Fundamentals of Nursing Potter - Oxygenation

Ventilation, perfusion, and exchange of gases are the major purposes of: 1. Respiration 2. Circulation 3. Aerobic metabolism 4. Anaerobic metabolism

1. These are the three steps in the process of oxygenation

The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. On entering the room, the nurse finds the patient lying in bed, coughing, and unable to clear secretions. What should the nurse do first? 1. Start oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. 2. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. 3. Encourage the patient to use the incentive spirometer. 4. Notify the health care provider.

2

The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What statement, made by the patient, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "Pursed-lip breathing is like exercise for my lungs and will help me strengthen my breathing muscles." 2. "When I am sick, I should limit the amount of fluids I drink so that I don't produce excess mucus." 3. "I will ensure that I receive an influenza vaccine every year, preferably in the fall." 4. "I will look for a smoking-cessation support group in my neighborhood."

2

The nurse is performing tracheostomy care on a patient. What finding would indicate that the tracheostomy tube has become dislodged? 1. Clear breath sounds 2. Patient speaking to nurse 3. SpO2 reading of 96% 4. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute

2

Which assessment findings indicate that the patient is experiencing an acute disturbance in oxygenation and requires immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.) 1. SpO2 value of 95% 2. Retractions 3. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute 4. Nasal flaring 5. Clubbing of fingers

2, 3, 4

The use of chest physiotherapy to mobilize pulmonary secretions involves the use of: 1. Hydration 2. Percussion 3. Nebulization 4. Humidification

2. CPT includes postural drainage, percussion, and vibration.

Mr. Isaac comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. An objective finding associated with his dyspnea might include: 1. Feelings of heaviness in the chest 2. Complaints of shortness of breath 3. Use of accessory muscles of respiration 4. Statements about a sense of impending doom

3. All other answers are related to the subjective sensation of dyspnea.

1. A nurse is teaching staff about the conduction of the heart. In which order will the nurse present the conduction cycle, starting with the first structure? 1. Bundle of His 2. Purkinje network 3. Intraatrial pathways 4. Sinoatrial (SA) node 5. Atrioventricular (AV) node

4, 3, 5, 1, 2 The conduction system originates with the SA node, the "pacemaker" of the heart. The electrical impulses are transmitted through the atria along intraatrial pathways to the AV node. It assists atrial emptying by delaying the impulse before transmitting it through the Bundle of His and the ventricular Purkinje network.

Which skills can the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) 1. Initiate oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. 2. Perform nasotracheal suctioning of a patient. 3. Educate the patient about the use of an incentive spirometer. 4. Assist with care of an established tracheostomy tube. 5. Reposition a patient with a chest tube.

4, 5

Explain how the following affect oxygenation. 42. Fatigue: 43. Dyspnea: 44. Orthopnea: 45. Cough: 46. Wheezing:

42. Fatigue is a subjective sensation (loss of endurance). 43. Dyspnea is a clinical sign of hypoxia that is usually associated with exercise or excitement associated with many medical and environmental factors. 44. Orthopnea is an abnormal condition in which the patient uses multiple pillows when lying down. 45. Cough is a sudden, audible expulsion of air from the lungs. It is a protective reflex to clear the trachea, bronchi, and lungs of irritants and secretions. 46. Wheezing is a high-pitched musical sound caused by high-velocity movement of air through a narrowed airway.

The nurse is preparing to perform nasotracheal suctioning on a patient. Arrange the steps in order. 1. Apply suction. 2. Assist patient to semi-Fowler's or high Fowler's position, if able. 3. Advance catheter through nares and into trachea. 4. Have patient take deep breaths. 5. Lubricate catheter with water-soluble lubricant. 6. Apply sterile gloves. 7. Perform hand hygiene. 8. Withdraw catheter.

7, 2, 6, 4, 5, 3, 1, 8

A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving 2 L/min of oxygen. Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate for the nurse to administer the oxygen? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Non-rebreather mask d. Partial non-rebreather mask

ANS: A Nasal cannulas deliver oxygen from 1 to 6 L/min. All other devices (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial non-rebreather mask) are intended for flow rates greater than 6 L/min.

A nurse explains the function of the alveoli to a patient with respiratory problems. Which information about the alveoli's function will the nurse share with the patient?a. Carries out gas exchange b. Regulates tidal volume c. Produces hemoglobin d. Stores oxygen

ANS: A The alveolus is a capillary membrane that allows gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during respiration. The alveoli do not store oxygen, regulate tidal volume, or produce hemoglobin.

A nurse is teaching a community health promotion class and discusses the flu vaccine. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. It is given yearly. b. It is given in a series of four doses. c. It is safe for children allergic to eggs. d. It is safe for adults with acute febrile illnesses. e. The nasal spray is given to people over 50. f. The inactivated flu vaccine is given to people over 50.

ANS: A, F Annual (yearly) flu vaccines are recommended for all people 6 months and older. The inactivated flu vaccine should be given to these individuals with chronic health problems and those 50 and older. People with a known hypersensitivity to eggs or other components of the vaccine should consult their health care provider before being vaccinated. There is a flu vaccine made without egg proteins that is approved for adults 18 years of age and older. Adults with an acute febrile illness should schedule the vaccination after they have recovered. The live, attenuated nasal spray vaccine is given to people from 2 through 49 years of age if they are not pregnant or do not have certain long-term health problems such as asthma; heart, lung, or kidney disease; diabetes; or anemia.

While the nurse is changing the ties on a tracheostomy collar, the patient coughs, dislodging the tracheostomy tube. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Press the emergency response button. b. Insert a spare tracheostomy with the obturator. c. Manually occlude the tracheostomy with sterile gauze. d. Place a face mask delivering 100% oxygen over the nose and mouth.

ANS: B The nurse's first priority is to establish a stable airway by inserting a spare trach into the patient's airway; ideally an obturator should be used. The nurse could activate the emergency response team if the patient is still unstable after the tracheostomy is placed. A patient with a tracheostomy breathes through the tube, not the nose or mouth; a face mask would not be an effective method of getting air into the lungs. Manually occluding pressure over the tracheostomy site is not appropriate and would block the patient's only airway.

A nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient whose temperature is 101.2° F. The nurse expects this patient to hyperventilate. Which factor does the nurse remember when planning care for this type of hyperventilation? a. Anxiety over illness b. Decreased drive to breathe c. Increased metabolic demands d. Infection destroying lung tissues

ANS: C Increased body temperature (fever) increases the metabolic rate, thereby increasing carbon dioxide production. The increased carbon dioxide level stimulates an increase in the patient's rate and depth of respiration, causing hyperventilation. Anxiety can cause hyperventilation, but this is not the direct cause from a fever. Sleep causes a decreased respiratory drive; hyperventilation speeds up breathing. The cause of the fever in this question is unknown.

A nurse is preparing to suction a patient. The pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. Which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning? a. Pulse 75 b. Pulse 80 c. Oxygen saturation 91% d. Oxygen saturation 88%

ANS: D Stop when oxygen saturation is 88%. Monitor patient's vital signs and oxygen saturation during procedure; note whether there is a change of 20 beats/min (either increase or decrease) or if pulse oximetry falls below 90% or 5% from baseline. If this occurs, stop suctioning. A pulse rate of 75 is only 10 beats different from the start of the procedure. A pulse rate of 80 is 15 beats different from the start of suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 91% is not 5% from baseline or below 90%.

Explain the focus of the nursing history to meet oxygen needs for the following. a. Cardiac function: b. Respiratory function:

Cardiac function: pain, dyspnea, fatigue, peripheral circulation, cardiac risk factors b. Respiratory function: cough, shortness of breath, wheezing, pain, environmental exposure, frequency of infections, risk factors, medication use, smoking use

List four occupational pollutants.

a. Asbestos b. Talcum powder c. Dust d. Airborne fibers

Explain the differences between the following types of chest pain. a. Cardiac pain: b. Pleuritic chest pain: c. Musculoskeletal pain:

a. Cardiac pain does not occur with respiratory variations. b. Pleuritic chest pain is peripheral and radiates to the scapular regions. c. Musculoskeletal pain often presents after exercise, trauma, or prolonged coughing episodes.

List the modalities appropriate for a patient with dyspnea.

a. Exercise b. Breathing techniques c. Cough control d. Relaxation techniques e. Biofeedback f. Meditation

List the interventions that promote mobilization of pulmonary secretions.

a. Hydration b. Humidification c. Nebulization d. Coughing and deep breathing

List the specific outcomes for maintaining a patent airway.

a. Lungs are clear to auscultation. b. Patient achieves maintenance and promotion of bilateral lung expansion. c. Patient coughs productively. d. Pulse oximetry is maintained or improved.

Identify conditions that affect chest wall movement and provide an example.

a. Pregnancy (inspiratory capacity declines) b. Obesity (reduced lung volumes) c. Musculoskeletal abnormalities (structural configurations, trauma, muscular disease, CNS) d. Trauma (flail chest, incisions) e. Neuromuscular diseases (decrease the ability to expand and contract the chest wall) f. CNS alterations (reduced inspiratory lung volumes) g. Chronic diseases (chronic hypoxemia)

List the lifestyle modifications to decrease cardiopulmonary risks.

a. Smoking cessation b. Weight reduction c. Low-cholesterol and low-sodium diet d. Management of hypertension e. Moderate exercise

The movement of gases into and out of the lungs depends on: 1. 50% oxygen content in the atmospheric air 2. The pressure gradient between the atmosphere and the alveoli 3. The use of accessory muscles of respiration during expiration 4. The amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the fluid of the alveoli

. 2. Gases move into and out of the lungs through pressure changes (intrapleural and atmospheric)

Briefly explain what information is gained from the following techniques used during the physical examination to assess tissue oxygenation. 47. Inspection: 48. Palpation: 49. Percussion: 50. Auscultation:

. Inspection: Reveals skin and mucous membrane color, general appearance, level of consciousness, adequacy of systemic circulation, breathing patterns, and chest wall movement 48. Palpation: Documents the type and amount of thoracic excursion; areas of tenderness; identifies tactile fremitus, thrills, heaves, and PMI 49. Percussion: Detects the presence of abnormal fluid or air in the lungs 50. Auscultation: Identifies normal and abnormal heart and lung sounds

Describe the following tests used to measure the adequacy of ventilation and oxygenation. a. Pulmonary function tests: b. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): c. Bronchoscopy: d. Lung scan: e. Thoracentesis

. a. Pulmonary function tests: Determine the ability of the lungs to efficiently exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. Used to differentiate pulmonary obstructive disease from restrictive disease. b. PEFR: Reflects changes in large airway sizes and is an excellent predictor of overall airway resistance in patients with asthma. Daily measurement is for early detection of asthma exacerbations. c. Bronchoscopy: Visual examination of the tracheobronchial tree through a narrow, flexible fiberoptic bronchoscope. Performed to obtain fluid, sputum, or biopsy samples and to remove mucous plugs or foreign bodies. d. Lung scan: Used to identify abnormal masses by their size and location. Identification of masses is used in planning therapy and treatments. e. Thoracentesis: Specimen of pleural fluid is obtained for cytologic examination. The results may indicate an infection or neoplastic disease. Identification of infection or a type of cancer is important in determining a plan of care.

.Identify the three reasons for inserting chest tubes.

. a. To remove air and fluids from the pleural space b. To prevent air or fluid from reentering the pleural space c. To reestablish normal intrapleural and intrapulmonic pressures

The nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube for treatment of a right pneumothorax. Which assessment finding necessitates immediate notification of the health care provider? 1. New, vigorous bubbling in the water seal chamber. 2. Scant amount of sanguineous drainage noted on the dressing. 3. Clear but slightly diminished breath sounds on the right side of the chest. 4. Pain score of 2 one hour after the administration of the prescribed analgesic.

1, 2

The nurse is caring for a patient with an artificial airway. What are reasons to suction the patient? (Select all that apply.) 1. The patient has visible secretions in the airway. 2. There is a sawtooth pattern on the patient's EtCO2 monitor. 3. The patient has clear breath sounds. 4. It has been 3 hours since the patient was last suctioned. 5. The patient has excessive coughing.

1, 2, 5

A patient has carbon dioxide retention from lung problems. Which type of diet will the nurse most likely suggest for this patient? a. Low-carbohydrate b. Low-caffeine c. High-caffeine d. High-carbohydrate

ANS: A A low-carbohydrate diet is best. Diets high in carbohydrates play a role in increasing the carbon dioxide load for patients with carbon dioxide retention. As carbohydrates are metabolized, an increased load of carbon dioxide is created and excreted via the lungs. A low- or high-caffeine diet is not as important as the carbohydrate load.

The nurse is careful to monitor a patient's cardiac output. Which goal is the nurse trying to achieve? a. To determine peripheral extremity circulation b. To determine oxygenation requirements c. To determine cardiac dysrhythmias d. To determine ventilation status

ANS: A Cardiac output indicates how much blood is being circulated systemically throughout the body to the periphery. The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle each minute is the cardiac output. Oxygen status would be determined by pulse oximetry and the presence of cyanosis. Cardiac dysrhythmias are an electrical impulse monitored through ECG results. Ventilation status is measured by respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, and capnography. Capnography provides instant information about the patient's ventilation. Ventilation status does not depend solely on cardiac output.

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) asks the nurse why clubbing occurs. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic? a. "Your disease doesn't send enough oxygen to your fingers." b. "Your disease affects both your lungs and your heart, and not enough blood is being pumped." c. "Your disease will be helped if you pursed-lip breathe." d. "Your disease often makes patients lose mental status."

ANS: A Clubbing of the nail bed can occur with COPD and other diseases that cause prolonged oxygen deficiency or chronic hypoxemia. Pursed-lipped breathing helps the alveoli stay open but is not the cause of clubbing. Loss of mental status is not a normal finding with COPD and will not result in clubbing. Low oxygen and not low circulating blood volume is the problem in COPD that results in clubbing.

The patient is breathing normally. Which process does the nurse consider is working properly when the patient inspires? a. Stimulation of chemical receptors in the aorta b. Reduction of arterial oxygen saturation levels c. Requirement of elastic recoil lung properties d. Enhancement of accessory muscle usage

ANS: A Inspiration is an active process, stimulated by chemical receptors in the aorta. Reduced arterial oxygen saturation levels indicate hypoxemia, an abnormal finding. Expiration is a passive process that depends on the elastic recoil properties of the lungs, requiring little or no muscle work. Prolonged use of the accessory muscles does not promote effective ventilation and causes fatigue.

Which coughing technique will the nurse use to help a patient clear central airways? a. Huff b. Quad c. Cascade d. Incentive spirometry

ANS: A The huff cough stimulates a natural cough reflex and is generally effective only for clearing central airways. While exhaling, the patient opens the glottis by saying the word huff. The quad cough technique is for patients without abdominal muscle control such as those with spinal cord injuries. While the patient breathes out with a maximal expiratory effort, the patient or nurse pushes inward and upward on the abdominal muscles toward the diaphragm, causing the cough. With the cascade cough the patient takes a slow, deep breath and holds it for 2 seconds while contracting expiratory muscles. Then he or she opens the mouth and performs a series of coughs throughout exhalation, thereby coughing at progressively lowered lung volumes. This technique promotes airway clearance and a patent airway in patients with large volumes of sputum. Incentive spirometry encourages voluntary deep breathing by providing visual feedback to patients about inspiratory volume. It promotes deep breathing and prevents or treats atelectasis in the postoperative patient.

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient should the nurse see first? a. A patient with hypercapnia wearing an oxygen mask b. A patient with a chest tube ambulating with the chest tube unclamped c. A patient with thick secretions being tracheal suctioned first and then orally d. A patient with a new tracheostomy and tracheostomy obturator at bedside

ANS: A The mask is contraindicated for patients with carbon dioxide retention (hypercapnia) because retention can be worsened; the nurse must see this patient first to correct the problem. All the rest are using correct procedures and do not need to be seen first. A chest tube should not be clamped when ambulating. Clamping a chest tube is contraindicated when ambulating or transporting a patient. Clamping can result in a tension pneumothorax. Use nasotracheal suctioning before pharyngeal suctioning whenever possible. The mouth and pharynx contain more bacteria than the trachea. Keep tracheostomy obturator at bedside with a fresh (new) tracheostomy to facilitate reinsertion of the outer cannula if dislodged.

The nurse is caring for a patient who needs oxygen via a nasal cannula. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel? a. Applying the nasal cannula b. Adjusting the oxygen flow c. Assessing lung sounds d. Setting up the oxygen

ANS: A The skill of applying (not adjusting oxygen flow) a nasal cannula or oxygen mask can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP). The nurse is responsible for assessing the patient's respiratory system, response to oxygen therapy, and setup of oxygen therapy, including adjustment of oxygen flow rate.

The nurse determines that an older-adult patient is at risk for infection due to decreased immunity. Which plan of care best addresses the prevention of infection for the patient? a. Inform the patient of the importance of finishing the entire dose of antibiotics. b. Encourage the patient to stay up-to-date on all vaccinations. c. Schedule patient to get annual tuberculosis skin testing. d. Create an exercise routine to run 45 minutes every day.

ANS: B A nursing care plan for preventative health measures should be reasonable and feasible. Keeping up-to-date on vaccinations is important because vaccine reduces the severity of illnesses and serious complications. Determine if and when the patient has had a pneumococcal or influenza (flu) vaccine. This is especially important when assessing older adults because of their increased risk for respiratory disease. Although it is important to finish the full course of antibiotics, it is not a preventative health measure. Scheduling annual tuberculosis skin tests does not address prevention and is an unreliable indictor of tuberculosis in older patients. The exercise routine should be reasonable to increase compliance; exercise is recommended only 3 to 4 times a week for 30 to 60 minutes, and walking, rather than running, is an efficient method.

The nurse needs to closely monitor the oxygen status of an older-adult patient undergoing anesthesia because of which age-related change? a. Thinner heart valves cause lipid accumulation and fibrosis. b. Diminished respiratory muscle strength may cause poor chest expansion. c. Alterations in mental status prevent patients' awareness of ineffective breathing. d. An increased number of pacemaker cells make proper anesthesia induction more difficult.

ANS: B Age-related changes in the thorax that occur from ossification of costal cartilage, decreased space between vertebrae, and diminished respiratory muscle strength lead to problems with chest expansion and oxygenation,whereby the patient will have difficulty excreting anesthesia gas. The nurse needs to monitor the patient's oxygen status carefully to make sure the patient does not retain too much of the drug. Older adults experience alterations in cardiac function as a result of calcification of the conduction pathways, thicker and stiffer heart valves caused by lipid accumulation and fibrosis, and a decrease in the number of pacemaker cells in the SA node. Altered mental status is not a normal age-related change; it indicates possible cardiac and/or respiratory problems.

A nurse teaches a patient about atelectasis. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of atelectasis? a. "Atelectasis affects only those with chronic conditions such as emphysema." b. "It is important to do breathing exercises every hour to prevent atelectasis." c. "If I develop atelectasis, I will need a chest tube to drain excess fluid." d. "Hyperventilation will open up my alveoli, preventing atelectasis."

ANS: B Atelectasis develops when alveoli do not expand. Breathing exercises, especially deep breathing and incentive spirometry, increase lung volume and open the airways, preventing atelectasis. Deep breathing also opens the pores of Kohn between alveoli to allow sharing of oxygen between alveoli. Atelectasis can affect anyone who does not deep breathe. A chest tube is for pneumothorax or hemothorax. It is deep breathing, not hyperventilation, that prevents atelectasis.

The home health nurse recommends that a patient with respiratory problems install a carbon monoxide detector in the home. What is the rationale for the nurse's action? a. Carbon monoxide detectors are required by law in the home. b. Carbon monoxide tightly binds to hemoglobin, causing hypoxia. c. Carbon monoxide signals the cerebral cortex to cease ventilations. d. Carbon monoxide combines with oxygen in the body and produces a deadly toxin.

ANS: B Carbon monoxide binds tightly to hemoglobin; therefore, oxygen is not able to bind to hemoglobin and be transported to tissues, causing hypoxia. A carbon monoxide detector is not required by law, does not signal the cerebral cortex to cease ventilations, and does not combine with oxygen but with hemoglobin to produce a toxin.

The nurse is educating a student nurse on caring for a patient with a chest tube. Which statement from the student nurse indicates successful learning? a. "I should clamp the chest tube when giving the patient a bed bath." b. "I should report if I see continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber." c. "I should strip the drains on the chest tube every hour to promote drainage." d. "I should notify the health care provider first, if the chest tube becomes dislodged."

ANS: B Correct care of a chest tube involves knowing normal and abnormal functioning of the tube. A constant or intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates a leak in the drainage system, and the health care provider must be notified immediately. Stripping the tube is not routinely performed as it increases pressure. If the tubing disconnects from the drainage unit, instruct the patient to exhale as much as possible and to cough. This maneuver rids the pleural space of as much air as possible. Temporarily reestablish a water seal by immersing the open end of the chest tube into a container of sterile water. The chest tube should not be clamped unless necessary; if so, the length of time clamped would be minimal to reduce the risk of pneumothorax.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a tracheostomy tube. Which nursing intervention is most effective in promoting effective airway clearance? a. Suctioning respiratory secretions several times every hour b. Administering humidified oxygen through a tracheostomy collar c. Instilling normal saline into the tracheostomy to thin secretions before suctioning d. Deflating the tracheostomy cuff before allowing the patient to cough up secretions

ANS: B Humidification from air humidifiers or humidified oxygen tracheostomy collars can help prevent drying of secretions that cause occlusion. Suctioning should be done only as needed; too frequent suctioning can damage the mucosal lining, resulting in thicker secretions. Normal saline should not be instilled into a tracheostomy; research showed no benefit with this technique. The purpose of the tracheostomy cuff is to keep secretions from entering the lungs; the nurse should not deflate the tracheostomy cuff unless instructed to do so by the health care provider.

A nurse is following the Ventilator Bundle standards to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. Which strategies is the nurse using? (Select all that apply.) a. Head of bed elevation to 90 degrees at all times b. Daily oral care with chlorhexidine c. Cuff monitoring for adequate seal d. Clean technique when suctioning e. Daily "sedation vacations" f. Heart failure prophylaxis

ANS: B, C, E The key components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) Ventilator Bundle are: Elevation of the head of the bed (HOB)—elevation is 30 to 45 degrees Daily "sedation vacations" and assessment of readiness to extubate Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis Deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis Daily oral care with chlorhexidine Monitor cuff pressure frequently to ensure that there is an adequate seal to prevent aspiration of secretions is also included. Sterile technique is used for suctioning when on ventilators. Heart failure prophylaxis is not a component.

The nurse suspects the patient has increased afterload. Which piece of equipment should the nurse obtain to determine the presence of this condition? a. Pulse oximeter b. Oxygen cannula c. Blood pressure cuff d. Yankauer suction tip catheter

ANS: C A blood pressure cuff is needed. The diastolic aortic pressure is a good clinical measure of afterload. Afterload is the resistance to left ventricular ejection. In hypertension the afterload increases, making cardiac workload also increase. A pulse oximeter is used to monitor the level of arterial oxygen saturation; it will not help determine increased afterload. While an oxygen cannula may be needed to help decrease the effects of increased afterload, it will not help determine the presence of afterload. A Yankauer suction tip catheter is used to suction the oral cavity.

While performing an assessment, the nurse hears crackles in the patient's lung fields. The nurse also learns that the patient is sleeping on three pillows to help with the difficulty breathing during the night. Which condition will the nurse most likely observe written in the patient's medical record? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Myocardial ischemia c. Left-sided heart failure d. Right-sided heart failure

ANS: C Left-sided heart failure results in pulmonary congestion, the signs and symptoms of which include shortness of breath, cough, crackles, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (difficulty breathing when lying flat). Right-sided heart failure is systemic and results in peripheral edema, weight gain, and distended neck veins. Atrial fibrillation is often described as an irregularly irregular rhythm; rhythm is irregular because of the multiple pacemaker sites. Myocardial ischemia results when the supply of blood to the myocardium from the coronary arteries is insufficient to meet myocardial oxygen demands, producing angina or myocardial infarction.

A patient with a pneumothorax has a chest tube inserted and is placed on low constant suction. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse? a. The patient reports pain at the chest tube insertion site that increases with movement. b. Fifty milliliters of blood gushes into the drainage device after the patient coughs. c. No bubbling is present in the suction control chamber of the drainage device. d. Yellow purulent discharge is seen leaking out from around the dressing site.

ANS: C No bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates an obstruction of the drainage system. An obstruction causes increased pressure, which can cause a tension pneumothorax, which can be life threatening. The nurse needs to determine whether the leak is inside the thorax or in the tubing and act from there. Occasional blood gushes from the lung owing to lung expansion, as during a cough; this is reserve drainage. Drainage over 100 mL/hr after 3 hours of chest tube placement is cause for concern. Yellow purulent drainage indicates an infection that should be reported to the health care provider but is not as immediately life threatening as the lack of bubbling in the suction control chamber.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) and discovers that the patient is taking garlic to help with hypertension. Which condition will the nurse assess for in this patient? a. Increased cholesterol level b. Distended jugular vein c. Bleeding d. Angina

ANS: C Patients taking warfarin (Coumadin) for anticoagulation prolong the prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) results if they are taking gingko biloba, garlic, or ginseng with the anticoagulant. The drug interaction can precipitate a life-threatening bleed. Increased cholesterol levels are associated with saturated fat dietary intake. A distended jugular vein and peripheral edema are associated with damage to the right side of the heart. Angina is temporary ischemia of the heart muscle.

Which nursing intervention is most effective in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia in an older-adult patient? a. Discontinue the humidification delivery device to keep excess fluid from lungs. b. Monitor oxygen saturation, and frequently auscultate lung bases. c. Assist the patient to cough, turn, and deep breathe every 2 hours. d. Decrease fluid intake to 300 mL a shift.

ANS: C The goal of the nursing action should be the prevention of pneumonia; the action that best addresses this is to cough, turn, and deep breathe to keep secretions from pooling at the base of the lungs. Humidification thins respiratory secretions, making them easier to expel and should be used. Monitoring oxygen status is important but is not a method of prevention. Hydration assists in preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia. The best way to maintain thin secretions is to provide a fluid intake of 1500 to 2500 mL/day unless contraindicated by cardiac or renal status. Restricting fluids is contraindicated in this situation since there is no data indicating cardiac or renal disease.

A nurse is preparing a patient for nasotracheal suctioning. In which order will the nurse perform the steps, beginning with the first step? 1. Insert catheter. 2. Apply suction and remove. 3. Have patient deep breathe. 4. Encourage patient to cough. 5. Attach catheter to suction system. 6. Rinse catheter and connecting tubing. a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 b. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 6 c. 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6 d. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 6

ANS: C The steps for nasotracheal suctioning are as follows: Verify that catheter is attached to suction; have patient deep breathe; insert catheter; apply intermittent suction for no more than 10 seconds and remove; encourage patient to cough; and rinse catheter and connecting tubing with normal saline.

A nurse is caring for a patient with sleep apnea. Which types of ventilator support should the nurse be prepared to administer for this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist-control (AC) b. Pressure support ventilation (PSV) c. Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) d. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) e. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)

ANS: C, D Ventilatory support is achieved using a variety of modes, including continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP). The purpose of CPAP and BiPAP is to maintain a positive airway pressure and improve alveolar ventilation. This prevents or treats atelectasis by inflating the alveoli, reducing pulmonary edema by forcing fluid out of the lungs back into circulation, and improving oxygenation in those with sleep apnea. AC, PSV, and SIMV are invasive mechanical ventilation and are not routinely used on patients with sleep apnea. AC delivers a set tidal volume (VT) with each breath, regardless of whether the breath was triggered by the patient or the ventilator. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation like AC delivers a minimum number of fully assisted breaths per minute that are synchronized with the patient's respiratory effort. Any breaths taken between volume-cycled breaths are not assisted; the volume of these breaths is determined by the patient's strength, effort, and lung mechanics. PSV mode is often combined with SIMV mode: inspiratory pressure is added to spontaneous breaths to overcome the resistance of the endotracheal tube or to help increase the volume of the patient's spontaneous breaths.

The nurse is using a closed suction device. Which patient will be most appropriate for this suctioning method? a. A 5-year-old with excessive drooling from epiglottitis b. A 5-year-old with an asthma attack following severe allergies c. A 24-year-old with a right pneumothorax following a motor vehicle accident d. A 24-year-old with acute respiratory distress syndrome requiring mechanical ventilation

ANS: D Closed suctioning is most often used on patients who require invasive mechanical ventilation to support their respiratory efforts because it permits continuous delivery of oxygen while suction is performed and reduces the risk of oxygen desaturation. In this case, the acute respiratory distress syndrome requires mechanical ventilation. In the presence of epiglottitis, croup, laryngospasm, or irritable airway, the entrance of a suction catheter via the nasal route causes intractable coughing, hypoxemia, and severe bronchospasm, necessitating emergency intubation or tracheostomy. The 5-year-old child with asthma would benefit from an inhaler. A chest tube is needed for the pneumothorax.

The nurse is caring for a patient with respiratory problems. Which assessment finding indicates a late sign of hypoxia? a. Elevated blood pressure b. Increased pulse rate c. Restlessness d. Cyanosis

ANS: D Cyanosis, blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by the presence of desaturated hemoglobin in capillaries, is a late sign of hypoxia. Elevated blood pressure, increased pulse rate, and restlessness are early signs of hypoxia.

The nurse is assessing a patient with emphysema. Which assessment finding requires further follow-up with the health care provider? a. Increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest b. Accessory muscle used for breathing c. Clubbing of the fingers d. Hemoptysis

ANS: D Hemoptysis is an abnormal occurrence of emphysema, and further diagnostic studies are needed to determine the cause of blood in the sputum. Clubbing of the fingers, barrel chest (increased anterior-posterior chest diameter), and accessory muscle use are all normal findings in a patient with emphysema.

Hyperventilation

Hyperventilation occurs when excess ventilation required to eliminate the carbon dioxide produced (anxiety, infe

Hypoventilation

Hypoventilation occurs when alveolar ventilation is inadequate to meet the body's oxygen demand

Briefly explain the following breathing techniques used to improve ventilation and oxygenation. 68. Pursed-lip breathing: 69. Diaphragmatic breathing:

Pursed-lip breathing involves deep inspiration and prolonged expiration through pursed lips to prevent alveolar collapse. 69. Diaphragmatic breathing requires the patient to relax the intercostal and accessory respiratory muscles while taking deep inspirations; it improves efficiency of breathing by decreasing air trapping and reducing the work of breathing.