Final

1. A public health agency is planning to implement the electronic health record. Which of the following is a benefit of this choice? a. Facilitation of interprofessional care b. Improved client compliance with medical regimens c. Cost savings to the agency d. Compliance with JCAHO standards

ANS: A The electronic medical record facilitates interprofessional care in chronic disease management and coordination of referrals; 24-hour availability of records with downloaded laboratory results and up-to-date assessments; incorporation of protocol reminders for prevention, screening, and management of chronic disease; improvement of quality measurement and monitoring; increased client safety; and decline in medication errors. There is not evidence that an electronic health record improves client compliance with medical regimens. Electronic health records can increase costs to an agency. JCAHO does not accredit public health agencies.

18. A nurse explained to a new mother that because she had tested positive for the hepatitis B virus, her newborn son would need the hepatitis B vaccine immediately and then also an immune globulin injection. "Wait," said the new mother. "Why is my son getting two shots?" Which of the following statements would be the best response by the nurse? a. "One injection protects your son, while the other encourages his body to build up immunity." b. "One shot keeps your son from getting sick, while the other is a typical vaccine to prevent you from accidentally infecting him." c. "Since you've already been infected with the virus, your son needs twice as much protection." d. "The second shot is just to make sure the first one works."

ANS: A Because infected persons may not have any symptoms, all pregnant women should be tested for HBsAg. If the mother tests positive, her newborn needs hepatitis B immune globulin to provide passive immunity and thus prevent infection. In addition, the newborn is given the hepatitis B vaccine at birth, with two follow-up injections, to build active immunity to the infection. One of the shots provides passive immunity and the other provides active immunity. The active immunity continues to be built up by receiving two follow-up injections weeks later.

Which of the following biological warfare agents poses the greatest bioterrorism threat to a community? a. Anthrax b. Botulism c. Smallpox d. Tularemia

ANS: A Because of factors such as the ability to become an aerosol, the resistance to environmental degradation, and a high fatality rate, inhalational anthrax is considered to have an extremely high potential for being the single greatest biological warfare threat. Botulism, smallpox, and tularemia do not have the ability to be transmitted through a resistant aersol that is highly fatal.

1. Which of the following best describes community-based nursing? a. A practice in which care is provided for individuals and families b. Providing care with a focus on the group's needs c. Giving care with a focus on the aggregate's needs d. A value system in which all clients receive optimal care

ANS: A By definition, community-based nursing is a setting-specific practice in which care is provided for "sick" individuals and families where they live, work, and attend school. The emphasis is on acute and chronic care and the provision of comprehensive, coordinated, and continuous care. These nurses may be generalists or specialists in maternal-infant, pediatric, adult, or psychiatric mental health nursing. Community-based nursing emphasizes acute and chronic care to individuals and families, rather than focusing on groups, aggregates, or systems.

7. Which of the following actions represents the use of secondary prevention to reduce environmental health risks? a. Collecting blood specimens from preschool children to check for lead levels b. Meeting with local government officials to request that the city clean up a hazardous vacant lot c. Referring a child with toxic lead levels to a neurologist d. Teaching parents of a 2-year-old about the dangers of lead-based paint in older homes

ANS: A Secondary prevention refers to actions such as surveillance and screening, which are undertaken so that problems may be detected at early stages. Meeting with local government officials to request that the city clean up a hazardous vacant lot and referring child with toxic lead levels to a neurologist are examples of tertiary prevention as the problem already exists. Education to avoid exposure is part of primary prevention which relates to teaching parents about the dangers of lead-based pain in older homes.

14. A nurse is examining all of the various factors which can lead to disease. Which of the following models would the nurse most likely use? a. Epidemiologic triangle b. Health promotion c. Levels of prevention d. Natural history of disease

ANS: A The epidemiologic triangle categorizes factors as agent, host, or environment. The model encourages the health care provider to examine all the influences that lead to increased risk. Levels of prevention are actions taken to improve health outcomes. Health promotion addresses health improvement, not the risk for disease.

6. Which of the following best represents an example of infectious disease spreading via a vector? a. Being bitten by an infected mosquito b. Disease spreading from infected mother to infant via the placenta c. A group of partygoers hugging and shaking hands d. Two persons, one of whom is infected, sharing a glass of soda

ANS: A Vectors include mosquitoes, which can transmit the infectious agent by biting the host. Vertical transmission is the passing of infection from parent to offspring via placenta. Horizontal transmission is the person-to-person spread of infection through (among other ways) contact. Common vehicle refers to transportation of the infectious agent from an infected host to a susceptible host via food, water, milk, or other substance.

21. A mother felt very guilty that her baby was born HIV positive. When the nurse suggested the usual DPT and MMR immunizations, the mother was extremely upset. "Don't you know HIV children are immunosuppressed?" she exclaimed. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "All children have to have these immunizations before they can attend school." b. "Being HIV positive, your child is more likely to catch an infection and be very ill if not immunized." c. "I'm so sorry; I forgot for a moment your child was HIV positive." d. "The American Pediatric Association requires all health care providers to offer these immunizations to all parents; it is your choice whether or not to accept them."

ANS: B Because of impaired immunity, children with HIV infection are more likely to get childhood diseases and suffer serious consequences of the diseases. Therefore, DPT, IPV, and MMR vaccines should be given at regularly scheduled times for children infected with HIV. Other immunizations may also be recommended after medical evaluation. Although this child is HIV positive, there is no medical reason why the child should not be immunized. Many states do have a "no shots, no school" law, but exceptions can be made. The APA does recommend immunizations for most children, but this is not the best answer.

6. Which of the following statements about children and environmental hazards is correct? a. The prevalence of autism is directly related to the increase in environmental toxins. b. Children are more susceptible to environmental toxins because of their smaller size. c. The incidence of asthma among children has been decreasing. d. Children are more susceptible to cancer if they have a family history of the disease.

ANS: B Because of the smaller size of children, they are exposed to higher doses of pesticide residues in the foods they eat and drink. Infants and young children drink more fluids per body weight than adults, and this increases the dose of contaminants in their drinking water, milk (hormones and antibiotics), and juices (particularly pesticides). Only a smal percentage of childhood cancers are associated with heredity. However, exposure to ionizing radiation increases the risk of childhood leukemia and posiibly other cancers. All of the causes of autism spectrum disorder are not currently known. Environmental factors are thought to be a possible cause, as are biologic and genetic factors. Asthma is common among children and the strongest risk factors are genetic factors and inhaled substances and particles that provoke an allergic reaction or irritate the airways. Indoor air quality is a growing concern because of the alarming rise in the incidence of asthma in the United States, particularly among children.

2. A nurse is employed as a nurse epidemiologist. Which of the following activities would most likely be completed by the nurse? a. Eliciting the health history of a client presenting with an illness b. Evaluating the number of clients presenting with similar diseases c. Performing a physical examination of an ill client d. Providing treatment and health education to a client with a disease

ANS: B Epidemiology monitors the health of the population. Epidemiology differs from clinical medicine, which focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of disease in individuals

1. A nurse is using analytic epidemiology when conducting a research project. Which of the following projects is the nurse most likely completing? a. Reviewing communicable disease statistics b. Determining factors contributing to childhood obesity c. Analyzing locations where family violence is increasing d. Documenting population characteristics for healthy older citizens

ANS: B Epidemiology refers not only to infectious epidemics but also to other health-related events. Analytic epidemiology looks at the etiology (origins or causes) of disease. It discusses the disease in terms of how and why. Descriptive epidemiology considers health outcomes in terms of what, who, where, and when. It discusses a disease in terms of person, place, and time.

20. Which of the following is the most common vector-borne disease worldwide? a. Dengue b. Malaria c. Onchocerciasis (river blindness) d. Yellow fever

ANS: B Globally, malaria is the most prevalent vector-borne disease, with over 2.4 billion people at risk and more than 275 million cases reported each year. More than 1 million children die of malaria each year. Dengue is the second most common vector-borne disease. Onchocerciasis and Yellow fever are not reported as common vector-borne diseases.

7. The nursing staff has attempted to screen the entire African American population in the community for diabetes. Which of the following would provide immediate verification of the success of the nursing staff's efforts? a. An epidemic of diabetes will be recognized. b. The incidence of diabetes will increase in the community. c. The prevalence of diabetes will decrease in the community. d. The risk for diabetes in the community will increase.

ANS: B If the screening has been successful, more diabetes will be diagnosed and, hopefully, treated. Thus, the incidence of new cases will increase. Overall, prevalence will also increase, but that is not one of the answer options. An epidemic occurs when the rate of disease, injury, or other conditions exceeds the usual level of that condition. The prevalence (measure of existing disease in a population at a particular time) of diabetes would also increase. The risk for diabetes would not increase rather it would be more likely that the disease would be detected.

8. In a particular community, several high school students were diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 2 during the annual high school health fair. Over the next few years, the nursing staff developed and implemented educational programs about the risk factors for diabetes mellitus Type 2 and proper nutrition. Which of the following would be most useful for the nurses to use to determine if they are having any impact? a. The epidemic of diabetes in the high school is gradually ending. b. The incidence of diabetes is slowly decreasing during screening events. c. The prevalence of diabetes is slowly decreasing during screening events. d. The risk for diabetes is slowly increasing over time.

ANS: B Incidence rates and incidence proportions are the measure of choice to study etiology because incidence is affected only by factors related to the risk of developing disease and not to survival or cure. If the educational programs are having the desired impact, the incidence of diabetes being diagnosed will decrease in future screenings. Prevalence is a fairly stable number over time, but incidence reacts more quickly to changes in risk factors or intervention programs. In order for an epidemic to have occurred, the rate of the illness would have had to exceed the usual level of that condition. There is no evidence in this question to support that the disease was at an epidemic level in this population. If the educational programs are effective, the risk for diabetes should be slowly decreasing over time.

16. A student comes to the college health clinic with typical cold symptoms of fever, sneezing, and coughing, but the nurse also notes small white spots on the inside of the student's cheeks. Which of the following actions should be taken by the college health nurse? a. Inform all students, staff, and faculty of a possible rubella epidemic. b. Inform all students, staff, and faculty of a possible measles epidemic. c. Reassure the student that it is just a bad cold and will soon pass. d. Tell the student to take two acetaminophen and drink lots of fluids.

ANS: B Measles is an acute, highly contagious disease that, although considered a childhood illness, is often seen in the United States in adolescents and young adults. Symptoms include fever, sneezing, coughing, conjunctivitis, small white spots on the inside of the cheek (Koplik spots), and a red, blotchy rash beginning several days after the respiratory signs. Measles is serious. Around 10% of measles cases require hospital admission. It can lead to pneumonia and encephalitis, and it can kill. Persons who may have been exposed should be informed that anyone under 18 who has not received both immunization doses should receive measles vaccine. The student is displaying symptoms of measles, not rubella. Symptoms of rubella include a low-grade fever, runny nose, headache, and a rash that starts on the face and spreads to the rest of the body. The white spots (Koplik spots) should make the nurse suspect that the client has measles, not just a bad cold in which case the nurse would recommend the acetominophen and fluids.

11. Which of the following objectives is most appropriate for the development of a community-oriented nursing care plan? a. All monitored patients will receive abortive therapy for lethal dysrhythmias within 3 minutes of dysrhythmia recognition. b. Of mothers receiving nutrition counseling, 80% will identify five sources of calcium by the end of class. c. 95% of children will be immunized by 1 year of age. d. There will be a 25% reduction in health disparities by 2015.

ANS: B Objectives must be precise, behaviorally stated, and measurable. The response that describes mothers receiving nutrition counseling represents a specific, measureable behavior as an objective. Treatment in an acute care setting is not part of a community-oriented care plan. The objective that 95% of children will be immunized by 1 year does not precisely state which children (in a county? in the country?) and does not state which immunizations. (Some are not appropriate to give to children who are only 1 year old.) A 25% reduction by 2015 is a goal, not an objective.

5. Which of the following is most closely correlated with poor health? a. Age and gender (i.e., older males) b. Low socioeconomic status c. Minority race status d. High-risk lifestyle behaviors

ANS: B Poverty is more closely related to health status even when controlling for age, gender, race, education, and lifestyle behaviors. The rate of uninsured remained higher among people with lower incomes and lower among those with higher incomes. Households of three with less than $20,000 annual income are at the highest risk for being uninsured. Socioeconomic status has the closest correlation to health status; thus, age, gender, minority race status, and high-risk lifestyle behaviors do not have the closest correlation.

20. A nurse is concerned about the prevalence of tuberculosis among migrant farmworkers. Which of the following activities would be best to use when implementing tertiary prevention? a. Administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to contacts of those with tuberculosis. b. Initiate directly observed therapy (DOT) for tuberculosis treatment. c. Provide education about the prevention of tuberculosis to members of the migrant community. d. Use skin tests to screen migrant health workers for tuberculosis infection.

ANS: B Tertiary prevention is carried out among persons already infected with the disease. In this instance, DOT ensures compliance with treatment to cure the disease and to prevent worsening or the development of secondary problems. Administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to contacts of those with tuberculosis is secondary prevention as this is an at risk population. Providing education about the prevention of tuberculosis to members of the migrant community is a primary prevention strategy as it is aiming to prevent the disease from occurring. Using skin tests to screen migrant health workers for tuberculosis infection is secondary prevention as it is a screening aimed at early detection of the diesase.

13. A nurse is assessing a community's openness to change. Which of the following variables indicate that the community is ready? a. Commitment to current processes and policies b. High socioeconomic status in the community as a whole c. Long history of dependence on the community health agency and its staff d. Minimal level of social participation by community members

ANS: B The ability to change is often directly related to higher socioeconomic status; a perceived need for change; the presence of liberal, scientific, and democratic values; and a high level of social participation by community residents. Not all communities are open to change. Ability to change is often related to the extent to which a community focuses on traditional norms. The more traditional the community, the less likely it is to change. A community that is open to change is likely to be open to changing current processes rather than focusing on traditon. Communities that are open to change typically have a high level of social participation by its residents.

9. A public health nurse is working with a client who does not have health insurance. Where will the nurse most likely direct the client to in order to receive care? a. Managed care b. Community health center c. Emergency department d. Physician office

ANS: B There is a safety net for the uninsured or underinsured. These are the federally funded community health centers which provide a broad range of health and social services, using nurse practitioners and RNs, physician assistants, physicians, social workers, and dentists. Community health centers serve primarily in medically underserved areas which can be rural or urban as well as people of all ages, races, and ethnicities, with or without health insurance. Managed care is a system in which care is delivered by a specific network of providers who agree to comply with the care approach, not a place to refer a client without health insurance. Emergency departments and physician offices are not the best place for an individual without health insurance to receive care. Both are expensive and do not provide the necessary resources for the individual to possibly receive health insurance.

The public health nurse comes to the hospital to see a client just diagnosed with hepatitis A. The nurse says, "I'm sorry to bother you when you're not feeling well, but I need to ask you a few questions." Which of the following questions would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client? (Select all that apply.) a. "Do you know how you got this infection?" b. "Who lives with you?" c. "Where are you employed?" d. "Where do you usually eat?"

ANS: B, C The nurse should ask about sexual contacts and ask who (if anyone) lives with the client because the named individuals will need to have immune globulin administered to hopefully prevent the spread of hepatitis A and a community epidemic. The nurse should also ask about the client's place of employment because certain settings warrant special considerations. For example, in restaurants, hospitals, daycare centers, or other institutions, the lack of careful hand-washing by an infected worker can result in contamination of many others. Hepatitis A can be spread through food contaminated by an infected food-handler, contaminated produce, or contaminated water. However, this mode of transmission is not very common in the United States.

3. In which of the following cases would the school nurse be correct to advise the parents of an HIV-infected child to keep the child home from school? (Select all that apply.) a. The child develops allergies with sneezing. b. The child persists in biting behavior or is unable to control body secretions. c. The nurse is not comfortable with being responsible for the child. d. There is an outbreak of chickenpox in the school.

ANS: B, D Not attending school may be advisable if cases of childhood infections, such as chickenpox or measles, occur in the school, because the immunosuppressed child is at greater risk for suffering complications. Alternative arrangements, such as homebound instruction, might be instituted if a child is unable to control body secretions or displays biting behavior. HIV-positive children are encouraged to obtain routine immunizations, because their immune systems are compromised and they are more susceptible to such infections. To date, no cases of HIV infections being transmitted in a school setting have occurred in the United States. Thus, the nurse should not be fearful of providing care to this child.

17. An instructor is reviewing Salmonella infections with her class. Which of the following comments indicates that the student needs further review on how Salmonella is spread? a. "Certain pets and farm animals may be Salmonella carriers." b. "It is possible to transmit Salmonella by person-to-person contact." c. "Salmonella may be spread by spores that form once contaminated blood is exposed to the air." d. "Salmonella outbreaks are usually due to contaminated meat, poultry, and eggs."

ANS: C Anthrax (not Salmonella) forms spores when infected blood is exposed to air. Meat, poultry, and eggs are the foods most often associated with salmonellosis outbreaks. Animals are the common reservoir for the various Salmonella serotypes, although infected humans may also fill this role. Animals are more likely to be chronic carriers. Reptiles such as iguanas have been implicated as Salmonella carriers, along with pet turtles, poultry, cattle, swine, rodents, dogs, and cats. Person-to-person transmission is an important consideration in daycare and institutional settings.

21. Persons in an auditorium may have been exposed to a disease. If they are infected, it is crucial that they receive immediate treatment and not take the disease home to their families. Which of the following characteristics would be most important to consider when selecting the screening test to be used? a. The negative predictive value b. The positive predictive value c. The sensitivity of the test d. The specificity of the test

ANS: C Because it is most important to identify every case, the sensitivity of the test is crucial. High sensitivity is needed when early treatment is important and when identification of every case is important. A negative predictive value is the proportion of persons with a negative test who are actually disease free. A positive predictive value is the proportion of persons with a positive test who actually have the disease, interpreted as the probability that an individual with a positive test has the disease. Specificity indicates how accurately the test identifies those without the condition or trait.

16. Which of the following actions would a nurse take to reduce the high incidence of coronary artery disease (CAD) in a community? a. Introduction of a heart-healthy curriculum beginning in the first grade, presentations on diet and exercise for the community at large, and special education sessions for high-risk populations b. Provision of online activities related to prevention of cardiac disease, smoking reduction programs, and blood pressure screenings c. Distribution of handouts, including age-appropriate games, self-assessments, and education on heart-healthy lifestyles; availability of community screenings for hyperlipidemia in persons age 35 and older; and walking programs for those affected with CAD d. Enrollment of clients with CAD into cardiac rehabilitation programs, routine evaluation of effectiveness of CAD treatment regimens, and participation in clinical trials that evaluate interventions for those diagnosed with CAD

ANS: C Distributing handouts includes all three levels of prevention to target all members of the population. Targeting all members of the population and implementing all levels of prevention increase the likelihood of positive outcomes for the community as a whole. Education in schools, the community, and high-risk populations focuses only on primary prevention activities. Online activities focus only on primary and secondary prevention. Efforts focused only on those who already have CAD are not primary prevention.

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be prevented through immunization? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Hepatitis B d. Herpes

ANS: C Hepatitis B infection can be prevented by immunization; vaccines for the remaining options are not yet available. There are not yet vaccines for chlamydia, gonorrhea, or herpes.

4. A man loudly protests his increased property tax bill right after the public health department has made a plea for more funds. "Why," he asks, "should my tax dollars be used to pay for their children to be immunized?" Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse? a. "Immunizations are required by law, and if their parents can't afford it, you and I will have to pay for it." b. "It's just the right thing to do." c. "Only by making sure most kids are immunized can we stop epidemics that might hurt all of us." d. "We're a religious God-fearing community, and we take care of each other."

ANS: C Herd immunity is the resistance of a group of people to invasion and spread of an infectious agent because a high proportion of individual members of a group are resistant to the infection. Higher immunization coverage will lead to greater herd immunity, which in turn will block the further spread of the disease. The purpose of immunization laws is to promote herd immunity. Receiving immunizations helps to block the further spread of the disease as more members of the community become resistant to the infection.

Which of the following is the most common vector-borne disease in the United States? a. Babesiosis b. Ehrlichiosis c. Lyme disease d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

ANS: C Lyme disease became a nationally notifiable disease in 1991 and is now the most common vector-borne disease in the United States. Babesiosis, Ehrlichiosis, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever are all diseases borne by ticks as the vectors. These are not the most common vector-borne diseases.

7. A nurse is providing care to a child whose parents do not receive health insurance as an employee benefit and who do not have the financial resources to pay for health care out of pocket. Which of the following resources should the nurse recommend to the family? a. A managed care organization b. An emergency department c. Medicaid d. Medicare

ANS: C Medicaid provides coverage for adults with low income and their children. Medicaid provides coverage for adults with low income and their children.

15. Which of the following services would be covered under Medicare Part A? a. Blood draw to assess PT/INR b. Physical therapy visit c. Stay in skilled nursing facility d. Transportation by an ambulance

ANS: C Medicare Part A covers hospital care, home care, and skilled nursing care. Medicare Part B covers "medically necessary" services, such as health care provider services, outpatient care, home health, and other medical services such as diagnostic services and physiotherapy.

2. A nurse is practicing in the community but also has the community as the target of practice. Which of the following best describes the activities of this nurse? a. Providing care to an active caseload of 50 families in the neighborhood b. Inviting all the parents of asthmatic children in the school to meet together for mutual support c. Sharing assessment findings and health goals with every community group that will listen d. Writing articles for the local newspaper highlighting the various programs and services of the local health department

ANS: C Meeting with all interested community groups is the only way to keep the focus on the community rather than on individuals. Although it is not possible to know the nurse's goals from the nurse's behavior, giving care to select groups does not represent the whole community. Publicizing services increases knowledge but doesn't necessarily help eligible clients access care.

6. Which of the following best explains how the government unintentionally encourages low-income persons to use emergency departments as their primary-care provider? a. A huge amount of paperwork is required when Medicaid clients go to a physician's office. b. Government regulations require Medicaid clients to use emergency departments when their primary health care provider is unavailable. c. Legally, emergency departments must see clients even if clients can't pay. d. Physicians' limited office hours make them unavailable during evenings and weekends.

ANS: C People on Medicaid frequently have no primary-care provider and may not be able to pay for their care. Although physicians can choose clients based on their ability to pay, emergency departments are required by law to evaluate every client regardless of ability to pay. Emergency department copayments are modest and are frequently waived if the client is unable to pay. Thus, low out-of-pocket costs provide incentives for Medicaid clients and the uninsured to use emergency departments for primary-care services. Limited physician office hours over the weekend does make it difficult for low-income persons to access care through a primary care provider; however, this is not influenced by a government decision. The government does not require Medicaid clients to use the emergency department when their primary care provider is unavailable, rather the policies of the emergency department to see all clients regardless of ability to pay may inadvertently encourage them to use this service. The paperwork at a physician's office that needs to be completed by a Medicaid client is not any different than any other client receiving care at the office.

20. A nurse is administering a tuberculosis (TB) skin test to a client who has acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which of the following results should the nurse anticipate when using this screening test? a. Decreased positive predictive value b. Decreased reliability c. Decreased sensitivity d. Decreased specificity

ANS: C Persons with immune deficiencies may have a negative tuberculosis skin test even though they are infected. Sensitivity is the extent to which a test identifies those individuals who have the condition being examined. AIDS is an acquired immune deficiency; thus, clients with AIDS may have a false-negative response to TB skin tests; that is, they have the disease but the test is not sensitive enough to detect infection in these individuals. Therefore, there is decreased sensitivity with those clients. A positive predictive value is the proportion of persons with a positive test who actually have the disease, interpreted as the probability that an individual with a positive test has the disease. In this case, it is likely that if the individual has the disease it will not be detected. Reliability relates to the consistency or repeatabilty of the measure. Because of the client's altered immune status, it is likely that the same results would be obtained if the test was to be repeated. Specificity indicates how accurately the test identifies those without the condition or trait. In this case, it is likely that a false-negative reading would be obtained, so the specificity not be accurate.

10. A nursing staff has successfully screened for diabetes in the community. Which of the following might best persuade the health board to increase funding for diabetic clinics in this community? a. An epidemic of diabetes is now recognized and must be addressed. b. The incidence of diabetes is now higher than previously recognized in the community. c. The prevalence of diabetes is now higher than previously recognized in the community. d. The risk for diabetes in the community could decrease if funding is received.

ANS: C Prevalence is a fairly stable number. Prevalence proportions reflect duration in addition to the risk for getting the disease. Prevalence is useful in planning health care services because it is an indication of the level of disease existing in the population and therefore the size of the population in need of services. An epidemic occurs when the rate of disease, injury, or other conditions exceeds the usual level of that condition. Incidence is affected only be factors related to the risk for developing the disease and not survival or cure. The nurse is proposing to increase funding for diabetic clinics, having more diabetic clinics would assist those who already have the disease, so it would have limited impact on decreasing the risk of developing the disease among members of the community.

9. This year 600 of 8000 young women age 17 to 20 years at a university health center tested positive for a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which of the following terms best describes this data? a. An epidemic b. Incidence c. Prevalence d. Risk

ANS: C Prevalence is the measure of existing disease in a population at a particular time. Because we do not have baseline data, we have no way to conclude that this is an epidemic with higher-than-normal results from the screening. Incidence refers to new cases, whereas prevalence means all cases. We don't know whether the finding represents the first time a woman was told she had an STI or whether she had previously been diagnosed with the problem. Therefore, we can't say whether these are new cases (incidence), but the results do represent all cases (prevalence). Risk is the probability of developing an STI, but no risk factors are discussed.

17. A school nurse wants to decrease the incidence of obesity in elementary school children. Which of the following describes a secondary prevention intervention that the nurse could implement? a. Giving a presentation on the importance of exercise and physical fitness b. Designing a game in which students select healthy food choices c. Weighing students to identify those who are overweight d. Putting students on a diet if they weigh greater than 20% of their ideal weight

ANS: C Secondary prevention refers to interventions that increase the probability that a person with a condition will have the condition diagnosed early. Health screenings are the mainstay of secondary prevention. Weighing students and assessing whether the weight is higher than recommended will allow for early intervention so that obesity may be avoided. Giving a presentation and designing a game are both examples of primary prevention. Placing overweight students on a diet is an example of tertiary prevention.

A nurse is investigating a bacterial illness that has caused a health problem in the community. Only some of the people exposed to the bacteria have become ill. Which of the following factors best explains why this would have happened? a. Chemical agent factors b. Environmental factors c. Host factors d. Physical agent factors

ANS: C The epidemiologic triangle includes the agent, host, and environment. Only differences in host factors can explain why some became ill and some were able to fight off the bacterial infestation. The epidemiologic triangle includes the agent, host, and environment. The bacteria were the agent so chemical and physical agents are not relevant. The environment was apparently the same for everyone, since all were exposed to the bacteria.

4. A nurse is focusing on the process dimension of a community's health. Which of the following interventions will the nurse most likely implement? a. Assessing the health care services available in a community b. Establishing screening programs to diagnosis diseases as early as possible so treatment can begin c. Implementing health promotion activities such as education programs d. Planning for new programs to be developed based on identified needs

ANS: C When the emphasis is on the process dimension—usually the level of intervention of the nurse in community health—the best strategy is usually health promotion, such as various primary prevention strategies. The other responses represent the structure dimension of the community. Structure is defined as the services and resources within the community. This includes service use patterns, treatment data from various health agencies, and provider-to-client ratios.

6. Between 2010 and 2015, 1000 of 10,000 young women age 17 to 20 years at a university tested positive for a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Of the 1000 diagnosed STIs, 300 were gonorrhea and 500 were chlamydia. Which of the following statements best summarizes these findings? a. The proportion of cases of gonorrhea to all STIs was 300:1300. b. The proportion of cases of gonorrhea to chlamydia was 300:500. c. The proportion of cases of gonorrhea to all STIs was 50%. d. The proportion of STIs to the total population was 100:1000.

ANS: D A proportion is a ratio in which the denominator includes the numerator. If the proportion is small, we can express the number per 1000. The answer of 100:1000 correctly summarizes that 1000 of 10,000 (or 100:1000) young women had the problem. The answer of 300:1300 adds the total of the numerator to the denominator, which is unnecessary because the gonorrhea cases were already included in the denominator. In the answer of 300:500, the ratio comparing gonorrhea to chlamydia does not meet the epidemiological definition of proportion (i.e., the denominator must contain the numerator). Although proportions may be expressed as percentages, in the answer of 50% the percentage reflects the number of gonorrhea cases to all STIs, which doesn't summarize the total STI problem.

A student asks the nurse at the student health clinic how AIDS is diagnosed. Which of the following statements would be the best response by the nurse? a. "A diagnosis of AIDS is made when a screening test called an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is confirmed by the Western blot test." b. "A diagnosis of AIDS is made when antibodies to HIV are detected about 6 weeks to 3 months following possible exposure." c. "A diagnosis of AIDS is made when antibodies to HIV reach peak levels of 1000/ml of blood." d. "A diagnosis of AIDS is made when CD4 T lymphocytes drop to less than 200/ml."

ANS: D AIDS is defined as a disabling or life-threatening illness caused by HIV; it is diagnosed in a person with a CD4 T-lymphocyte count of less than 200/ml with or without documented HIV infection. The HIV antibody test (usually the EIA) is the most commonly used screening test for determining whether the antibody to HIV is present but does not confirm AIDS. Positive results with the EIA are tested further with the Western blot test. However, false-negative results are frequent between 6 weeks and 3 months following exposure.

7. A nurse is determining which health care services must be offered at a local public health clinic. Which of the following factors is most important for the nurse to consider? a. Data available from the most recent community assessment b. Suggestions from community members about what is needed c. Recommendations from Healthy People 2020 d. Services mandated by the state government

ANS: D At the local level, health departments provide care that is mandated by state and federal regulations. Data available from the most recent community assessment, suggestions from community members about need, and recommendations from Healthy People 2020 could all be used. However, funding for these types of programs may not be available. The services that are mandated by the state government will be funded and allow the clinic to be able to provide these services.

3. Which of the following individuals would most likely experience a barrier when accessing health care? a. A 40-year-old female who speaks English b. A 25-year-old female with health insurance c. A 50-year-old male with hypertension d. A 30-year-old male who is unemployed

ANS: D Barriers to accessing care include the inability to afford health care, lack of transportation, physical barriers, communication problems, childcare needs, lack of time or information, or refusal of services by providers. The unemployed male is most likely to experience a barrier because of not having a job, which may reduce his access to health insurance and limit his income. Those who speak English and have health insurance should both find it easier to access health insurance than someone who is unemployed as communication problems and lack of insurance are barriers to receiving care. Medical diagnoses, such as having hypertension, do not present a barrier to accessing health care.

Which of the following statements best explains why many health care providers are more afraid of getting hepatitis B than HIV? a. Everyone would assume the person infected with hepatitis B is a drug user. b. Having HBV would mean no further employment in health care. c. The fatality rate is higher and occurs sooner with HBV. d. There is no treatment for HBV, which can be a very serious illness.

ANS: D Both HBV and HIV are blood-borne pathogens. Health care workers may be exposed to either from needle stick injuries and mucous membrane splashes. However, HBV remains alive outside the body for a longer time than does HIV and thus has greater infectivity. The virus can survive for at least 1 week dried at room temperature on environmental surfaces, and therefore infection control measures are crucial in preventing transmission. There is no treatment for hepatitis B, and although some persons never have symptoms and others fight off the disease, many suffer from chronic hepatitis B, a very serious illness. Others may become chronic carriers of the disease. There are multiple populations that have a high prevalence of HBV including injection drug users, persons with STDs or multiple sex partners, immigrants and refugees and their descendents who came from areas where there is a high endemic rate of HBV, health care workers, clients on hemodialysis, and inmates of long-term correctional institutions. Those who are infected with HBV are still able to work in health care. There is no evidence that the fatality rate is higher or sooner with HBV than with HIV.

2. Which of the following best describes community-oriented nursing? a. Focusing on the provision of care to individuals and families b. Providing care to manage acute or chronic conditions c. Giving direct care to ill individuals within their family setting d. Having the goal of health promotion and disease prevention

ANS: D By definition, community-oriented nursing has the goal of preserving, protecting, or maintaining health and preventing disease to promote the quality of life. All nurses may focus on individuals and families, give direct care to ill persons within their family setting, and help manage acute or chronic conditions. These definitions are not specific to community-oriented nursing.

16. A nurse is assessing the structure of a community's health. Which of the following data will the nurse examine? a. The community's commitment to health b. Health risk profiles of selected aggregates c. Statistics of morbidity and mortality in comparison with similar communities d. Treatment and service use patterns from local health agencies and care providers

ANS: D Community health, when viewed from the structure of the community, is usually defined in terms of community characteristics, as well as services and resources. Indicators used to measure community health services and resources include service use patterns, treatment data from various health agencies, and provider/client ratios. The community's commitment to health is part of the process dimension of the community. Health risk profiles and vital statistics are part of the status dimension of the community.

6. During the assessment phase, the nurse compiles and interprets available data and draws conclusions as to the community's strengths and concerns. Which of the following best describes why the nurse would also conduct interviews with key informants? a. To ensure that others agree with the nurse's plans for interventions b. To confirm the nurse's initial findings and conclusions c. To encourage community partners to feel they "own" the data d. To generate nonstatistical data such as values, beliefs, and perceived needs

ANS: D Data generation is the process of developing data that do not already exist, through interaction with community members, individuals, families, or groups. Such information might include the community's knowledge and beliefs, values and sentiments, and goals and perceived needs. Such data are collected by interviews and observation. Interviews with key informants provide data; the purpose is not to ensure agreement with the nurse's plan or confirm findings. The key informants are formal or informal leaders within the community and although they may have information to share about the community, it may not be important that they feel that they "own" the data.

5. The correctional health nurse is doing a quick assessment on a newly admitted inmate who is HIV positive. Which of the following diseases should the inmate receive screening for immediately? a. Herpes zoster b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Tuberculosis

ANS: D HIV-infected persons who live near one another, such as in correctional facilities, must be carefully screened and deemed noninfectious before admission to such settings. A person with HIV is more susceptible to opportunistic infections, the most common of which is TB. Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are both transmitted through blood and body fluids which is not as highly contagious as tuberculosis which is transmitted through airborne droplets.Herpes zoster (shingles) is spread by direct contact with fluid from the rash blisters.

14. The nurse is examining blood lead levels in school-age children 1 year after a community-wide education intervention. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is being implemented? a. Assessment b. Diagnosis c. Intervention d. Evaluation

ANS: D In this instance, the nurse is evaluating the results of the intervention to determine whether goals were reached. Assessment would have been done earlier in the process because this was needed to determine that a problem existed and that interventions were needed. Diagnosis occurs when the disease and environmental factors are related to the diagnosis. When intervention is used, the nurse coordinates medical, nursing, and public health actions to meet the client's needs.

3. During an outbreak of hepatitis A, nurses are giving injections of hepatitis A immunoglobulin to selected susceptible persons. Which of the following best describes the type of immunity that will follow the administration of these injections? a. Active immunity b. Acquired immunity c. Natural immunity d. Passive immunity

ANS: D Passive immunity refers to immunization through the transfer of a specific antibody from an immunized individual to a non-immunized individual, such as the transfer of antibody by administration of an antibody-containing preparation (immune globulin or antiserum). Passive immunity from immune globulin is almost immediate but short-lived. It often is induced as a stopgap measure until active immunity has had time to develop after vaccination. Active immunity occurs as antibodies develop due to exposure to the antigen. Acquired immunity is the resistance acquired by a host as a result of previous natural exposure to an infectious agent. Natural immunity refers to a species-determined, innate resistance to an infectious agent.

9. Of the four main factors that affect health, which is the least important? a. Environment b. Human biology c. Lifestyle choices d. Health care system

ANS: D The four major factors that affect health are lifestyle, environment, human biology, and the health care system. However, the health care system (medical services) has the least effect on health. Of the four major factors that affect health — personal behavior (or lifestyle), environmental factors (including physical, social, and economic environments), human biology, and the health care system — medical services are said to have the least effect. Behavior (lifestyle) has been shown to have the greatest effect, but environment and biology account for the greatest effect on the development of all illnesses.

9. Before beginning to survey the community to assess its health needs and strengths, the nurse reviews various documents, including local statistical data and the minutes of the previous meeting of the health care agency. Which of the following best explains why the nurse would start with this activity? a. To avoid confronting the community until the nurse is thoroughly oriented b. To become familiar with previous goals and priorities of the agency c. To help get a better understanding of the assigned community d. To save time and effort and perhaps have new insights

ANS: D The nurse uses previously gathered data because it saves time and effort. Many sources of data are readily available and useful for secondary analysis. Being familiar with the community before the assessment is important, however, being thoroughly oriented is not necessary. The nurse should become familiar with the community, not the goals and priorities of the agency. It is helpful for the nurse to better understand the community, but the main reason is to save time and avoid duplication of data that may already exist.

5. Several small communities have applied for grant funding from the state department of health to help decrease their teenage pregnancy rate. Which of the following communities should the nurse suggest receive funding first? a. Community A—with 23 single teenage pregnancies in a city of 500 b. Community B—with 45 single teenage pregnancies in a city of 1000 c. Community C—with 90 single teenage pregnancies in a city of 2000 d. Community D—with 90 single teenage pregnancies in a city of 1500

ANS: D The pregnancy rates of A, B, and C are 45-46:1000, whereas the rate in Community D is 60:1000. Without doing any actual math, it should be fairly obvious that 23:500, 45:1000, and 90:2000 are all about the same proportion but that 90:1500 is a larger proportion.

15. A nurse is assessing the status of a community's health. Which of the following will the nurse examine? a. Community awareness b. Health facilities c. Health care manpower d. Vital statistics

ANS: D The status of community health involving biological indicators is often measured by traditional morbidity and mortality rates, life-expectancy indices, and risk-factor profiles. Vital statistics are measures of community health status. Health care manpower (e.g., nurses, physicians) and health facilities (e.g., hospitals, clinics) are measures of community health structure. Community awareness is a measure of the process.

15. A nurse is examining the various factors that lead to disease and suggests several areas where nurses could intervene to reduce future incidence of disease. Which of the following models would the nurse most likely use? a. Epidemiologic triangle b. Health promotion c. Levels of prevention d. Web of causality

ANS: D The web of causality model recognizes the complex interrelationships of many factors interacting to increase or decrease the risk for disease. Causal relationships (one thing or event causing another) are often more complex than the epidemiologic triangle conveys. Levels of prevention are actions taken to improve health outcomes. Health promotion addresses health improvement not identification of where nurses could intervene to reduce future incidence of disease.

4. Which person is most likely to be uninsured? a. An 82-year-old woman with chronic medical problems b. A 2-year-old whose mother is on welfare c. A 50-year-old business man who works for a large corporation d. A 24-year-old man who works part-time at a small business

ANS: D Young adults (ages 19 to 25 years) account for a disproportionately large share of the uninsured, largely due to their low incomes. The elderly person would be eligible for Medicare, and the 2-year-old is probably eligible for Medicaid. The man who works at the large corporation probably has health insurance, because most large businesses provide it.