B" Note that this question is asking how non-sexist therapy differs from feminist therapy. A key distinction is that non-sexist therapy is more concerned with personal responsibility and personal change, while feminist therapy places equal or greater emphasis on the sociopolitical contributions to pathology and the need for social change.

School Psychology/Intelligence 27. Infant intelligence tests are most valid as predictors of future performance for A infants who score very high. B infants who score very low. C infants who score near the average. d no infants -- they have absolutely no correlation with future performance regardless of how well the infant scores on the test.

ANSWER "B" Overall, infant intelligence tests such as the Bayley Scales of Infant Development are poor predictors of adult and even childhood intelligence (though this does not mean they have absolutely no correlation with future performance, as stated by choice "D"). However, they are better predictors for babies who score very low. For this reason, many experts believe that they are most useful as screening devices to identify babies at risk for future developmental delays or problems.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 164. According to Albert Bandura's model of learning, participant modeling is more effective as a therapeutic technique than simple modeling because: A participant modeling decreases the client's initial level of anxiety. B participant modeling increases the client's feelings of self-efficacy. C participant modeling can be used to treat a wider variety of problems. d participant modeling is more logistically practical and less expensive than simple modeling.

ANSWER "B" Participant modeling (sometimes called contact desensitization or modeling with guided participation) refers to the technique of demonstrating a task and then having the client participate. Usually, the participation portion involves guidance by the therapist, either verbally or through actual physical contact. According to Bandura, both simple modeling and participant modeling increase the client's expectancies that performing the modeled behavior will lead to a desirable outcome. However, unlike simple modeling, participant modeling has the additional benefit of increasing the client's feelings of self-efficacy; i.e., the expectancy that he or she will be able to perform the behaviors being modeled.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 162. A family with an elderly parent who is in the early stages of Alzheimer's Dementia presents for a initial consultation. The best intervention on the part of a psychologist would be to A work with the elderly patient on memory exercises. B refer the family to a support group. C begin family therapy to explore how the patient's diagnosis has affected family subsystems. d work with the identified patient in individual therapy.

ANSWER "B" Psychological treatment of Alzheimer's focuses primarily on optimizing the patient's immediate environment and providing support for the patient and his or her family. Both these goals can be met at least to some extent through a referral to a support group.

Neuropsychology 35. A professional working in the field of psychophysics would be most interested in: A the all-or-none principle. B just noticeable differences. C functional brain imaging. d long-term potentiation.

ANSWER "B" Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between the magnitude of a physical stimulus and the internal sensation associated with that magnitude. One method for studying this relationship is to determine just noticeable differences, or the amount of change in physical stimulus magnitude that is needed to notice the change.

Clinical Psychology 46. Stuart's operant interpersonal therapy: A is based on object relations theory B encourages couples to focus on positive aspects of one's partner C discourages the use of a "quid pro quo" approach among couples d maintains that successful marriages are based on contingent punishments

ANSWER "B" Richard Stuart applied operant conditioning and social exchange theory in the context of marital therapy. He encourages couples to focus on positive aspects of each other and to use reciprocal reinforcement or "quid pro quo." He maintained that in successful marriages rewards exceed costs and are built on positive reinforcement, rather than negative reinforcement, punishment, or coercion.

Developmental Psychology 38. Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true? A Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to result in incomplete development of the autonomic nervous system. B Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most severe negative impact on the developing brain. C Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to cause physical disabilities that prevent the child from developing at a normal rate. d Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is not likely to have a significant physiological effect on the developing fetus; observed deficits in these children are probably due to social and environmental causes.

ANSWER "B" Severe prenatal malnutrition is likely to have differential effects, depending on when in pregnancy it occurs. In the first trimester, it can result in congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion. In the third trimester (as well as in the first 3-6 months after birth), it is most likely to have a negative effect on the central nervous system -- specifically, the brain. Studies have suggested that these children often have an abnormally low number of brain cells and brain weight. The specific behavioral consequences may include apathy, unresponsiveness to environmental stimulation, irritability, an abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development.

Ethics and Professional Practice 84. A researcher who is interested in determining the correct language to use in referring to members of ethnic minorities in a research article should refer to information published by A the US Census Bureau. B the American Psychological Association (APA). C the research committee in the setting where the research takes place. d the state licensing board.

ANSWER "B" The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association is the authority on questions of style (e.g., word usage, formatting) in research articles. It includes a section on choosing nouns referring to racial and ethnic groups.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 12. According to the hopelessness theory of depression, hopelessness is a: A proximal necessary cause of depression B proximal sufficient cause of depression C distal necessary cause of depression d distal sufficient cause of depression

ANSWER "B" The hopelessness theory of depression is a revised version of the 1978 reformulated theory of helplessness and depression. The authors of the hopelessness theory propose that hopelessness is a cause, rather than a symptom, of depression. Specifically, they suggest that hopelessness is a "proximal sufficient cause" of depression. "Proximal," in this case, means that in a chain of causal factors, hopelessness occurs at the end of the chain - closest to the resulting symptoms of depression. "Sufficient," in this case, means that the presence of hopelessness is enough to cause depression. However, contrary to Choice A, hopelessness is not a necessary condition for depression. That is, factors other than hopelessness can also cause depression [L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, & L. B. Alloy, Psychological Review, 1989, 96(2), 358-372].

Test Construction 49. If, in a normally-shaped distribution, the mean is 100 and the standard error of measurement is 5, what would the 95% confidence interval be for an examinee who receives a score of 90? A 75-105 B 80-100 C 90-100 d 95-105

ANSWER "B" The standard error of measurement indicates how much error an individual test score can be expected to have. A confidence interval indicates the range within which an examinee's true score is likely to fall, given his or her obtained score. To calculate the 95% confidence interval we simply add and subtract two standard errors of measurement to the obtained score. Two standard errors of measurement in this case equal 10. We're told that the examinee's obtained score is 90. 90 +/- 10 results in a confidence interval of 80 to 100. In other words, we can be 95% confident that the examinee's true score falls within 80 and 100.

Neuropsychology 14. The part of the brain that is compromised in Parkinson's Disease is the A basal ganglia. B substantia nigra. C hypothalamus. d frontal lobe.

ANSWER "B" The substantia nigra is a group of neurons that is part of the extrapyramidal motor system. Parkinson's disease, which is characterized by tremors and other disorders of voluntary movement, is caused by degeneration of substantia nigra neurons. When substantia nigra neurons degenerate, the amount of dopamine they provide to neurons in the basal ganglia (also part of the extrapyramidal motor system) is reduced. In other words, basal ganglia neurons are also involved in Parkinson's disease -- the disease occurs when they get a lower than normal quantity of dopamine. Thus, if substantia nigra were not a choice, the basal ganglia would be the best answer. Note, however, that, unlike substantia nigra neurons, basal ganglia neurons remain intact in Parkinson's disease.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 117. Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between anxiety and achievement on academic tasks is true? A The higher the anxiety, the better the performance. B The optimal level of anxiety is lower than it would be for simpler tasks. C The optimal level of anxiety is higher than it would be for simpler tasks. d There are no available findings indicating which level of anxiety is optimal.

ANSWER "B" There is a curvilinear relationship between anxiety and performance. This means that neither too little nor too much anxiety is optimal -- a moderate amount is best. However, the optimal amount of anxiety also depends on the complexity of the task. For complex tasks, the optimal anxiety level is lower than it is for simple tasks.

Neuropsychology 156. An elderly man is not able to recognize familiar faces. For example, he doesn't recognize family members until they speak. This condition is referred to as A visual agnosia. B prosopagnosia. C topographagnosia. d Capgras' syndrome.

ANSWER "B" This condition is known as prosopagnosia, which refers specifically to the inability to recognize familiar faces. Visual agnosia (answer A) is a more general term and refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. Topograpagnosia (answer C) involves deficits in spatial ("route-finding") ability; and Capgras' syndrome is the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter who has an identical or similar appearance.

Neuropsychology 121. An individual who produces normal sounding speech that makes little or no sense and is usually unaware of this deficit is most likely to have damage in the: A cingulate sulcus B temporal lobe C corpus callosum d frontal lobe

ANSWER "B" This is a description of Wernicke's aphasia, also known as receptive or fluent aphasia, which can be caused by damage to Wernicke's area in the temporal lobe.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 76. When a person is given time to remember a list of unrelated words and is then immediately asked to recall the words in any order, he will recall words at the beginning and the end of the list to about the same degree and better than words in the middle of the list. If there is a brief delay (10 or 30 seconds) between studying the words and recalling them, the person will A recall words at the end of the list best. B recall words at the beginning of the list best. C recall words in the middle of the list best. d recall words in the beginning, middle, and end of the list to about the same degree.

ANSWER "B" This question is asking about the serial position effect, which predicts that the poorest recall will be for information in the middle of a list. Research on the serial position effect has shown that memory for information at the beginning and end of a list varies, depending on whether there is a delay before recall is required. When there is a brief delay, memory for information at the beginning of the list is better than memory for information at the end of the list.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 31. In addition to tolerance and withdrawal, which of the following is a criterion for the diagnosis "Substance Dependence?" A daily use of the substance B the substance is taken in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended C frequent cravings to use the substance d recurrent substance-related legal problems

ANSWER "B" Three (or more) of seven criteria are required for diagnosing Substance Dependence: Tolerance; Withdrawal; Substance use in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended (B); Persistent desire to cut down or control substance use; Much time spent obtaining, using, or recovering from substance use; Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of substance use; Substance use is continued despite persistent or recurrent physical or psychological consequences caused by the substance use. None of the other choices in this question is a criterion of Substance Dependence; however, Choice D (recurrent substance-related legal problems) is one of the criteria for Substance Abuse.

Social Psychology 18. The most important factor found to exist as a criterion for initial attraction between people who have just met is: A attitude similarity. B physical attractiveness. C physical proximity. d all of the above.

ANSWER "B" When we become attracted to someone we meet for the first time, it is most likely because of physical characteristics. Attraction due to other factors, such as intelligence, compatibility, etc., comes later.

Community Psychology 55. In the last two decades, the greatest increase in suicide rates has been among those A under the age of 15. B aged 15 to 24. C aged 35 to 44. d aged 65 to 74.

ANSWER "B" While suicide rates have been increasing for adolescents and young adults and for older adults, the increase is greatest for the younger-aged group. (See S. J. Blumenthal and D. J. Kupfer, Suicide Over the Life Cycle, Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Press, 1990.)

Clinical Psychology 197. A person who takes the MMPI-2 obtains a score of 62 on the depression scale. This means that A the person is probably clinically depressed. B the test results are not valid. C the person's score is 1.2 standard deviation units above the mean. d the person's score is 12 raw score points above the mean.

ANSWER "C" A T-score is a standardized score, which means that it indicates how many standard deviation units a given raw score is above or below the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. This means that a score of 62 -- 12 T-score points above the mean -- is 1.2 standard deviations above the mean, since 10 X 1.2 is 12.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 89. A predictor with a criterion-related validity coefficient of .40 will be most useful when there is a A high selection ratio and moderate base rate. B high selection ratio and low base rate. C low selection ratio and moderate base rate. d low selection ratio and low base rate.

ANSWER "C" A low selection ratio means that there's lots of applicant to choose from (which is preferable to having only a few to choose from). A moderate base rate is preferable to a high or low base rate because this means that there's room for improvement in the selection process. When the base rate is high, the company is already doing a good job and doesn't need a new predictor; when the base rate is low, this usually means that something other than selection is the problem (e.g., the company's performance standards are too high or there just aren't enough good applicants to choose from).

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 180. Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about: A being away from home or close relatives B being embarrassed in public C performance in school or sporting events d having an illness

ANSWER "C" According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.

Developmental Psychology 145. Psychoanalytic theory posits that which of the following is the principle influence at around four months of age? A reality B dynamic C pleasure d genetic

ANSWER "C" According to Freud, the only personality structure that has developed at birth is the id. The id operates according to the pleasure principle because it looks for ways of gratifying its needs immediately to avoid tension. Answer "A" is associated with the ego, which doesn't develop until about six months of age. Freud suggested that the ego operates on the basis of the reality principle because it postpones satisfaction of the id's instincts until there is a suitable object available in reality. The dynamic principle (response "B") refers to Freud's interest in understanding people in terms of the dynamic interactions (conflicts) that occur between the id, ego, and superego, and the genetic principle (response "D") refers to his emphasis on the importance of a person's experiences during childhood.

Social Psychology 139. According to cognitive dissonance theory: A we all have a basic need for cognitive dissonance. B there is no link between our attitudes and behavior. C we are likely to change our attitudes to match our behavior. d we are likely to change our behavior to match our attitudes.

ANSWER "C" According to dissonance theory, inconsistency between our attitudes and our behavior results in a state of cognitive dissonance, which is an internal aversive state. So A and B are out, leaving C and D. Though it seems logical that our attitudes lead to our behaviors, the irony of dissonance research is that it more often finds the opposite -- that our inner attitudes are adjusted to match our behaviors.

Community Psychology 106. According to literature reviews on the subject, women who have abortions generally A have significant psychological problems related to guilt and depression. B see abortion as a normal process and suffer no problems. C experience a level of stress that is similar to that experienced by women who have children. d experience sexual dysfunctions and other difficulties in relationships with men.

ANSWER "C" According to literature reviews on the subject, psychological responses to unwanted pregnancies terminated by abortion tend to parallel responses to other life stresses, such as bearing a child. Responses have both positive components, such as relief, as well as negative components; however, the review suggests that positive components tend to dominate and negative components do not persist. Severe negative reactions are rare; when they do occur, they seem to be related to other factors (e.g., cultural and religious beliefs, actual and perceived social support, length of gestation before the abortion occurs), rather than the abortion per se.

Research Design and Statistics 149. According to the central limit theorem, A as sample size increases, the shape of a sample distribution becomes more normal. B as the size of a sampling distribution of means increases, its distribution becomes more normal. C as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means becomes more normal. d as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approximates the shape of the population distribution.

ANSWER "C" According to the central limit theorem, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approaches normality as sample size increases. The central limit theorem is covered in the Advanced Statistics section of your materials, and you should study it after you have a reasonably solid grasp of the material presented in the rest of the section.

Clinical Psychology 177. Asian-American clients are LEAST likely to: A prefer a direct-structured approach to therapy B be inhibited and reserved in therapy C smile to express disapproval d use silence as a way of communicating respect

ANSWER "C" Although Asian-Americans are a diverse group, certain generalizations have been found. Asian-Americans tend to prefer a direct-structured approach to therapy (A), are inhibited and reserved in therapy (B), and use silence as a way of communicating respect (D). When Asian-Americans smile and laugh it may convey meanings other than happiness, in particular, embarrassment, discomfort, or shyness; however, smiling is less likely to be used to express disapproval. Sue and Sue (1999) have noted that this cultural difference may have contributed to conflicts in Los Angeles following the Rodney King verdict, when African-Americans misinterpreted Korean store owners' smiling as arrogance and a lack of compassion, when they were actually expressing embarrassment and apprehension [Counseling the Culturally Different: Theory and Practice, 3rd Ed., New York: John Wiley].

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 75. According to Holland, career choice is optimal when there is a good "fit" between: A interests and job demands. B self-concept and the job requirements. C personality type and the job environment. d values and the intrinsic meaning of the job.

ANSWER "C" Although Holland is probably most associated with interests, his theory proposes that interests are actually determined by personality. In addition, it proposes that workers will be happy and most productive when their personality matches the characteristics of the work environment.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 54. All of the following would be standard aspects in the assessment and diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type, except A administering a mental status exam. B administering tests of neuropsychological functioning. C administering medical tests designed to identify the presence of the Alzheimer's gene. d using neuroimaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

ANSWER "C" Although some progress has been made recently in identifying genetic markers of Alzheimer's Disease, there is no diagnostic test currently available that can isolate an Alzheimer's gene. Indeed, direct evidence that a person has this disease is hard to come by. Instead, the diagnostic process involves determining that the diagnostic criteria for the disorder are met, the typical features of Alzheimer's are present, and other possible causes of the disturbance have been ruled out. Choices A, B, and D all describe techniques that are typically part of this diagnostic process.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 3. The second stage of Alzheimer's Dementia is characterized by: A loss of implicit memory B loss of short-term memory C inability to perform complex tasks d inability to recognize family or friends

ANSWER "C" Alzheimer's Disease is often categorized into 3 stages. In Stage 1, which lasts 2-4 years, short-term memory loss begins. Patients in this stage frequently complain about forgetting where they placed things. In Stage 2, which lasts 2-10 years, there is further memory impairment (mostly explicit rather than implicit) and they begin having difficulty performing complex tasks, such as balancing a checkbook or going grocery shopping. They may get lost in familiar places and become apathetic. In the final stage -- Stage 3 -- which lasts 1-3 years, there is serious impairment in most areas. During Stage 3 they may lose the ability to speak and become unable to recognize family, friends, or even themselves. They lose all capacity to care for themselves and have difficulty walking, are incontinent, and are ultimately bedridden and often die of an opportunistic respiratory infection.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 59. A child's ability to maintain a mental picture of a toy even after it is removed is called: A flashbulb memory B method of loci C eidetic imagery d sustained attention

ANSWER "C" C. Eidetic imagery, or photographic memory, is associated with improved ability to memorize information and tends to be more common in children. Another strategy for improving recall using visual images, is the method of loci (b.), which involves associating items to be remembered with mental images of places or specific items. This is useful for recalling information in a specific order. Flashbulb memory (a.) describes vivid, detailed memories of emotionally-charged or surprising events. Sustained attention (d.) is the ability to direct and focus cognitive activity on specific stimuli over an extended period.

Neuropsychology 133. Marfan's syndrome and Von Willebrand's disease are due to: A an X-linked dominant gene B an X-linked recessive gene C an autosomal dominant gene d an autosomal recessive gene

ANSWER "C" C. Like Huntington's disease, these disorders are genetic disorders caused by an autosomal dominant gene, meaning that they occur in the presence of only one gene on a chromosome that is not a sex (X or Y) chromosome. Von Willebrand's disease, which causes blood clotting defects, is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder, affecting at least 1% of the population. Marfan's syndrome affects the connective tissue and it is estimated that at least 1 in 5,000 people in the United States have the disorder.

Test Construction 24. Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when poor performance on one test can be offset by excellent performance on another: A multiple baseline B multiple hurdle C multiple regression d multiple cutoff

ANSWER "C" C. Multiple regression is the preferred technique for combining test scores in this situation as it is a compensatory technique since a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by high scores on other tests. Multiple baseline (a.) is a research design, not a method for combining test scores. Multiple hurdle (b.) and multiple cutoff (d.) are noncompensatory techniques.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 194. All of the following are true regarding women and depression, except A marriage reduces the risk of depression to a greater extent for men than it does for women. B the more children a woman has, the more likely it is that she'll be depressed. C women who have multiple roles (e.g., a job, children, a marriage) are more vulnerable to depression than women who don't. d gender differences in coping style apparently are a reason why women are at a greater risk for depression than men.

ANSWER "C" Choice C is not true; women who have multiple roles appear to be at lower risk for depression. This may be because they have many different support sources and outlets for their competence -- i.e., if their life is not going well in one area, they can compensate with success in other areas. The other choices, according to the APA Task Force Report on Women and Depression, are true. Regarding choice D, the report states that men may be at a lower risk than women because, in response to their problems, they are more likely to employ action and mastery (e.g., work, sports, going out with friends) strategies that distract them from their worries and give them a sense of power and control. Women, on the other hand, tend to brood and dwell on their problems.

Developmental Psychology 124. Among bilinguals, code-switching: A is associated with low academic achievement. B is evidence of a critical period in language development. C is a way for the speaker to better express his or her attitude toward the listener. d should be encouraged early in language development to ensure greater reliance on the dominant language.

ANSWER "C" Code switching (also known as language switching) occurs when a bilingual speaker changes languages during the course of a conversation. It seems to serve several purposes, including allowing the speaker to better express his/her feelings toward the listener.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 148. ___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable. A differential validity B criterion contamination C criterion deficiency d researcher deficiency

ANSWER "C" Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity ("A") refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination ("B") occurs when a rater's knowledge of an employee's performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.

Developmental Psychology 83. Perry and Busey (1984) focus on family factors that contribute to aggression in children. In particular, they emphasize the role of A family discord and chaos. B parents' socioeconomic status. C parental rejection and use of power assertive discipline. d early parent-child attachment.

ANSWER "C" D. G. Perry and K. Bussey (Social Development, Englewood Cliffs, NJ, Prentice-Hall, 1984) focus on family interaction factors in the development of aggressive behavior. They propose that aggression is related to parental rejection and lack of warmth and use of harsh forms of discipline.

Developmental Psychology 141. Which of the following is associated with the shift in perspective from "time from birth" to "time to death"? A Levinson B Erikson C Neugarten d Freud

ANSWER "C" From her research on the personality characteristics of adults aged 40-70, Neugarten (1968) found midlife to be characterized by this shift in perspective. This finding followed the Kansas City Study findings that people around age 50 experience a transition from active to passive mastery and outer to inner-world orientation. Levinson's "seasons of a man's life" and Erikson's stages are theories of adult personality development that address developmental conflicts

Ethics and Professional Practice 63. You are hired by a company to evaluate applicants and current employees for the purposes of hiring, promotion, training, and termination. You are told that the company has applicants and employees sign a waiver of confidentiality prior to seeing you. Which of the following best describes your best course of action in this situation? A You should tell the employer that the company's policy violates your ethical obligations and refuse to do the evaluations until the policy is changed. B You should conduct the evaluations but provide the employer only with information that is directly relevant to the purpose of the evaluation. C You should discuss the impact of the waiver with applicants and employees and see if they want to continue with the evaluation process. d You should provide the employer with any requested information since applicants and employees have already signed a waiver of confidentiality.

ANSWER "C" In any situation, a general waiver is not the best approach. Waivers should be specific in terms of the kind of information that will be revealed. The best answer to this question would probably be some combination of responses A and C (you'd want to discuss the issue with the employer). However, it's not necessary to refuse to do the evaluations as long as you discuss the implications of the waiver with the applicants and employees, so response C is the best answer.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 90. Which of the following is NOT true regarding sensory memory? A It has virtually an unlimited capacity. B It does not retain information for more than 2 seconds. C It stores altered forms of the original stimulus. d It stores iconic, echoic, and haptic memories.

ANSWER "C" In the three-stage model of memory, sensory memory is the first stage. It preserves a large amount of sensory information for a very brief period of time (only a second or two). Information from all the senses can be stored in sensory memory. Visual stimuli are stored as "iconic" memories; auditory stimuli are stored as "echoic" memories; and kinesthetic stimuli are stored as "haptic" memories. Contrary to Choice C, sensory memories are believed to be represented in the form of the original stimuli; that is, they are not stored in an altered form.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 94. A personnel director devises four measures to be used as selection techniques for police officers. She plans on using multiple regression to combine the scores on the four measures in order to predict an applicant's score on a measure of job performance. You suggest that multiple regression is not the appropriate method in this situation because: A multiple regression is used only when the criterion includes three or more orthogonal categories. B multiple regression is used only when there are two or more criteria that are each measured on a continuous scale. C the characteristics assessed by the four measures are noncompensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure cannot be compensated for by a high score on another measure. d the characteristics assessed by the four measures are compensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure can be compensated for by a high score on another measure.

ANSWER "C" It isn't clear from the question what would be wrong with multiple regression in this situation. However, by process of elimination, only response C is correct. Responses A and B aren't true about multiple regression, and response D is incorrect because multiple regression is compensatory and would be appropriate if a high score on one measure could compensate for a low score on another measure. Multiple regression isn't the appropriate technique when the characteristics measured by the different predictors are noncompensatory.

Research Design and Statistics 135. Increasing internal validity is best achieved by: A random selection B matching C random assignment d blocking

ANSWER "C" Known as the "great equalizer," randomization of subjects to groups is the most powerful way for controlling extraneous variables. Unlike random assignment which occurs after subjects are selected, random selection refers to a method of selecting subjects to participate from the population being studied. Random selection influences external validity. Matching, a procedure to ensure equivalency on a specific extraneous variable, and blocking, studying the effects of the extraneous variable, are also methods of increasing internal validity.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 184. Meta-cognition has been defined as "knowing about knowing." A more precise definition might be: A philosophical knowledge about the nature of knowledge, such as about limits of knowledge and the validity of our observations. B scientific knowledge about human knowledge, such as the parts of the brain involved in long-term memory storage and the stages of cognitive development. C an individual's knowledge about his or her own cognitive processing, such as strategies that enhance the efficiency of memorization. d knowledge about what somebody else knows.

ANSWER "C" Metacognition refers specifically to knowledge we have about our own cognitive processes, rather than about the nature of human knowledge in general.

Neuropsychology 5. The experience of REM-rebound occurs most often when A barbiturates are used chronically B a person begins using sedatives. C the use of sedatives is discontinued. d alcohol is substituted for barbiturates.

ANSWER "C" Most drugs suppress REM sleep. When REM sleep is suppressed, a sudden rebound effect occurs soon after the removal of the suppressing agent.

Developmental Psychology 42. Gender concept develops during the first 6 years of life in the following sequence of stages: A gender stability, gender constancy, gender identity B gender stability, gender identity, gender constancy C gender identity, gender stability, gender constancy d gender confusion, gender solidification, gender identity

ANSWER "C" Most theorists recognize three distinct stages in the development of gender concept. Although the precise timing of the stages varies somewhat, depending on how the constructs are measured, it is believed to develop in the following sequence: gender identity (between 9 mos and 3 years); gender stability (by 4 years), and gender constancy (4 to 7 years). Gender identity is the ability to label one's own sex and the sex of others. Gender stability is the awareness that sex identity is stable over time. Gender constancy is reached when the child realizes that sex identity stays the same despite changes in hairstyles, clothing, activities, or personality traits. [e.g. See: J. Szkrybalo, & D.N. Ruble "God Made Me a Girl": Sex-Category Constancy Judgments and Explanations Revisited, Developmental Psychology, 1999, 35 (2), 392-402].

Research Design and Statistics 88. You have been hired by a firm to develop a battery of tests designed to predict the precise amount of goods, in dollar amounts, that each member of the firm's sales staff will sell. The firm's president tells you that he will spare no expense, and he wants you to develop as many tests as possible, since the more tests that are included in the battery, the stronger the battery's predictive power will be. As an expert in quantitative psychology, you tell him A that he is absolutely correct; the more predictors one has, the higher the predictive power one obtains. B that what he is saying is true only if the predictors are highly correlated with each other. C that due to multicollinearity, it will not be cost efficient to add more predictors to the battery after a certain point. d how to spell your name on the paycheck, since, as a quantitative psychologist, you know a lucrative gig when you see one.

ANSWER "C" Multicollinearity occurs in multiple regression equations when predictors are highly correlated. Though ideally, predictors should be correlated with the criterion, it is best if they are not correlated with each other; otherwise, there is no point in combining the predictors since they provide redundant information. Eventually, multicollinearity becomes an issue every time multiple regression is used (usually after 2-3 predictors) since it is impossible to keep finding variables that have high correlations with a criterion but low correlations with each other.

Community Psychology 33. Which of the following ethnic groups has the highest proportion of reported incidents of child abuse? A Asian B Hispanic C Native American d White

ANSWER "C" Of the reported cases of child abuse, 50% are White; 25% are African American; 15% are Hispanic; 2% are Native American; and 1% are Asian/Pacific Islanders. However, the proportions of child abuse victims who are Native American or African American are two times greater than the proportions of these children in the general population [Child Maltreatment 2001: Summary of Key Findings. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Washington, DC: U.S. Government Printing Office].

Ethics and Professional Practice 200. Which of the following statements regarding the need to obtain informed consent before releasing client information is most true? A A psychologist should always obtain informed consent from the client before releasing information. B Before consulting with a colleague about a case, a psychologist must always obtain informed consent from the client. C A psychologist must obtain informed consent from a client some of the time before releasing information. d If a psychologist wants to release information about a case, he or she may do so without obtaining informed consent.

ANSWER "C" Ordinarily, you need to obtain informed consent from a client before releasing information you've obtained from him or her. However, this is not always the case; for instance, when you reasonably suspect child abuse, you are legally obligated to file a report with the appropriate state agency -- with or without the client's consent. As for consulting situations (choice B), informed consent from the client is not necessary as long as you adequately disguise the client's identity.

Social Psychology 140. When men and women are asked to judge photos of women's faces: A attractive women are viewed as less intelligent. B there is no relation between ratings of beauty and personality. C unattractive women are rated as having less positive personalities. d women and men disagree on standards of facial beauty.

ANSWER "C" Researchers find a consistently moderate positive correlation between ratings of facial beauty and ratings of personality and intelligence, regardless of whether the faces are female or male. This is an example of the halo effect. In other words, attractive people are rated as having better personalities and unattractive people are rated less positively.

Clinical Psychology 2. Researchers in the area of cognitive therapy have conducted studies regarding the predominant types and styles of cognition in different mental disorders. These studies have found all of the following to be distinguishing features of cognitions in depression and anxiety, except A in depression, cognitions about hopelessness and failure are more common than in anxiety. B depressed people are more likely to have absolute thoughts about negative themes; anxious people are more likely to have questioning thoughts about the future of events. C anxious people tend to be self-absorbed; depressed people tend to be more absorbed with others. d depressed people have enhanced recall of negative feedback; anxious people have enhanced recall of threatening situations.

ANSWER "C" Self-absorption is characteristic of the cognitive and information processing style of both depressed and anxious individuals. The other choices about the differences between depressed and anxious individuals are true.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 69. According to the DSM-IV-TR, in a "folie a deux" there are: A two or more delusions B two or more personality states C two people who share a delusion of similar content d both negative and positive symptoms

ANSWER "C" Shared psychotic disorder is also known as "folie a deux." An individual diagnosed with shared psychotic disorder has developed a delusional system as a consequence of a close relationship with another person, the "primary case," who already has an established delusion. The content of the delusional system will typically be very similar, although the client's disturbance will usually be less severe than that of the primary case.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 13. When Total Quality Management (TQM) fails, it is often because A there are too few managers. B there is too much attention to customer demands. C the employees are not given sufficient responsibility. d the rewards are not distributed fairly.

ANSWER "C" TQM is an organizational philosophy that focuses on maximizing customer service and satisfaction. An important characteristic of TQM is its involvement of employees in all aspects of decision-making, and failures are often due to management's unwillingness to do this.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 7. The symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder can be alleviated through cognitive-behavioral treatments and medication interventions that reduce activity in the A reticular activating system. B inferior colliculus. C caudate nucleus. d locus coeruleus.

ANSWER "C" The caudate nucleus appears to be overactive in people diagnosed with OCD. L.R. Baxter reports that both behavioral interventions and drug therapy affect metabolic rate in the caudate nucleus (Caudate glucose metabolic rate changes with both drug and behavior therapy for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Archives of General Psychiatry, 1992, 49, 681-689). The reticular activating system (answer A), which you should remember by now, is involved in attention and arousal. The inferior colliculus (answer B), controls auditory reflexes, and the locus coeruleus (answer D) may be associated with Depression and Panic Disorder.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 17. To determine whether or not the doctrine of comparable worth is lived up to in an organization, one would rely on A the perceptions of employees. B a job description. C a job evaluation. d a task analysis.

ANSWER "C" The doctrine of comparable worth states that workers (in particular, men and women) should get equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth. A job evaluation is a method of determining the worth or value of jobs in an organization. Thus, it is the best answer to this question, because it would be a way of comparing the value of different jobs. Note that many critics believe that current methods of job evaluation contain inherent gender biases. Statistics clearly show that women earn less than men, and some believe that one reason for this is that job evaluation methods undervalue the work that women perform.

Developmental Psychology 173. Research suggests that minority adolescents score higher than white adolescents in which stage of ethnic identity development? A identity achievement B moratorium C foreclosure d identity diffusion

ANSWER "C" The foreclosure stage in ethnic identity development is characterized by commitment to one's ethnicity without much exploration of what that means. Research on this issue has consistently found that minority adolescents are more likely than white adolescents to be in the foreclosure stage. During the identity achievement stage, the adolescent struggles with alternatives among potential personal choices, which leads to a commitment to a personal choice. Identity diffusion implies a lack of commitment regardless of whether there has been a crisis. Finally, the moratorium stage focuses on an ongoing crisis that as yet shows no clear commitment.

Ethics and Professional Practice 199. A woman who has been abused by her husband comes to therapy. What would a family systems therapist do first in this case? A invite the husband into therapy B teach her how to manage her husband's anger C find out if the woman is currently safe from abuse and, if necessary, rehearse an escape plan with her d explore patterns of abuse in her family of origin

ANSWER "C" The key word in this question is "first." The first concern in this case -- for a systems therapist as well as any other therapist -- is to ensure the client's safety, and only choice C addresses this issue. If the client's safety were not an issue, A would probably be the best answer, since systems therapists would focus on the whole system rather than its constituent parts. In other words, they would want to work with the couple rather than just one of the spouses. Choice D sounds like something an extended family systems (Bowenian) therapist would do. Although Bowen's work is based on systems theory, so are many other schools of family therapy. Therefore, D is the third best answer -- A, which applies more generally to systems theory, is better.

Clinical Psychology 82. According to Aaron Beck, when faced with a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to maintain an: A internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility B internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility C external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility d external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

ANSWER "C" The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the "internal" factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called "personalization," a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control - seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them.

Clinical Psychology 77. Cognitive behavior therapy, compared to operant behavior treatments, has been found to be: A less effective across most diagnostic categories. B superior with more intelligent clients. C approximately equally effective with all types of disorders. d more effective with addictive disorders.

ANSWER "C" The question is about the research showing that all types of treatments are about equal with all types of disorders. Outside of Agoraphobia, Specific Phobias (including school phobia), and sometimes some physiological problems, such as enuresis, psychological treatments tend to be about equal in their efficacy.

Developmental Psychology 130. Research has found all of the following to be true regarding aggressiveness in children and adolescents except: A aggressive youth are more likely than their peers to believe that aggressive behavior will have positive outcomes. B aggressive youth have fewer behavioral responses to social situations than their peers. C aggressive youth are more likely than their peers to base their interpretation of social interactions on cues that occurred at the beginning of the social interactions. d aggressive youth are more likely than their peers to misinterpret other's behaviors as intentionally hostile.

ANSWER "C" The recency effect has been shown to be more pronounced than the primacy effect in regards to aggressiveness in children and adolescents. That is, they are more likely to focus on cues that occurred at the end of a social interaction than at the beginning. All of the other statements regarding youth aggressiveness are true.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 44. Research investigating methods for treating Dysthymia suggest that A interpersonal therapy is superior to cognitive behavioral therapy in terms of both short- and long-term effects. B cognitive behavioral therapy is superior to interpersonal therapy in terms of both short- and long-term effects. C interpersonal therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy are similarly effective but somewhat less effective for Dysthymia than for Major Depression. d interpersonal therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy are both ineffective when used alone and marginally effective when used in combination.

ANSWER "C" The research on treatments for Dysthymia is pretty scarce but there are a few studies that have shown that IPT and CBT are both effective, although not quite as effective as they are for Major Depression. See J. C. Markowitz, Psychotherapy of dysthymia. Is it effective? American Journal of Psychiatry, 1994, 151, 1114-1121.

School Psychology/Intelligence 92. In dynamic assessment, "testing the limits": A is done initially to determine the appropriate entry level for testing B is done only when appropriate norms are available C is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized procedures d is no longer recommended because it has been found to be biased against members of certain groups.

ANSWER "C" The term "dynamic assessment" refers to a variety of procedures involving departure from standardized test administration in order to obtain additional information about an examinee. It is done after the test has been administered using standardized procedures. It is usually used in the assessment of individuals with learning disabilities or mental retardation. Testing the limits involves providing cues to see how many are needed to generate successful performance: The more cues required, the more severe the learning disability.

Neuropsychology 99. Dreams occur: A Only during REM sleep B Only during non-REM sleep C During both REM and non-REM sleep d Primarily during Stage 1 sleep.

ANSWER "C" The typical sleep cycle begins with Stage One and progresses to Stage Two, Three and Four. This is followed by a period of REM sleep. Initially, it was believed that all dreaming occurred during REM sleep, but it is now known that dreams also occur during non REM sleep. Dreams during REM sleep are much more vivid and more likely to be remembered when the sleeper awakes.

Clinical Psychology 153. An elevated F score on the MMPI-2 (i.e., the F is greater than 70 and the K is very low) indicates that the: A person is answering in a socially desirable manner. B score should be considered in relation to the total profile. C person is likely being careless or deliberately malingering. d total profile can be considered valid.

ANSWER "C" The validity scales on the MMPI-2, of which the F is one, are checks on response styles. Specifically, the F scale indicates if the person is answering in a deviant way, or is perhaps actually deviant. The higher the F, the more the answers suggest that the person is attempting to appear odd, disturbed, etc.

Ethics and Professional Practice 68. A 14-year old is brought to your office. He does not want to be there. His mother notes that they are referred by the school. The only presenting complaint is that his grades are much poorer than last year. Your evaluation indicates no significant other problematic areas in his life. Your best course of action is to: A schedule ongoing treatment with yourself. B continue your assessment to ascertain the presence of hidden pathology. C explore the possibility of an educational intervention. d not do anything.

ANSWER "C" This is a practical, and often realistic, problem. You have a 14-year-old who doesn't want to come to you. You have a referral from the school that his grades are going down. You made an assessment that there doesn't appear, now anyway, to be any psychiatric disorder. So, what would you do? There's no need to suggest treatment since he doesn't want to come see you. And, besides, you haven't found any problems. You wouldn't continue an assessment since, from the information given, you already concluded there isn't much psychological conflict present. You could do nothing, telling him to come back to you if things get worse. That's one possibility. Another possibility presented as a choice is to explore some educational intervention, such as talking to his teachers to investigate how his school environment might be optimized. So you could certainly propose intervening with the school. And between suggesting this, and doing nothing, we'd go with exploring a school-based intervention.

School Psychology/Intelligence 105. At the beginning of the school year, a teacher is told that several of her first graders are "bloomers" who will show unusual gains in intellectual growth. In fact, these children were chosen at random. At the end of school year, the "bloomers" will A be indistinguishable from the other students in the class. B show fewer gains in achievement and IQ score than the other students in the class. C show greater gains in achievement and IQ score than the other students in the class. d exhibit less enthusiasm about school due to their treatment by the teacher and other students in the class.

ANSWER "C" This question is asking about the self-fulfilling prophecy (Rosenthal) effect. The original research on this effect found that teachers altered the outcomes of students identified as "bloomers" in the expected direction, apparently in subtle ways (e.g., through their tone of voice, facial expressions).

Test Construction 97. You are testing a cross-section of minority clients including New Zealanders, Hispanics, African-Americans and Asians. The New Zealander's group turns out to serve as a moderator variable. This means the test has A Cross validation B Shrinkage C Differential validity d Criterion contamination.

ANSWER "C" Variables that affect the validity of a test are moderator variables. When a moderator variable is present a test is said to have differential validity--meaning there would be a different validity coefficient for the New Zealanders group than for the others.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 127. The best predictor of job success among the following are: A reference letters. B in-depth interviews. C work samples. d personality tests.

ANSWER "C" Work samples are good predictors of job success, assuming of course that there is a way to devise an accurate work sample. While interviews and reference letters are the most widely used selection devices, they are not valid predictors by themselves. The popularity of personality tests (particularly personality inventories) has declined, partly due to the non-standardized way they are employed in private industry. They are also not good predictors of job success.

Developmental Psychology 37. Research investigating parental responses to an infant's cries has found that: A mothers, but not fathers, respond to an infant's cries with physiological arousal. B mothers and fathers both respond to all types of cries (hunger, pain, and anger) with a similar level of physiological arousal. C mothers and fathers respond to all types of cries, but the infant's pain cry produces the greatest amount of physiological arousal. d first-time mothers and fathers respond with less physiological arousal to all types of cries than parents who already have one or more children.

ANSWER "C" You may have been able to answer this question if you think about your own responses to an infant's cries. Although parents have a stronger physiological response to their own infants, just about everyone seems to have some response to a crying baby, although it may be of less intensity. In addition, the different kinds of cries produce different responses. Not surprisingly, a stronger response is elicited by a pain cry than by a hunger or anger cry.

Ethics and Professional Practice 86. A psychologist learns from a friend that another psychologist has been revealing confidential information about his patients. Both psychologists live in a small rural community and the information the offending psychologist revealed has apparently spread rapidly around town. The psychologist who learned of this behavior should A call the other psychologist's clients to assess the degree of harm that their therapist's behavior caused. B seek consultation. C report an ethics violation to a state or national Ethics committee. d do nothing.

ANSWER "C" You might have been looking for an answer such as "try to resolve this issue informally by speaking to the other psychologist", but no such choice was present. Thus, you had to choose the best answer, and as with all ethics questions, the best answer is the one most consistent with the language of APA's Ethical Standards. The following excerpts from Ethical Standards 1.04 and 1.05 apply here: "When psychologists believe that there may have been an ethical violation by another psychologist, they attempt to resolve the issue by bringing it to the attention of that individual, if an informal resolution appears appropriate and the intervention does not violate any confidentiality rights that may be involved." "If an apparent ethical violation has substantially harmed or is likely to substantially harm a person or organization and is not appropriate for informal resolution ... or is not resolved properly in that fashion, psychologists take further action appropriate to the situation. Such action might include referral to state or national committees on professional ethics, to state licensing boards, or to the appropriate institutional authorities." In a nutshell, these standards say that, when another psychologist commits an ethical violation, your responsibility (assuming no confidentiality rights are violated) is to either bring the matter to the other psychologist's attention, or take action such as making a report to an ethics committee. Since this question does not include the option of addressing the issue informally, the best answer must be to report the matter to an Ethics committee.

Ethics and Professional Practice 134. A former patient and yourself meet at the shopping mall 26 months after she has completed therapy with you. Which is the most unethical choice? A You help her choose her fall wardrobe. B She has started smoking again, so you refer her to a smoking cessation group. C You pursue a romantic relationship with her. d She is a physician; describe your current physical symptoms and ask her opinion.

ANSWER "C" You would never PURSUE a romantic relationship with a former client if you are an ethical psychologist. Standard 10.08 (Sexual Intimacies With Former Therapy Clients/Patients) states, "(a) Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients for at least two years after cessation or termination of therapy. (b) Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances. Psychologists who engage in such activity after the two years following cessation or termination of therapy and of having no sexual contact with the former client/patient bear the burden of demonstrating that there has been no exploitation, in light of all relevant factors, including (1) the amount of time that has passed since therapy terminated; (2) the nature, duration, and intensity of the therapy; (3) the circumstances of termination; (4) the client's/patient's personal history; (5) the client's/patient's current mental status; (6) the likelihood of adverse impact on the client/patient; and (7) any statements or actions made by the therapist during the course of therapy suggesting or inviting the possibility of a posttermination sexual or romantic relationship with the client/patient." Choices A and D also involve multiple relationships and are not good choices. However, APA has not dedicated a specific standard to either of these situations.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 111. A needs assessment is usually conducted to: A acertain a job applicant's skills B describe the requirements of a job C determine the relative worth of a job d identify the needs of an organization

ANSWER "D" A needs assessment involves identifying the needs of the organization. A needs assessment is often conducted to determine which employees need training and what should be included in that training. Choice B describes the purpose of a job analysis, which is to describe the requirements of a job. And choice C describes the purpose of a job evaluation, which is to determine the salary levels of jobs.

Developmental Psychology 171. Research in the 1960s and 1970s found that, in school settings, teachers tend to pay more attention to boys than to girls. More recent research has suggested that this finding was due to: A a bias against girls on the part of many teachers. B methodological errors in the research. C the fact that girls tend to be more shy and unassuming than boys. d the fact that boys display a higher proportion of learning and behavior difficulties.

ANSWER "D" A number of older studies showed that, in mixed gender classrooms, boys receive more attention from teachers than girls. More recent research has detected this difference but has found that it is much less dramatic than had been claimed in the past. According to analyses of results of some of the recent research, the finding is due to the fact that boys display a higher proportion of learning and behavior difficulties, rather than any gender bias on the part of teachers. Note that the results of research are not entirely in accord; the bulk of the research, however, does confirm the finding that boys receive more attention than girls.

Ethics and Professional Practice 115. Which of the following is most appropriate for referring to a group of research participants? A "borderlines" B "disabled persons" C "individuals confined to a wheelchair" d "people who have cerebral palsy"

ANSWER "D" According to APA's Publication Manual (2001), authors should avoid perpetuating demeaning attitudes in their writing. It is recommended that people be put before their disabilities and not labeled as their disabilities. Thus, "borderlines" (A) would more accurately and sensitively be referred to as "people diagnosed with borderline personality disorder." Similarly "disabled persons" (B) are better described as "people with (or who have) a disability." Thus, choice D is appropriate. The phrase, "individuals confined to a wheelchair" (C) does put the people first; however, it is overly negative and suggests continued helplessness, which should be avoided. Instead, the manual recommends using emotionally neutral expressions, for example, "individuals who use a wheelchair."

Ethics and Professional Practice 198. A forensic psychologist is asked to review and make conclusions regarding a defendant's psychological evaluation that was conducted 4 years ago following a similar crime that the defendant is now accused of. The psychologist should: A refuse the request B comply with the request but interpret the previous findings with caution C reevaluate the person and disregard the previous findings d reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution

ANSWER "D" According to the Forensic Specialty Guidelines, "Forensic psychologists avoid giving written or oral evidence about the psychological characteristics of particular individuals when they have not had an opportunity to conduct an examination of the individual..." And, according to Ethical Standard 9.08, psychologists also do not base their decisions on outdated results. Thus, the psychologist in this case should make a reasonable effort to reevaluate the person. However, it would probably be inappropriate to completely disregard the previous findings. The best approach would be to reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution.

Neuropsychology 26. Alzheimer's Dementia is most often associated with damage to the: A frontal lobe B parietal lobe C occipital lobe d temporal lobe

ANSWER "D" Although it is not known whether the deficits of Alzheimer's Dementia are caused by diffuse damage to the brain or focused in a particular lobe, most research has linked it to damage to the temporal lobe. This is consistent with the important role of the temporal lobe in long-term memory (e.g., R. Wilson, M. Sullivan, L. deToledo-Morrell, G. Stebbins, D. Bennett, & F. Morrell. Association of memory and cognition in alzheimer's disease with volumetric estimates of temporal lobe structures. Neuropsychology, 1996, 10(4), 459-463).

Neuropsychology 151. Early memory and attention deficits in Alzheimer's disease are believed to be caused by decreased activity in A dopaminergic neurons. B serotenergic neurons. C GABAergic neurons. d cholinergic neurons.

ANSWER "D" As knowledge about Alzheimer's accumulates, more is being learned about the neurotransmitters involved in the disease. Acetylcholine (a cholinergic neurotransmitter) was the first to be implicated and appears to be the neurotransmitter most involved, especially in early memory and attention deficits. However, serotonin, norepinephrine, and glutamate also seem to be involved but may be more important for symptoms that appear in the later stages of the disorder.

Clinical Psychology 78. Classical psychoanalytic theory and the object-relations theories both emphasize A the interaction between the id, the ego, and the superego. B the importance of separation and individuation in childhood. C the need for a therapist to "re-parent" the patient. d the role of early childhood experiences in personality development.

ANSWER "D" Both Freudian theory and object-relations theory stress the role of early childhood experience in personality development. Freud believed that adult personality hinges to a large extent on how conflicts (e.g., the oedipal conflict) are resolved in childhood, while the object-relations theorists posit that a child's early experiences determine the development of his or her introjects (mental representations of self and others), which determine personality functioning as an adult. Choice A applies to Freudian theory, and choices B and C apply to object-relations theory.

Neuropsychology 51. Recent longitudinal studies investigating the relationship between menopause and psychological well-being have suggested that: A women experiencing menopause are more likely to report significant depression than pre-menopausal or post-menopausal women. B post-menopausal women are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either pre-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause. C pre-menopausal are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either post-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause. d there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.

ANSWER "D" Choice D describes the results of a longitudinal study published in 1994. Though the study did not concern itself with short-term mood swings that may be caused by the menopausal transition, it did suggest that menopause does not have any effect on long-term psychological functioning.

School Psychology/Intelligence 29. Curriculum-based assessment is A a form of norm-referenced assessment designed to compare the performance of students to other students who are receiving the same type of instruction. B used to evaluate a curriculum in order to identify how it should be improved or changed. C used to compare the curriculum at an educational institution to that of other institutions with similar students and goals. d used to evaluate student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional style.

ANSWER "D" Curriculum-based assessment provides information about a student in the context of the existing curriculum. The results of such an assessment not only indicate the student's performance level -- they also provide feedback about the instruction itself, so that necessary changes can be made to better fit the student's ability and current knowledge. In contrast to choice A, curriculum-based assessment is criterion-referenced, since it involves evaluating the student's performance in light of an external standard (the curriculum). Norm-referenced assessment would involve evaluating a student's performance by way of a comparison to other students. In contrast to choice B, the assessment is not designed to bring about changes in the curriculum itself -- rather, its purpose is to help identify progress in terms of the existing curriculum and any change in instruction (e.g., pace, sequencing of topics) that would aid the student's progress in completing the curriculum.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 19. Cross-dressing fantasies, sexual urges or behaviors in heterosexual males is characteristic of: A Fetishism B Sexual Sadism C Frotteurism d Transvestic Fetishism

ANSWER "D" D. All of the response choices are Paraphilic conditions identified in the DSM-IV-TR. The Paraphilias are characterized by recurrent, intense sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors that involve unusual objects, activities, or situations and cause clinically significant distress or impairment in at least one area of functioning. Fetishism (a.) involves the use of nonliving objects; Sexual Sadism (b.) involves inflicting humiliation or suffering; and Frotteurism (c.) involves touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person for sexual excitement.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 185. The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as: A floor effect B contrast effect C central tendency bias d severity error

ANSWER "D" D. Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale. A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias (c.). If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect (b.). A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.

Research Design and Statistics 179. Structural equation modeling is used to: A classify participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors. B to evaluate convergent and divergent validity. C to identify homogeneous groups from a collection of observations. d to evaluate predictive relationships between measured variables and latent factors.

ANSWER "D" D. Structural equation modeling is a technique used to evaluate or confirm the cause-and-effect or hypothesized relationship between both measured and latent variables. Classifying participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors (a.) is referred to as discriminant function analysis. Convergent and divergent validity is evaluated (b.) using the multitrait-multimethod matrix. Cluster analysis (c.) is a method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories. It can be used to discover structures in data without providing an explanation/interpretation.

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 74. Memories of one's personal experiences are contained in which aspect of long-term memory: A semantic B procedural C implicit d episodic

ANSWER "D" Episodic memory consists of autobiographical memories or memories for personal events. Semantic memory (response "A") contains memories of general knowledge. Episodic and semantic memory are the two divisions of declarative memory, one of the two types of long-term memory. The other type of long-term memory is procedural. Procedural memory (response "B") contains memories of skilled responses and actions. Implicit memory (response "C") refers to memories that are recalled without conscious effort.

Ethics and Professional Practice 80. A managed care company asks a psychologist to conduct a study on the relative effectiveness of a 10-week therapy program for depression vs. a 20-week therapy program. The company plans to publish the results of the research if no significant difference is found but will not publish the results if the longer therapy program is more effective. The psychologist should: A agree to conduct the study because it is within the company's rights to publish or not publish their research findings B agree to conduct the study if the psychologist is able to approve any article submitted for publication C agree to conduct the study only if all research participants are appropriately debriefed at the conclusion of the study d refuse to conduct the study

ANSWER "D" Ethical Standard 5.01 states, "Psychologists do not knowingly make public statements that are false, deceptive, or fraudulent, concerning their research, practice, or other work activities or those of persons or organizations with which they are affiliated." Although in this case the psychologist is asked not to publish data, this would still be deceptive. It also is inconsistent with General Principle A of the Ethics Code which states that, "psychologists seek to safeguard the welfare and rights of those with whom they interact professionally and other affected persons.... Because psychologists' scientific and professional judgments and actions may affect the lives of others, they are alert to and guard against personal, financial, social, organizational, or political factors that might lead to misuse of their influence."

Community Psychology 100. The leading cause of death in the United States for all age groups combined is: A cancer B stroke C suicide d heart disease

ANSWER "D" Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the U.S. (31%) when all age groups, races, and sexes are combined. Cancer is the second leading cause of death (23%), followed by stroke (7%). Suicide is the 8eighth leading cause (1.3%). [See S.L. Murphy, Deaths: Final data for 1998, National Vital Statistics Report, 2000, 48(11). Hyattsville, MD: National Center for Health Statistics. DHHS Publication No. (PHS) 2000-1120].

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 66. All of the following are factors that typically distinguish Dissociative Amnesia from amnesia due to known physical causes, except A in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is primarily for autobiographical information. B in Dissociative Amnesia, cognitive abilities are usually preserved. C in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss can be reversed. d in Dissociative Amnesia, memory impairment is typically limited to information occurring immediately before an emotional trauma.

ANSWER "D" In Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is usually for information acquired after the emotional trauma that brings on the symptoms. There is typically a gap or a series of gaps in recall for the individual's life history. By contrast, in some forms of Amnestic Disorder (e.g., in Amnestic Disorder Due to a Brain Injury), memory loss is typically for information in a circumscribed period of time immediately before the injury occurs. All of the other choices describe features that typically distinguish between Dissociative Amnesia and amnesia due to known physical causes.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 71. In an industrial setting, a machine would likely be better than a human in performing all of the following tasks except: A exerting controlled force. B recognizing stimuli as belonging to a general class. C responding consistently to instructions or input. d recognizing patterns that vary from situation to situation.

ANSWER "D" In general, humans are better than machines at tasks that require flexibility, such as recognizing patterns that vary from situation to situation. Machines are better at tasks that require consistency or reliability, such as those described by the other choices.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 57. Some studies indicate that the rate of ADHD symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity among identical twins with ADHD to be A .20 B .40 C .60 d .80

ANSWER "D" In terms of the role of genetics, some studies indicate higher rates of ADHD among relatives of afflicted individuals. For example, Biederman (1995) found that when a parent had childhood-onset ADHD, the risk for this diagnosis among his or her offspring was 57%. Additionally, a review of twin studies (Stevens, 1994) indicated that the average heritability is .80 for hyperactivity and impulsivity.

Ethics and Professional Practice 155. You see a substance abuser who has been referred to therapy as a condition of probation. The man tells you that he is seeking therapy only to avoid jail time and that he does not think he needs therapy. Regarding informed consent in this situation, which of the following statements is true? A You don't have to get informed consent because the judge ordered treatment. B You don't have to obtain informed consent because convicted criminals don't have the right to refuse treatment. C You don't have to obtain informed consent because there's no way that consent can truly be informed in this situation. d You cannot treat the patient unless you obtain his informed consent.

ANSWER "D" In working with court-referred patients, psychologists must obtain informed consent from the patients before proceeding. This may seem ridiculous, since many court-referred clients face serious consequences if they don't comply with the court's recommendation to seek therapy. However, in court-referred cases, the client could, theoretically at least, decline treatment and choose jail time or other consequences instead. By contrast, in court-ordered evaluation or treatment, there is no need to get informed consent because the client is mandated by law to participate. However, in such cases, psychologists have other obligations, such as informing the client of the limits to confidentiality.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 101. Which of the following proposed a behavioral theory of career decision making? A Holland B Super C Herzberg d Krumboltz

ANSWER "D" Krumboltz's Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; and performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors. (See: Krumboltz, J. D., Mitchell, A. M., & Jones, G. B. (1976). A social learning theory of career selection. Counseling Psychologist, 61, 71-81.) Holland's theory (response "A") states career choices are an expression of personality. Super's (response "B") is a developmental or stage theory. Herzberg's two-factor theory addresses worker motivation and satisfaction, not career choices.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 161. In order to best reduce leniency bias you would use: A peer ratings B BARS C BIB d forced-choice

ANSWER "D" Leniency bias is the tendency of a rater to give all ratees positive ratings. Although the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) may improve rating accuracy over a standard Likert Scale, it is not as effective at reducing biases as a forced-choice method. A forced-choice method consists of pairs of statements about job performance that both appear equally favorable or unfavorable, but the statements in each pair actually differentiate between good and poor performing individuals.

Clinical Psychology 158. If you want to keep a borderline patient involved with group therapy, what would be the best technique? A You have them consult with a psychiatrist for a medication evaluation. B You help the patient with the defense mechanism of splitting. C You invite a client with a histrionic personality disorder to join the group. d Offer individual therapy in addition to group therapy.

ANSWER "D" Marsha Linehan (1993) has been achieving success with borderline patients with her use of dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) which involves a combination of groups skills training and individual outpatient therapy. This combination has been successful at decreasing premature dropout rates in group therapy, as well as reducing suicide attempts and inpatient hospitalization rates.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 147. Evidence of genetic etiological influences is strongest for which of the following disorders? A Avoidant Personality Disorder B Dependent Personality Disorder C Borderline Personality Disorder d Antisocial Personality Disorder

ANSWER "D" Most experts believe that there is probably some genetic influence on most Personality Disorders, if for no other reason that there is some genetic influence on most aspects of personality in general. However, evidence of a genetic basis for Antisocial Personality Disorder is well-established -- prevalence rates are 5 to 10 times higher in individuals with first-degree relatives with the disorder, compared to the general population. There is also strong evidence of a genetic component in Schizoid, Schizotypal, and Paranoid Personality Disorders.

Neuropsychology 6. Patients with depression typically have: A more rapid onset of REM sleep B decreased slow wave sleep C increased percentage of REM sleep d all of the above

ANSWER "D" Research has found that depression is most associated with a more rapid onset of REM sleep, decreased percentage of slow wave sleep, and increased percentage of REM sleep. The research also suggests that individuals with no prior history of depression but who have rapid REM onset have an increased risk of developing depression (e.g., D. Giles, D. Kupfer, A. Rush, & H. Roffwarg, Controlled comparison of electrophysiological sleep in families of probands with unipolar depression. American Journal of Psychiatry, 1998, 155(2), 192-199).

Ethics and Professional Practice 43. A new therapeutic intervention for heroin addiction is tested in a 6-month study, comparing it to existing treatment programs and a control group. At the end of 3 months the researchers find a dramatic success rate for the experimental treatment with over 75% of the clients maintaining abstinence from heroin, compared to 30% for the other treatment groups and 10% for the control group. What should the researchers do? A inform the other groups of the results and recommend that they begin the new treatment program. B inform the other groups of the results and give them the option of receiving the new treatment or continuing with their existing program. C not inform the other groups of the results d wait until the conclusion of the study and then offer the other groups the new treatment

ANSWER "D" Since this study was designed for a duration of 6 months, it should continue as planned before any conclusions regarding the effectiveness are made. Informing any of the groups about the relative effectiveness of any of the treatments prior to the conclusion of the study would likely contaminate the validity of the final results. Of course, the researchers have an obligation to inform the participants of the results and conclusions of the research, but this should not be provided until the conclusions have been made.

Industrial/Organizational Psychology 32. Performance can be viewed as a function of: A motivation and interest. B satisfaction and motivation. C ability and satisfaction. d ability and motivation.

ANSWER "D" The "classic" performance equation is P = f{A X M}, which means that performance is a function of ability and motivation. Research has suggested that ability is more important in this equation than motivation, and that other factors (e.g., environmental factors) also play a role in performance. However, contrary to the other choices, neither interest nor satisfaction has been found to be highly correlated with performance.

Neuropsychology 15. The Dopamine Hypothesis was based on research findings indicating that: A psychomotor stimulants activate dopamine receptors B brain dopamine is involved in neuroleptic-induced extrapyramidal motor disturbances C dopamine levels are lower in patients with Schizophrenia d both a and b

ANSWER "D" The Dopamine Hypothesis was originally based on two important findings: that antipsychotic medications, which can cause motor disturbances, affect dopamine in the brain; and that stimulants activate dopamine receptors. This latter finding is often neglected. However, knowing that stimulants stimulate dopamine helps explain why individuals intoxicated with cocaine or amphetamine often develop psychotic-like symptoms [A.A. Baumeister and J.L. Francis, Historical development of the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, Journal of the History of the Neurosciences, 2002, 11(3), 265-277].

School Psychology/Intelligence 67. Digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing subtests on the WAIS-III are used to calculate which of the following indices? A perceptual organization B processing speed C verbal comprehension d working memory

ANSWER "D" The WAIS-III measures four factors: Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Organization, Working Memory, and Processing Speed. The Working Memory index is comprised of digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing. The Perceptual Organization index (A) is calculated with scores on picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning. Processing Speed (B) is based upon digit symbol and symbol search. And the Verbal Comprehension index (C) uses scores on the vocabulary, similarities, and information subtests.

Neuropsychology 107. Possible side effects of the benzodiazepines include all of the following, EXCEPT: A drowsiness B short-term memory dysfunction C impaired psychomotor functioning d impaired concept formation

ANSWER "D" The benzodiazepines (also known as anxiolytics and "minor tranquilizers") are anti-anxiety agents; they include drugs such as Valium, Xanax, Halcion, and Ativan. Their major side effects include drowsiness, impaired psychomotor abilities, and impaired short-term memory (particularly anterograde amnesia); more rarely, dizziness, ataxia, allergic reactions, nausea, and aggression have been reported as side effects. They are not, however, associated with impaired concept formation.

Neuropsychology 163. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in: A Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder B Jacob Creutzfeld Disease C Schizophrenia d Huntington's Disease

ANSWER "D" The caudate nucleus is part of the basal ganglia which is responsible for initiating movement. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in patients with Huntington's Disease which is a disorder which includes affective, motor, and cognitive symptoms. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder ("A") is believed to be related to an overactive caudate nucleus.

Research Design and Statistics 96. You are conducting a study to examine the differences in reaction time between elderly people and young people. Subjects are asked to view stimuli on a computer screen and to press a lever every time they see certain target stimuli. Your results indicate that younger people respond faster than older people, and you conclude that reaction time is faster for younger people. Your conclusion is faulty because of A carry-over effects. B differential attrition effects. C a selection bias. d cohort effects.

ANSWER "D" The study described here is an example of a cross-sectional design, in which two or more different age groups are compared to determine whether aging has an effect on a particular dependent variable. A problem with cross-sectional designs is cohort effects. This refers to differences between the groups in experience rather than age that could be accounting for differences between them on the dependent variable. Cohort effects seem like a particularly plausible explanation for the results here, since it's likely that young people have more experience with computers than older people.

Ethics and Professional Practice 193. A psychologist sees clients at a facility where fees are capitated. What does this mean? A providers are paid a fee each time a service is performed B clients are billed according to their ability to play C clients are required to meet a deductible before their insurance will pay d providers receive a fixed dollar amount over a specific period of time to cover the service needs of a fixed number of clients

ANSWER "D" The term "capitation" refers to a fixed amount of money paid per person, not by the visit or procedure. Managed care companies usually express capitation in terms of cost per member per month. As stated in response "D," providers are paid a specific dollar amount, for a specific time period, to cover the service needs of a specific number of people. If a provider exceeds his or her capitated payment, he or she may not be able to cover his or her costs and, consequently, may limit his or her services.

Neuropsychology 192. A female patient had a small tumor removed from the rear part of her right cerebral hemisphere. During the operation, it was necessary to remove the primary visual cortex from the right side of her brain. As a result, she became blind in the: A right part of the visual field of her right eye. B left part of the visual field of her left eye. C right part of the visual field of both eyes. d left part of the visual field of both eyes.

ANSWER "D" The visual system, once the neural stimulation leaves the retina, goes back up into the brain and eventually stimulates the visual cortex at the back of the brain (in the occipital lobes). An interesting feature of the visual system is that the images cross over so that on the right side of the brain we are imaging the left visual field, and on the left side of the brain we are imaging the right visual field. Now in this case, the woman has the visual cortex of the right hemisphere removed. Thus, she would not be able to see anything in the opposite visual field, i.e., the left field. The reason that it has to be from both eyes is that by the time the images get up to the cortex, the information from both eyes has already converged, like streams leading into a large river.

Research Design and Statistics 109. The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be A maturation. B selection. C regression. d history.

ANSWER "D" To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you'd need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You'd have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.

Clinical Psychology 191. Irving Yalom (1985) felt the most important therapeutic factors in groups were: A Altruism, universality, installation of hope B Instillation of hope, catharsis, existential factors, C Cohesiveness, altruism, universality d Interpersonal learning, cathrasis and cohesiveness .

ANSWER "D" Yalom felt the most important factors in group process were interpersonal learning, which gave members an opportunity to learn valuable interpersonal skills, catharsis, where group members are able to openly express their feelings in front of other members, and group cohesiveness where group members feel a sense of cohesiveness and friendliness with other group members. However the importance of these factors is relative. Higher functioning group participants rate interpersonal learning and universality as more important. In lower functioning clients the instillation of hope is deemed most important.

Ethics and Professional Practice 114. Situations that legally permit a waiver of the privilege: A differ from state to state. B differ from state to state only in situations when clients are involuntarily hospitalized. C do not differ from state to state when clients are involuntarily hospitalized. d do not differ from state to state

ANSWER "A" A. Legally-defined exceptions to privilege varies from state to state. However, most, if not all, states, waive privilege when a psychologist is acting in a court-appointed capacity; a client initiates a malpractice or other lawsuit against a therapist; a client has introduced a mental condition as a defense in a civil suit; a client has sought the assistance of a therapist solely for the purpose of committing a crime; and a therapist determines that a client is in need of hospitalization

Learning Theory and Behavior Therapy 172. A sequence of behaviors, in which each behavior serves as reinforcement for the previous behavior, is the outcome of A chaining. B shaping. C positive reinforcement. d graded exposure.

ANSWER "A" According to the operant conditioning paradigm, chaining is how complex behaviors made up of a sequence of simpler behaviors are developed. In chaining, each response serves as reinforcement for the previous behavior and a discriminant stimulus for the next behavior on the chain.

Research Design and Statistics 166. Randomly selecting certain schools from a large school district and then including all teachers in those schools or a random sample of teachers from those schools in your study is referred to as A cluster sampling. B stratified sampling. C systematic sampling. d nested sampling.

ANSWER "A" In this situation, you are starting out the sampling processing by selecting naturally occurring groups (clusters) of subjects. This is referred to as cluster sampling, and is useful when it's not feasible to directly sample individuals from the population.

Neuropsychology 125. Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following? A sensory systems B motor systems C memory d mood

ANSWER "A" Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not "shared with" the left hemisphere.

School Psychology/Intelligence 116. Which of the following would have the least detrimental effect on low-achieving students in a school? A placing them in a classroom with other children whose abilities are wide-ranging B instructing teachers to lower their expectations for these children C placing them in a classroom consisting only of other low achievers d placing them into an advanced class for high achievers

ANSWER "A" Research shows that low-achieving students do better in heterogenous classes than in those in which students are grouped by ability (by the way, just in case it comes up on the exam, you should know that the term for grouping students by ability is "tracking").

Clinical Psychology 20. Eric Berne feels which of the following reflect a person's characteristic pattern of giving and receiving strokes? A Life position B Transaction C Script d Ego state

ANSWER "C" Berne called a person's life plan a script, and espoused that it reflected the person's characteristic pattern of giving and receiving strokes. The life position (A) is one of the I'm OK, You're OK Sequence. Transaction (B) was the term for communication between ego states and (D) the ego states are parent, child, adult.

Developmental Psychology 144. You pour water from a short, fat glass into a tall, thin glass. You ask a child if there is more water in the thin glass than there was in the fat glass. The child says, "No. The amount of water has not changed." The child has attained at least the _____________ stage of cognitive development. A sensorimotor B preoperational C formal operational d concrete operational

ANSWER "D" The child is displaying the ability to conserve, or understand that the fundamental properties of objects do not necessarily change just because their appearance changes. Conservation develops systematically during the concrete operational stage of cognitive development (ages 7-11).

Ethics and Professional Practice 138. Which of the following terms refers to the right to refuse to have information released in a legal proceeding? A privileged communication B confidentiality C privacy d juris secretas

ANSWER "A" "Privileged communication" is the legal term which refers to a patient's right to refuse to have information, disclosed in psychotherapy, released in a legal proceeding.

Clinical Psychology 118. The term "success identity" is associated with: A Eric Berne B William Glasser C Fritz Perls d Carl Rogers

ANSWER "B" B. According to Glasser's Reality Therapy, when an individual is capable of fulfilling his or her own needs for survival, power, belonging, freedom and fun, without harming self or infringing on the rights of others, then he or she has developed a "success identity." When the needs are met irresponsibly then the individual has developed a "failure identity." Bern (a.) is associated with transactional analysis (TA); Perls (c.) is associated with gestalt therapy; and Rogers (d.) is associated with client-centered therapy.

Diagnosis and Psychopathology 52. First degree relatives of schizophrenics are more likely is to be diagnosed as: A Schizotypal B Schizopheniform C Schizoaffective d Borderline Personality disorder

ANSWER "A" According to DSM-IV, Schizotypal Personality Disorder appears to aggregate familially and is more prevalent among the first-degree biological relatives of individuals with Schizophrenia than among the general population.

Test Construction 16. Limited "floor" would be the biggest problem when a test will be used to A distinguish between mildly and moderately retarded children. B distinguish between above-average and gifted students. C distinguish between successful and unsuccessful trainees. d distinguish between satisfied and dissatisfied customers.

ANSWER "A" "Floor" refers to a test's ability to distinguish between examinees at the low end of the distribution, which would be an issue when distinguishing between those with mild versus moderate retardation. Limited floor occurs when the test does not contain enough easy items. Note that "ceiling" would be of concern for tests designed to distinguish between examinees at the high end of the distribution (answer B).

Neuropsychology 190. Excluding the olfactory nerves, sensory afferent nerves run through which part of the brain? A caudate nucleus B cerebellum C thalamus d cingulate gyrus

ANSWER "C" The thalamus acts as a "relay station" for all the senses except smell. That is, it receives impulses from the senses and then transmits the information to other parts of the brain. Olfactory information is projected to various parts of the limbic system.

Clinical Psychology 131. The best predictor of therapy success would be A symptoms. B dependency. C previous treatment. d misery.

ANSWER "D" Among these four alternatives, it's probably the person who shows the most distress (misery) who would be the most motivated to seek and make use of treatment. Making the symptoms dystonic and difficult to bear will enhance motivation.