Forensic Psychology Midterm

Kalven and Zeisel found that judges and juries agreed on the verdict rendered in roughly what percent of the trials the judges reviewed? A. 87% B. 78% C. 50% D. None of the above

A. 87%

The M'Naughten rule lists several components to meet the standard of legal insanity. One of the components is that, at the moment of the crime, the accused must have: A. Been laboring under a defect of reason B. Had an irresistible impulse C. Been possessed by a demon D. Been unable to exercise self-control

A. Been laboring under a defect of reason

In terms of the burden of proof, in criminal cases, the standard of proof for a person to be found guilty is_____, whereas in civil trials, the standard of proof is usually___. A. Beyond a reasonable doubt; preponderance of the evidence B. Preponderance of the evidence; beyond a reasonable doubt C. Beyond a reasonable doubt; clear and convincing truth D. Clear and convincing truth; preponderance of the evidence

A. Beyond a reasonable doubt; preponderance of the evidence

When determining insanity, the courts rely on: A. Clinical psychologists B. Prosecuting attorneys C. Expert witnesses D. Defense attorneys

A. Clinical psychologists

The legal concept of whether an individual has the capacity to perform necessary personal or legal functions is known as: A. Competence B. Insanity C. Voir Dire D. Mental Stability

A. Competence

Negative pretrial publicity makes jurors more likely to see the defendant as_____. When studies assesses if the judge's instructions to disregard the negative publicity make a difference, they found that such instructions___. A. Guilty; do not remedy the situation B. Guilty; reduce the jurors' bias C. Innocent; do not change the situation D. Innocent; increase the jurors' vigilance

A. Guilty; do not remedy the situation

A challenge for cause____, whereas a peremptory challenge____. A. Is based on possible biased factors; allows lawyers to dismiss a person with no reason given B. Does not need to be explained; is based on the possibility of prejudice C. Is based on possible biased factors; is not based on the possibility of prejudice D. Requires the judge to agree; does not require the judge's approval

A. Is based on possible biased factors; allows lawyers to dismiss a person with no reason given

What is a primary advantage of providing an inpatient rather than an outpatient evaluation of competency? A. It provides multiple opportunities to observe the defendant's behavior over time. B. It provides one setting to observe the defendant's behavior during one time frame C. It removes the influence of the immediate family on the defendant's mental state D. It removes the issue of extenuating circumstances from the evaluation process

A. It provides multiple opportunities to observe the defendant's behavior over time.

Insanity is considered a(n): A. Legal term B. Psychological term C. Opportunity for the guilty to escape punishment D. Psychiatric Diagnosis

A. Legal term

Research first completed by Rita Simon in 1967, and later replicated in multiple studies by Finkel and his colleagues in the 1990s and 2000s, found that, when different sets of jurors are given different definitions of insanity based on legal terminology, there is: A. No impact on their verdict B. A great deal of difference in their verdicts C. An increase in guilty verdicts D. A decrease in guilty verdicts

A. No impact on their verdict

According to the text, all of the following are common mental health problems diagnosed in defendants found to be incompetent to stand trial, EXCEPT: A. Obsessive-Compulsive disorders B. Bipolar disorder C. Schizophrenia D. Intellectual disability

A. Obsessive-Compulsive disorders

Adjudicative competence is a legal concept that describes the defendant's ability to: A. Participate effectively in legal proceedings B. Understand what has happened when the crime was committed C. Make decisions about various aspects of his or her life D. Represent himself or herself in court

A. Participate effectively in legal proceedings

If a potential juror is asked to be removed without explanations a to why he or she is unlikely to be able to deliver an impartial verdict, this type of removal is referred to as a: A. Peremptory Challenge B. Challenge for bias C. Challenge for cause D. Predisposition challenge

A. Peremptory Challenge

The number of____is limited. As for____,they are only limited by the patience of the judge. A. Peremptory challenges; challenges for cause B. Peremptory challenges; prosecutorial challenges C. Challenges for cause;peremptory challenges D. Challenges for cause; prosecutorial challenges

A. Peremptory challenges; challenges for cause

Mock juries benefit trial lawyers when the actual trial and jury selection takes place because: A. Profiles develop through the mock jury studies guide the choices for the real case B. They provide a respite for lawyers and take on some of their duties during the trial C. Mock jurors may be asked to join the actual jury if one of the jurors gets sick D. Mock juries provide little data on actual jury selection but trial lawyers use them anyway

A. Profiles develop through the mock jury studies guide the choices for the real case

In Batson v. Kentucky and J.E.B. v Ala. Ex rel, the supreme court ruled that potential jurors cannot be excluded because of their_____,which constitute characteristics of____groups. A. Race and gender;cognizable B. Race and gender; shareable C. Ethnicity and persuasion; cognizable D. Ethnicity and persuasion; shareable

A. Race and gender;cognizable

The comparison question test (CQT) posits that guilty individuals react more strongly to_____questions, whereas innocent individuals react more strongly to _____questions. A. Relevant; comparison B. Comparison; relevant C. Known; unknown D. Unknown; known

A. Relevant; comparison

Confirmation bias is one's tendency to: A. Seek out evidence that supports one's pre-existing beliefs B. Confirm the obvious when everybody else is already convinced anyway C. Conclude that the suspect is lying despite having trusting this person before D. Attribute errors in judgement to agreement with others

A. Seek out evidence that supports one's pre-existing beliefs

The fundamental idea behind challenges for cause is that: A. Some jurors may not be able to render an impartial verdict based only on evidence and law. B. Some judges cannot be trusted to conduct jury selection because they may be biased C. Jurors should be allowed to challenge witnesses' statements to determine their truthfulness D. Judges should not be allowed to question potential jurors because they may taint the jury pool

A. Some jurors may not be able to render an impartial verdict based only on evidence and law.

Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to a false confession? A. Suspect's confidence B. Police deception C. Police intimidation D. Suspect's fatigue

A. Suspect's confidence

Research is an important part of understanding how eyewitness accounts are derived. As such, a range of factors are often considered. Such factors as the procedures for constructed lineups and questioning witnesses are called: A. System variables B. Dependent variables C. Independent variables D. Estimator Variables

A. System variables

Regarding defendants judged to be competent to stand trial, which of the following id FALSE? A. They tend to be charged with more serious crimes B. They have a history of drug abuse C. They show symptoms of current mental illness D. They have a history of mental health treatment

A. They tend to be charged with more serious crimes

The group of prospective jurors is referred to as____, and the process of questioning these people to determine who among them will serve on the jury is called____. A. Venire; voir dire B. Voir dire; venire C. Venue; shadowing D. A shadow jury; Inquiring

A. Venire; voir dire

Most of what people believe about the insanity defense is mistaken. For example, the proportion of felony cases where the defendant uses the insanity defense is less than____; and when the insanity defense is used, it is successful in about_____of those cases. A. 1%; 5% B. 1%; 25% C. 10%; 25% D. 10%; 50%

B. 1%; 25%

Competency to stand trial (CST), according to the Dusky standard, has two basic components to its definition. The first component refers to the accused individual's_____. The second component refers to the accused individual's ____. A. Mental state; chances of being tried in a court where his/her native language is spoken B. Ability to interact rationally with an attorney; understanding of how the court process works C. awareness of how the crime was committed; ability to interact rationally with an attorney D. Willingness to perform necessary legal functions; past and current mental state

B. Ability to interact rationally with an attorney; understanding of how the court process works

The psychiatric illnesses most commonly associated with successful insanity pleas include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Intellectual Disability B. Anxiety disorders C. Psychosis D. Mood disorders

B. Anxiety disorders

Due to the dissatisfaction with both the M'Naghten rule and the Durham standard, the American Law institute proposed a new standard that has tried to satisfy all the key players. It offered a two-prong approach for insanity: one related to the____prong, or an inability to appreciate the wrongfulness of one's conduct, and the other related to the ______prong, or an inability to conform one's conduct to the rules. A. Cognitive; intuitive B. Cognitive; volitional C. Empathetic; cognitive D. Empathetic; intuitive

B. Cognitive; volitional

As opposed to early juries at the dawn of the United States, modern-day juries consist of people who: A. Have a first-hand experience with the criminal justice system B. Do not have a prior knowledge of the defendant C. Have not served in the armed forces D. Were born in the United States

B. Do not have a prior knowledge of the defendant

When legal scholars, legislators, and judges labor over figuring out the precise wording to define insanity, they often overlook a key question. According to the text, the question is: A. Which mental illnesses and to what degree constitute insanity? B. Does the definition of insanity impact the juries' verdict decisions? C. How long should defendants found NGRI spend in mental institutions? D. How dangerous are NGRI defendants when they are finally released?

B. Does the definition of insanity impact the juries' verdict decisions?

When requested to perform an assessment of competence, clinicians: A. Are bound by law to use the same methods of evaluation on everyone they assess B. Generally utilize techniques familiar to them based on their training and experience C. Utilize the most recent assessment techniques approved by APLS D. Only use the those assessment instruments that the opposing side's experts have used

B. Generally utilize techniques familiar to them based on their training and experience

As defined in the text, malingering means that an individual is: A. Dealing with a malignant condition B. Intentionally faking a mental illness or disability C. Effectively hiding an illness or disability D. Incompetent to stand trial

B. Intentionally faking a mental illness or disability

In the U.S. legal system, the right to waive an attorney implies that the defendant: A. Has been evaluated for competency to stand trial B. Is competent to defend himself in court C. Understands his constitutional rights well D. Does not suffer from a mental illness

B. Is competent to defend himself in court

According to the text, research on jurors' perceptions of confession shows that: A. It is easy for jurors to discount or ignore a confession when told it is false B. It is very difficult for jurors to discount a confession, even when told it is false C. None of the above statements are true D. Jurors can forget the confession if told by the judge that it is false

B. It is very difficult for jurors to discount a confession, even when told it is false

One criticism of "trial by jury" (not the overall justice system) as a mechanism for arriving at an informed decision regarding a defendant's guilt is that: A. The assumption that an adversarial process reveals "the truth" is seriously flawed B. Jurors are not legal experts and are untrained in fact-findings, so their ability to carefully assess evidence and witness testimonies is questionable and may result in an incorrect verdict C. It is next-to-impossible for a defendant to actually be tried by a "jury of hid or her peers" once the lawyers have struck prospective jurors from consideration D. All of the above

B. Jurors are not legal experts and are untrained in fact-findings, so their ability to carefully assess evidence and witness testimonies is questionable and may result in an incorrect verdict

Even if the accused is deemed incompetent to stand trial, he or she____to become competent, in the legal sense. According to the text, successful restoration of competency to stand trial happens for____ of incompetent defendants. A. May receive treatment; less than half B. May receive treatment; the majority C. Would be released; less than half D. Would be released; the majority

B. May receive treatment; the majority

______Jurisdiction means a court is able to hear specific cases (territory and/or type of case); _____ jurisdiction means a court can review a lower court's decision. A. Appellate/original B. Original/ appellate C. State/federal D. Federal/state

B. Original/ appellate

Unlike with insanity defense, mens rea defense requires that the______ must prove mens rea_____. A. Defense attorney; beyond a reasonable doubt B. Prosecuting attorney; beyond a reasonable doubt C. Clinical psychologist; within a reasonable doubt D. Forensic expert; within a reasonable doubt

B. Prosecuting attorney; beyond a reasonable doubt

Bona fide doubt may also be referring to as a(n)_____ doubt. A. Overwhelming B. Reasonable C. Voluntary D. Collateral

B. Reasonable

What is usually called jury____ is actually a process of___. A. desensitization; appreciation of differences B. Selection; eliminating candidates from the jury pool C. Sensitization; social scientific research D. Stereotyping; explaining the trial procedure

B. Selection; eliminating candidates from the jury pool

Defendants who received a verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity instead of a guilty verdict, spend_____ time locked up in a psychiatric hospital rather than in prison, but this information_____jurors. A. Slightly more; does not affect the decisions of B. Slightly more; is not provided to C. Very little; does not affect the decisions of D. Very little; is not provided to

B. Slightly more; is not provided to

Even though the____is the best predictor of what kind of verdict the jury reaches in a case, different jurors evaluate and interpret the same evidence____. A. Strength of evidence; similarity B. Strength of evidence; differently C. Composition of the jury; similarly D. Composition of the jury; differently

B. Strength of evidence; differently

In the context of insanity defense, malingering refers to: A. The ability to distinguish right from wrong B. The exaggeration or faking of a mental disorder C. Having a mental illness and using it as a basis of insanity defense D. Concealing an existing mental disorder to avoid forcible treatment

B. The exaggeration or faking of a mental disorder

According to the information presented in chapter 8, which of the following id FALSE regarding competency to stand trial? A. Judges agree with the decision of competence evaluators most of the time B. The majority of individuals referred for a competence evaluation are found incompetent C. Defendants can be medicated against their will in order to have their competence restored D. The majority of incompetent defendants are eventually restored to competency

B. The majority of individuals referred for a competence evaluation are found incompetent

Following Jackson v. Indiana, it is generally accepted that an individual found incompetent to stand trial should be____for between 4 and 18 months, and then___. A. Treated to restore competency; released B. Treated to restore competency; reevaluated C. Initially held without treatment; treated ans released D. Initially held without treatment; treated and reevaluated

B. Treated to restore competency; reevaluated

Psychology (like all sciences) seeks______while the justice system seeks______. A. Justice, justice B. Truth, justice C. Truth, truth D. Justice, truth

B. Truth, Justice

To commit someone to a mental institution for an indefinite period of time, an individual must be deemed either____or_____. A. Unable to provide for his or her basic needs; severely psychotic B. Unable to provide for his or her basic needs; imminently dangerous to self or others C. In need of mental health treatment; suicidal D. In need of mental health treatment; physically unfit

B. Unable to provide for his or her basic needs; imminently dangerous to self or others

Research has shown that children_____sometimes have difficultly distinguishing between imagining and real events. A. Under 2 B. Under 5 C. Over 8 D. Over 12

B. Under 5

The hypothesized differences between organized and disorganized killers: A. Can lead to easy identification of a suspect B. Were not confirmed in empirical studies C. Earned the Nobel prize for the authors of the typology D. Were extensively tested in field experiment

B. Were not confirmed in empirical studies

According to the text, the analysis of bullet striations, tool marks, and bite marks for comparison identification is: A. Scientifically sound and widely used in court B. scientifically unproven but routinely used in court C. Well-established as reliable evidence but not used often in court D. Scientifically weak and unreliable but should still be used in court

B. scientifically unproven but routinely used in court

The way in which the actors in the pre-trial process interact despite our adopted English system was described by Eisenstien and Jacobs as ______. A. An adversarial process B. A zero sum group C. A courtroom workgroup D. A clown circus

C. A courtroom workgroup

If either attorney raises the issue of the defendant's competence, the presiding judge: A. Often treats it as a ploy, and proceeds with the trial B. Asks the opposing attorney's opinion on the issue C. Almost always orders a psychological evaluation D. Is legally obligated to stop the proceedings

C. Almost always orders a psychological evaluation

Competency to stand trial (CST) refers to the psychological state of the accused: A. At the time of the offense B. At the time of sentencing C. At the time of the trial D. Before the offense was committed

C. At the time of the trial

Mr. Bentley has been diagnosed with intellectual disability. For Mr. Bentley to be found not guilty by reason of insanity under the M'Naghten rule, the best strategy for his defense team is to argue that Mr. Bentley: A. Still wets his bed every night B. Has been hospitalized for mental disorders before C. Does not understand right from wrong D. Could not control his behavior

C. Does not understand right from wrong

The ultimate goal of questioning suspects is to: A. determine the best interrogation techniques B. Define parameters for a search C. Elicit a confession D. Provide a basis for the DNA analysis

C. Elicit a confession

Volitional capacity refers to the defendant's: A. Ability to understand court proceedings B. Substantial cognitive deficits detecting by a test C. Inability to control his or her behavior D. Remorse about an action they took that led to the crime

C. Inability to control his or her behavior

When we refer to____, the focus is on the defendant's state of mind when the crime was committed. When we talk about_____, the focus is on the state of mind of the accused during the trial. A. Competence; insanity B. Competence; mental acuity C. Insanity; competence D. Mental illness; insanity

C. Insanity; competence

There are several important reasons why the defendant should be able to understand what is happening at every stage in the criminal justice process. Which of the following is NOT such as reason? A. If the defendant helps with his defense, it increases the likelihood of a just verdict. B. The defendant can help his lawyer to find important witnesses to testify at trial C. It is easier for the prosecutor to convict the defendant who lacks the mental capacity to understand the basics of a legal proceeding D. Using the power of the criminal justice system against somebody who does not understand what is going on seems unfair

C. It is easier for the prosecutor to convict the defendant who lacks the mental capacity to understand the basics of a legal proceeding

Mark has been suffering from schizophrenia for many years, and his delusions and hallucinations are sometimes hard to control even with medication. If he commits a crime, he: A. Will definitely be found not guilty by reason of insanity B. Is likely to be committed to a mental institution instead of prison C. May not meet the legal definition of insanity D. Will be medicated against his will

C. May not meet the legal definition of insanity

When exposed to sexual abuse testimony given by children at trial, it appears that jurors are____ to believe young children compared to adolescents. A. Less likely B. Equally as likely C. More likely D. Seldom Apt

C. More likely

A study by Kassin and his colleagues found that police detectives were____ likely than college students to judge false confessions as true, and were____ confident about their judgement. A. More;less B. Less;less C. More;more D. Less;More

C. More;more

Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Lying is very common and widespread B. Deception makes social interactions go more smoothly C. Most people never tell lies D. There are a lot of different types of lies and reasons for lying

C. Most people never tell lies

According to the text, a jury of 12 or fewer is likely to: A. Share all cognizable characteristics B. Be fully representative of the country's population C. Not be fully representative of a larger community D. Be diverse enough to reflect all possible views

C. Not be fully representative of a larger community

The idea of the insanity defense is based on the principle that: A. People are not quite normal B. Behavior of mentally ill people is irrational C. People who commit crimes without full awareness should not be held fully responsible for their behavior D. Mentally ill people cannot be hold accountable for their actions

C. People who commit crimes without full awareness should not be held fully responsible for their behavior

The vast majority of all criminal cases are resolved through____, which afford(s)_____constitutional protections to the defendant. A. jury trials; no B. Jury trials; strong C. Plea bargaining; no D. Plea bargaining; strong

C. Plea bargaining; no

The second edition of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI-2) is a measure of: A. Competency to stand trial B. Intelligence C. Psychopathology D. Understanding of the legal system

C. Psychopathology

Just like early juries, modern juries are intended to be____;unlike early juries, modern juries are intended to be____. A. Impartial; equal B. Equal; representative C. Representative; impartial D. Impartial; exclusive

C. Representative; impartial

In modern jurisprudence, the presumption is that a criminal defendant is_____ and therefore_____ for his or her crimes. A. Insane; responsible B. Insane; not responsible C. Sane; responsible D. Sane; not responsible

C. Sane; responsible

Another example of mistaken public views on what happened with NGRI defendants is a common idea that they get _____ sentences than non-NGRI defendants. In reality, people who are deemed legally insane often spend_____time in custody than non-NGRI criminals convicted for similar crimes. A. Longer; more B. Longer; less C. Shorter; more D. Shorter; less

C. Shorter; more

The ______hypothesis predicts that, when the characteristics of jurors and the defendants are similar enough, it might influence verdicts. A. Decision-suspension B. Similarity-defense C. Similarity-leniency D. Leniency-proneness

C. Similarity-leniency

In the case of Indiana v. Edwards, the supreme court held that: A. incompetent defendants could not be held without trial more than a reasonable amount of time B. A defendant could be medicated against his or her will without a court hearing C. There is a higher standard for mentally ill individual to waive counsel than the CST standard D. The presence of mental disorders or intellectual disability is equated with incompetence

C. There is a higher standard for mentally ill individual to waive counsel than the CST standard

Prior to Jackson v. Indiana, all of the following were true about the defendant that were deemed incompetent, EXCEPT? A. They could be held in mental institutions indefinitely B. About half of them spent the rest if their lives in mental institutions C. They stayed in mental asylums no longer than their expected prison sentence D. Hospital stays often exceeded the sentences that could have been given for their crimes

C. They stayed in mental asylums no longer than their expected prison sentence

Studies show that juror characteristics generally have a____impact on the verdict, and thus the idea that picking a jury makes or breaks the case seems____as a general rule. A. Strong; understated B. Strong; to be true C. Weak; overstated D. Weak; to be true

C. Weak; overstated

According to research by Grisso and his colleagues, when it comes to competency to stand trial, at approximately age____, the differences in legal judgement, understanding, and decision making between younger people and those aged 18 to 24 disappear. A. 12 B. 14 C. 15 D. 16

D. 16

Which of these is not a possibility at the initial appearance before a judge during the pre-trial stage? A. Release on recognizance B. Bail or bond C. Denial of release D. All are possibilities

D. All are possibilities

Which is not true of plea bargains? A. They are similar to a settlement in a civil case B. 95% or greater of defendants plea bargain C. Plea bargains were ruled to be both constitutional and essential by the supreme court D. All are true of plea bargains

D. All are true of plea bargains

Which is a constitutional right related to trial process? A. Right to trial by jury B. Protection from excessive bail or fines C. Equal Protection under the law D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Whereas competence refers to the defendant's state of mind_____, insanity concerns his or her state of mind_____. A. Before the crime was committed; at trial B. During the commission of the crime; at trial C. At trial; after the crime was committed D. At trial; during the commission of the crime

D. At trial; during the commission of the crime

According to the text, there are several types of legal competence. Which of the following is NOT among them? A. Competency to waive attorney B. Competency to plead guilty C. Competency for execution D. Competency for being released

D. Competency for being released

The Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA) of 1984 required that the ______prove the insanity of the defendant at the time of the crime _______. A. Defense; beyond a reasonable doubt B. Prosecution; beyond a reasonable doubt C. Prosecution; by clear and convincing evidence D. Defense; by clear and convincing evidence

D. Defense; by clear and convincing evidence

The subject of ultimate issue testimony is controversial. Although experts are____ to say words "sane" or "insane," any meaningful expert testimony would_____. A. Allowed; avoid the use of these words as a matter of diagnosis B. Allowed; conceal the expert's opinion on the issue of insanity C. Forbidden; include the use of these words as a matter of diagnosis D. Forbidden; reveal the expert's opinion on the issue of insanity

D. Forbidden; reveal the expert's opinion on the issue of insanity

Biometrics is the: A. Study of facial features B. Study of skull shapes C. Identification of anomalies for the purpose of matching D. Identification based on measurable anatomical traits

D. Identification based on measurable anatomical traits

Legal definition of insanity are crafted by: A. Legislators and Psychologists B. Judges and psychiatrists C. Social workers and psychologists D. Legislators and judges

D. Legislators and judges

Which one of the following forensic assessment instruments (FAIs) is considered to be a gold standard for determining competency to stand trial? A. The Competency Screening Test B. The MacArthur Judgement Evaluation tool C. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory D. No test or combination of tests can assess CST with certainty

D. No test or combination of tests can assess CST with certainty

Nicole is a defense attorney handling a high-profile case. Much rests with the decision of the jury in terms of damages that the defendant may be required to pay. To help in the process, Nicole decided to pull together a group that matches the demographics of the actual jury and have them sit in the courtroom during trial and be exposed to the same evidence the actual jury would be seeing. The group Nicole is assembling is known as a: A. Mock Jury B. Trial jury C. Potential Jury D. Shadow Jury

D. Shadow Jury

Which definition of insanity includes both a cognitive prong and a volitional prong? A. The "wild beast" test B. The M'Naghten rule C. The Durham test D. The ALI standard

D. The ALI standard

For the most part, changes in insanity law result from the public's reaction to: A. Setbacks B. Revolutions C. The supreme court decisions D. The outcomes of high-profile cases

D. The outcomes of high-profile cases

A highly publicized 1978 trial in California brought up the influence of heavy ingestion of junk food on a person's mental state. The defense of the accused, Dan White, was referred to as the: A. Little Debbie defense B. Cinnabon defense C. Big Mac defense D. Twinkie defense

D. Twinkie defense

Most serial killers are_____males of____intelligence. A. African American; above average B. African American; average C. White; above average D. White; average

D. White; average

Most states___have a formal process for the certification of CST evaluations, ____specific test to determine competence. A. Do; and there is a gold standard B. Do; but there is no C. Do not; but there is a gold standard D.Do not; and there is no

D.Do not; and there is no

When legal actors are ethically bound to assure that a defendant is competent to stand trial? A. Defense Attorney only B. Judge and the defense attorney C. The prosecuting attorney and the defense attorney D.The defense attorney, judge, and prosecuting attorney

D.The defense attorney, judge, and prosecuting attorney

Which of the following statements correctly reflects the current legal status of the polygraph? A. Almost half of the states have banned the use of the polygraph results in court B. Only five states allow the use of polygraph evidence in court C. The supreme court has banned the use of polygraph tests in criminal trails D. Polygraph evidence can only be used in criminal but not civil cases

A. Almost half of the states have banned the use of the polygraph results in court

Which one of the following situations would be an example of a false negative error? A. An expert declares there is no match when it actually matches B. An expert declares a match when there is no match in reality C. A judge declares a mistrial D. A jury nullifies the expert's credentials

A. An expert declares there is no match when it actually matches

Two components of the presumed child sexual abuse accommodations syndrome (CSAAS) are the denial of abuse and recantation of abuse. Researchers who analyzed actual interviews with sexually abused children found that, in reality, the denial and recantation of abuse: A. Are unusual B. Are very common C. Happen only with older children D. Happen only in small, tightly knit communities

A. Are unusual

When psychology and law are discussed as embodying different cultures, the following underlying cultural differences are viewed as most important: A. Behaviors, values, and beliefs B. Style, demeanor, and gestures C. Language, cuisine, and music D. Traits, opinions, and achievement

A. Behaviors, values, and beliefs

Science is______ A. Both methodology and knowledge B. base of knowledge C. neither methodology D. methodology

A. Both methodology and knowledge

The polygraph may be used as a___tactic to evoke____. A. Coercive;a confession B. Gentle; turning over the evidence C. Hidden; The naming of suspects D. Blunt; the sympathy of jurors

A. Coercive;a confession

Which of the following forms of forensic identification evidence is the most objective one? A. DNA analysis B. Fingerprint Analysis C. Bullet matching D. Handwriting analysis

A. DNA analysis

Research in the field of social psychology has discovered that people tend to_____ the impact of situational forces, and this process is responsible for believing that suspects in police custody would____ to a crime they did not commit. A. Disregard; not confess B. Disregard; confess C. Overestimate; confess D. Overestimate; not confess

A. Disregard; not confess

The memory process is often described as having the following components: A. Encoding, storage, retrieval B. Storage, retrieval, identification C. Retrieval, storage, processing D. Processing, encoding, storage

A. Encoding, storage, retrieval

Psychology is most often interested in______while the law is most often interested in____. A. Groups, individuals B. Individuals, groups C. Individuals, individuals D. Groups, groups

A. Groups, individuals

When detectives were asked in a study about their views on profiling, most said they found it: A. Helpful B. Accurate C. Overbearing D. Questionable

A. Helpful

According to a study completed by Morgan and his colleagues, stress appears to have an effect on eyewitness identification. Based on the study results, the rate of correct identification was____in low-stress conditions. A. Higher B. Lower C. Similar D. None of the above is correct about eyewitness identification

A. Higher

In a study examining the effectiveness and accuracy of profiling, the vast majority of criminal profiles were found to be: A. Inaccurate and inconsistent B. Inaccurate and useful C. Accurate and useful D. Accurate but of little help

A. Inaccurate and inconsistent

Hearsay testimony is generally____in court but most states do allow an exception to the hearsay rule for____victims. A. Inadmissible; child B. Inadmissible; elderly C. Admissible; child D. Admissible; vulnerable

A. Inadmissible; child

Two fingerprint examiners have independently concluded that the suspect can be excluded as the source of the print. This scenario illustrates the _____of fingerprint analysis as a measure. A. Interrater reliability B. Test-retest reliability C. Temporal reliability D. Interpersonal reliability

A. Interrater reliability

Peter was able to pick a guy who looked like his assailant out of a _____. When he was told that this was very helpful to the detectives working the case, Peter felt_____certain that he remembered his attacker well. A. Lineup, Even more B. Lineup, somewhat less C. Cell, even more D. Car, somewhat less

A. Lineup, Even more

Which of the following events have prompted psychologists to conduct additional research on and develop new techniques for eliciting accurate reports of abuse? A. Multiple reports of sexual abuse of children in day care centers B. Clinical trials of a new therapy for children who have experienced abuse C. The lowering of the age of criminal responsibility by the supreme court D. The change in the age of reporting for sexual abuse

A. Multiple reports of sexual abuse of children in day care centers

Forensic identification can best be defined as the process of linking: A. Physical evidence to a particular individuals B. Theory to fact C. A particular individual to a source D. Physical evidence to a crime scene

A. Physical evidence to a particular individuals

All of the following are possible explanations for why suspects waive their Miranda rights, EXCEPT? A. Police are very careful in explaining to suspects their rights B. People do not wan to create an impression they are guilty C. The suspect may not understand his or her rights clearly D. People are used to signing waivers of various kinds

A. Police are very careful in explaining to suspects their rights

Amicus curiae briefs: A. Provides a way to influence the court when expert testimony is not allowed B. Reflects scientists' lack of interest in the legal system C. Help experts testifying in court get their point across D. Summarize the questions raised by the jury during the deliberation of a verdict.

A. Provides a way to influence the court when expert testimony is not allowed

According to a study conducted by Honts and colleagues, the use of countermeasures____ the detection of guilty suspects by 50%, and the examiners____ able to tell that the suspects were manipulating their own arousal patterns. A. Reduced; were not B Increased; were C. Reduced; were D. Increased; were not

A. Reduced; were not

Reliability refers to: A. The consistency of a measure or observation B. Whether the measure is actually measuring what it is supposed to measure C. A situation of low validity D. The definition of the details of a match

A. The consistency of a measure or observation

Bias-reduced instructions are used to assist eyewitnesses to be accurate in their identification of a suspect. An example, of such instructions, as noted in the text, is telling the eyewitness that____in the lineup or photo spread. A. The true criminal might not be B. The true criminal is likely to be C. The entire case rests on the selection of someone D. The detective has a strong feeling that one of the suspects might be

A. The true criminal might not be

Oftentimes, the post-identification boost in an eyewitness's confidence level about his or her testimony can be explained by cognitive dissonance, which is a(n): A. Uncomfortable feeling when someone has conflicting thoughts B. Tendency to maintain a steady course of action C. Tendency to become more certain of your opinion over time D. Unconscious pleasant feelings when someone is positive of being right

A. Uncomfortable feeling when someone has conflicting thoughts

According to the text, profiling is regarded as a mostly____technique. A. Unvalidated B. Validated C. Research D. Biometrical

A. Unvalidated

The concept of repression has found______support in empirical research studies of real victims of____. A. Very little; traumatic events B. Considerable; traumatic events C. Very little; memory loss D. Considerable; memory loss

A. Very little; traumatic events

Much research has demonstrated that most victims of traumatic events have____memories of the episode. A. Vivid B. Few C. Completely repressed their D. First repressed, then recovering their

A. Vivid

During the 1960's-1970's, Polygraph use was: A. Almost non-existent B. A lucrative business C. Only permitted in government agencies D. Impossible because the polygraph was invented later

B. A lucrative business

During the trial, each side is trying to win the case. However, the goal of the legal system overall is to: A. Achieve peace B. Achieve justice C. Obtain compensation for all parties D. Not be hampering by fairness

B. Achieve justice

Which of these is NOT a role in which a forensic psychologist would typically serve? A. Expert witness for the defense B. Advisor to the trial judge C. Trial consultant for an attorney D. Clinical assessor of the client

B. Advisor to the trial judge

The actual level of accuracy of polygraph techniques is likely: A. Well above 90% B. Between 50% and 90% C. Between 30% and 50% D. Below 30%

B. Between 50% and 90%

The basic theory behind the polygraph is that lying: A. Affects brain activity patterns B. Causes physiological arousal C. Changes the coloration of skin D. Makes swallowing harder

B. Causes physiological arousal

According to studies, which form of evidence is the most incriminating one (likely to lead to a conviction)? A. DNA analysis B. Confession C. Eyewitness testimony D. Expert testimony

B. Confession

The technique that uses systematic analysis of written statements to assess the credibility of accounts related to a particular event is called: A. Functional magnetic resonance imaging(fMRI) B. Criteria-based content analysis (CBCA) C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. The polygraph

B. Criteria-based content analysis (CBCA)

A false positive means that a(n): A. Expert declares there is no match when it actually matches B. Expert declares a match when there is no match in reality C. Judge declares a mistrial D. Jury nullifies the expert's credentials

B. Expert declares a match when there is no match in reality

The criminal justice system is a singular entity. A. True B. False

B. False

Studies show that those police officers who have passed through interrogation training: A. Have improved abilities to detect lies when questioning suspects B. Feel more confident in their judgments of lie detection even when wrong C. Exhibit superior skills in detecting the exhaustion bias D. Correctly estimate their lie detection abilities

B. Feel more confident in their judgments of lie detection even when wrong

According to the text, the most common response to traumatic experiences is not ____but____. A. Forgetting; repression B. Forgetting; flashbacks C. Flashbacks; repression D. Flashbacks, memory implantation

B. Forgetting; flashbacks

Marissa is being polygraphed using the guilty knowledge test (GKT). This test focuses on whether Marissa: A. Knows the facts that were published about the crime in the media B. Knows the facts that one would expect that only the criminal would know C. Is willing to share information that is uncomfortable for most people to share D. Remains unwilling to be tested, which amounts to her admission of guilt

B. Knows the facts that one would expect that only the criminal would know

Cross-racial identifications are generally_____accurate ____same-race identifications. A. Somewhat more; than B. Less;than C. As;as D. A great deal more;than

B. Less;than

Shelly testifies in court that the DNA recovering at the crime scene is likely to come from the suspect because less than 0.0001% of population have this specific genetic marker. This type of identification is called a(n): A. Simple match B. Match plus statistics C. Qualitative statement D. Inconclusive statement

B. Match plus statistics

Which of the following statements about the application of criminal profiling to police investigations is INCORRECT? A. Most characteristics in the profiles are of little use to investigators B. Most cases for which criminal profiles were developed, have been solved with their help C. Many traits identified in criminal profiles are ambiguous and open to interpretation D. Incorrect profiles may divert police resources to pursuing the wrong trail.

B. Most cases for which criminal profiles were developed, have been solved with their help

The first Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 prohibited the use of polygraph by; A. All private employers for the purpose of hiring for a job B. Most private employers for the purpose of hiring for a job C. All public employers including criminal justice agencies D. All public employers except for national security agencies

B. Most private employers for the purpose of hiring for a job

Individuals often_____the duration of a brief event; especially if it is a(n)____event. A. Underestimate;stressful B. Overestimate; stressful C. Underestimate; Interesting D. Overestimate; interesting

B. Overestimate; stressful

Based on research studies of people's abilities in lie detection, the following statement is true: A. Most people can easily detect when another person is lying B. Police detectives are no better at detecting lies than college students C. Training does significantly improve lie detection abilities D. Fidgeting and avoiding eye contact are reliable clues that the person is lying.

B. Police detectives are no better at detecting lies than college students

In a study by Pinizzotto and Finkel that has compared the accuracy of profiles developed by trained profilers with those of students, it was found that____created more accurate profiles___. A. Students; across the board B. Profilers; but only for sex offenses C. Students; but only for murder cases D. Profilers; in all cases

B. Profilers; but only for sex offenses

In some cases, so-called memories of past abuse have surfaced as a result of the _____of the alleged victims while under hypnosis or guided imagery. A. Corroboration B. Suggestibility C. Fear D. Frustration

B. Suggestibility

Fingerprint evidence is______ for jurors to understand because, unlike DNA analysis information, it does not involve _____. A. Harder;probabilities B. easier;probabilities C. Harder; multiple sources D. Easier, multiple sources

B. easier;probabilities

The Guilty Knowledge Test (GKT) is one of the most promising polygraph techniques to date. However, there are some limitations to its usefulness. Which of the following is one of the main limitations of GKT? A. Most criminals remember the scene of their crimes very vividly B. GKT does not attempt to detect lies, only the unusual physiological reactions C. A sufficient number of crime facts uniquely known by only the criminal of often not available D. Polygraph examiners are reluctant to take on the leading role in formulating the questions

C. A sufficient number of crime facts uniquely known by only the criminal of often not available

Psychology is the scientific study of______ and mental processes. A. Emotions B. Motivation C. Behavior D. behavior

C. Behavior

Delia is a prosecutor working on a case where allegations of a child sexual abuse perpetrated by a day care center worker have been made. The child's parents are very concerned and want Delia to investigate the allegations. When it comes to the use of child interviewing props, Delia's best course of action is to use anatomically detailed_____. Moreover, these props should be used_____. A. Dolls; only after the child has made a disclosure of abuse B. Dolls; as soon as possible C. Body Diagrams; only after the child has made a disclosure of abuse D. Body diagrams; as soon as possible

C. Body Diagrams; only after the child has made a disclosure of abuse

Our tendency to seek out information that supports our beliefs is otherwise known as: A. Expected outcome B. Liar's stereotype C. Confirmation Bias D. Attribution error

C. Confirmation Bias

A fingerprint examiner's decision about a match may be influenced by whether he is told the suspects has confessed to the crime. This tendency to seek out information that supports one's beliefs is known as: A. Expected outcomes B. Integration of thought C. Confirmation bias D. Attribution error

C. Confirmation bias

One of the most important tasks of the polygraph examiner using the standard procedures like CQT is to: A. Complete lengthy preparations before the polygraph can be turned on B. Fine-tuned the polygraph readings to each suspect C. Convince the examinee that the polygraph can always detect a lie D. Conduct a debriefing after the procedure

C. Convince the examinee that the polygraph can always detect a lie

Research by Gail Goodman and her colleagues examined the use of a closed-circuit television for child testimony. The results show that the use of CCTV_____the emotional distress in children_____the accuracy of their testimony. A. Increases; and jeopardizes B. Increases; but does not reduce C. Decreases; and improves D. Decreases; but also reduces

C. Decreases; and improves

Training people to detect lies_____ their ability____ their confidence in their ability to discern lies. A. Improves; but undermines B. Improves; and enhances C. Does not improve;but raises D. Does not improve; and thwarts

C. Does not improve;but raises

The reliance on maps and mathematics to develop predictions about possible locations of future crimes is referred to as: A. Criminal profiling B. Characterization C. Geographic profiling D. The NASH system

C. Geographic profiling

There are several conclusions that can be drawn from research on implanting false memories. Which of the following conclusions is INCORRECT? A. The majority of people in the studies did not succumb to memory implantation. B. Hypnosis and other therapeutic techniques facilitate the production of implanted memories. C. If a person is 100% sure the memory is true, it is often a good indicator of a true memory. D. People who strongly believe in the possibility of recovering a suppressed memory are more likely to "recover" false memories.

C. If a person is 100% sure the memory is true, it is often a good indicator of a true memory.

The weapon focuses effect means that the eyewitnesses' ability to remember the attacker is____if the attacker is holding a____. A. Improved; gun or knife B. Improved; gun rather than a knife C. Impaired; gun or knife D. Impaired; gun rather than a knife

C. Impaired; gun or knife

When comparing the latent prints with the suspect's fingerprints, a_____ makes decision on whether there is a _____. A. Person;crime B. Computer;match C. Person;match D. Computer;crime

C. Person;match

According to the text, an attempt to examine the mental state of a individual prior to his or her death is known as: A. The NASH system B. Geographic profiling C. Psychological autopsy D. Probative evidence

C. Psychological autopsy

Roles that psychologists may play in the legal system includes the following: A. Gatekeepers B. Auxiliary judges C. Reformers D. Parapsychologists

C. Reformers

The process of a having an eyewitness look at one person or photograph at a time is referred to as a _____lineup. A. Simultaneous B. Coinciding C. Sequential D. Consequential

C. Sequential

Victims in a string of murder cases were all mutilated in a specific way, which make profilers think of this feature as a(n)_____ that may reveal something about the perpetrators's personality. A. Anchor B. Vision C. Signature D. Lead

C. Signature

Research has essentially discredited the idea at the heart of the profiling process: that ______crimes are committed by_____people. A. Different;different B. Different; similar C. Similar; similar D. Similar; different

C. Similar; similar

Liam is 4-year old who is being questioned by his mom about his physical contact with a guest visitor to Liam's day care center. Even though the visitor never touched Liam, the mother keeps asking which part of Liam's body the visitor touched first. Liam is likely to: A. Keep denying that the physical contact has ever occurred B. Stop talking altogether C. Tell mom what she wants to hear even if he has to make it up D. Tell mom the truth even if it hurts

C. Tell mom what she wants to hear even if he has to make it up

According to the text, the term gatekeeper refers to: A. Establishing the tiers of facts B. Securing the courtroom C. The assessment of scientific validity of testimony before allowing it in trial D. The sorting of various briefs for the purpose of finding relevant precedents.

C. The assessment of scientific validity of testimony before allowing it in trial

Ashley stopped at the bank to deposit her paycheck, and then stopped at a nearby gas station to pick up a few grocery items. While she was at the gas station, a robber entered with a gun drawn and ordered everybody, including Ashley, to raise their hand and move to the back wall. After the robber gathered all the money from the cash register and collected the customers' wallets, he left. Later, at the police station, Ashley has mistakenly given a description of a bank teller's face when asked to describe the robber. This phenomenon is known as: A. Retrieval Inhibition B. Retrieval Disinhibition C. Unconscious Transference D. Unconscious scripts

C. Unconscious Transference

In which of the following areas is one likely to find forensic psychologists involved? A. Investigations B. Treatment settings C. Corrections (prison, probation) D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Research has demonstrated that some techniques used in interviewing children in abuse cases in especially helpful. These techniques include all of the following, EXCEPT? A. Simplified instructions B. Taking an oath to tell the truth C. Explicit statements stipulating that the interviewer does not know what happened D. Asking the same question more than once

D. Asking the same question more than once

Laws are intended to guide_____with the purpose of providing_____ for the general population. A. Law enforcement officers, protection B. Law enforcement officers, individual liberties C. Behavior, individual liberties D. Behavior, protection

D. Behavior, protection

If a person is lying, the polygraph can pick up the following changes in his or her physiological functions,EXCEPT: A. Breathing B. Perspiration C. Heart Rate D. Brain Activity

D. Brain Activity

A simple match statement by a forensic expert: A. Uses statistical analysis B. Applies probability categories C. Defines specific features and their likelihood D. Does not use statistical terms

D. Does not use statistical terms

Lying is considered an adaptive behavior, from a(n)______ point of view. A. Psychodynamic B. Cognitive C. Behavioral D. Evolutionary

D. Evolutionary

The most prevalent current use of the polygraph in the United States is: A. To detect and fire those who abuse illegal drugs B. By private non-governmental businesses C. In the criminal justice system D. Governmental usage for national security purposes

D. Governmental usage for national security purposes

All of the following traits can be defined as vulnerabilities to making a false confession, EXCEPT: A. Mental Illness B. Low intelligence C. Youth D. High aggression

D. High aggression

Before the 1930's, an interrogator in the United States would be likely to use all of the following actions to elicit confessions, EXCEPT: A. Dragging a suspect by her hair B. Applying electric shocks C. Beating a suspect D. Imprisoning the suspect's kids

D. Imprisoning the suspect's kids

Paula has been playing with her fingers and rings during a interrogation and tried to avoid direct eye contact with her interrogator. Most people would mistakenly conclude that she is hiding something. This erroneous belief is called: A. False-positive bias B. Confirmation bias C. False-positive stereotype D. Liar's stereotype

D. Liar's stereotype

The following behavioral clues are a reliable indicator that the person is lying: A. Crossing legs or arms B. Averting gaze or avoiding eye contact C. Fidgeting and stuttering D. None of the above reliably indicate lying

D. None of the above reliably indicate lying

The primary goal of psychological science is to: A. Study the effects of laws on humans under various conditions B. Regulate human behavior C. Demonstrate how punishment works D. Provide accurate explanations of human behavior

D. Provide accurate explanations of human behavior

The characteristics of serial killers seem to have_____though there are ______common to all serial killers. A. No similarities; a few traits B. Some recurring patterns; only two characteristics C. A lot of similarities; only two characteristics D. Some recurring patterns; no characteristics

D. Some recurring patterns; no characteristics

According to the text, all of the following statements about false confessions are true, EXCEPT? A. It may be impossible to know what percentage of all confessions are false B. Studies show that about a quarter of wrongful convictions involve false confession C. Proven false confessions are only a small portion of all false confessions D. Studies prove that false confessions are extremely rare

D. Studies prove that false confessions are extremely rare

When juror are presented with polygraph evidence, they: A. Are warned by the judge that they polygraph has questionable validity B. Also must hear an expert testimony to understand the evidence properly C. Generally disregard it D. Take such evidence seriously

D. Take such evidence seriously

Dr. Gampher believes that the best available scientific information should be used to make a decision but who determines if scientific evidence is presented? A. The attorney B. The client C. The scientist D. The judge

D. The judge

The basis of the adversarial legal system is the belief that: A. The defense depends on eyewitness testimony only B. The truth always prevails C. The prosecution depends on the adverse nature of the case D. Truth will emerge as a result of contest between opposing sides

D. Truth will emerge as a result of contest between opposing sides