Flight Rules and Regulations (FR&R)

You are traveling westbound and the ceiling is 13,000 MSL. What is the maximum altitude you could fly at VFR?

10,500' MSL

Who can authorize a pilot to take drugs?

A Navy Flight Surgeon

Identify aerobatic flight.

Aerobatic flight is defined as an intentional maneuver involving abrupt bank angles greater than 60˚, pitch angles greater than +/- 45˚, or accelerations greater than 2.0 g.

Identify the rules concerning VFR and IFR cruising altitudes.

Cruising altitudes are determined by established semicircular rules. Magnetic COURSES of 0˚ through 179˚ are EAST and magnetic COURSES of 180˚ through 359˚ are WEST. VFR cruising altitudes apply above 3000'AGL and are ODD altitudes plus 500' (3500, 5500, etc) for EAST and EVEN altitudes plus 500' (4500, 6500, etc) for WEST. IFR cruising altitudes are assigned by ATC and are multiples of 1000.

If you are a T-6 and you are trying to fly into Class B, how would you know if two way comms were established?

If they readback your callsign (Texan 123, standby)

When may you depart from all publications?

In an emergency or distress

Which two documents govern all naval aircraft?

FAR 91 and CNAF-M 3710.7

If you see a steady green Aldis lamp when you are landing, what does that mean?

Make a normal landing

Describe runway orientation.

Runway numbers are determined from the direction an aircraft approaches. They are numbered in relation to the magnetic direction of their centerline rounded off to the nearest ten degrees. Thus, a runway running E/W when approached from the west (heading 090˚) would be Runway 09.

Who can clear you onto an active runway?

Tower

Identify the dimensions of and types of airspace that make up VOR airways and Jet Routes.

VOR Airways are defined by two or more radio navigational aids, between which exists a corridor of controlled airspace with defined dimensions. They extend from 1,200'AGL up to 18,000'MSL and are 4 nm either side of centerline; VOR Airways are commonly called Victor Airways and are Class E airspace. Jet routes exist in Class A airspace up to FL450 and have no defined width. The upper limit exists to prevent interference between stations with similar frequencies.

Special use airspace usually over international waters?

Warning Area

You are coming into land and you see flashing red lights next to the runway, what does that mean?

Waveoff and compliance is mandatory except in emergencies

Identify the principle of see and avoid.

When weather conditions permit (regardless of VFR/IFR flight plan), pilots are required to observe the presence of, and maneuver to avoid, other aircraft. Along with this, all aircraft shall request radar advisories, when available, to remain under positive ATC control (CNAF M-3710.7).

What is the color of Runway edge lights?

White

From when to when must you have your position lights on?

30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise

What is the minimum altitude you must fly over Yellowstone National Park?

3000 AGL/Pilots cannot fly into TFRs

What are the visibility requirements for Class E airspace below 10,000 ft?

3SM visibility, 500ft below, 1000ft above, 2000 ft horizontally

What is the minimum altitude you can fly over a sparsely populated area?

500 ft AGL

What are the dimensions of Class C?

5NM inner ring (SFC-4000 AGL), 10NM outer ring (1200 AGL-4000AGL)

Identify the requirements for Mode C.

Mode C is required: While operating within Class A, B, or C airspace Above 10,000'MSL Above Class B and C airspace Within 30 nm of the primary airport of a Class B airspace, from the surface up to 10,000'MSL

If you had 5000'/2SM and you wanted to fly VFR, could you do it?

No, you need at least 1,000'/3SM

What is the minimum amount of crew rest that must be offered?

8 hours uninterrupted rest

What is the preflight planning requirements according to CNAF-M 3710.7?

Flights shall be planned to circumvent areas of known atmospheric icing and thunderstorms whenever practicable

What is an example of a PIC?

The flight lead in a formation of two planes

Identify the purpose of a flight plan.

The flight plan is a way of relaying important information about the flight to the departure airport, destination airport, and all intermediate agencies. It also established a baseline for lost communication and missing aircraft procedures if necessary. The flight plans is filed at base operations or the FSS, and is then approved by ATC. A military flight plan is submitted as a DD Form 175. A general FAA flight plan is submitted as an FAA Form 7233-1.

Identify the alternatives if en route weather is less than required for VFR flight.

The pilot in command has the following alternatives when encountering weather conditions en route which preclude compliance with VFR minimums: Alter route of flight so as to continue under VMC. Remain in VMC until change of flight plan is filed and IFR clearance is obtained (from ATC). Remain in VMC and land at a suitable alternate. Fuel Planning requirements are imposed by CNAF M-3710.7 for ALL flights. All flights shall carry sufficient usable fuel, considering weather and mission requirements to fly from takeoff to the destination airfield plus a reserve of 10% of planned fuel requirements or fuel for 20 minutes of flight time, whichever is greater.

Identify "shall", "should", "may", and "will".

"Shall" means that a procedure is mandatory "Should" means that a procedure is recommended "May" and "Need Not" mean that a procedure is optional "Will" indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure

Who controls the terminal area?

Approach control

List the regulatory priority of applicable Department of the Navy (DON), Department of Defense (DOD), and Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) publications.

Going from #1, the highest precedence, to #4, the lowest precedence, the order is as follows: Publication Author Governs Whom Governs Where 1. NATOPS DON Type, Model, Series of a/c Worldwide 2. CNAF M- 3710.7 DON All Naval Aviators Worldwide 3. FLIPS DOD Military Worldwide, but area specific 3. FAR Part 91 FAA All civilian and military US Airspace

Identify airport visual devices, including Aldis lamp signals, airport signs, waveoff signals, visual wind/landing indicators, and airport lighting.

-In the event of lost communications, the Control Tower can use an Aldis lamp to communicate with the pilot. The signals are as follows: -Numbers and symbols painted on the surface of runways are white, and numbers and symbols painted on the surface of taxiways are yellow. -There are six types of airport signs: Mandatory Instruction Signs-white letters on a red background and denote the entrance to a runway or critical or prohibited area. Location Signs-yellow letters and border on a black background and indicate the taxiway or runway on which an aircraft is located. Direction Signs-black letters on a yellow background and indicate the direction of turn for a specified taxiway. Destination Signs-black letters on a yellow background and provide taxi direction to specific locations at an airport (FSS, FBOs, etc). Information Signs-black letters on a yellow background and provide information such as frequencies or NAVAID check data. Runway Distance Remaining Signs-white numbers on a black background and indicate the landing distance remaining in 1000s of feet. -Waveoff signals tell the pilot "DO NOT LAND" and is mandatory except in an emergency. They are either used by personnel stationed beside the runway (red flares, hand paddles, etc) or operated from the Control Tower (high intensity red runway waveoff lights). -Visual wind/landing indicators tell pilots the direction in which to takeoff and land. A tetrahedron has a spar that points in the direction of landing; it is mechanically or manually aligned with the active runway and is lighted during hours of darkness or during IFC. A wind sock indicates wind direction and approximate wind velocity; the large end of the sock points into the wind.

Identify the restrictions of flight in the vicinity of the following areas: Noise sensitive and wilderness areas, wildlife preserves, temporary flight restrictions, commercial carriers, and aircraft of civil registry.

-Noise sensitive and wilderness areas-avoid noise sensitive and wilderness areas when at altitudes of less than 3,000'AGL. -Wilderness preserves-maintain at least 3,000'AGL when flying over known wildlife areas. -Temporary flight restrictions-surrounds incidents and events which generate a high degree of public interest, and can create hazardous air traffic congestion. Dimensions are outlined in published NOTAMs. -Commercial carriers and aircraft of civil registry-FAR states that no person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. CNAF M-3710.7 states that a separation of at least 500' vertical and/or 1 SM lateral is required from commercial and civil aircraft.

Identify the purpose of, and entry restrictions for, the following Special Use Airspaces: Prohibited Area, Restricted Area, Warning Area, Military Operations Area (MOA), and Alert Area.

-Prohibited Area-aircraft shall not enter without special ATC approval. -Restricted Area-dangerous and illegal to fly in. Usually denotes an area with unusual and often invisible hazards occur (artillery firing). Flight through requires prior approval from the controlling authority. -Warning Area-Has the same hazards as restricted but are located generally over international waters outside of FAA jurisdiction. Permission to enter is not required—enter at your own risk. -Military Operations Area (MOA)-consists of airspace with defined vertical and lateral limits. They are established to separate IFR traffic from certain military training activities. VFR does not need permission to enter, but caution should be exercised. -Alert Areas-depicted to inform non-participating pilots of airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

How long must you abstain from alcohol?

12 hours before the brief (bottle to brief/planning)

How long is the maximum crew day?

18 hours

Identify the following terms: Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC), Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), Visual Flight Rules (VFR), and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR).

A ceiling is defined by the AGL height of the lowest broken (BKN) or overcast (OVC) layer, or obscured (VV) into obscuring phenomenon. A forecast is given with the worst conditions expected during the period from one hour prior to one hour after the ETA. Forecast conditions are generally referred to by stating the ceiling and visibility. Visual Meteorological Conditions are conditions, expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling, equal to or greater than specified minima. Instrument Meteorological Conditions are conditions, expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling, less than specified minima. CNAF M-3710.7 defines instrument conditions to exist anytime a visible horizon is not distinguishable. VFR is used to indicate 1) weather conditions equal to or greater than the minimum requirements of 1,000'AGL/3SM, 2) the rules an airport is operating under, and 3) the type of flight plan. IFR is used to 1) indicate weather conditions less than the minimum VFR requirements, 2) the rules an airport is operating under, and 3) the type of flight plan. IFR flights can be conducted in either VMC or IMC.

Which is not true for the See and Avoid Doctrine?

ATC exists so planes don't hit each other

What does controlled airspace mean?

ATC services are available

Where can you do aerobatic flight?

Above 1500ft AGL and visibility greater than 3SM

Identify the different types of altitudes.

Absolute Altitude (AGL) is the height above a given reference. True altitude (MSL) is the indicated altitude with the altimeter set correctly. Pressure altitude is the altitude above a standard datum plane (29.92 in Hg)

Identify the responsibilities of Air Traffic Control (ATC), Flight Service Station (FSS), Control Tower, Approach Control (APC), and the Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC).

Air traffic control (ATC) is the agency of the FAA that enforces FAR Part 91. Along with this, they approve flight plans and grant clearances. They are divided into four subagencies. Flight Service Station (FSS) provide pilot briefings (weather, route, NOTAMs, etc), assist in flight pan processing, and provide other assistance as required. The "Base Operations" on military installations serve the same purpose. Control Tower is the agency responsible for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic operating on and in the vicinity of an airport. They typically have three stations: tower, ground control, and clearance delivery. Approach Control (APC) controls IFR approach and departure traffic in the terminal area. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC), also known as just "Center," is established primarily to control en route IFR traffic in between terminal areas. A generic flight would follow the following sequence: Clearance 🡪 Ground 🡪 Tower 🡪 Departure 🡪 Center 1 🡪 Center 2 🡪 Approach 🡪 Tower 🡪 Ground 🡪 FSS (to close out flight plan)

Identify the rules concerning the use of aircraft lighting.

Aircraft lighting is designed to increase the visibility of an aircraft, thus reducing the potential for midair collisions. -Position lighting consists of a red light on the port side, a green light on the starboard side, and white lights aft. The position lighting is required to be on 30 minutes prior to sunset and 30 minutes after sunrise, or when prevailing visibility is less than 3 SM. -Anti-collision lights are bright strobes or beacons (red or white) that are required from engine start to shutdown, unless the lights would distract the pilot when flying through clouds or if they would endanger ground operations.

Identify the weather requirements for VFR flight, including takeoff, en route, and destination weather.

At VFR takeoff, the forecast and existing conditions must be at least 1000/3. While enroute, VMC must be maintained, per the weather criteria for the airspace classifications defined later. At the destination, the minimums are 1000/3 for existing and forecasted for ETA +/- 1 hour.

What is the purpose of a flight plan?

Baseline for missing aircraft procedures and missing comms PIC should be aware of and be sure that they meet airfield operating requirements and when necessary that they satisfy PPR requirements

Identify the provision which allows deviation from established rules.

Both the FAR and CNAF M-3710.7 allow pilots to deviate from established rules during emergencies requiring immediate action. Such deviations are authorized when in the judgement of the pilot in command, safety of flight is in jeopardy. The PIC must be ready to answer to proper authorities for such deviations.

Identify the CNAF M-3710.7 requirements for Safety and Survival equipment, including Safety Belt and Shoulder Harness, Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment, and Life Rafts

CNAF M-3710.7 has established minimum requirements for safety equipment and procedures to include all of the following: Safety belt and shoulder harness shall be worn and tightened prior to takeoff and shall be worn until completion of the flight except when necessary activities require temporary removal. Aircrew of naval aircraft are required to wear (as a minimum) the personal flying equipment in the list below (items with * may be omitted by flight personnel in fixed wing cargo/transport aircraft): Protective helmet* Aircrew safety/flyer boots* Fire-resistant (FR) flight gloves* FR flight suit* ID tags* Survival knife* Personal survival kit* Signal device* Survival radios Emergency beacons Flashlight Anti-exposure suits Anti-blackout suits Inflatable life preservers-shall be worn during all flights originating from or terminating on ships or landing platforms. LPUs shall be readily available when operating over water. Occupants of ejection seat aircraft shall wear the appropriate life preserver at all times. Laser eye protection Supplemental emergency breathing devices CBRND protective equipment Life Rafts of sufficient capacity to accommodate passengers and crew shall be provided in all aircraft when there would be a significant risk of water entry in the event of mishap.

Describe the relationship between FAR Part 91, CNAF M-3710.7, and the AIM.

CNAF M-3710.7 is entitled "NATOPS General Flight and Operating Instructions." It states that, "Naval aircraft shall be operated in accordance with applicable provisions of FAR Part 91 except where this manual prescribes more stringent requirements." Departures from the FAR allow the DON greater operational flexibility than permitted by FAR Part 91. Unless a requirement is specifically waived, compliance with NATOPS procedures is mandatory.

Identify the restrictions on flat hatting.

CNAF M-3710.7 prohibits flat hatting or any maneuvers conducted at low altitude and/or a high rate of speed for thrill purposes over land or water.

Identify the CNAF M-3710.7 requirement for preflight planning.

CNAF M-3710.7 states that before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available information appropriate to the intended operation. This information should include, but is not limited to: available weather reports and forecasts, NOTAMs, fuel requirements, alternate airfield available if the flight cannot be completed as planned, and any traffic delays. Flights shall be planned to circumvent areas of forecast atmospheric icing and thunderstorm conditions whenever possible.

Identify the rules concerning unusual maneuvers in class B, C, and D airspace.

CNAF M-3710.7 states that pilots shall not perform or request clearance to perform unusual maneuvers in Class B, C, or D airspace if such maneuvers are not essential. This includes low passes, flat-hatting, unscheduled flybys, or very steep climbs.

Identify the rule concerning the annoyance to civilians and endangering private property.

CNAF M-3710.7 states, "Flights of naval aircraft shall be conducted so that a minimum of annoyance is experienced by persons on the ground. It is not enough for the pilot to be satisfied that no person is actually endangered. Definite and particular effort shall be taken to fly in such a manner those individuals do not believe they or their property are endangered."

Identify the dimensions of and requirements for entry into the following controlled airspaces: Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, Class E, and Class G.

Class A consists of all airspace from 18,000'MSL up to and including FL600 overlying CONUS and including 12nm off the coast. Requirements for Class A include an instrument certified aircraft and pilot, a Mode C transponder, IFR clearance from ATC, and 2-way radio communications with ATC. -Class B airspace consists of airspace from the surface to 10,000'MSL around the nation's busiest airports. The configuration of each Class B is individual to the airport, but will have 2 or more layers. Requirements for Class B include a Private Pilot Certificate (or designated military aviator), an operable VOR or TACAN receiver for IFR operations, a Mode C transponder, ATC clearance, and 2-way radio communications with ATC. -Class C airspace consists of airspace from the surface to 4,000'AGL surrounding airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations. The general dimensions are defined below, but can be more individually tailored. Requirements for Class C include a Mode C transponder, and 2-way radio communications with ATC. -Class D airspace consists of the airspace extending from the surface to 2,500'AGL surrounding airports with an operational control tower. The horizontal limits are tailored to individual airports but generally have a core radius of 4nm and extensions as necessary for instrument approaches. Requirements for Class D are 2-way radio communications with ATC.

Identify the VFR weather minimums for all classifications of airspace.

Class A-VFR not allowed (IFR only) Class B-3SM visibility, clear of clouds Class C, D, and E (less than 10,000'MSL)-BAHV:5123 Class E (greater than 10,000'MSL)-BAHV:1115

Identify the difference between controlled and uncontrolled airspace.

Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers the different classifications of airspace in Class, A, B, C, D, and E wherein ATC has both the authority and ability to control the airspace. Uncontrolled airspace is a generic term for all airspace that is not Class A, B, C, D, or E wherein no ATC services are provided—ATC has either no authority or no ability to control that airspace, or both. Class G is uncontrolled airspace and is generally found where radar coverage is incomplete or where air traffic is minimal.

What are the two types of airspace?

Controlled and uncontrolled

Identify the airspeed restrictions in the following airspaces: Below 10,000' MSL, Below Class B Airspace, and within Class B, C, and D Airspace.

FAR Part 91 -Below 10,000'MSL-250 KIAS -Inside Class B-250 KIAS -Under Class B-200 KIAS -Class C and D within 4 nm of primary airport, surface up to 2,500'AGL-200 KIAS CNAF M-3710.7 delineates circumstances in which naval aircraft may deviate from FAR speed limitations.

Identify the FAR Part 91 and CNAF M-3710.7 (series) rules concerning altitude restrictions.

FAR Part 91 -Over Congested Areas-When flying over a city, town, or settlement, or over an open air assembly, a pilot shall maintain an altitude of 1,000' above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000' -Over Other Than Congested Area-500' AGL is the minimum altitude except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those areas, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500' to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. -Anywhere-A pilot should maintain an altitude such that if the engine fails, an emergency landing may be executed without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface CNAF M-3710.7 -During VFR-Flights shall not be conducted below an altitude of 500' above the terrain or surface of the water. -During IFR-When in uncontrolled airspace, an aircraft shall not be flown less than 1,000' above the highest terrain, surface of the water, or obstacle within 22 miles of the intended line of flight. Over designated mountainous terrain, the minimum altitude is 2,000'.

How high do victor airways go to?

FL180

What is the altitude limit of a jet route?

FL450, to avoid interfering with other NAVAIDs

What defines aerobatic flight?

Greater than 60 degrees of bank, pitch attitudes greater than +/-45 degrees, and load factors greater than 2Gs *intentional*

Identify the general requirements for IFR.

IFR allow flight in instrument conditions. Pilots are unable to provide their own visual separation, and thus must achieve separation by strict adherence to the IFR and ATC. The 4 general requirements for IFR are: Instrument rated pilot Instrument rated aircraft Approved IFR flight plan IFR clearance from ATC To decrease the probability of midair collisions, all flights in naval aircraft shall be conducted in accordance with IFR to the maximum extent practicable.

Identify the rules concerning aerobatic flight.

It is of the utmost importance that aerobatic training be well regulated as to time, place, and conditions which enhance safety of flight. FAR Part 91 states that no aerobatic flight may be conducted: Over any congested area of a city, town or establishment Over an open-air assembly of persons Within Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport, or within 4nm of the center line of any Federal airways Below an altitude of 1,500' AGL When flight visibility is less than 3SM. CNAF M-3710.7 maintains FAR Part 91's restrictions and additionally restricts if the aircrafts NATOPS manual does not permit aerobatic flight.

Special use airspace that separates non-participating IFR traffic from military activities?

MOA (Military Operations Area)

If you encounter a helicopter head on flying a T-6, what do you do?

Maintain course (you have the right away)

Identify the pilot's responsibilities for acquiring a flight weather brief.

Naval aviators shall be thoroughly familiar with weather conditions for the area in which flight is contemplated/planned. The primary method for requesting and obtaining flight route weather briefings ashore is online through the web-enabled Flight Weather Brief (FWB) system operated by DOD qualified meteorological forecasters at the Naval Aviation Forecast Center (NAFC), its satellite components, or within the Marine Corps Weather Services. Flight weather briefs will be completed via the DD-175-1 form; these briefs are only valid for 3.0 hours past the briefing/FWB delivery time or estimated time of departure (ETD) plus 30 minutes, whichever time is earlier. Additionally, CNAF M-3710.7 states that flights shall be planned to circumvent areas of forecast atmospheric icing and thunderstorm conditions whenever possible.

Identify principal factors affecting aircrew performance.

Numerous complex factors affect the performance of flight and support personnel. The principal factors include: weather, extremes of temperature, nighttime operations, use of vision imaging systems, mission delays, personal equipment and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS), duration of the duty period, quality and duration of sleep, number of hours flown during the previous several duty periods, time of day relative to the body' internal circadian clock, degree of circadian desynchrony (jet lag), physical health, additional duties, misuse of alcohol, caffeine, tobacco, or dietary supplements, and adequacy of crew rest facilities. Of all the causes of fatigue, one of the most treatable is dehydration.

Safety belts should be worn from when to when?

Prior to takeoff to the completion of the flight

What options does a pilot have if they are VFR and encounter IMC conditions?

Proceed to a suitable alternate under VFR, go around IMC conditions safely, or obtain IFR clearance from ATC

Should means?

Recommended

Identify the CNAF M-3710.7 regulations for Human Performance and Aeromedical Factors.

Regulations for Human Performance and Aeromedical Factors as per CNAF M-3710.7 include: Crew rest and sleep-an opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep time is required for every 24-hour period and crew day should not exceed 18 hours. Nutrition and supplements-use of nutritional/dietary and other OTC supplements except those approved by BUMED is prohibited. Drugs-use of prescription and OTC drugs must be approved by a FS. Alcohol-consumption prohibited within 12 hours of mission brief or flight planning. Tobacco-limit intake, as it can increase hypoxia susceptibility. Caffeine-the recommended maximum intake is 450 mg (3 to 4 cups of drip coffee) per day. All illnesses shall be evaluated by flight surgeons. Flight personnel shall not participate in flight duties for 12 hours after receiving an immunization or injection unless cleared sooner by a FS. Flight personnel shall not participate in flight duties or perform low-pressure chamber runs for 4 days following donation of 450 cc of blood (1 pint).

If you see a flashing white Aldis lamp when you are on the ground, what does that mean?

Return to starting point

What is the entity that establishes regulations for general aviation in the U.S.?

The FAA

Identify the responsibilities of the Pilot in Command.

The FAR defines the Pilot in Command (PIC) as "the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of an aircraft during flight time" and states that the PIC is "directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft." CNAF M-3710.7 defines PIC as the pilot who is assigned by the unit commander, or a delegated authority, the responsibility for the safe, orderly flight of the aircraft and well-being of the crew.

Identify the rule concerning carless or reckless flying.

The FAR prohibits pilots from operating an aircraft in a careless or reckless manner so as to endanger the life or property of another.

Identify the organization responsible for the publication of the Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) and the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) is responsible for establishing general regulations for all aviation activities within the United States. The Federal Aviation Regulations 7(FAR) spell out regulations that contain operating rules and guidelines for domestic aviation. The most important section of the FAR for Naval Aviators is Part 91 entitled "General Operating and Flight Rules." The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) is a non-regulatory publication that is normally easier to read, but is still consistent with the FAR.

Why are navy planes required to file and fly IFR whenever practicable?

To reduce the possibility of midair collisions

What can you not request to do in Class B, C, and D airspace?

Unusual flight maneuvers

Identify the rules concerning right-of-way between aircraft.

When another aircraft has the right-of-way, the pilot shall give way to that aircraft and may not pass over, under, or ahead of it unless well clear. Right of way rules are based on maneuverability. -In Distress-an aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic. -Landing-landing aircraft or aircraft on final approach have right of way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface. When two or more aircraft are approaching, the lower altitude aircraft has right of way. -Overtaking-an aircraft being overtaken has the right of way, and the overtaking pilot shall alter course to the right and pass well clear. -Approaching Head On-when aircraft are approaching head, or nearly so, at the same altitude, each pilot shall alter course to the right. -Converging-When aircraft of the same category are converging at the same altitude, the aircraft to the other's right has the right of way (the aircraft that sees the green light has the right of way).

Identify the pilot's responsibilities concerning Authorized Airfields, Fuel Purchases, and Closing of Flight Plans.

When planning to operate at other than home airfields, local training fields, or outlying fields, PICs shall ensure that they are aware of and meet airfield requirements and, when necessary, have satisfied prior permission required (PPR) requirements. Naval aircraft are permitted to operate at civilian airfields listed in the DOD Enroute Supplement (FLIP) when such operations 1) contribute to mission accomplishment, 2) add value to training, or 3) are otherwise in the interests of the government and taxpayer. PICs should consider special local procedures, runway length, runway/taxiway load-bearing capabilities, DOD contract service availability, and security/force protection when planning to land in civilian airfields. PICs shall make every effort to purchase fuel from military or government contract sources. When one of the following applies, flight personnel are authorized to purchase non-contract fuel: 1. Mission requirements dictated stopping at a facility without military or contract fuel sources, 2. The flight terminated as the result of an emergency, or 3. The flight terminated at an alternate airport in lieu of filed destination. It is the responsibility of the PIC/formation leader to ensure that the proper agency is notified of flight termination. At military installations, the pilot either shall verbally confirm the closing of the flight plan with tower or base operations personnel or deliver a copy of the flight plan to base operations. At nonmilitary installations, the flight plan is closed with FSS through any means of communication available.

If you are flying a T-6 and you are flying towards a glider head on, what do you do?

You alter course to the right (glider has the right away because it's less maneuverable)

If you see the position lights of another plane at the same altitude as you are, what does this mean?

You are head on with each other and you should both alter course to the right