Exam #5 (Ch #83-88, #91, #93)
A patient who takes ciprofloxacin [Cipro] and runs 6 miles daily tells a nurse about heel and calf tenderness. The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider to take which action? A. No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect B. Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication C. Slow the running pace and walk more D. Discontinue the medication, because severe damage can result
D
A patient who was taking sulfonamides develops Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Upon assessment, the nurse expects to find what? A. Hypotension B. Bronchospasm C. Temperature of 35.5° C D. Widespread skin lesions
D
A prescriber states that a patient will need to receive penicillin intravenously. The nurse anticipates administering which drug? A. Penicillin V B. Procaine penicillin G C. Benzathine penicillin G D. Potassium penicillin G
D
Before administering erythromycin to a patient for an upper respiratory tract infection, it is most important for the nurse to determine if the patient is also prescribed which drug? A. Guaifenesin [Guiatuss] B. Hydrocodone [Vicodin] C. Nitroglycerin [Tridil] D. Verapamil [Calan]
D
It is most important for the nurse to assess a patient receiving a cephalosporin for the development of which manifestation of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis (AAPMC)? A. Rigidity B. Ileus C. Ascites D. Diarrhea
D
It is most important for the nurse to avoid administering oral ciprofloxacin to this patient with which food? A. Bananas B. Baked chicken C. Grapefruit juice D. Milk
D
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous gentamicin for a severe bacterial infection. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of gentamycin therapy? A. Blurred vision B. Hand tremors C. Urinary frequency D. Tinnitus
D
A nurse is preparing to administer ganciclovir [Cytovene] to a patient for treatment of Cytomegalovirus (CMV) pneumonitis. Which laboratory result should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to use of this drug? A. Neutrophil count below 500/mm3 B. Platelet count of 350,000/mm3 C. Serum calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL D. Reduced forced vital capacity (FVC)
A
A nurse should teach a patient to observe for which side effects when taking ampicillin? A. Skin rash and loose stools B. Reddened tongue and gums C. Digit numbness and tingling D. Bruising and petechiae
A
A patient develops flushing, rash, and pruritus during an IV infusion of vancomycin [Vancocin]. Which action should a nurse take? A. Reduce the infusion rate B. Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl] C. Change the IV tubing D. Check the patency of the IV
A
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA). When taking the patient's history, a nurse recognizes which information as the most important? A. Plays a contact sport and is an athlete B. Currently resides in a long-term care facility C. Did not complete the last course of antibiotics D. Had gallbladder surgery in the previous month
A
A patient is prescribed an antibiotic to treat a urinary tract infection. What statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I can stop the medication as soon as the symptoms I have disappeared" B. "I will drink more fluids to help clear up the infection" C. "I will stop the medication and contact the doctor if I develop a rash" D. "I should immediately report vaginal itching or discharge"
A
A patient is receiving an aminoglycoside (tobramycin) antibiotic. A nurse asks the patient to choose daily meal selections, to which the patient responds, "Oh, dear, I don't want another IV." The nurse makes which assessment about the patient's response? A. Some hearing loss may have occurred B. The confusion is due to the hospital stay C. A nutrition consult most likely is needed D. The patient has a family history of dementia.
A
A patient is receiving local applications of mafenide [Sulfamylon] to burn areas. Before application, it is most important for the nurse to do what? A. Administer a pain medication B. Obtain a set of vital signs C. Auscultate the lung fields D. Obtain a signed consent form.
A
A patient is receiving penicillin G [Bicillin C-R]. Which assessment should the nurse monitor as an indicator of an undesired effect? A. Cardiac rhythm B. Serum sodium levels C. Lung sounds D. Red blood cell count
A
A patient who has a vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) infection is receiving linezolid [Zyvox]. Which laboratory result indicates that the patient is having an adverse effect? A. White blood cell (WBC) count of 1200 units/L B. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 18 g/dL C. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/dL D. Glucose level of 200 mg/dL
A
After completing a course of ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a skin infection, the patient says, "I took the whole bottle of pills, but my infection hasn't gotten any better." Which additional information should the nurse recognize as most significant? A. The patient takes antacids on a daily basis B. The medication was stored in a cool, dry area C. The patient did not use sunscreen while taking the ciprofloxacin [Cipro] D. The patient took two doses of diphenhydramine [Benadryl] while on ciprofloxacin [Cipro] therapy.
A
Before administering an aminoglycoside, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Asthma C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus
A
Both IV ampicillin/sulbactam [Unasyn] and gentamicin are ordered for a patient. When administering these medications, the nurse will do what? A. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used B. Use two different peripheral IV sites C. Administer the gentamicin first D. There are no necessary precautions
A
The patient is being discharged with continued ciprofloxacin therapy. When providing discharge teaching, the nurse should advise the patient to call the healthcare provider immediately if what develops? A. Pain in the heel of the foot B. Nausea C. Diarrhea D. Headache
A
Which medications does the nurse identify as having antibacterial properties? (Select all that apply.) A. Rifampin B. Zidovudine C. Imipenem D. Amphotericin B E. Amantadine
A, C
What drug group does "-mycin" belong to?
Aminoglycoside
A nurse develops a plan of care for a patient who has an outbreak of recurrent genital herpes and is taking oral acyclovir [Zovirax]. Which outcome should be included? A. Minimal scarring from lesions B. Less frequent eruption of lesions C. Prevention of transmission to contacts D. Complete eradication of the virus
B
A nurse is administering a daily dose of tobramycin at 1000. At which time should the nurse obtain the patient's blood sample to determine the trough level? A. 0800 B. 0900 C. 1130 D. 1200
B
A patient asks the nurse what he can do to prevent influenza. What should the nurse do? A. Teach the patient about antiviral medications B. Instruct the patient to obtain an influenza vaccination C. Tell the patient that frequent hand washing is effective D. Have the patient wear a mask when in public areas
B
A patient is diagnosed with C. difficile infection. The nurse anticipates administering which medication? A. Daptomycin B. Metronidazole C. Rifampin D. Rifaximin
B
Which instruction should a nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient who is to start taking tetracycline? A. "You may stop taking the pills when you begin to feel better." B. "Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors." C. "You'll have to come back to the clinic for weekly blood work." D. "Take the medication with yogurt or milk so you won't have nausea."
B
Which instructions should a nurse provide to a patient who is to start taking amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]? A. "Take Augmentin once per day and only at bedtime" B. "Augmentin may be taken with food or meals" C. "Avoid taking Augmentin with grapefruit juice" D. "Use a minimal amount of liquid to swallow the Augmentin"
B
Which are examples of the improper use of antibiotic therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. Using surgical drainage as an adjunct to antibiotic therapy B. Treating a viral infection C. Basing treatment on sensitivity reports D. Treating fever in an immunodeficient patient E. Using dosing that results in a superinfection
B, E
A nurse is providing teaching to a group of patients regarding flu season in the United States. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching? A. In the United States, flu season usually peaks in October or November B. To ensure full protection, the best time to vaccinate is September C. For people who missed the best time, vaccinating as late as April may be of help D. The influenza vaccine may not be administered at the same time as the pneumococcal vaccine
C
A microbe acquires antibiotic resistance by which means? A. Development of medication resistance in the host B. Overriding of the minimum bactericidal concentration C. Incorrect dosing, which contributes to ribosome mutations D. Transfer of DNA coding to other bacteria
D
A nurse assessing a patient who is 12 years old should associate which complication with the patient's receiving tetracycline as a younger child? A. Delay in long bone growth B. Early onset of puberty C. Severe face and body acne D. Discoloration of the teeth
D
A nurse should recognize that which sulfonamide, applied topically, has the greatest therapeutic benefit for burns? A. Sulfadiazine B. Trimethoprim [Primsol] C. Sulfacetamide [Bleph-10] D. Silver sulfadiazine [Silvadene]
D
A patient has described docosanol [Abreva] cream for herpes labialis. Which statement will the nurse include in patient teaching? A. Apply the cream twice a day B. Use of the cream will cut the duration of the herpes simplex lesion in half C. Many serious adverse effects are associated with use of this medication D. Apply the cream at the first sign of recurrence
D
A patient is prescribed cefazolin. It is most important for the nurse to teach the patient to avoid which substance while taking cefazolin? A. Warfarin B. Milk products C. Digitalis D. Alcohol
D
A patient is prescribed vancomycin orally for antibiotic associated pseudo-membranous colitis. The nurse will monitor the patient for what? A. Leukopenia B. "Red Man" syndrome C. Liver impairment D. Ototoxicity
D
A patient taking gemifloxacin develops a rash. The nurse anticipates the healthcare provider to take which action? A. No action is needed, because this is a temporary but expected side effect B. Continue the antibiotic with an anti-inflammatory medication C. Cut the dose of medication in half D. Discontinue the medication
D
A patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) has a urinalysis result with all of these findings. Which finding should a nurse associate most clearly with an adverse effect of gentamicin? A. White blood cells (WBCs) B. Glucose C. Ketones D. Protein
D
A patient who is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin] IV for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection asks a nurse, "Why can't I take this medicine in a pill?" Which response should the nurse make? A. "The prescription could be changed, because vancomycin comes in two forms." B. "You're allergic to penicillin, and this is the only way this medication can be given." C. "It will cause too much loss of appetite and nausea if given in the oral form." D. "It is more effective by IV, because the pill form will stay in the digestive tract."
D
What drug group does "-xacin" belong to?
Fluoroquinolone
What drug group does "-cillin" belong to?
Penicillin
What is the abbreviation for the drug combination of Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
TMP/SMZ
What drug group does "-cycline" belong to?
Tetracycline
The patient is ordered daily divided doses of gentamycin. The patient received an intravenous dose of gentamycin at 4pm. When should the nurse obtain the peak level? A. 4:30pm B. 5pm C. 5:30pm D. 6pm
A
Which approach should a nurse take to administer intravenous (IV) acyclovir [Zovirax] to an immunocompromised patient? A. Infuse IV fluids during administration of the dose and for 2 hours afterward B. Administer IV acyclovir diluted in 20 mL normal saline (NS) over 10 minutes C. Only infuse the drug if the white blood cell (WBC) count is above 2500/mm3 D. Ask the provider to change the route to subcutaneous (subQ) injection
A
Which statement about allergic reactions to penicillin does the nurse identify as true? A. Anaphylactic reactions occur more frequently with penicillins than with any other drug B. Allergy to penicillin always increases over time C. Benadryl is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis due to penicillin allergy D. Patients allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin
A
Which statements about vancomycin [Vancocin] does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Vancomycin is the most widely used antibiotic in U.S. hospitals B. Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of Clostridium difficile infection C. Vancomycin is effective in the treatment of MRSA infections D. Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin E. The major toxicity of vancomycin therapy is liver failure.
A, B, C
A nurse administering flu vaccines at an annual clinic should recognize that which individuals should be vaccinated, as recommended by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP)? (Select all that apply.) A. Women who will be pregnant during flu season B. All children 6 months and older and older adults C. Those who report severe allergy to chicken eggs D. Those who have a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome E. Those 6 months to 18 years old receiving aspirin therapy
A, B, E
The nurse identifies appropriate use of antimicrobials to prevent infection in which situations? (Select all that apply.) A. Cardiac surgery B. Recurrent urinary tract infections in women C. Anemia D. Treatment of fever of unknown origin E. Hysterectomy
A, B, E
The nurse identifies which statements about Stevens-Johnson syndrome as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Patients with Stevens-Johnson syndrome have a mortality rate of about 25% B. Toxemia is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome C. Short-acting sulfonamides do not induce Stevens-Johnson syndrome D. Patients with Stevens-Johnson syndrome usually are hypothermic E. Lesions of the mucous membranes are a characteristic of Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
A, B, E
The nurse identifies which statements about penicillins as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Penicillins are the safest antibiotics available B. The principal adverse effect of penicillins is allergic reaction C. A patient who is allergic to penicillin always has a cross-allergy to cephalosporins D. A patient who is allergic to penicillin is also allergic to vancomycin, erythromycin, and clindamycin E. Penicillins are normally eliminated rapidly by the kidneys but can accumulate to harmful levels if renal function is severely impaired
A, B, E
Which instructions will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cephalosporin therapy? (Select all that apply.) A. "Notify your healthcare provider if you develop diarrhea." B. "Take aspirin if you develop a headache." C. "Notify your healthcare provider if you develop a rash." D. "Cephalosporins may not be taken with food." E. "Do not take cephalosporins if you have lactose intolerance."
A, C
A nurse should recognize that antibiotic prophylaxis is appropriate in patients with which medical conditions? (Select all that apply.) A. Aortic valve replacement B. Ruptured appendix C. Bronchitis D. Neutropenia E. Chickenpox
A, D
Which statement about superinfections does the nurse identify as true? A. Superinfections are more common in patients treated with narrow-spectrum drugs B. Superinfection is defined as a new infection that appears during the course of treatment for a primary infection C. Superinfections are caused by viruses D. Superinfections are easy to treat
B
A patient has been prescribed oral ciprofloxacin [Cipro] for a skin infection. When administering the medication, it is most important for the nurse to do what? A. Monitor for a decrease in the prothrombin time (PT) if the patient is also taking warfarin [Coumadin] B. Withhold antacids and milk products for 6 hours before or 2 hours afterward C. Inform the healthcare provider if the patient has a history of asthma D. Assess the skin for Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B
A patient is prescribed acyclovir [Zovirax] by mouth. The nurse should assess for which adverse effects associated with oral acyclovir therapy? A. Stomatitis and gastritis B. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea C. Hives, difficulty breathing, and angioedema D. Tinnitus and decreased hearing
B
A patient is prescribed cefixime. The nurse should teach the patient to immediately report any signs of what? A. Milk intolerance B. Skin rash, hives, or itching C. Constipation, nausea, or vomiting D. Headache, contusions, or seizures
B
A patient taking a sulfonamide is breast-feeding an infant. Which complication in the infant would the nurse associate with kernicterus? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Neurologic deficits C. Hepatocellular failure D. Ophthalmic infection
B
A patient who sustained second- and third- degree burns has been prescribed mafenide. Which statement about mafenide does the nurse identify as true? A. Use of mafenide can cause alkalosis B. Mafenide is painful upon application C. A blue-green to gray discoloration of the skin occurs with mafenide therapy D. Mafenide exerts its therapeutic effect by the release of free silver
B
A patient who takes multiple antibiotics starts to experience diarrheal stools. The nurse anticipates administration of which antibiotic if a stool sample tests positive for Clostridium difficile? A. Rifaximin [Xifaxan] B. Metronidazole [Flagyl] C. Daptomycin [Cubicin] D. Gemifloxacin [Factive]
B
A patient with a history of a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin has an order to receive cephalosporin. What should the nurse do? A. Administer the cephalosporin as ordered B. Contact the health care provider for a different antibiotic C. Administer a test dose of cephalosporin to determine reactivity D. Have an epinephrine dose available when administering the cephalosporin
B
Before administering gentamycin, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A. Hypertension B. Myasthenia gravis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Asthma
B
Before administering intravenous (IV) penicillin, the nurse should do what? A. Flush the IV site with normal saline B. Assess the patient for allergies C. Review the patients intake and output record D. Determine the latest creatinine clearance result
B
Before administering trimethoprim, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A. Heart failure B. Alcoholism C. Diabetes D. Emphysema
B
The development of a new infection as a result of the elimination of normal flora by an antibiotic is referred to as what? A. Resistant infection B. Superinfection C. Nosocomial infection D. Allergic reaction
B
The nurse identifies which host factor as the most important when choosing an antimicrobial drug? A. Age B. Competent immune function C. Genetic heritage D. Previous medication reactions
B
The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a sulfonamide for treatment of a urinary tract infection. To monitor the patient for the most severe response to sulfonamide therapy, the nurse will assess for what? A. Diarrhea B. Skin rash and lesions C. Hypertension D. Bleeding
B
The nurse is receiving laboratory values from a patient who has been prescribed gentamicin. To prevent ototoxicity, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which value(s)? A. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels B. Trough drug levels of gentamicin C. Peak drug levels of gentamicin D. Serum alanine aminotransferase and asparatate aminotransferase levels
B
The nurse knows that there is an increased risk of ototoxicity in a patient receiving an aminoglycoside if which level is high? A. Concentration B. Trough C. Peak D. Dose
B
What does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of clindamycin [Cleocin] therapy? A. Cyanosis and gray discoloration of the skin B. Frequent loose, watery stools with mucus and blood C. Reduction in all blood cells produced in the bone marrow D. Elevated bilirubin, with dark urine and jaundice
B
When administering an aminoglycoside to a patient with myasthenia gravis, it is most important for the nurse to assess what? A. Deep tendon reflexes B. Breath sounds C. Eyelid movement D. Muscle strength
B
When caring for a patient receiving mafenide [Sulfamylon] for treatment of a severe burn, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory value? A. Blood glucose level B. Acid-base status C. Sodium level D. Peak mafenide level
B
Which cardiovascular finding does the nurse identify as a possible adverse effect of erythromycin [Ery-Tab] therapy? A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute B. Prolonged QT interval C. Jugular vein distention D. Grade III diastolic murmur
B
Which patient should receive prophylactic antibiotic therapy? A. A patient who is to have his teeth cleaned B. A patient who is scheduled for a hysterectomy C. A patient with a white blood cell count of 8000 cells/mm3 D. A patient with a high fever without an identifiable cause
B
A nurse is assessing the effects of antimicrobial therapy in a patient with pneumonia. The nurse should establish which outcomes when planning care? (Select all that apply.) A. Potassium level of 4 mEq/dL B. Reduction of fever C. Sterile sputum cultures D. Oxygen saturation of 98% E. Elastic skin turgor
B, C, D
When performing a skin test for penicillin allergy, the nurse will do what? (Select all that apply.) A. Inject a tiny amount of the allergen subcutaneously B. Observe for a local allergic response C. Have epinephrine readily available D. Have respiratory support readily available E. Administer diphenhydramine [Benadryl] as the first-line agent should anaphylaxis occur
B, C, D
Which statements about CDAD associated with clindamycin therapy does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A. Leukopenia commonly occurs B. It is a potentially fatal condition C. Patients usually experience abdominal pain D. Anticholinergics are effective in treating the diarrhea E. Clindamycin therapy should be discontinued and vancomycin started.
B, C, E
A nurse monitors a patient who is receiving an aminoglycoside (gentamicin) for symptoms of vestibular damage. Which finding should the nurse expect the patient to have first? A. Unsteadiness B. Vertigo C. Headache D. Dizziness
C
A nurse observes a red streak and palpates the vein as hard and cordlike at the intravenous (IV) site of a patient receiving cefepime [Maxipime]. Which assessment should the nurse make about the IV site? A. An allergic reaction has developed to the drug solution B. The drug has infiltrated the extravascular tissues C. Phlebitis of the vein used for the antibiotic has developed D. Local infection from bacterial contamination has occurred.
C
A patient has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for treatment of a urinary tract infection with E. coli. Before administering the drug, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of what? A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Myasthenia gravis D. Seasonal allergies
C
A patient is prescribed doxycycline [Vibramycin]. If the patient complains of gastric irritation, what should the nurse do? A. Instruct the patient to take the medication with milk B. Tell the patient to take an antacid with the medication C. Give the patient food, such as crackers or toast, with the medication D. Have the patient stop the medication immediately and contact the health care provider
C
A patient is receiving vancomycin [Vancocin]. The nurse identifies what as the most common toxic effect of vancomycin therapy? A. Ototoxicity B. Hepatotoxicity C. Renal toxicity D. Cardiac toxicity
C
A patient who has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is receiving trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole [Bactrim]. Which response should a nurse expect if the medication is achieving the desired effect? A. Increase in CD4 T cells B. Increased appetite and weight gain C. Resolution of pneumonia D. Decrease in joint pain
C
A patient who takes warfarin has been prescribed sulfadiazine. When teaching the patient about this drug, which statement will the nurse include? A. "If you become pregnant, it is safe to take sulfadiazine" B. "You should limit your fluid intake while taking sulfadiazine" C. "Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight, wear protective clothing, and apply a sunscreen to exposed skin" D. "You will most likely need to have an increase in the dose of warfarin while taking sulfadiazine"
C
An antimicrobial medication that has selective toxicity has which characteristic? A. Ability to transfer DNA coding B. Ability to suppress bacterial resistance C. Ability to avoid injuring host cells D. Ability to act against a specific microbe
C
An immunocompromised patient who is receiving piperacillin/tazobactam [Zosyn] develops oozing and bleeding from the gums. Which additional data should the nurse determine? A. Whether the patient has a fever above 100.5°F B. Whether the patient reports any painful teeth C. The most recent platelet count D. The last time mouth care was given
C
Before administering a cephalosporin to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for an allergy history to what? A. Soy products B. Peanuts C. Penicillins D. Opioids
C
Fluoroquinolones should be discontinued immediately if what happens? A. Nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is experienced B. Dizziness, headache, or confusion occurs C. Tendon pain or inflammation develops D. Theophylline is prescribed for asthma
C
The nurse identifies which medication as posing a significant risk of causing confusion, somnolence, psychosis, and visual disturbances in elderly patients? A. Metronidazole [Flagyl] B. Rifampin [Rifadin] C. Ciprofloxacin [Cipro] D. Daptomycin [Cubicin]
C
The nurse identifies which medication as the drug of choice for most infections caused by herpes simplex viruses and varicella-zoster virus? A. Ganiciclovir B. Amantadine C. Acyclovir D. Oseltamivir
C
When providing patient teaching for oral sulfonamide therapy, the nurse should instruct the patient to take the sulfonamide in what way? A. At mealtime, when food is available B. With soy or nonmilk products C. Between meals with a full cup of water D. On awakening before breakfast
C
Which statement about oseltamivir [Tamiflu] does the nurse identify as true? A. Oseltamivir must be administered on an empty stomach B. The drug is administered via an inhaler C. Oseltamivir can be used to treat and prevent influenza D. The drug is approved for use in infants 6 months of age or older
C
Which statements about ototoxicity and aminoglycosides does the nurse identify as true? (Select all that apply.) A. The risk of ototoxicity is related primarily to excessive peak levels B. The first sign of impending cochlear damage is headache C. The first sign of impending vestibular damage is headache D. Ototoxicity is largely irreversible E. Use of aminoglycosides for less than 10 days is recommended to avoid ototoxicity.
C, D, E
Thirty minutes after receiving an intramuscular (IM) injection of penicillin G [Pfizerpen], a patient reports itching and redness at the injection site. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Elevate the lower legs B. Place an ice pack on the site C. Make sure the patient stays clam D. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine
D
Which tetracycline may be administered with meals? A. Tetracycline B. Demeclocycline C. Doxycycline D. Minocycline
D