Foundations of Microbiology: Chapter 14, Microbiology Exam 3 (ch 12-15), Microbiology Chapter 14, MICRO 12-13 Review for exam, MICRO 14-15 Exam 4 Review, Micro Lab Final Dr. Harold Kay, MICRO 12-13. Dr. K., Chapter 12 - Microbial Chemotherapy, Ch 12...

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Explain intrinsic drug resistance?

( exam **): The ability of a microbe to adapt and become resistant to the drugs they produce.

Ethylene oxide

(EtO) Sterilizing Gas used for surgical instruments and other supplies.

What are lymphocytes?

(T cells, B-cells) --> specific response of immune system (NK cells) --> nonspecific response

Transposons

(jumping genes) short strands of DNA capable of moving from one location to another within a cell's genetic material. May result in drug resistance known as R factor plasmids

factors that weaken the immune system?

** physical/mental stress + extreme youth/old age + surgery/organ transplants + organic disease: cancer, liver malfunction, diabetes

4-5 Q's on active and passive immunity

*Naturally acquired* - life happens *Artificially induced* - made with intent in a lab + *active* - involves your body making antibodies from antigens + *passive* - ivolves obtaining the antibodies from another source

what two things can trigger the inflammatory response?

*Physical entry* (cut) *Entry of a Microbe*

The antibody / antigen complex may cause the elimination of the antigen in one of 5 ways: *PANCO*

*Precipitation* - creates large 3D structure and the toxin cannot remain suspended in the solution *Agglutination*- cross links multiple bacteria or viruses and creates large complexes that can now be disposed of *Neutralization* - renders virus or toxin incapable of binding to a target cell *Compliment fixation* - lyses the cell, via MAC complex *Opsonization* - coats with compliment proteins to increase effectiveness of phagocytosis.

Some antigenic substances are immediately recognized, and are called what?

*Superantigen* / superantigenic. They evoke an immediate immune response.

Explain acquired drug resistance?

+ (exam **) Spontaneous mutation of the R-plasmid. + patient may have done something to lower the efficacy: a. did not properly dose, or take according to directions. b. did not finish full cycle of chemotherapy. + Vertical transmission, genetically acquired. + bacteria acquires new genetic material from other sources / biologics.

Explain acquired drug resistance?

+ (exam **) Spontaneous mutation of the R-plasmid. + patient may have done something to lower the efficacy: a. did not properly dose, or take according to directions. b. did not finish full cycle of chemotherapy. + bacteria acquires new genetic material from other sources / biologics.

Semi synthetic penicillins - Mode 1?

+ Ampicillin, + Carbenicillin, + AMOXYCILLIN (Broad-spectrum) against gram negative enteric rods

Name the antiviral drugs?

+ Cyclovirs: DNA synthesis / stops virus replication + AZT (azthmidine) - reverse transcriptase / blocks DNA formation + Amantadine: host cell membrane / blocks entry, fusion ( insertion / adsorption) + Relenza: anti-viral. blocks neuraminidase. (influenza A/B)

Explain factors of natural selection and drug resistance?

+ Physicians prescribe broad-spectrum drugs without culturing bacteria 1st ( illegal) - a.k.a. ' shotgun effect' (exam**) + patient did not take according to directions

What is the 1st line of defense?

+ Skin. nonspecific, innate. + lysozyme digestive enzymes that inhibits bacterial cell wall

what is broad-spectrum antimicrobic?

+ Some Penicillins, + Cephalosporins, + Tetracyclines, + Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

what drug treats aplastic anemia?

+ chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin), + sulfonamides (Gantanol), + cimetidine (Tagamet)

How can we overcome natural selection and drug resistance?

+ cocktail of drugs - reduced oxygen of the drug + educational programs + developing new drugs + reduce addition of antibiotics to animal feed (worldwide)

What are some portals of entry?

+ cut + GI tract + respiratory tract + urogenital tract

What are some portals of entry?

+ cut + GI tract + respiratory tract + urogenital tract + transplacental

types of adhesion?

+ fimbrae ( Prokaryote) + cilia (Eukaryote) + flagella + suckers, hooks, barbs

What are anti-phagocytic factors?

+ leukocidins - toxic to white blood cells. + slime layer or capsule + an ability to survive intracellular phagocytosis

IDs of selected pathogens

+ measles: 1 vírus (vir.) + small pox: 10 - 100 vir. + gonorrhea: 1000 vir. + cholera: 100 mil. vir.

what is the 2nd line of defense?

+ phagocytic cells( monocytes, neutrophils) / natural killer cells. + antimicrobial proteins: interferons, complement proteins, limphokines nonspecific- innate + inflammatory response: eosinophils, basophils

what is SCIDS?

+ severe combined immune deficiency syndrome + is congenital ( born that way)

which antimicrobic interferes with proteins synthesis?

+Aminoglycosides ( streptomycin, tetracycline) +Macrolides ( trimethoprim) - ?

true pathogens.

- Are capable of causing disease in healthy persons

Discuss true pathogens.

- Are capable of causing disease in healthy persons - are generally associated with a specific, recognizable disease

when does the microbiota of a newborn develop?

- During pregnancy - Immediately after childbirth

Give examples of true pathogens.

- Influenza virus, - plague bacillus, - malaria protozoan

Discuss Infectious Dose (ID).

- Microbes with small IDs have greater virulence - a lack of ID will NOT result in an infection.

Beta lactams

- inhibit peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis; prevent cross-linkage. Bactericidal include a Beta Lactam Ring Penicillin, Cephalosporins, Monobactams, and Carbapenem

Non B-lactam cell wall inhibitors - Mode 2 -?

- narrow spectrum - lyse cell wall like a B-lactam drug - Vancomycin - most effective in treating Staphylococcus (MRSA) (exam) - Bactracin - used topically as an ointment (from Bacillus subtilis) - Isoniazid (EXAM ***) - works by interfering with mycolic acid synthesis; used to treat infections from Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

49. Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.

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50. Drugs that insert on the _____ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation.

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51. Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called _____.

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52. All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group.

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53. The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.

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54. The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.

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55. Polyene drugs bind to fungal _____ and cause loss of selective permeability.

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56. Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of _____.

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57. If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.

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58. Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antbacterial drugs. Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.

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59. Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.

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60. Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains.

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Least numerous of all WBCs?

0.5% - Basophils

What percentage is basophils and what do they have?

0.5%; constricted nuclei, dark blue granules; release potent chemical mediators

What are the 4 components of the Immune Response?

1) *specificity* - ability to recognize and eliminate a specific microbe 2) *diversity* - ability to respond to many diff. microbes. 3) *self/ non-self* - can tell self -from non-self. If it cannot, this is called - auto-immune deficiency (arthritis, lupus, graves, crohn's/colitis). 4) *memory* - can recognize previous antigen, and mount a quick secondary response. Known as the *anamnestic response*

Complement proteins can perform what functions?

1) coat the cell, making it easier to phagocytize (opsonization) 2) create a MAC complex which lyses the cell, 3) cause vasodilation (inflammatory response), 4) increase permeability of vessels so WBCs and plasma (antibody) cells can enter tissues, 5) chemotaxis - signals macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils to an infected area.

What percentage is eosinophils and what do they have?

1-3%; orange granules and bi-lobed nucleus; destroy eukaryotic pathogens

Prokaryotes have 2 subunits of the ribosome

1. 30S 2. 50S

What is lymph? (4 things)

1. A plasma-like liquid carried by lymphatic circulation 2. Formed when blood components move out of blood vessels into extracellular spaces 3. Made up of water, dissolved salts, 2-5% proteins 4. Transports white blood cells, fats, cellular debris, and infectious agents

What are some drug side effects?

1. Allergic reaction 2. Damaged tissue 3. Superinfection

Cell mediated immune response Humoral immune response

1. Antigen has to be BIG 2. Antigen has to be SMALL

What is the mode of action of antivirals?

1. Blocks penetration 2. Blocks replication, transcription, and/or translation of viral genetic material ex: RELENZA - blocks neuraminidase

Colonization of newborns

1. Breaking the fetal membrane at birth 2. Any/all subsequent handling and feeding continue to introduce what will be the normal flora.

5 General Modes of Action of Drugs

1. Cell Wall 2. Cell Membrane 3. Nucleoid 4. Ribosome 5. Metabolic Pathway

Modes of action - 1

1. Cell wall inhibitors - peptidoglycan layer Group: penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin

There are three ways by which bacteria transfers genome from one bacteria to another.

1. Conjugation when bacteria uses the sex pili to transfer genetic material from the one bacteria to the next. There is direct contact. 2. The assimilation of genetic material by bacteria from its environment. There is no direct contact. 3. In transduction genetic materials are transferred between bacteria through a bacteriophage. (viruses that attack bacteria but not humans. They have only one objective: their reproduction)

Stages of disease from resident flora. (endogenous)

1. Contact. ( microbes adhere to exposed body surfaces) 2. Colonization of Flora 3. Invasion. ( microbes cross lines of defense and enter sterile tissues) 4. Infection ( pathogenic microbes multiply and sterile tissues) 5a. Defenses hold pathogen in check - > immunity/repair of damage. 5b. Effects of microbes result in injury or disruption to tissues -> morbidity/mortality occur

What are the benefits from interleukins?

1. Decreased healing time 2. Prevents or reduces symptoms of , and cold and papilloma virus 3. Slows progress of certain cancers 3. Treats hepatitis C

Name 2 different types of toxins and their functions?

1. Endotoxin - toxin that is not secreted, but is released after the cell is damaged. 2. Exotoxin - toxic molecule secreted by a living bacterial cell into the infected tissue.

Drugs that treat Mycoplasma? Exam Q ***

1. Erythromycin 2. Clindamycin 3. Zyvox - aka Linezoline / Linezolid. MRSA drug. synthetic drug that blocks the interaction of ribosomes. fourth-generation drug * EXAM - MRSA is a nosocomial infection (can be caught in a hospital)

Cellular Respiration 3 Phases

1. Glycolysis 2.Citric Acid 3.Electron Transport Chain

Name / explain the four (4) Stages of Clinical Infections?

1. Incubation period: Time from contact with infectious agent to appearance 1st symptoms; here, agent is multiplying, but damages are insufficient to cause symptoms - this can take from several hours to several years. 2. Prodromal stage: vague feelings of discomfort; nonspecific complaints 3. Period of invasion: growth at high levels, becomes well-established; more specific signs and symptoms present. 4. Convalescent period: Host responds to infection; symptoms decline.

What are the 4 factors of virulence?

1. Infect host 2. metabolize / multiplied in host tissue 3. resist host defenses for time 4. damage the host

What are three benefits of fever?

1. Inhibits multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms 2. Impedes nutrition of bacteria by reducing the available iron 3. Increases metabolism and stimulates immune reactions and protective physiological processes

2 types of drug resistance?

1. Intrinsic 2. Acquired

Different phases of bacterial growth

1. Lag Phase ("Flat" Period) - initial period; no growth. Incubation period; Prodromal 2. Exponential growth phase - rapid growth. Infection. Release waste products causing toxicity. 3. Stationary phase - no new growth; Number of bacteria that is being replicated = number of bacteria dying. 4. Death or decline Phase - decline in the viable; bacteria die faster than they multiply

What are some considerations when prescribing chemotherapy?

1. Medical condition of the patient 2. Test in vitro: which microbes causing the infection? a. Culture / identification of microbe/ virus should happen immediately b. once identified, then prescribe. 3. Test for drug susceptibility; MIC / ZOI. a. Determine minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) for dosage. 4. testing helps you discover a high therapeutic index (TI).

Name 2 Drugs that attack the Cell Wall

1. Penicillins 2. Cephalosporins 3. Beta Lactams

What are the three lines of defense the body depends on - Short answer?

1. Phys Barriers 2. Phagocytic cells, Inflammatory response, Interferons, Pyrogens, Compliment proteins 3. Cell-mediated / Humoral-mediated

Development of Infection - 7 stages

1. Portal of entry 2. Adhesion 3. Invasion. 4. Multiplication. 5. Infection of the target 6. Disease 7. Portal of Exit

The Lymphatic System...

1. Provides an auxiliary route for return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system 2. Acts as a drain-off system for the inflammatory response 3. Renders surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign material

Name the (absurd amount of) ideal drug characteristics?

1. Selectively toxic to microbe 2. prefer microbicidal to microbistatic 3. relatively soluble 4. remain potent long enough so it won't be excreted 5. does not lead to antimicrobial resistance 6. readily delivered to the site of infection 7. reasonably priced 8. does not disrupt the health of the host by causing allergies or predisposing the host to other infections. ------------- From Book Below ------------ 9. it should be able to destroy or inhibit many kinds of pathogenic microorganisms ( broad-spectrum) - effective against many different species. 10. it should not eliminate the host's normal microorganisms that inhabit the intestinal tract or other areas of the body, i.e., normal microflora 11. if given orally, it should not be inactivated by stomach acids. 12. if given intravenously, it should not be inactivated by binding to blood proteins. 13. it must be able to reach sufficiently high concentration in the tissues or blood of the patient to kill or inhibit pathogens.

Properties of Ideal Drugs

1. Selectively toxic to the microbe but nontoxic to the host cell. 2. Microbicidal rather than microbistatic 3. Relatively Soluble; functions when highly diluted in body fluids. 4. Remains potent long enough to act and isn't broken down or excreted prematurely. 5. Doesn't lead to the development of antimicrobial resistance. 6. Complements or assists the activities of the hosts's defenses. 7. Remains active in tissues and body fluids. 8. Delivered to the site of infection. 9. Reasonably priced 10. Doesn't disrupt the hosts health by causing allergies or cause other infections.

Characteristics of the immune system

1. Specificity 2. Diversity 3. Self/nonself recognition 4. Memory

Sulfa drugs that block metabolic pathways? - Mode 5 Exam Q ***

1. Sulfisoxazole: Synthetic, sulfa-drug / narrow-range. + Treats shigellosis, UTI, protozoan infections ~ 3 NEW DRUGS TO KNOW / EXAM 2. Fosfomycin Trimethamine - Synthetic, sulfa-drug / narrow-range. + A phosphoric acid effective as an alternative treatment for UTIs. 3. Synercid: Synthetic, protein-synthesis inhibitor, narrow-range. + Treats staph and enterococcus that cause endocardial damage and surgical infections. Inhibits protein synthesis 4. Daptomycin: + Primarily treats gram-positive bacteria; disrupts membrane functions

What are the three functions of a healthy functioning immune system?

1. Surveillance of the body 2. Recognition of foreign material 3. Destruction of entities deemed to be foreign

What are three general activities of phagocytes?

1. To survey tissue compartments and discover microbes, particulate matter, and dead or injured cells 2. To ingest and eliminate these materials 3. To extract immunogenic information from foreign matter

What are the 2 general groups of pathogens?

1. True pathogens (primary pathogens) 2. Opportunistic pathogens.

Vector

1. a carrier, especially the animal (usually an arthropod) that transfers an infective agent from one host to another.

3 elements of chemotherapy to consider?

1. drug 2. host 3. microbe

Name the eight (8) Patterns of Infection

1. localized infection 2. systemic infection 3. focal infection 4. mixed infection ( polymicrobial) 5. primary infection 6. secondary infection 7. acute infection 8. chronic infection

Name the antibiotic classes by Genome?

1. streptomyces 2. bacillus 3. penicillium 4. cephalosporium Acronym: SBPC

Four (4) factors that cause disease?

1. virulence factors 2. exoenzymes 3. toxigenicity 4. antiphagocytic factors

Primary immune response take how many days?

10 - 17 days

What are the minimize sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave?

121 degrees C/15 psi/10-40 mins

Primary infection

1st time of infection

How many mechanisms the body uses to defend itself

2 Nonspecific and Specific

How do you treat a retrovirus?

2 targets for chemotherapy: 1. Block reverse transcriptase 2. Inhibition of adsorption of HIV onto CD4+ T cells

Modes of action - 2

2. Cell membrane - causes loss of selective permeability Group: polymyxins

Modes of action - 2

2. Cell membrane - causes loss of selective permeability Made of phospholipids. Group: polymyxins G and V

There are 260 different antimicrobial drugs that are classified into

20 drug families. Drugs are also classified into generations which also have subgroups. We are on the 7th generation.

What percentage are lymphocytes and what are the two types?

20-35%; B (humoral immunity) and T (cell-mediated immunity)

Complement consists of __ blood proteins that work in concert to destroy bacteria and viruses

What makes up a B-lactam drug?

3 components: 1. B-lactam ring 2. Thiazolidine ring 3. Variable side-chain

What percentage are monocytes/macrophages and what are they?

3-7%; largest of WBCs, kidney-shaped nucleus; phagocytic

Modes of action - 3

3. DNA / RNA - inhibit replication and transcription. Inhibit gyrase (winding/unwinding enzyme) Group: quinolones, quinones, quinines ex: ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

Modes of action - 3

3. DNA / RNA - inhibit replication and transcription. Inhibit gyrase (winding/unwinding enzyme) Group: quinolones, quinones, quinines ex: ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

Modes of action - 3

3. Nucleoid DNA / RNA - inhibit replication and transcription. Inhibit gyrase Group: quinolones, quinones, quinines Mefloquine ex: ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

Modes of action - 4

4. proteins synthesis inhibitors 50S / site of action Group: macrolides ex: Chloramphenicol, erythromycin, clindamycin, oxazolidinones -------------------------- 30S / site of action Group: aminoglycosides ex :Gentamicin, streptomycin, Tetracyclines Aureomycin

Modes of action - 4

4. proteins synthesis inhibitors 50S / site of action Group: macrolides ex: erythromycin, clindamycin, Chloramphenicol, oxazolidinones -------------------------- 30S / site of action Group: aminoglycosides ex: tetracycline, aminoglycosides, streptomycin

Secondary immune response take how many days?

5-7 days

Mode of action - 5

5. Metabolic block pathways and inhibit metabolism Group: sulfa drugs ex: trimethoprim All together they are PABA

Mode of action - 5

5. Metabolic products - block pathways and inhibit metabolism Group: sulfa drugs ex: trimethoprim

What percentage is neutrophils and what do they have?

55-90%; lobed nuclei with lavender granules; phagocytes

Plasma consists of what?

92% water, metabolic proteins, globulins, clotting factors, hormones, and all other chemicals and gases to support normal physiological functions

Precipitation

= aggregates

Complement fixation

= lysing lysis of foreign cells and release of molecules that enhance the inflammatory response

Antibiotics a chemical produced by some microbes to destroy other microbes.

A bacteria-fighting medicine that is derived from a biological source (plan, mold, or other bacteria). Natural chemotherapeutic agents, produced by one microorganism, which in very small quantities is inhibitory to other microorganisms.

helix

A coiled, springlike secondary structure of a protein.

What is zoonosis?

A disease communicable from animals to humans under natural conditions

what is zoonosis?

A disease that is normally present in animals and could jump to a different species (human) - from a dog to a human.

what is zoonosis?

A disease that is normally present in animals and could jump to a different species (human) - from a dog to a human. + Typically only last to the 3rd generation. if it lasts longer, it is known as an emergent disease. + At least 150 exist worldwide; they make up 70% of all new emerging diseases worldwide. + Impossible to eradicate. You must destroy all reservoirs.

_______ is an example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates chemotaxis

A fibrin clot

What is the difference between a granulocyte and an agranulocyte?

A granulocyte has a lobed nucleus and an agranulocyte has an unlobed, rounded nucleus

Codon

A group of nucleotides that dictate which amino acid will be added to the chain.

What is the immune system?

A large, complex, and diffuse network of cells and fluids that penetrate into every organ and tissue

what is a vector?

A live animal (non-human) which transmits pathogens from one host cell to another. NOT necessarily the cause of the disease. ex: mosquitoes do not cause malaria, but are a vector for the disease.

What is a phagolysosome? And how often does it live?

A lysosome fused with a phagosome and 30 minutes

Mortality Rate

A measure of the frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specified interval of time

What is the reticuloendothelial system?

A network of connective tissue fibers that interconnects other cells and meshes with the connective tissue network surrounding organs

Nonsense mutation

A normal codon that mutates to become a stop codon or a stop codon that changes to become a normal codon.

Reservoir

A place where the pathogen grows and reproduces; Pathogens reside

Koch's Postulates

A series of 4 conditions that must be met to establish an infectious agent as the cause of a particular disease in a lab.

Koch's Postulates

A series of 4 conditions that must be met to establish an infectious agent as the cause of a particular disease or condition in a LAB

Koch's Postulates

A series of 4 conditions that must be met to establish an infectious agent as the cause of a particular disease or condition. 1. The microbe must be present in all cases of the disease. 2. The microbe must be isolated from someone with the disease and grown in pure culture. 3. Inoculation into a susceptible organism of the microbe-from a pure culture—must produce the disease. 4. The microbe must be recovered from the infected-inoculated organism and grown again in culture.

Epitope

A small, accessible region of an antigen to which an antigen receptor or antibody binds; also called an antigenic determinant

Spliceosome

A type of RNA and Protein. Recognizes the intron-extron junctions.Splicer enzyme. Joins extron to extron.

Biological vector

A vector that is essential in the life cycle of a pathogenic organism.

What are bacteriophages ?

A virus that specifically infects bacteria

Which of the following is an example of GALT? A. Appendix B. Lymph nodes C. Spleen D. Tonsils E. Thymus gland

A. Appendix

Viruses A. Cannot be seen in a light microscope B. Are prokaryotic C. Contain 70S ribosomes D. Undergo binary fission E. All of the choices are correct

A. Cannot be seen in a light microscope

Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are A. Chronic latent viruses B. Oncoviruses C. Syncytia D. Inclusion bodies E. Cytiopathic

A. Chronic latent viruses

Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. Envelope B. Capsomeres C. Capsid D. Nucleic acid E. Genome

A. Envelope

Viruses attach to their hosts via A. Host glycoproteins B. Host phospholipids C. Viral phospholipids D. Viral flagella E. All of the choices are correct

A. Host glycoproteins

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT? a. it is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis b. it directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA c. it inhibits the assembly of HIV particles d. it inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope. e. it prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome

A. It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis.

Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. Latent B. Oncogenic C. Prions D. Viroids E. Delta agents

A. Latent

Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs? A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Gallbladder D. Spleen E. Stomach

A. Liver

Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A. Lymph nodes B. Thymus C. spleen D. GALT E. Tonsils

A. Lymph nodes

New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by A. Lysis B. Budding C. Exocytosis D. Both lysis and budding E. Both budding and exocytosis

A. Lysis

Cells grown in culture form a(n) A. Monolayer B. Bilayer C. Aggregate D. Plaque E. None of the choices are correct

A. Monolayer

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. A. Nucleus, cytoplasm B. Cytoplasm, cell membrane C. Cell membrane, cytoplasm D. Cytoplasm, nucleus E. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

A. Nucleus, cytoplasm

Viruses with _____ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message. A. Positive, negative B. Negative, positive C. Primary, secondary D. Secondary, primary E. None of the choices are correct

A. Positive, negative

Which bacteria does Levaquin target? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Moraxella catarrhalis D. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus E. All of the choices are correct

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape? A. Tetrahedral B. Complex C. Helical D. Icosahedron E. All of the choices are capsid shapes

A. Tetrahedral

Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called A. Viroids B. Phages C. Prions D. Oncogenic viruses E. Spikes

A. Viroids

29. Elimination and destruction systems present in the phagolysosome include all the following, except A. bromine. B. hydroxyl free radical. C. nitric oxide. D. lactic acid. E. lysozyme.

A. bromine.

The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin

A. chloramphenicol.

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except a. development of resistance to the drug. b. hepatotoxicity. c. nephrotoxicity. d. diarrhea. e. deafness

A. development of resistance to the drug.

Due to the way the lymph drains from lymph nodes, cell and products of immunity continually A. enter the regular circulatory system. B. enter the liver. C. enter the gastrointestinal tract. D. enter the gall bladder. E. enter the thymus gland.

A. enter the regular circulatory system.

All the following are events of early inflammation, except A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released. C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D. exudate and pus can accumulate. E. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema.

A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.

The key phagocytic cells of the body are the A. neutrophils and macrophages. B. basophils and neutrophils. C. eosinophils and macrophages. D. macrophages and monocytes. E. natural killer cells.

A. neutrophils and macrophages.

Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means A. redness. B. pain. C. loss of function. D. warmth. E. swelling.

A. redness.

This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora A. skin. B. respiratory tract. C. digestive tract. D. urinary tract. E. eyes.

A. skin.

All of the following pertain to platelets, except A. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. B. they are also called thrombocytes. C. they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes. D. they function in blood clotting and inflammation. E. they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.

A. they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

26. Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all A. vasoactive mediators. B. mediators of B cell activity. C. mediators of T cell activity. D. mediators that increase chemotaxis. E. fever inducers.

A. vasoactive mediators.

Chargraffs Rule

A=T; 2 Hydrogen Bonds G=C; 3 Hydrogen Bonds

Acyclovir is used to treat what?

ANTIVIRAL medication. It is primarily used for the treatment of HERPES SIMPLEX, CHICKENPOX, and SHINGLES. + prevention cytomegalovirus infections following transplant ( prophylaxis) + infections due to Epstein-Barr virus

Class 2 MHC resides on what kind of cells?

APCs - specialized cells (B-cell plasma membranes) note: Helper T-cells, Memory Helper T-cells.

Start Codon

AUG

Dual Function Codon

AUG Methionine

Bactericidal

Able to kill bacteria A temperature or chemical that destroys bacteria

Exam hint - 1 **

About 260 different antimicrobial drugs are classified into 20 drug families

How widely used are Cephalosporins?

Account for roughly 1/3 of all drugs

Acid-fast versus non-acid-fast

Acid-fast will stain red non acid-fast will stain blue . Acid fast have wax like lipid mycolic acid

What is the third line of defense?

Acquired with exposure to foreign substance; produces protective antibodies and creates memory cells - specific

Name an anti-herpes drug?

Acyclovir

Synergistic effect

Additive. multiple drugs working together. REQUIRES LOWERING THE DOSAGE OF BOTH DRUGS

DNA Polymerase III

Adds bases to new DNA chains; proofreads chains for mistakes

Purines

Adenine and Guanine

Stages of lytic cycle

Adsorption - binding of virus to specific molecule on host cell Penetration- genome enters host cell Un coating - viral nuclear acid is released from the capsid , exposes it's genome Synthesis - viral components are produced , viral genome integrates with the host cell genome Assembly - new viral particles are constructed Release - assembled viruses are released by Budding or cell lysis

Who discovered Penicillin?

Alexander Fleming 1929

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include A) low toxicity for human tissues B) high toxicity against microbial cells C) do not cause serious side effects in humans D) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids E) all of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

What is differential media?

Allows growth of several types of microbes and displays visible differences among those microbes Ex. MacConkey

Types of hemolysis

Alpha , beta and gamma

_______ interferon, produced by T lymphocytes, activates cells called _____ and is involved in destroying viruses

Alpha, natural killer cells

Macrolides (Erythomycin)

Alternative to penicillin and not destroyed by penicillinase; Produced by mold, disrupts protein synthesis in 50S subunit

What are cephalosporins?

Alternative to penicillin that also work to destroy bacteria's cell wall. Synthetically altered beta-lactam structure that make up 1/3rd of antibiotics administered. Given orally; many administered parentarally. Generic name have root: -cef, cepho, or kef.

Antiviral drugs

Amantadine, Rimantadine, Tamiflu EXAM ** RELENZA Relenza works on influenza type A and type B by blocking NEURAMINIDASE.

What drug is used to treat gram negative rod infections?

Aminoglycosides

Drugs that will destroy the 30s

Aminoglycosides a. Gentamicin b. Streptomycin

Drugs that work on ribosomes (30S)/ inhibit proteins synthesis? - Mode 4 - Exam Q1.

Aminoglycosides (30S subunit) Tetracycline (has 4 R-groups), Doxycycline (Inexpensive) - Mode of action: composed of 2 or more amino sugars, and aminocyclitol (6C) ring; binds the ribosomal subunit (30S). - the 1st ever Tetracycline made was AUREOMYCIN -> (EXAM **) Streptomycin

Drugs that work on ribosomes (30S)/ inhibit proteins synthesis? - Mode 4 - Exam Q1.

Aminoglycosides (30S subunit) Tetracycline (has 4 R-groups), Doxycycline (Inexpensive) - ribosomal subunit (30S). - the 1st ever Tetracycline made was AUREOMYCIN -> (EXAM **) Streptomycin

disease

An abnormal condition of all or part of the body, or its systems or organs, that makes the body incapable of carrying on normal function.

What is a macrolide (Erthromycin and its relatives)

An antibacterial produced by a mold that blocks the bacterial cell's machinery-50S subunit of it ribosome, preventing protein synthesis.

Superantigen

An antigen that will evoke immediate response by the immune system.

what is a lysozyme?

An enzyme found in saliva, tears, sweat

what is a lysozyme?

An enzyme that destroys the cell wall of microbes - Mode #1. found in saliva, tears, sweat

what is a fomite?

An inanimate object that transmits disease. Any inanimate or nonpathogenic substance or material (e.g., sheets, surfaces of furniture, papers and so forth), exclusive of food, which may act as a vector for a pathogen.

Superinfection

An infection occuring during treatment for another infection; normal flora are disturbed , allowing an overgrowth of microorganisms

STORCH is the acronym for what?

An infection of the fetus and newborn: Syphilis, Toxoplasmosis, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus and Herpes virus.

What is an endogenous infectious agent?

An infectious agent that is already present in the body, but has previously been inapparent or dormant e.g herpes virus. Opportunistic pathogens - becomes pathogenic when the immune system is weakened.

Secondary infection

Another infection by a different microbe - (different location than previous)

Secondary Infection

Another infection by another microbe due to the weakening of the immune system.

What is the principle by which antibiotics are produced

Antagonism

Two positive staining procedures for viewing capsules

Anthony's and hiss's

What are aminoglycosides?

Antibiotics that inhibits protein synthesis by permanently attaching to the microbe's ribosome (protein) sub-unit 30S. Streptomycin & Neomycin

What disrupts normal flora/microbiota?

Antibiotics, dietary changes, and disease

Neutralization

Antibodies cover surface receptors on viruses and neutralize them.

What are broad spectrum drugs?

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types

What are beta-lactams?

Antimicrobials that prevent cell wall synthesis; Penicillin and Cephalosporins. The most prominent group of drugs.

Antiparasitic v. anti-protozoan. Fun facts

Antiparasitic is anti-protozoan, and is also anti-helmenthic

How is viral infection treated ?

Antiviral drugs to help virus stay at dormant state

What is the first line of defense?

Any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry - nonspecific

What is a chemotherapeutic drug?

Any chemical used in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of the disease

West Nile Disease, Malaria and Sleeping sickness can be treated with?

Any of the quine drugs.

Define pathogen?

Any organism capable of causing disease

How to recognize an antiviral drug?

Anytime you see' VIR' in the name

Stages of lysogeny

Attachment (adsorption) , entry (penetration) , uncoat (no uncoat in bacteriophage of animal host cells) and integration

NK natural killer cells

Attack cancer and virus infected cells. They are NOT phagocytic. AKA kamikaze cells

What are HIV drugs?

Azidothymidine (AZT). How: Is a thymine analog. It blocks nucleoside reverse transcriptase. It is an inhibitor.

What are the third line of defense?

B and T lymphocytes, antibodies, and cytotoxicity

_____ lymphocytes function in humoral immunity, while _____ lymphocytes function in cellmediated immunity.

B, T

Lymphocytes

B-lymph B cells Plasma cells antibodies immunoglobulins

Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produced against the virus. A. Glycoproteins B. Antibodies C. Complement proteins D. Antigens E. None of the choices are correct

B. Antibodies

Viral spikes A. Are always present on enveloped viruses B. Bind viral capsid and envelope together C. Allow bacteria to evade host defenses D. Are derived from host proteins E. All of the choices are correct

B. Bind viral capsid and envelope together

A _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus. A. Capsomere B. Capsid C. Spike D. Envelope E. Monolayer

B. Capsid

A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures. A. Embryo B. Cell C. Plaque D. Bacteriophage E. Egg

B. Cell

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell? A. Viral nucleic acid integrated into host DNA B. Decreased growth rate C. Alterations in chromosomes D. Changes in cell surface molecules E. Capacity to divide indefinitely

B. Decreased growth rate

Satellite viruses are A. Also called viroids B. Dependent on other viruses for replication C. The cause of spongiform encephalopathies D. Significant pathogens of plants E. All of the choices are correct

B. Dependent on other viruses for replication

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. herpes zoster virus. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus.

B. HIV.

Which of the following represents a virus family name? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpesviridae C. Picornavirus D. Enterovirus E. Hepatitis B virus

B. Herpesviridae

In transduction, the viral genome A. Initiates lysis of the host B. Includes DNA from the previous host C. Is replicated in the cytoplasm D. Is replicated in the nucleus E. None of the choices are correct

B. Includes DNA from the previous host

T-even phages A. Include the poxviruses B. Infect Escherichia coli cells C. Enter host cells by engulfment D. Have helical capsids E. All of the choices are correct

B. Infect Esherichia coli cells

The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. Adsorption to the host cells B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell C. Host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins D. Assembly of nucleocapsids E. Replication of viral nucleic acid

B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell

When macrophages migrate to the skin and remain there, they are called _____ cells. A. alveolar B. Langerhans C. GALT D. Kupffer

B. Langerhans

When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called A. Transformation B. Lysogenic conversion C. Viral persistence D. Transcription E. Translation

B. Lysogenic conversion

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A. Hepatitis B virus B. Measles virus C. Papillomavirus D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses E. Epstein-Barr virus

B. Measles virus

Viruses have all the following except A. Definite shape B. Metabolism C. Genes D. Ability to infect host cells E. Ultramicroscopic size

B. Metabolism

Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are A. Chronic latent viruses B. Oncoviruses C. Syncytia D. Inclusion bodies E. Cytiopathic

B. Oncoviruses

Which is incorrect about complement? A. Composed of at least 26 blood proteins B. Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen C. Act in a cascade reaction D. Involves a classical pathway E. Involves an alternate pathway

B. Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen

45. During what process is hypochlorite & hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A. Inflammation B. Phagocytosis C. Interferon production D. Complement production

B. Phagocytosis

Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture. A. Initial B. Primary C. Secondary D. Continuous E. Positive

B. Primary

Which is incorrect about inflammation? A. It can last hours to years. B. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. C. Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction. D. Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E. Basophils and mast cells release histamine.

B. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.

What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors? A. Sheath B. Tail fibers C. Nucleic acid D. Capsid head E. None of the choices are correct

B. Tail fibers

Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration? a. Penicillin G b. Tetraclycline c. Gentamicin d. Vancomycin e. Erythromycin

B. Tetraclycline

Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of Tlymphocytes? A. Lymph nodes B. Thymus C. spleen D. GALT E. Tonsils

B. Thymus

Which of the following is not a viral order in the classification system? A. Caudovirales B. Vaccinia virus C. Nidovirales D. Mononegavirales E. All of the choices are viral orders

B. Vaccinia virus

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that a. blocks penetration. b. blocks DNA replication. c. inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking. d. blocks maturation. e. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.

B. blocks DNA replication.

The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin

B. clindamycin.

Drug susceptibility testing A. determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics. B. determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics. C. determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics. D. determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient. E. determines the pathogen's identity

B. determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics.

The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes.

B. eosinophils.

27. These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections. They are known as A. monocytes. B. eosinphils. C. basophils. D. neutrophils. E. lymphocytes.

B. eosinphils.

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections. A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) virus

B. fungal

The contribution of B cells is mainly in A. inflammation. B. humoral immunity. C. complement activity. D. cell mediated immunity. E. phagocytosis.

B. humoral immunity.

All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained, except A. eosinophils. B. monocytes. C. neutrophils. D. basophils. E. They are all granulocytes.

B. monocytes.

Antimicrobics effective against only gram positive bacteria would be termed A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.

B. narrow-spectrum drugs.

Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means A. redness. B. pain. C. loss of function. D. warmth. E. swelling.

B. pain

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A. skin. B. respiratory tract. C. digestive tract. D. urinary tract. E. eyes.

B. respiratory tract.

All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except A. they should be given early in an infection. B. they prevent assembly and release of the virus. C. they are used to treat infections by influenza A and B. D. they inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus. E. they are effective prophylactics for influenza.

B. they prevent assembly and release of the virus.

What's so great about Streptomyces? (w/modes of action numbered)

BEST BROAD SPECTRUM vancomycin - 1, amphotericin - 2, erythromycin - 4, chloramphenicol - 4, tetracycline - 4. Acronym: VACET

Bacillus sp. Penicillium sp Cephalosporium Streptomyces sp. Penicillium chrysogenum Micromonospora

Bacitracin, Polymixin B Penicillins, Griseofulvin Cephalosporins Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol, Amphotericin B, Erythromycin, Tetracycline, Aureomycin, Vancomycin Penicillin (is a group of drugs) Beta Lactems Gentamicin

Strict obligate aerobe

Bacteria that can only grow in the presence of oxygen

Strict obligate anaerobes

Bacteria that cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, it is believed these bacteria lack enzymes like superoxide dismutase and catalase present an anaerobic bacteria which act upon the toxic super oxide ion that accumulates in the presence of oxygen

Microaerophilic

Bacteria that grow best in decreased concentrations of oxygen

Capnic

Bacteria that have an increased need for carbon dioxide

Aerobe

Bacteria that need molecular oxygen

Antimicrobial are all the different classes of microbes which include

Bacterial, Fungal, protozoan, viral, anti helminthic.

Temperate

Bacteriophages that do not destroy their host but become prophages which enter a lysogenic cycle with the host

The 3 lines of defense are called

Barrier

mast cells are derived from?

Basophils

What cells migrate when they mature?

Basophils --> mast cells Monocytes --> macrophages

What is the drug used to treat typhoid fever?

Before 1970 Chloramphenicol was used. Now Ampicillin is used.

What are alternative pathways?

Begins when complement proteins bind to normal cell wall and surface components of microorganisms

Who discovered tetracycline?

Benjamin Minge Duggar

Metronidazole is treatmet for what?

Besides fungal infections it also treats protozoa infections

Exam hint - 2 **

Beta Lactam antimicrobials - All contain a highly reactive 3 carbon, one nitrogen ring. - Primary mode of action is to interfere with cell wall synthesis. Mode #1 - Comprises more than one half of all drugs

Exam hint - 2 **

Beta Lactam antimicrobials - Primary mode of action is to interfere with cell wall synthesis. Mode #1 - Comprises more than one half of all drugs

Exam hint - 3 **

Beta Lactam antimicrobials : ** Mostly mode of action #1 - Cell wall inhibitors Thiazolodine ring Beta Lactam Ring Variable Side chain Microbial activity comes from: VARIABLE SIDE CHAIN DICTATES ALLERGIES, MODE OF ACTION

What is incubation period?

Between the initial contact to first symptoms of infection; infectious agent multiplies

What is miniaturized or automated bacteria identification ?

Biolog micro station - a computer used for identification of microbes Advantages include time , accuracy and efficiency

Fluoroquinolones

Block DNA topoisomerases; inhibits DNA synthesis; not nephrotoxic

Compliment Proteins, are what?

Blood plasma proteins that enhance the action of antibodies. They only become active when a foreign substance enters the body.

Chlolramphenicol

Broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat aplastic anemia - wbc destroy own (maturing) blood cells; low blood ct.

Nucleotides

Building blocks of Nucleic Acid 5 carbon sugar deoxyribose Phosphate group Nitrogenous

How is a bacterial infection treated?

By the use of antibiotics

Missense mutation

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. Penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, release B. Uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, release C. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release D. Assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, adsorption E. Adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, penetration

C. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release

Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called A. Viroids B. Prions C. Bacteriophages D. Satellite viruses E. All of the choices infect bacteria

C. Bacteriophages

Virus capsids are made from subunits called A. Envelopes B. Spikes C. Capsomeres D. Prophages E. Peplomers

C. Capsomeres

In which stage of the multiplication cycle of T-even phages are the phages developing and are not yet infectious? A. Virion B. Induction C. Eclipse D. Conversion E. None of the choices are correct

C. Eclipse

One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid. A. Spiked B. Complex C. Icosahedral D. Helical E. Buckeyball

C. Icosahedral

Which is incorrect regarding fever? A. It is present in all vertebrates. B. It increases the rate of antibody synthesis. C. It is a symptom of a few diseases. D. When rising, a person feels cold. E. It inhibits the multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms.

C. It is a symptom of a few diseases.

A naked virus only has a(n) A. Capsid B. Capsomere C. Nucleocapsid D. Envelope E. Antigenic surface

C. Nucleocapsid

Who developed a rabies vaccine by separating bacteria from virus using a filter? A. Leewonhoek B. Koch C. Pasteur D. Cohn

C. Pasteur

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. Lysogeny B. Budding C. Plaques D. Cytopathic effects E. Pocks

C. Plaques

Infectious protein particles are called A. Viroids B. Phages C. Prions D. Oncogenic viruses E. Spikes

C. Prions

Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals? A. Gamma interferon B. Interleukin 5 C. Prostaglandins D. Histamine E. Platelet-activating factor

C. Prostaglandins

A negative RNA virus must first A. Synthesize a DNA copy of its genome B. Synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome C. Synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome D. Transcribe reverse transcriptase E. Transcribe RNA polymerase

C. Synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome.

What type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Temperate D. Temporary E. Transformed

C. Temperate

Host range is limited by A. Type of nucleic acid in the virus B. Age of the host cell C. Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane D. Size of the host cell E. All of the choices are correct

C. Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane

The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is A. Adsorption B. Penetration C. Uncoating D. Synthesis E. Assembly

C. Uncoating

32. The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves A. initiation of the cascade. B. production of inflammatory cytokines. C. a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes. D. cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b. E. C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane.

C. a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.

Gram negative rods are often treated with A) penicillin G B) vancomycin C) aminoglycosides D) synercid E) isoniazid

C. aminoglycosides.

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is nystatin. griseofulvin. amphotericin B. sulfa drugs. metronidazole.

C. amphotericin B.

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except A) broad spectrum B) include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin C) are nephrotoxic D) used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections E) readily absorbed from intestines

C. are nephrotoxic.

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms A. do not cause many human infections. B. are not affected by antimicrobics. C. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult. D. are parasites found inside human cells. E. have fewer target sites compared to bacteria

C. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult.

28. All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors, except A. single-stranded viral RNA. B. flagellin. C. host cell membrane proteins. D. lipoteichoic acid. E. lipopolysaccharide.

C. host cell membrane proteins.

Antimicrobics that are macrolides A) disrupt cell membrane function B) include tetracyclines C) include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin D) are very narrow-spectrum drugs E) are hepatotoxic

C. include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin

Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus? A. tetracycline B. isoniazid C. linezolid D. aminoglycosides E. cephalosporins

C. linezolid

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A. lactic acid. B. hydrochloric acid. C. lysozyme. D. histamine. E. bile.

C. lysozyme.

The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes. E. lymphocytes.

C. neutrophils.

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. prevention of drug entry into the cell. D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. E. All of the choices are correct.

C. prevention of drug entry into the cell.

Hemopoiesis is the A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging. B. production of only red blood cells. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

Acyclovir is used to treat A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus.

C. shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.

Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A. Lymph nodes B. Thymus C. spleen D. GALT E. Tonsils

C. spleen

what is the inflammatory response?

CALOR: heat DOLOR: pain RUBOR: redness TUMOR: swelling Fever: may develop due to the release of PYROGENS

CDC stands for

CENTERS FOR DISEASE CONTROL PREVENTION

Define Therapeutic index (TI)?

Calculation of efficacy of the drug versus its toxicity on host

What is Calor?

Calor - heat

Alcohol

Can kill bacteria and fungi, but not endospores and most viruses; not a sterilizing agent

Give three examples of opportunistic pathogen's

Candida albicans, Pseudonomas aeruginosa, staphylococcus aureus

Aerotolerant anaerobes

Cannot use oxygen but can tolerate fairly well they grow better however under microaerophilic conditions

What is toxigenicity?

Capacity to produce toxins at the site of multiplication ( in sterile host tissues)

Negative stains include

Capsules and spores

Primary staying for acid fast is

Carbol fuschin

Phenols and Phenolic (Disinfectants)

Carbolic Acid - used to control surgical infections; antibacterial effect <1%. They can damage the cell membrane and cell wall of certain microorganisms. Phenolic (derivative of Phenols) have less side effects than Phenol e.g Lysol, Pinesol

Asymptomatic carrier

Carries showing no signs or symptoms

Opportunistic pathogen, define.

Cause disease in people whose resistance factors are compromised by another disease or by prolonged antibiotic therapy

Missense mutation

Causes change in a single amino acid thereby producing a different type of amino acid

A Drug that destroys pentaglycine inter bridge, what part of the microbe does that drug work on?

Cell Wall

Immune system is composed of the T and B cell responses

Cell-mediated and humoral responses

What are some examples of chemotactic actions?

Cells migrate to site of damage, major phagocytes, release mediators, macrophages, and lymphocytes

Cephalosporin bacterium source?

Cephalosporium acneomnium. 4th generation is - CEFEPINE, will DESTROY gram - / + microbes Is a BROAD-SPECTUM B-lactam drug (EXAM Q **)

Cephalosporin bacterium source?

Cephalosporium acneomnium. 4th generation is - CEPHAMINE, will DESTROY gram - / + microbes Is a BROAD-SPECTUM B-lactam drug (EXAM Q **)

Cephalosporin bacterium source?

Cephalosporium acneomnium. 4th generation is - Cefepime, will DESTROY gram - / + microbes Is a BROAD-SPECTUM B-lactam drug (EXAM Q **)

Tetracycline

Changes teeth color in children; Antibiotic: tetracycline prototype; bacteriostatic inhibitor of protein synthesis (30S). Broad spectrum, but many resistant organisms. Used for Lyme disease, mycoplasmal, chlamydial, rickettsial infections, chronic bronchitis, acne, cholera; a back−up drug in syphilis. Tox: GI upset and superinfections (Candida, staphylococci), antianabolic actions, Fanconi's syndrome (outdated drug), photosensitivity, dental enamel dysplasia

Endergonic Reaction Exergonic Reaction

Chemical reaction in which energy is required, consumed. Anabolism A chemical reaction in which energy is released. Catabolism

Clavulanic acid

Chemical that inhibits beta lactamase enzyme.

Glutaraldehyde

Chemicals that are officially accepted as sterilants and high-level disinfectants

Bacteriostatic agents

Chemicals that inhibit growth but do not kill bacterium.

Positive feedback

Child birth. During labor, a hormone called oxytocin is released that intensifies and speeds up contractions. The increase in contractions causes more oxytocin to be released and the cycle goes on until the baby is born. The birth ends the release of oxytocin and ends the positive feedback mechanism.

Chloramines

Chlorine combined with Ammonia; Used of disinfecting antisepsis or sanitizing, used to sanitize eating utensils and glassware

Which nonspecific host defense is associated with the trachea?

Ciliary lining

Quinolones used on UTIs / STDs?

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

What are the three types of complement pathways?

Classical, lectin pathway, and alternative

What is the chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes?

Clavulanic Acid

What is the drug used to treat intestinal bacterial infections that causes colitis?

Clindamycin - Narrow spectrum - Inhibits Protein Synthesis

Protein Complexes

Co Q, cytochrome C, and ATP synthase.

Exon

Coding region for a protein. The "good stuff"

Microbes that get on top of the skin make contact and they will

Colonize that area. If they penetrate past the 1st line of defense then its invasion.

Iodophors

Combined with an organic molecule, it is an antimicrobial agent: Betadine

Schaefer - Fulton

Common staining technique to view spores, positive staining

Sulfa drugs - method of action

Competitive inhibition - drug competes with the active site for normal activity

What are some mediators with both vasoactive and chemotactic effects?

Complement components, cytokines like interferon and interleukin, some products of arachidonic acid metabolism, and platelet activators

Holoenzyme

Conjugated enzyme. Both protein and nonprotein molecules (Apoenzyme + cofactor)

What is an enriched medium ?

Contains complex organic substances such as blood , serum , hemoglobin or special growth factors require by fastidious microbes Ex. Blood agar

What is selective media ?

Contains one or more agents that inhibit growth of some microbes and encourage growth of the desired microbes

Autoclave

Control agent used to achieve sterility

The _____ region of a lymph node has germinal centers packed with T and B lymphocytes.

Cortex

Basic dyes

Crystal violet, methylene blue, saffron, and malachite green

Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is A. Caused by a chronic latent virus B. Initiated by an oncogenic virus C. Caused by a viroid D. A spongiform encephalopathy of humans E. Also called "mad cow disease"

D. A spongiform encephalopathy of humans

Juan has influenza and has aches, pains, and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take? A. An antibiotic, like erythromycin B. An antiviral drug, like Tamiflu C. An antihistamine D. Acetaminophen, like Tylenol E. Herbal tea with honey

D. Acetaminophen, like Tylenol

The primary purposes of viral cultivation are: A. to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens B. to prepare viruses for vaccines C. to do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics and effects on host cells D. All of these

D. All of these

Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds? a. Because it makes the animals grow too large. b. Because it causes infections in the cows and poultry fed them. c. Because it raises the price of the meat too high. d. Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem. e. All of the choices are correct.

D. Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem.

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. Type of nucleic acid B. Type of capsid C. Presence of an envelope D. Biochemical reactions E. Number of strands in the nucleic acid

D. Biochemical reactions

What does Vancomycin target? A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium difficile C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Both A & B are correct choices

D. Both A & B are correct choices;

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. Spike B. Capsomere C. Envelope D. Capsid E. Core

D. Capsid

Which of the following is incorrect about prophages? A. Present when the virus is in lysogeny B. Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C. Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D. Cause lysis of host cells E. Occur when temperate phages enter host cells

D. Cause lysis of host cells

21. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A. lymph nodes. B. thymus. C. spleen. D. GALT. E. tonsils.

D. GALT.

During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the A. Host cytoplasm B. Host nucleus C. Host nucleolus D. Host DNA E. Host cell membrane

D. Host DNA

44. Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action? A. TNF B. IL-1 C. IL-6 D. IFN E. Chemokines

D. IFN

The activation of a prophage is called A. Activation B. Lysogeny C. Transformation D. Induction E. Adsorption

D. Induction

The envelope of enveloped viruses is A. Identical to the host plasma membrane B. Only compose of host endomembrane C. Always includes spikes D. Is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis E. None of the choices are correct

D. Is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A. Kirby-Bauer B. antibiogram C. E-test D. MIC E. therapeutic index (TI)

D. MIC

Which cell type is phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes

D. Monocytes

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. Replication B. Assembly C. Adsorption D. Release E. Penetration

D. Release

Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism? A. Inflammatory response B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils C. Interferon D. T cell and B cell responses E. Anatomical barriers in the body

D. T cell and B cell responses

Viral tissue specificities are called A. Ranges B. Virions C. Receptacles D. Tropisms E. Uncoating

D. Tropisms

Lysogeny refers to A. Altering the host range of a virus B. Latent state of herpes infections C. Virion exiting host cell D. Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome E. None of the choices are correct

D. Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except A. the inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment. B. a mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant. C. not completing the full course of treatment. D. a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic. E. diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age.

D. a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic.

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A) synercid B) penicillinase C) aztreonam D) clavulanic acid E) imipenem

D. clavulanic acid.

A superinfection results from A. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient. B. the wrong drug administered to the patient. C. an immune system reaction to the drug. D. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species.

Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections. A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) virus

D. helminthic

The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by A. basophils. B. eosinophils. C. neutrophils. D. macrophages. E. complement.

D. macrophages.

Plasma cells A. function in cell-mediated immunity. B. are derived from T-lymphocytes. C. function in blood clotting. D. produce and secrete antibodies. E. All of the choices are correct.

D. produce and secrete antibodies.

25. Which is mismatched? A. interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication B. interleukin-2 - stimulate T cell mitosis and B cell antibody production C. serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction D. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells E. tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis

D. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells

30. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A. complement. B. interferons. C. leukotrienes. D. pyrogens. E. lysozymes.

D. pyrogens.

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis? A) aminoglycosides B) tetracyclines C) erythromycin D) trimethroprim E) chloramphenicol

D. trimethroprim

A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves A. giving a narrow spectrum drug. B. culturing the pathogen and identifying it. C. performing the disk diffusion assay. D. using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater. E. using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination.

D. using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.

Antiparallel

DNA strands are oriented in opposite directions to each other. 5 phosphate to 3 OH . Each helix run in opposite directions.

What is the lytic cycle ?

Death and deterioration of Host cell

Dendritic cells, macrophages, more antigenic

Dendritic cells are known as the most efficient antigen-presenting cell type with the ability to interact with T cells and initiate an immune response. 2. A macrophage is the first cell to recognize and engulf foreign substances (antigens). 3. any substance (as a toxin or enzyme) that stimulates the production of antibodies

Heterotrophs

Depend on others for their carbon source. Example; Humans depend on plants

What are macrophages?

Derived from monocytes; scavenge and process foreign substances to prepare them for reactions with B and T lymphocytes

How do Quinones work? (Mode #3)

Destroy nucleotide, are ANTIPARASITIC.

What are Piperazine / Niclosamide used to treat?

Destroyed helminths ( worms)

Ames test

Detect for the presence of microbes on agricultural products, industrial products and medicinal which are your pharmaceutical products.

Toll-like receptors do what two things?

Detect foreign molecules and Signal the macrophage to produce chemicals

Koch's Postulates

Determining the causative or etiologic agent of infectious disease. 1. Find evidence of a particular microbe. 2. Isolate that microbe from an infected subject and cultivate it artificially in the lab. 3. Inoculate a susceptible healthy subject with the laboratory isolate and observe the resultant disease. 4. Reisolate the agent from the subject.

Liver

Detoxifies drugs in the body

Erythrocytes...

Develop from bone marrow stem cells, lose nucleus, simple biconcave sacs of hemoglobin

Signs of infection in the blood

Differential count: + leukocytosis: increase in WBCs + leukopenia: decrease in WBCs + septicemia: microorganisms + pathogens multiplying in the blood and present in large numbers. + bacteremia: small numbers of bacteria present in blood, not necessarily multiplying + viremia: small number of viruses present in blood, not necessarily multiplying

Endemic

Disease exhibit a long period of time in a particular geographic locale. - West Nile in Texas

Pasteurization

Disinfects food; heat is applied to kill potential agents of infections and spoilage without destroying the food flavor or value - Doesn't change chemical composition of food

What are exoenzymes?

Dissolve extracellular barriers and penetrate through or between cells.

Clindamycin (cleocin)

Do NOT use if you have Crohns Disease.

Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies pain?

Dolor

What is Dolor?

Dolor - pain

Repeat competitive inhibition

Drug competes for the active site of the enzyme

Narrow spectrum?

Drug works specifically / best on a given microbe

What are aminoglycosides?

Drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by attaching to ribosome 30S subunit in bacteria

Negative stain

Dye does not stick to the specimen but drives around its outer boundary forming a silhouette

Host cells of viruses include A. Human and other animals B. Plants and fungi C. Bacteria D. Protozoa and algae E. All of the choices are correct