Fire Prep Reading Comp

Use the information below to answer questions 8-11: In investigating an explosion it must first be determined whether a diffuse or a concentrated explosion has occurred. Diffuse explosions occur as a result of the ignition of natural gas, vapor from volatile liquids, or dust in an enclosed area. Thus, many diffuse explosions occur accidentally. In most cases, a diffuse explosion will create no crater or discoloration. It may or may not be followed by a fire, depending on the conditions at the time of ignition. In a diffuse explosion, the nature of the exploding material may often be determined by examination of the structure. If the explosion was caused by vapors which are lighter than air, such as natural gas, the explosion will tend to push out the walls of the structure near the top causing the ceiling to collapse. An explosion of vapors which are heavier than air, such as gasoline or kerosene, will tend to push out the walls near the bottom. In a concentrated explosion there is a secondary force following the explosion, known as return force, or implosion. Frequently the explosion merely weakens the structure and the implosion causes it to collapse. High order concentrated explosions result from dynamite, TNT, and similar materials. This type of explosion is distinguished by local shattering and the presence of a crater. When craters are found, all crater materials should be collected, sealed and forwarded to the laboratory for examination. In low order concentrated explosions from such materials as black powder, an investigator should be able to find some unburned explosive that was blown outward from the center of the blast. Fragments of the container or the ignition device may also be found embedded in objects along the leading edge of the explosive force. In investigating all explosions, it is important to provide a careful sketch and photographs of the entire area; and to preserve all evidence from deterioration, change or modification. 8. Which of the following explosions is most likely to be accidental? A) an explosion where the base of the walls of a structure is blown outward B) an explosion in which there is considerable shattering of objects C) when there is considerable structural evidence of implosion effects D) when a crater area of special damage is found 9. An explosion in a small warehouse resulted in the ceiling's collapsing. If no crater is observed, which of the following would be the most probably cause of the explosion? A) arson caused by gasoline spread evenly on walls and floor B) a leak in the gas main to the heating system C) a homemade bomb constructed of lead pipe and black powder D) several sticks of dynamite or plastic explosive placed in the center of the room E) spontaneous combustion from kerosene soaked rags in a metal container 10. After an explosion in the living room of a residential home, a couch and the floor beneath it are found to be severely damaged. While the windows are blown out and one of the walls slightly caved in, most of the furniture in the room is only moderately damaged. These circumstances suggest that the damage was caused by: A) a high order concentrated explosion from some material such as dynamite B) a diffuse explosion resulting from the ignition of a volatile liquid C) a low order concentrated explosion, probably from a homemade bomb D) a gas leak in the basement E) gasoline on the couch 11. Which one of the following statements is implied by the passage? A) diffuse explosions are less likely to result in a fire than concentrated explosions B) the results of an implosion are more likely to be visible on the structure than the primary force of a concentrated explosion C) crater material is likely to be the most valuable evidence in a low order concentrated explosion D) explosions involving high degrees of local shattering are not likely to produce much evidence concerning the explosive device used

8. A) an explosion where the base of the walls of a structure is blown outward 9. B) a leak in the gas main to the heating system 10. A) a high order concentrated explosion from some material such as dynamite 11. B) the results of an implosion are more likely to be visible on the structure than the primary force of a concentrated explosion

Use the information below to answer questions 1 and 2: Many explosives do not need outside oxygen to burn or explode. Most explosives contain enough oxygen in their chemical makeup for complete burning. This is why extinguishing agents of the smothering type are ineffective on burning explosives. When involved in a fire, some explosives only burn while others burn to a point and then explode. What happens depends on the nature of the explosive, the temperature, and the pressure, i.e., the degree of confinement. The greater the degree of confinement, the greater the rate at which a given explosive reacts. 1. According to the above passage, which one of the following factors has the greatest effect on the rate at which a given explosive reacts? A) the amount of oxygen in the explosive B) the degree of confinement of the explosive C) the pressure at which the explosion occurred D) the temperature at which the explosion occurred E) the amount of oxygen in the air around the explosive 2. According to the passage, which one of the following is the most important reason why extinguishing agents of the smothering type are often ineffective on burning explosives? A) because many explosives burn without using any oxygen at all B) because energy from burning explosives is released very rapidly C) because most explosives are lighter than most extinguishing agents of the smothering type D) because the heat from the burning of most explosives causes the smothering agents to break down E) because many explosives contain enough oxygen in their chemical makeup to burn without outside oxygen

1. B) the degree of confinement of the explosive 2. E) because many explosives contain enough oxygen in their chemical makeup to burn without outside oxygen

Use the following passage to answer questions 12 through 14: When flammable or combustible liquids burn, they leave a distinctive pattern, unlike the patterns of other combustible products normally found in a structure. There are several differences. First, the ignition of flammable-combustible liquids in a room results in even smoke and heat patters on the surrounding walls. Fire in, say, a pile of combustibles produces heat and smoke stains that are heavier on one wall than on the others. Second, when a flammable-combustible liquid is involved at the outset of a fire, a definite, single point of origin is not produced. The flammable combustible liquid will be poured or spilled over an area - say on a sofa or a floor. Upon ignition, flames will appear above the entire area covered by the accelerant. This results in an area of origin, with the entire area showing damage of equal magnitude. On the other hand, fire in ordinary combustibles begins at one point - the point of contact between the combustibles and the heat source. That point, the point of origin, shows the most fire damage and is usually the lowest point at which damage occurs. A third difference is in the burn marks themselves, especially on floors. We have noted that ordinary combustibles leave V-shaped burn marks. On a tightly constructed floor, flammable or combustible liquids tend to form pools, or puddles, when they are poured. Upon ignition, the flammable vapors burn, but the liquid accelerant does not burn. Instead, the liquid insulates the floor surface directly below it. Only the flooring around the edges of the pool are burned. Then, as the liquid continues to vaporize, the pool becomes smaller; more of the flooring around the edges of the pool is exposed to the flames and is burned. This process continues until all the accelerant has been vaporized. Then, what is left is a residue and a char or burn pattern in the shape of the original pool. The pattern is usually oval and irregular in outline. 12. Which of the following is correct in regards to ignition of flammable combustible liquids: A) the result is even smoke and heat patterns on the surrounding walls B) produces heat and smoke stains that are heavier on one wall than on others C) will result in the onset of even smoke patterns with a heat level that would dissipate to the surrounding air D) will result in combustibles that will pool in an area showing minimal or no damage 13. According to the passage: A) the point of origin showing the most damage for a flammable liquid will be a heat pattern that allows heat and smoke to remain within the combustible area and temperatures below 1000º B) V shaped burn marks are the result of ordinary combustibles on fire C) the lowest point of fire damage is usually produced by a liquid accelerant that is pooled in an area and vaporizes slowly, increasing the pattern in surrounding area D) the residue left behind by ordinary combustibles is detectable with a vapor suppression detector at the point of origin 14. A flammable liquid is ignited over a floor area. This will result in: A) a V shaped burn mark pattern that will become more noticeable around the edges of the flooring where the liquid is being consumed B) area of origin with area showing equal damage C) residue that is unnoticeable and a char or burn pattern that is slightly jagged and irregular D) an increase in vaporization of the accelerant due to the tight construction of a floor area where an entire area is showing damage will increase the smoke and heat patterns

12. A) the result is even smoke and heat patterns on the surrounding walls 13. B) V shaped burn marks are the result of ordinary combustibles on fire 14. B) area of origin with area showing equal damage

Use the following information to answer questions 15-17: In the smoldering phase of a fire, burning is incomplete because not enough oxygen is available to sustain the fire. However, heat remains high, and unburned carbon particles and other flammable substances are just waiting to burst into rapid, almost instantaneous combustion when more oxygen is supplied. Proper ventilation consists of making openings to release smoke and the hot unburned gases from the upper areas of the room or structure. Improper ventilation at this time supplies the dangerous missing link--oxygen. As soon as the needed oxygen rushes in, the fire resumes; and it can be devastating in its speed, truly qualifying as an explosion. The firefighter must recognize the signs of a smoldering fire, in order to avoid causing an explosion by improper ventilation. The following characteristics may indicate a possible smoke explosion condition: Smoke under pressure Black smoke becoming dense gray yellow Confinement and excessive heat Little or no visible flame Smoke leaves the building in puffs or at intervals Smoke stained windows Muffled sounds Sudden rapid movement of air inward when opening is made 15. One of the signs of a potential explosion at a fire scene is A) black smoke changes color to a grayish yellow B) grayish yellow smoke turns to white smoke C) flames are visible and increasing rapidly D) loud hissing sounds can be heard coming from the fire 16. An explosion is more likely to occur when A) too much oxygen is being provided for the fire B) there is low pressure from air or gasses in the room or building C) smoke is coming out of the room or building in puffs D) there is sudden rapid movement of air outward when an opening is made 17. Firefighter Sharpe is at a fire scene in a large apartment building. Firefighter Sharpe knows that there is a fire within a certain apartment on the fifth floor. The occupants of the apartment are now in front of the building and report that there is no one inside. Firefighter Sharpe should recognize that there is a clear possibility of an explosion if A) the door of the apartment is hot B) the fire is making dull muffled sounds within the apartment C) puffs of white smoke are coming out from under the door D) flames were observed coming out from the front windows of the apartment

15. A) black smoke changes color to a grayish yellow 16. C) smoke is coming out of the room or building in puffs 17. B) the fire is making dull muffled sounds within the apartment

Use the following information to answer question 18: When responding with apparatus, the attitude of the officer in command and the driver is of paramount importance. Rapid response must be tempered at all times with safe driving habits. Heavy equipment must be driven to enable stopping in a short distance. The air horn, siren, and red lights do not automatically give the fire apparatus the right-of-way. Defensive driving must be employed at all times. Consideration should be given to the weather and its effects on apparatus response. Fog will cause visibility problems; snow, ice and rain will alter the handling capabilities of the units; and strong winds will affect steering. Other than the officer and driver, traffic is the most important factor in apparatus response. The officer and driver should anticipate traffic hazards, remembering always that their responsibility is to arrive at the incident with an intact company ready for action. Riding positions should be pre-assigned. All firefighters must use seat belts and tail board restraints. When responding from another incident, inspection, or training area, the officer and operator should ensure that all safety belts, restraints, and protective devices are in use. Key safety items are quite often overlooked when a response is made from a location other than the station. While en route, special care must be taken at intersections. Most accidents and firefighter deaths take place at controlled intersections. Intersections should be approached at a speed at which the apparatus is able to make an emergency stop in the necessary time. When approaching a stop sign or red light, come to a full stop before proceeding. The siren and red lights should be in use. 18. According to the passage; A) apparatus drivers using air horn and sirens will always be given the right of way B) riding positions should be assigned while en route C) sirens and red lights should be in use when approaching a stop sign or red light and the apparatus should come to a full stop before proceeding through the intersection D) the attitude of the officer is generally regarded as the deciding factor with the driver's attitude as secondary

18. C) sirens and red lights should be in use when approaching a stop sign or red light and the apparatus should come to a full stop before proceeding through the intersection

Use the following information to answer question 19: More large-loss fires occur about the second week of a month. Relatively few large-loss fires occur at the beginning of a month, and the last day of the month is the least likely day for a large-loss fire. This pattern holds true for every month of the year and suggests a non-chance factor at work in the occurrence of large-loss fires. Since this factor is related to a monthly pattern, one would suspect the factor may be of a monetary nature. 19. Which of the following is most likely to be the "non-chance factor": A) arson, motivated by poor business conditions B) vandalism, during school vacation periods C) high hazards, created by stocking flammable material D) lower fire department manning, caused by summer vacation patterns

19. A) arson, motivated by poor business conditions

Use the following information to answer question 20: Most fires begin small and increase in size and intensity if fuel and oxygen are available. Within a structure, the oxygen supply may become depleted as the fire grows. Then the fire will proceed through three distinct stages. Stage one is the initial development of the fire. Oxygen is in plentiful supply, so burning is relatively complete. As a result, there is rapid burning, with vigorous flames and minimal smoke and heat. The temperature is 100 to 800ºF. As oxygen is consumed and the supply of oxygen is lowered, the fire enters stage two. In this stage, flame and heat production increase, and the temperature rises to 800 to 1000ºF. The reduced oxygen level results in incomplete burning, so that more smoke and gases are produced. In a closed building, the fire can reach stage three, in which the oxygen supply is reduced drastically. The fire recedes to its point of origin and smolders, since it cannot propagate without sufficient oxygen. Heat production is very high, with temperatures of 100 to 2000ºF. The incomplete combustion produces heavy smoke that leaves a dark brown stain; this stain can be seen on windows from outside the fire building. The smoke is trapped within the closed building, along with very hot, combustible gases (mainly carbon monoxide). These gases are heated above their ignition temperature; they lack only oxygen for ignition. If air is introduced into the building before the bases are vented from above, they can ignite with explosive force. This sudden ignition of hot, unburned gases is termed backdraft. 20. According to the passage: A) when oxygen is increased to a temperature level of 400º, vigorous flame and a maximum amount of smoke and heat will be generated in the third stage of a fire B) in an open building, firefighters should note that heavy smoke will leave a dark stain which can be seen from the outside of the building C) when temperatures reach below 100º, backdraft conditions can be expected D) during conditions where the oxygen supply is reduced to a low level, the third stage of a fire will recede to its point of origin and will be in a smoldering stage

20. D) during conditions where the oxygen supply is reduced to a low level, the third stage of a fire will recede to its point of origin and will be in a smoldering stage

Use the following information to answer questions 21: On a sunny July afternoon, firefighters responded to a basement fire in a two-story dwelling. The fire was in the freeburning stage, producing gray-white smoke. Firefighters were able to gain entry and extinguish the fire quickly. The fireground officer immediately began an investigation. The smoke and heat patterns led him to a table standing against the basement wall, near a washing machine. The fire had obviously started at the top of the table, which held the remains of clothing and cardboard soap-powder boxes. The fire had formed a wide V pattern up the basement wall and had burned across the ceiling toward a stairway. The officer had difficulty finding a heat source that could have caused ignition. The switches of the washing machine and a clothes dryer were in the off position. The female occupant confirmed that the washer and dryer had not been in use. There were no other electric cords or devices in the area, and the electric outlet was obviously not involved. Moreover, all the occupants of the dwelling were nonsmokers. An investigator from the Fire/Arson Investigation Squad was sent to the scene. He noticed a clear, cut-glass decanter standing on the basement window sill, directly above the wash table. He immediately checked the weather conditions and the position of the sun prior to the fire. This information confirmed his assumption: The sun's rays, shining on the window, had been focused onto the table top by the bottle; the heat had ignited the combustibles there. 21. According to the passage: A) the fire investigating officer had difficulty finding the heat source that caused the ignition because of the washer and dryer being in use B) there appeared to be a wide V pattern up the basement wall where the fire had burned across the ceiling toward a stairway C) the fire appeared to be in a smoldering stage upon firefighters arrival D) at the time firefighters arrived, the arson investigating squad was on the scene and immediately checked the basement for possible ignition sources

21. B) there appeared to be a wide V pattern up the basement wall where the fire had burned across the ceiling toward a stairway

Answer questions 22 through 25 based on the following: "The analysis of the needs for organized training in a large organization is not something that can be done once and for all. In an organization where systematic staff regard to training has not been completely accepted or practiced, it may be necessary to proceed slowly, to select one dire need and to concentrate on it, perhaps on a demonstration basis. Many conditions can signal training needs: a low production level, poor service, low employee morale, bad supervision or poor work performance. Such conditions can be observed without any formal analysis in most cases. The need for training can be brought more sharply into focus, however, if time is spent on a survey of the problems. In all cases, supervisors on all levels must be alert to discover the needs of their employees for training. In this particular aspect, a full-time training manager can be of invaluable assistance. It is important to classify needs in accordance with training objectives, such as to prepare employees for promotion, increase their present job effectiveness, retrain them for other jobs or to orient and train new employees. A useful tool in the formulation of a training program is the use of questionnaires for both supervisors and subordinate employees. Many large organizations require department heads to analyze training needs on a regular basis, and couple this with the process of setting standards of performance, job analysis and evaluating individual performance." 22. In the final analysis, the most important goal of a training program would most likely be A) the setting up of the training program and formalizing it B) the improvement of operations in the organization C) the development of work standards D) determined by testing the employee students when they complete the training program 23. With respect to formulating a training program for a large organization, the most important step is to first A) develop a systematic approach to assess the theoretical needs of the organization B) start in an area where demonstrations can serve as a basis for the training program C) diagnose the actual training needs of the organization D) develop an outline of the actual training program 24. The preceding report indicates that the training requirements for a large organization A) should be formulated by a full-time training manager who will independently determine the needs of the organization B) consist of fixed systematic policies formulated to span many years C) should be formulated independently of the needs of the organization from a hierarchical point of view D) are effectively formulated in what may be regarded as a continuous process 25. In the preceding report, several conditions that indicate a need for training and several objectives of a training program are mentioned. From among the following, which one is not mentioned in the report? A) a condition where workers are not doing enough work B) a condition where workers are grumbling about their jobs C) an objective for preparing employees for more important jobs D) an objective for providing workers with more interesting work

22. B) the improvement of operations in the organization 23. C) diagnose the actual training needs of the organization 24. D) are effectively formulated in what may be regarded as a continuous process 25. D) an objective for providing workers with more interesting work

Answer questions 26 through 29 based on the following passage: Our system of criminal justice fails to reduce crime. If police, courts and prisons functioned at the most effective level possible, they would not substantially or permanently reduce crime while conditions that breed crime persist. Mere words of prohibition, with force and the threat of force their only sanction, cannot shape human conduct in mass society. As turbulence, doubt and anxiety cause fear to increase, fear in turn seeks repression as a source of safety. But the result of repression is more turbulence and more crime. In frustration over the failure of law enforcement to control crime, new, quick and cheap methods by which police and courts and prisons might be made more effective are sought amid desperate hope and rising hatred. A public that believes the police alone are responsible for crime control, and therefore no other effort is needed, will vest any power in the police force that promises safety where fear of crime is great. But there is no such power. Excessive reliance on the criminal justice system is extremely dangerous because it separates the people from their government. It is the one clear avenue to irreconcilable division in America. It puts government institutions in which people must have confidence in direct confrontation with dynamics they cannot control. When the system is abusive, society itself is unfair; government demeans human dignity. Then follows a contest of cunning between the people and the state that the state can never win. 26. The one of the following titles which most nearly expresses the main thought of this passage is A) "The Need for Additional Police Power" B) "Frustrated Law Enforcement" C) "Police, Courts and Prisons--A Balancing of Power" D) "The Problem of Crime Control" 27. Based solely on this passage, which of the following statements is most correct? A) Increasing fear is a direct result of repression B) Repression is a direct result of increasing turbulence and crime. C) Turbulence, doubt and anxiety are a direct cause of more crime. D) Repression is both a result of increasing fear and a cause of greater turbulence 28. According to this passage, the desire for improvements in the system of criminal justice in response to increasing crime A) stems largely from a failure to appreciate the actual cost of crime to the community B) is not likely to result in greater safety for the public C) will result in a lack of confidence in the police D) is caused by the resentment that is felt by certain groups in our society 29. When the author of this passage states that excessive reliance on the system of criminal justice is dangerous, he or she implies that A) citizens will not accept restraints imposed by the police B) division in America is a result of undue emphasis upon the rights of the individual C) government institutions would be asked to perform an impossible task D) police cause distrust by their failure to enforce the law diligently

26. D) "The Problem of Crime Control" 27. D) Repression is both a result of increasing fear and a cause of greater turbulence 28. B) is not likely to result in greater safety for the public 29. C) government institutions would be asked to perform an impossible task

Use the information below to answer questions 3 and 4: The potential amount of fuel contribution from the materials of which a building is constructed greatly influences the fire hazard. A number of different test methods are used by various test organizations to evaluate the combustibility of building materials. Most provide a means of comparing the combustibility of materials. A widely used method for evaluating combustibility is the "Tunnel Test." A number of test agencies are equipped to run such tests. In this test, a sample 18" wide by 25' long is placed on the underside of a removable cover that, when in place, forms the top of a 25' long test tunnel. One end of the sample is subjected to a gas-flame exposure under regulated constant fuel and draft conditions. Results are reported for flame spread, fuel contributed, and smoke developed. For each of these factors, numerical ratings are used which rate the product tested on a scale where cement-asbestos board is 0 and red oak is 100. Flame spread is observed through windows in the side of the tunnel. Fuel contributed by the sample is related to the temperature rise at the downstream end of the test sample. Smoke density is measured by photoelectric means. Any product having a flame spread of 25 or less is defined as a noncombustible material. 3. The amount of fuel contributed by each sample is indicated by: A) the reduction in the weight of the sample during the test B) the difference between the upstream and downstream temperatures in the tunnel C) the change in the temperature at the downstream end of the test material D) the difference between the weight of the sample and a 25' length of red oak 4. Which of the following activities takes place in the "Tunnel Test"? A) The sample is placed along the upper portion of the test tunnel. B) Tunnel draft conditions are maintained at a constant level. C) The sample is ignited by blowing burning fuel along the tunnel. D) Smoke is cleared away from the observation windows by photoelectric means

3. C) the change in the temperature at the downstream end of the test material 4. B) Tunnel draft conditions are maintained at a constant level.

Use the following information to answer questions 30-31: At the Fire Academy there is a one story building with the interior laid out to resemble a typical apartment. New firefighters are brought inside the building to become familiar with the layout, locations of doorways, windows, etc. The next day the building is filled with smoke and the new firefighters must find their way in the apartment under those conditions. Suppose that the apartment is laid out in the following manner. Standing outside the front door, one sees one window to the left and one to the right of the front door. The front door opens into a center hallway with rooms off to each side. A walk-in closet is at the end of the hallway. On entry, to the left is the main bedroom with an entry door from the hallway. Next to this is a bedroom with a door from the hall and a window on the side wall. Next to this is another bedroom, which has a door from the hall and windows on the side and rear of the building. The first bedroom is the girl's, and the second bedroom is the boy's. On the right side of the hall at the rear is the kitchen; it has a window in the back, a door to the hall and an entryway (without door) to the adjoining dining room. In the kitchen is the stairway to the cellar. There is an entryway (without door) into the dining room from the hall. The living room is just to the right of the apartment entrance; it has an entryway (without door) off the hall. The bathroom is between the living room and the dining room.; it has a door to the hall and one window. All doors are in a closed position. 30. If there is a fire in the cellar, the best way to bring a hoseline from the front of the house into the cellar would be A) through the front door and down the hallway to the kitchen B) through the main entrance and through the living room C) through the outside back door to the kitchen D) through the kitchen window 31. If a fire is originating in the hallway, which of the following rooms would be most exposed to smoke? A) the main bedroom B) the dining room C) the bathroom D) the girl's bedroom

30. A) through the front door and down the hallway to the kitchen 31. B) the dining room

Use the information below to answer questions 5-7: Hoselines At the scene of a fire, crews attempting to perform a rescue should have every kind of protection available. The primary type of protective equipment is a hoseline with an adequate supply of water. The advantages of a fire stream are its effect in the control of fire in the rescue area and its cooling effect. The force of a water spray will also help ventilate the structure. This will help to provide cool fresh air, which will assist the victims as well as the rescue crew. Another advantage of taking in a hoseline is that the hose automatically marks an escape route. If the conditions in the structure worsen, smoke may decrease most visibility. When this occurs, the hoseline will lead the rescue team out of the structure. Since searches for victims in the fire structure must be done quickly, the rescue crew may not be able to use hoselines in all cases. However, as the rescue continues, hoselines should be advanced to protect rescue workers and trapped victims. Fire streams may have to be used to knock down the fire and to protect victims. At times it may be necessary to delay rescue in an area until a charged hoseline is ready to advance. The rescue crew must then enter the structure behind the protection of the fire stream. As the fire is controlled, the rescue crew can search each room. To speed up the search of the more distant rooms, the rescue crew can leave the protection of the charged hoseline. Before this occurs, the rescue crew must tell the firefighter on the charged line of their actions. Firefighters on the fire floor must keep in mind the presence of other rescue crews on the floors above the fire. If it appears that the fire streams will be unable to hold the fire, instant warning must be given to the crews above the fire. Steps should be taken to provide escape by ladder. An effort should also be made to place fire streams between the fire and the exposed rescue crews. Caution must be exercised when stretching hoselines to keep them from blocking any rescue attempts. The one exception to this would be where the fire stream is required to protect the occupants' escape. When many persons have to get out of a building, rescue plans must be considered in the placement of equipment. This includes the stretching of hoselines. While hoselines are designed as an extinguishment device, it is clear they are very effective in the rescue process. Firefighters must use the hoselines to assist them in all rescue operations for their safety and the safety of the trapped victims. 5. Firefighters must exercise extreme caution when stretching hoselines to keep them from blocking any rescue attempts. The one exception to this would be: A) when a fire stream is used to cover a nearby exposure B) the fire floor is fully engulfed in flames C) when a fire stream is required to protect occupants' escape D) when salvage operations have begun 6. You are on Engine 17 and have taken a hoseline into the second story of a three-story building. Engine 22 has proceeded to the third floor and is attacking the fire that is spreading upward. While fighting the fire on the second floor, you realize that extinguishment operations are going to be difficult if not impossible and it appears that the fire is stretching above to the third floor. Which of the following would be the correct procedure? A) order additional help into the second floor area to alleviate the situation B) give a warning to the members of Engine 22 above you that the fire has spread into the third floor area C) withdraw your crew members immediately and escape by ladder D) limit the amount of rescue and ventilation operations 7. According to the passage: A) Crews attempting to perform rescue should have every type of protection available. The primary type of protective equipment is an operating air mask. B) During rescue operations, firefighters for their own safety and that of trapped victims can call on the assistance of hoselines to provide them with direction. C) An uncharged hoseline with a water spray will help ventilate a structure allowing for additional assistance in rescuing the victims. D) decrease the amount of hoseline stretched into the area while increasing horizontal ventilation

5. C) when a fire stream is required to protect occupants' escape 6. B) give a warning to the members of Engine 22 above you that the fire has spread into the third floor area 7. B) During rescue operations, firefighters for their own safety and that of trapped victims can call on the assistance of hoselines to provide them with direction.

Use the following information to answer questions 32-33: In many causes, vertical extension of fire will become horizontal extension as well, unless steps are taken to prevent horizontal spread. Heat will travel upward rapidly until it meets an obstruction, then it will spread laterally. For this reason, we find that in multi-storied buildings, the top story is the most vulnerable. The condition known as mushrooming occurs when the smoke and heat travel upward to the top floor and then, unable to escape or travel farther upward, spread horizontally (and in some extreme cases, bank down too). One way to prevent mushrooming is to ventilate at the top of the vertical arteries. Removing their coverings permits the heat to escape to the atmosphere. Nevertheless, hose lines should be taken to places most vulnerable, such as the top floor and the floor above the fire, if conditions indicate possible extension. Whenever fire has entered a stairway or similar covered shaft, it should be assumed that it would mushroom on the top floor. 32. Firefighters arrived at a three-story apartment dwelling at 4:00 A.M. Firefighters have begun extinguishing the fire and it has become apparent that the fire has entered a stairway. Firefighters should be aware that: A) fire will extend from lowest window and travel upward until a cool area of smoke is found B) fire will mushroom on the top floor C) lateral spread of a fire will be of most concern to firefighters as it enters the stairway D) they should begin proper mechanical ventilation with hoselines 33. Firefighters have reason to believe that a fire in a two and a half story dwelling will mushroom. Firefighters should take hoselines to: A) top floor and fire floor B) floor above and below the fire C) top floor and floor above the fire D) all floors above the fire floor

32. B) fire will mushroom on the top floor 33. C) top floor and floor above the fire

Use the following information to answer questions 34-36: Convection Convection, as it applies to the fire service, is the transmission of heat by the movement of heated gases. In the process of convection, the heated gases from a burning substance move forming a current. The most common fires caused by convection currents are those caused by the passage of heated gases to upper floors of buildings from a fire on the lower floor and the passage of heated gases and embers from one burning building to another building. Firefighters should be acquainted with convection currents as a cause of fire spread. It is the presence of convection currents of heated gases that creates the possibility of "backdraft" and/or "mushrooming" of the fire within a burning building and also the pre-heating of a building within the path of conflagrations. The hot, expanded gases that have become proportionately lighter will rise within a building giving off their heat to all the objects with which they come into contact. This rise of hot gases will continue vertically through all openings that will permit their passage, such as stairways, elevator shafts, dumbwaiters, non-fire stopped studding spaces, light wells, chutes, pipe holes, etc., until they are arrested. They will then build downward and/or spread horizontally. All combustible material that has come in contact with the heated gases will be heated. However, there will be no flame or fire due to the fact that one of the factors for combustion, namely, oxygen, will be absent. The admission of air containing oxygen would cause these heated combustible gases or the heated combustible material to burn rapidly. The rapidity of this burning may cause a "backdraft". Convection currents are a common means of upward spread of fire, involving entire buildings. In many instances, they will miss or bypass a story and cause fire on one that is higher, such as a fire in an attic, extended from a fire in the basement. In some instances, the upward surge of the heated gases will continue straight up into the air until they have dissipated their heat. However, if a strong wind is blowing, these very hot gases may be deflected back to earth, still retaining their heat. The distance of travel of convected heat from the original fire depends upon the amount of heat generated and the velocity of the wind. In conflagrations such as large lumber yard fires, where considerable material is burning, convected heat may start fires several hundred feet distant from the original fire due to the heat concentration. The burning embers carried in the upward surge of the heated gases may be carried by the wind and fall on other combustible materials. 34. Fire that involves convection currents are caused by the: A) passages of steamed gases from one floor to the next. B) passage of heated gases from upper floors. C) the horizontal spread of fire from lower floors to upper floors. D) passage of heated gases to upper floors from lower floors. 35. According to the passage: A) Hot expanded gases that have become heavier will rise to upper floors. B) Almost all combustible material that comes in contact with heated gases will be heated. C) Convection currents will increase the chances of fire spreading downward and then upward. D) The distance of travel for convected heat from the original fire will depend upon the amount of heat generated and the velocity of the wind. 36. According to the passage: A) The presence of conduction currents of heated gases create the possibility of a backdraft. B) Convection currents can move up or down during a fire causing the spread of the fire. C) Convection is the transmission of heat by the movement of heated gases. D) The spread of fire by convection has caused more damage than any other type of fire spread.

34. D) passage of heated gases to upper floors from lower floors. 35. B) Almost all combustible material that comes in contact with heated gases will be heated. 36. C) Convection is the transmission of heat by the movement of heated gases.

Use the following information to answer questions 37-39: The following fire hydrant inspection process should be used: 1) During an inspection of a fire hydrant, check the hydrant record card for information of the most recent inspection. A note of any change should be made at the scene on the hydrant record card. 2) An external inspection should be done to locate damage to the outside of the hydrant, such as a cracked barrel. 3) A pressure test should be conducted. This is done by removing one of the hydrant caps and replacing it with a special cap that has a pressure gauge. All caps should be checked for tightness and the air chamber should be opened. Water can then be discharged, after which the static pressure reading must be recorded 4) The caulking around the nozzle outlets must be checked for leaks. 5) The ground around the hydrant should be observed to detect any underground leaks in the hydrant. Also check for a defective drain which cannot be closed. 6) An outlet cap should be removed and the main valve opened to check the hydrant's operation. The flow should be distributed over more than one outlet nozzle. This will reduce the possibility of damage by decreasing the discharge velocity and throw of the stream. The hydrant should be opened wide if this can be done without damage to the street and nearby property. If the water is not clear, the hydrant should flow until the discharge is clear. 7) After closing the valve, hydrant drainage should be checked by observing the water receding in the barrel. If there is any doubt as to whether or not all the water has drained, a small weight on a cord should be lowered into the barrel to sound for the presence of water. 8) If the hydrant required the oiling of certain parts, this should be done during inspection. Each step of the inspection process must be recorded on the fire hydrant record card. A definite procedure must be established to make certain that needed repairs are done quickly. Failure to make repairs to a fire hydrant could be life threatening. 37. Which of the following shall be noted on a hydrant record card: A) pressure observed, defects noted, date and time of inspection B) repairs made, pressure observed, date and time of inspection C) defects noted, pressure observed, repairs made, date and time of inspection, number of company D) repairs made, date and time of inspection, pressure observed, defects noted 38. Firefighters checking a hydrant will check the hydrant record card for the most recent inspection information. Any changes shall be: A) made upon returning to quarters on the hydrant record card B) made at the scene on the hydrant record card C) called into the hydrant/water supply office D) both A and C 39. Which of the following is the correct procedure for a hydrant pressure test: A) Remove all hydrant caps, replacing them with pressure gauges. All caps should be checked for tightness and the air chamber should be opened. Water can then be discharged, after which static pressure reading must be recorded. B) Remove one of the hydrant caps, replacing it with a special cap with a pressure gauge. All caps should be checked for tightness and the static chamber should be opened. Water can then be discharged, after which pressure reading must be recorded. C) Remove one of the hydrant caps, replacing it with a special cap with a pressure gauge. All caps should be checked for tightness and the air chamber should be opened. Water can then be discharged, after which static pressure reading must be recorded. D) Remove weighted cord within the hydrant, eliminating valve damage. Open the hydrant slowly, checking for tightness in the air chamber.

37. D) repairs made, date and time of inspection, pressure observed, defects noted 38. B) made at the scene on the hydrant record card 39. C) Remove one of the hydrant caps, replacing it with a special cap with a pressure gauge. All caps should be checked for tightness and the air chamber should be opened. Water can then be discharged, after which static pressure reading must be recorded.

Use the following information to answer questions 40-43: The siren is an excellent warning device but it has limitations caused by high noise levels, closed automobile windows, and the fact that sound waves created by a siren are directional. Tests were made and the results proved that the siren could be heard approximately three times the distance to the front than was possible to either the side or the rear. When ideal conditions prevail, a person with normal hearing ability, seated in an automobile with only the driver's window open, will hear the siren at a position approximately 1000 feet to the front of the emergency vehicle. This distance is subject to changes due to the variation of the street noises from trucks, busses, and other sound producing obstacles. When the listener's position is at other sound producing obstacles. When the listener's position is at right angles to the path of the emergency vehicle, the approximate distance that the sound of the siren may be heard is reduced roughly by two-thirds. When the siren is not automatically controlled, it should be alternately turned on and off to utilize the full range of sound from the lowest to the highest pitch. The varying sound pitch will attract attention more effectively, as many persons are deaf to a certain tone. Most people do not understand that it is more dangerous at intersections where traffic control lights are in operation than at intersections with stop signs, yield right of way signs, and intersections having no controls at all. The public has the right to expect the emergency siren to be used only when a genuine emergency exists. The use of the siren for escorts of distinguished persons, caravans, and other non-emergency uses can lead to resentment and eventual disregard. These practices are becoming less common and should be prohibited. To gain the right of way over other vehicles traveling in the same direction, a siren should be actuated sufficiently in advance of overtaking the vehicle so that the driver will have had adequate warnings of the approach. The sudden use of a siren immediately behind another vehicle may startle the motorist and cause him to stop suddenly or swerve so abruptly that his car may be struck by the emergency vehicle or strike other automobiles or pedestrians. 40. Which of the following statements is contained in the paragraph? A) When the motorist is at right angles to the siren, the distance that the sound of the siren may be heard is increased by two-thirds. B) Varying the sound pitch of a siren will attract the attention of the motorist more effectively. C) The siren should be used for escorting distinguished persons and caravans. D) Both A & B are correct E) None of the above 41. When ideal conditions prevail, a person with normal hearing ability: A) at right angles to the path of the emergency vehicle, will have the distance that the sound of the siren may be heard reduced roughly two-thirds of the distance if he were directly in front of the emergency vehicle. B) with all the car windows closed, will hear the siren at a position of about 1000 feet to the front of the emergency vehicle. C) may not hear the emergency siren behind him if only the driver's window is open, because sirens are directional. D) Both A & C are correct E) None of the above 42. The techniques and precautions mentioned in the paragraph do not include: A) alternating the pitch of the siren B) the position of the listener in reference to the siren C) the safest color for emergency vehicles D) Both A & C E) None of the above 43. Limitations of the siren as a warning device are often due to: A) open automobile windows B) the speed of the emergency vehicle C) the fact that sound waves are directional D) Both B & C are correct E) None of the above

40. B) Varying the sound pitch of a siren will attract the attention of the motorist more effectively. 41. A) at right angles to the path of the emergency vehicle, will have the distance that the sound of the siren may be heard reduced roughly two-thirds of the distance if he were directly in front of the emergency vehicle. 42. C) the safest color for emergency vehicles 43. C) the fact that sound waves are directional

Answer questions 44 through 46 based on the following passage: "Discontent of some citizens with the practices and policies of local government leads here and there to the creation of those American institutions, the local civic associations. Completely outside of government, manned by a few devoted volunteers, understaffed, and with pitifully few dues-paying members, they attempt to arouse widespread public opinion on selected issues by presenting facts and ideas. The findings of these civic associations are widely trusted by press and public, and amidst the records of rebuffs received are found more than enough achievements to justify what little their activities cost. Civic associations can, by use of the initiative, get constructive measures placed on the ballot, and the influence of these associations is substantial when brought to bear on a referendum question. Civic associations are politically nonpartisan. Hence their vitality is drawn from true political independents who in most communities are a trifling minority. Except in a few large cities, civic associations are seldom affluent enough to maintain an office or to afford even a small paid staff." 44. It can be inferred from the preceding paragraph that the main reason for the formation of civic associations is to A) provide independent candidates for local public office with an opportunity to be heard B) bring about changes in the activities of local government C) allow persons who are politically nonpartisan to express themselves on local public issues D) permit the small minority of true political independents to supply leadership for nonpartisan causes 45. According to the preceding paragraph, the statements which civic associations make on issues of general interest are A) accepted by large segments of the public B) taken at face value only by the few people who are true political independents C) questioned as to their accuracy by most newspapers D) expressed as a result of aroused widespread public opinion 46. On the basis of the information concerning civic associations contained in the preceding paragraph, it is most accurate to conclude that since A) they deal with many public issues, the cost of their efforts on each issue is small B) their attempts to attain their objectives often fail, little money is contributed to civic associations C) they spend little money in their efforts, they are ineffective when they become involved in major issues D) their achievements outweigh the small cost of their efforts, civic associations are considered worthwhile

44. B) bring about changes in the activities of local government 45. A) accepted by large segments of the public B) taken at face value only by the few people who are true political independents 46. D) their achievements outweigh the small cost of their efforts, civic associations are considered worthwhile