Foundation of AT - Final Review

Standards for protective eyewear are established by the A. ASTM. B. NOCSAE. C. HECC. D. AOA.

A. ASTM.

As part of a PPE, in determining clearance for participation, most physicians base their recommendations on the A. American Academy of Pediatrics. B. American Medical Association. C. American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons. D. American College of Sports Medicine

A. American Academy of Pediatrics.

As part of a PPE, in determining clearance for participation, most physicians base their recommendations on the A. American Academy of Pediatrics. B. American Medical Association. C. American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons. D. American College of Sports Medicine.

A. American Academy of Pediatrics.

What is the term used to described unequal pupils? A. Anisocoria B. Dilation C. Battle sign D. Raccoon eyes

A. Anisocoria

Which of the following professional organizations is responsible for awarding the ATC credential? A. Board of Certification B. National Athletic Trainers' Association C. Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education (CAATE) D. State Regulatory Commission

A. Board of Certification

Which of the following best illustrates a diagnostic sign? A. Edema B. Blurred vision C. Nausea D. Headache

A. Edema

Which of the following coping strategies is NOT mental skill technique? A. Motivational interviewing B. Relaxation C. Imagery D. Positive self-talk

A. Motivational interviewing

What shoe characteristics should be recommended for a runner with high, rigid arches? A. Soft midsoles, curved lasts, and low hindfoot stability B. Firm midsoles, semicurved lasts, and moderate hindfoot stability C. Firm midsoles, straight lasts, and moderate hindfoot stability D. Very firm midsoles, straight lasts, and strong hindfoot stability

A. Soft midsoles, curved lasts, and low hindfoot stability

Although help-seeking for psychological concerns is low in the general population, athletes appear less likely to seek help for psychological problems. A. True B. False

A. True

An athletic trainer must be able to identify psychological distress, provide education, support, and make referrals when appropriate to mental health professionals. A. True B. False

A. True

An open basket weave ankle taping is used to control swelling and limit motion with an acute ankle sprain. A. True B. False

A. True

Compact bone tissue of relatively high density is termed cortical bone. A. True B. False

A. True

If a fracture is suspected, the clinician should immobilize the joints above and below the fracture site. A. True B. False

A. True

If prevention of hyperflexion of the great toe is desired, support tape strips are applied on the dorsum of the foot. A. True B. False

A. True

In tendons, the collagen fibers are arranged in a parallel pattern, enabling resistance to high, unidirectional tensile loads when the attached muscle contracts. A. True B. False

A. True

Restricted circulation and reduced function of the body part can result from tape that is applied too tightly. A. True B. False

A. True

The primary complaint is what the injured individual believes may be the current problem. A. True B. False

A. True

Visual acuity is best tested using a Snellen chart. A. True B. False

A. True

The body's ability to sustain submaximal exercise over an extended period is referred to as A. aerobic capacity B. anaerobic capacity C. dynamic power D. muscular endurance

A. aerobic capacity

The EAP should be practiced A. annually. B. every 2 years. C. every 3 years. D. every 5 years.

A. annually.

The emergency action plan should A. be comprehensive and flexible. B. address all possible emergency situation. C. use individual's names. D. be generic for all facilities.

A. be comprehensive and flexible.

The common mechanism of injury for a muscle contusion is A. compression B. tension C. shear D. torsion

A. compression

The air bladder in a football helmet should be inspected A. daily B. weekly C. monthly

A. daily

In severe brain injuries, posturing characterized by extension of all four extremities is A. decerebrate rigidity. B. extension posturing. C. TBI rigidity. D. decorticate rigidity.

A. decerebrate rigidity.

Rapid deep breathing may indicate A. diabetic coma, hyperventilation, lung disease. B. spasm of the larynx. C. cardiac arrest. D. stroke.

A. diabetic coma, hyperventilation, lung disease.

A written guarantee that a product is safe for use is called a(n) A. expressed warranty B. implied warranty C. product safety standard D. seal test standard

A. expressed warranty

Subjective information is gained through the _____ of the HOPS process. A. history B. observation C. palpation D. special testing

A. history

When assessing gait, the knee should remain flexed during all components of the stance phase except A. initial contact. B. midstance. C. terminal stance. D. loading response.

A. initial contact.

Visceral pain results from A. injury to an organ in the thoracic cavity. B. injury to ligaments, muscle, or skin. C. injury to bone. D. referred pain.

A. injury to an organ in the thoracic cavity.

The position in a joint's ROM during which it is under the least amount of stress is called the A. loose packed position. B. neutral position. C. close packed position. D. relaxed position.

A. loose packed position.

A slow, bounding pulse could be indicative of A. skull fracture. B. cardiac arrest. C. hypertension. D. shock.

A. skull fracture.

When applying an arch support taping, the patient's foot should be in a position of A. slight plantar flexion B. slight dorsiflexion C. slight eversion D. slight inversion

A. slight plantar flexion

When applying a wrap for a quadriceps strain, the wrap is directed in a(n) A. upward and lateral manner B. upward and medial manner C. downward and medial manner D. downward and lateral manner

A. upward and lateral manner

What two potential effects occur when a force acts on an object? A. Acceleration and deceleration B. Acceleration and deformation C. Deceleration and compression D. Deceleration and deformation

B. Acceleration and deformation

A cervical rolls attached to football shoulder pads can decrease axial loading on the cervical spine when the neck is flexed. A. True B. False

B. False

A college recruiter asks a high school athletic trainer for medical information on a prospective student athlete. The parents and student athlete have signed an informed consent form. Providing the requested information is a legal act. A. True B. False

B. False

Following injury, an individual progresses through stages of anger, depression, denial, and finally acceptance of the injury. A. True B. False

B. False

Goal setting can be used as a way to provide a sense of control for the therapist. A. True B. False

B. False

If an athlete provides their own protective equipment, the athletic trainer is not responsible for ensuring that it fits correctly and is maintained properly. A. True B. False

B. False

It would be appropriate for a parent to recognize their high school child's group PPE for football as the equivalent of an annual check-up with a family physician. A. True B. False

B. False

Pain that occurs before the end of the available range of motion indicates a chronic injury. A. True B. False

B. False

The completion of a dental examination as part of the PPE is considered optional. A. True B. False

B. False

The purpose of an assumption of risk form is to warn athletes and their parents of the dangers inherent in participating in a sport. By having this form completed, the coach is no longer liable for any injuries that may occur. A. True B. False

B. False

Upper crossed syndrome is tightness of the thoracolumbar extensors on the dorsal side, crosses with tightness of the iliopsoas and rectus femoris. A. True B. False

B. False

________ is a decrease of the anterior lumbar curve and increase in the posterior thoracic curve from neutral. A. Lordosis B. Swayback C. Flat back D. Kyphosis

B. Swayback

When assessing level of responsiveness, the acronym AVPU stands for A. awake, verbal, pulseless, unresponsive. B. alert, voice, pain, unresponsive. C. auditory, vision, pulse, unresponsive. D. awake, vision, pain, unresponsive.

B. alert, voice, pain, unresponsive.

Cold appendages may indicate A. high fever. B. circulatory disorder. C. infection. D. spine injury.

B. circulatory disorder.

2. The discoloration or swelling outside a joint in the surrounding soft tissue is termed A. bruising. B. ecchymosis. C. edema. D. effusion.

B. ecchymosis.

A typically lean individual with long thin limbs and stringy muscles may likely have the somatotype A. endomorph. B. ectomorph. C. mesomorph. D. Normal.

B. ectomorph.

Knee braces designed to provide proprioceptive feedback and protect unstable anterior cruciate ligament injuries are A. derotational B. functional C. prophylactic D. rehabilitative

B. functional

Hypomobile individuals tend to be more susceptible to A. ligament sprains B. muscle strains C. disk prolapse D. dislocations

B. muscle strains

The condition that exists when the ray of light entering the eyes are brought to focus in front of the retina is A. emmetropia B. myopia C. nystagmus D. hypermetropia

B. myopia

The amount of deformation an object undergoes in response to an applied force is termed A. plasticity B. strain C. stress D. yield point

B. strain

Skin temperature should by assessed by A. touching the back of the neck. B. touching the forehead with the back of your hand. C. touching the wrist with the back of your hand. D. touching the axillary region.

B. touching the forehead with the back of your hand.

A tendon begins to develop tears when it is stretched approximately ___ beyond normal length. A. 2% to 5% B. 5% to 8% C. 8% to 10% D. 0% to 13%

C. 8% to 10%

Which of the following is not a normal joint end feel? A. Firm B. Soft C. Empty D. Hard

C. Empty

During the gastrointestinal examination, it is particularly important to palpate for organomegaly in individuals who participate in contact sports to determine if there is inflammation of the I. kidneys II. liver III. bladder IV. spleen A. I only. B. III and IV. C. II and IV. D. I and III.

C. II Liver and IV spleen.

Who regulates professions to protect the public from harm by unqualified individuals? A. Board of Certification B. Better Business Bureau C. Individual states D. National Athletic Trainer's Association E. U.S. government

C. Individual states

Which of the following processes is not part of the proliferative phase of soft-tissue healing? A. Angiogenesis B. Fibroplasia C. Phagocytosis D. Reepithelialization

C. Phagocytosis

Which of the following is NOT a function of a neoprene sleeve? A. Provides therapeutic warmth B. Provides compression C. Provides protection from external forces D. Provides support

C. Provides protection from external forces

_______ is a lateral curvature in the thoracic spine. A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Scoliosis D. Swayback

C. Scoliosis

Which of the following activities can be used to measure power? A. Grip strength B. 40-m dash C. Vertical jump D. Kicking a stationary target

C. Vertical jump

Factors that should be measured in assessing an individual's fitness level include all of the following except A. flexibility B. body composition C. anaerobic capacity D. weight

C. anaerobic capacity

When assessing posture, the clinician should view the patient from the A. anterior and posterior. B. anterior and lateral. C. anterior, lateral, and posterior. D. anterior, medial, and lateral.

C. anterior, lateral, and posterior.

All of the following are advantages of the thermal-set mouth guard except A. inexpensive B. provides a loop strap C. covers both upper and lower dental arches D. readily available

C. covers both upper and lower dental arches

A protocol to assist health care practitioners with identifying red flags associated with psychological distress and determining if these signs and symptoms warrant an emergency intervention is termed A. LEARN. B. OARS. C. decision making model D. transtheoretical model

C. decision making model

Longitudinal bone growth occurs at the bone's A. apophyseal plates B. cortical plates C. epiphyseal plates D. periosteal plates

C. epiphyseal plates

All of the following are part of the stance phase except A. loading response. B. preswing. C. initial swing. D. initial contact.

C. initial swing.

When applying a groin wrap for an adductor strain, the heel is elevated on a taping block and the hip is A. in a neutral position B. externally rotated C. internally rotated D. slightly adducted

C. internally rotated

The primary survey determines A. scene safety. B. blood pressure. C. level of responsiveness and assesses airway, breathing, and circulation. D. presence of fractures or dislocations.

C. level of responsiveness and assesses airway, breathing, and circulation.

The most effective regulatory means of protecting the public is A. state certification B. registration C. licensure D. mandatory continuing education requirements

C. licensure

When asking about the characteristics of symptoms, determine A. limitations in sport, occupational, and ADLs. B. location, onset, limb position, and direction of force C. location, onset, severity, frequency, and duration. D. previous injuries, congenital abnormalities, and family history.

C. location, onset, severity, frequency, and duration.

When taping for wrist hyperflexion injury, support strips are placed A. encircling the wrist B. on the palmar aspect of the hand C. on the dorsum of the hand D. on the inferior aspect of the hand

C. on the dorsum of the hand

In most taping techniques, each subsequent strip of tape should overlap the previous strip by A. one-quarter to one-third the width of the tape B. one-third to two-thirds the width of the tape C. one-half to one-third the width of the tape D. one-half to two-thirds the width of the tape

C. one-half to one-third the width of the tape

When using imagery as an intervention technique, vividness and control can be increased through A. self-talk B. confidence training C. relaxation D. coping rehearsal

C. relaxation

Legal defenses include all of the following EXCEPT A. assumption of risk B. Good Samaritan laws C. scope of care D. comparative negligence

C. scope of care

The ideal completion time for the PPE is A. 1 to 2 days prior to the start of practice sessions. B. 2 weeks prior to the start of practice sessions. C. 4 weeks prior to the start of practice sessions. D. 6 weeks prior to the start of practice sessions.

D. 6 weeks prior to the start of practice sessions.

Which of the following would NOT be a macrotrauma injury? A. Glenohumeral dislocation B. Syndesmosis sprain C. Hip pointer D. Achilles tendinitis

D. Achilles tendinitis (microtrauma)

Which type of football shoulder pad provides less protection to the shoulder region but allows more glenohumeral motion? A. Inside cantilever B. Outside cantilever C. Double cantilever D. Flat

D. Flat

Which of the following is NOT a pain focusing technique? A. Soothing imagery B. Neutral imaginings C. Rhythmic cognitive activity D. Meditation

D. Meditation

Which of the following mental health professionals is trained to diagnose and treat mental illness, including the ability to prescribe psychotropic medicine? A. Psychologist B. Sport psychologist C. Professional counselor D. Psychiatrist

D. Psychiatrist

Which of the following is NOT a quadrant ion the affective cycle of injury? A. Physical well-being B. Emotional well-being C. Social well-being D. Self-efficacy

D. Self-efficacy

Postural control serves all of the following main purposes except A. maintain erect posture. B. maintain equilibrium and balance. C. provide mechanical support. D. allow for optimal performance.

D. allow for optimal performance.

The ability of a muscle to be stretched or increase in length is termed A. contractility B. elasticity C. plasticity D. extensibility

D. extensibility

Rubor, calor, tumor, dolor, and loss of function are symptoms of A. fractures B. concussions C. abrasions D. inflammation

D. inflammation

The collagen fibers in ligaments are arranged A. in a parallel pattern B. in a perpendicular pattern C. in a multidirectional pattern D. largely parallel, but also are interwoven

D. largely parallel, but also are interwoven

Critical information that should be obtained during the on-site history includes A. number of patients involved. B. family history. C. use of over-the-counter medications. D. mechanism of injury.

D. mechanism of injury.

If an athletic trainer commits an act that is his or her responsibility to perform but uses the wrong procedure, the individual could be accused of A. gross negligence B. malfeasance C. malpractice D. misfeasance

D. misfeasance

When using a goniometer to measure ROM, the stationary arm of the goniometer is placed ________ to the proximal bone of the joint being tested. A. distal B. superior C. lateral D. parallel

D. parallel

Movement of an injured body part through the range of motion with no assistance from the injured individual is termed A. isotonic movement. B. active movement. C. resistive movement. D. passive movement.

D. passive movement.

The advantages of having an individual's primary care physician administer a PPE include all of the following except A. a more thorough and comprehensive exam can be performed B. a potentially closer examiner-athlete relationship C. the setting provides greater privacy D. the cost of the exam

D. the cost of the exam

Standards of professional practice are ethical responsibilities that guide one's actions and promote high standards of conduct and integrity to ensure high-quality health care. A. True B. False

a.) True

In the absence of an athletic trainer, which of the following is not a responsibility of the coach? a.) assessing the extent of an injury b.) designing a rehabilitation program c.) recongnizing the severity of an injury d.) implementing an emergency care plan

b.) designing a rehabilitation program