Genetics Final Exam Review
Turner Syndrome
(XO) Female Affected women are frequently short and have a low hairline, a relatively broad chest, and folds of skin on the neck.
Multiple alleles
- More than two alleles are present at a given locus - More variety in offspring - Occurs in non-essential genes
How many centromeres are connected to a chromosome?
1 centromere
How can bacteria exchange genetic information?
1. Conjugation 2. Transformation 3. Transduction
How is sex determined?
1. Differences in genotypes 2. Differences in genes 3. Environmental factors
Determining the Middle Gene
1. Identify the nonrecombinants 2. Identify the double crossovers 3. The one allele that differs between nonrecombinants and recombinants is the middle gene
What are the advantages of using bacteria and viruses for genetic studies?
1. Reproduction is rapid. 2. Many progeny are produced. 3. Haploid genome allows all mutations to be expressed directly. 4. Asexual reproduction simplifies the isolation of genetically pure strains. 5. Some bacteria can be grown in the laboratory and require little space. 6. Genomes are small. 7. Techniques are available for isolating and manipulating their genes. 8. They have medical importance. 9. They can be genetically engineered to produce substance of commercial values.
Characteristics of Genetic Model Organisms
1. Short generation time 2. Large progeny (manageable) 3. Adaptability to a laboratory environment 4. The ability to be housed 5. Propagated inexpensively
What are the fields of genetics?
1. Transmission genetics 2. Molecular genetics 3. Population genetics
You cross two heterozygous plants (Tt * Tt) and obtain a tall plant. What is the probability that the tall plant is homozygous?
1/3
AaBbcc is crossed with AaBbCc. What is the probability of obtaining offspring with genotype aabbcc?
1/32
What is the probability of having 3 children in the order boy, girl, girl in that specific order?
1/8
Expected dihybrid phenotypic ratio with dominant epistasis
12:3:1
In a family of seven children, what is the probability of obtaining all children of the same sex?
2/128 or 1/64
What is the probability of having 3 children, 2 girls and 1 boy (order not specified)?
3/8
A diploid organism has 2n = 36 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in a trisomic member of this species?
37
If a tall F1 plant (Tt) is backcrossed to the tall plant parent (Tt), what proportion of the progeny will be tall? Phenotypic? Genotypic?
3:1 phenotype 1:2:1 phenotype
Betty has normal vision, but her mother is color blind. Bill is color blind. If Bill and Betty marry and have a child together, what is the probability that the child will be color blind?
50% chance of having a color blind child
Expected dihybrid phenotypic ratio with no gene interaction
9:3:3:1
Expected dihybrid phenotypic ratio with recessive epistasis
9:3:4
Expected dihybrid phenotypic ratio with complementation
9:7
Haploid cells
A cell containing only one set of chromosomes (n).
Reciprocal cross
A cross in which the phenotypes of the male and female are reversed compared with a prior cross
G0 phase
A nondividing state occupied by cells that have left the cell cycle, sometimes reversibly.
Lytic cycle
A phage attaches to a receptor on the bacterial cell wall and injects its DNA into the cell. Inside the cell, phage DNA is replicated, transcribed, and translated, producing more phage DNA and phage proteins. New phages are assembled and cause the host cell to lyse.
Cohesin
A protein that holds chromatids together
Double crossover effects _________.
A second crossover between the same two genes reverses the effects of the first, thus restoring the original parental combination of alleles.
Gene
A segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait
F' Cells
A small amount of the bacterial chromosome is removed with the F factor
Origin of replication
A specific DNA sequence where DNA replication is initiated.
What is an example of a lethal allele?
Agouti gene
Autopolyploidy
All chromosome sets are from a single species
What affect does having an origin of replication have on plasmids?
Allows a plasmid to replicate independently of bacterial chromosome
Epigenetics
Alteration in DNA that does not change the base sequence; often affects the way in which DNA sequences are expressed. Such alterations are often stable and heritable in the sense that they are passed on to descendant cells or organisms
Chromosome rearrangment
Alters the structure of chromosomes
Temperature-sensitive allele
An allele whose product is functional only at a certain temperature
Generalized transduction
Any gene can be transferred
Telomeres
Are the natural ends or tips, of a linear chromosome
What is the cause of familial Down syndrome?
Arises in offspring whose parents are carriers of chromosomes that have undergone Robertsonian translocation, between chromosome 21 and chromosome 14
Coupling or cis configuration
Arrangement of linked genes in which two or more wild-type genes are on one chromosome and their alleles are on the homologous chromosome
How many X chromosomes are necessary for human development?
At least one X chromosome
Centromere
Attachment point for spindle microtubules (filaments responsible for moving chromosomes during cell division)
What are the two major types of polyploidy?
Autopolyploidy and allopolyploidy
How is cell replication occur in prokaryotes?
Binary fission
Diploid cells
Carry two sets of genetic information (2n) -Result of sexual reproduction - One from mom, one from dad
Lethal allele
Causes death at an early stage of development -often before birth- so that some genotypes do not appear among the progeny
Competent
Cells that are capable of taking up DNA through their cell membrane
Transformants
Cells that receive genetic material through transformation
Telocentric
Centromere at end of chromosome
Metacentric
Centromere in middle of chromosome
Submetacentric
Centromere slightly off center, creating a long arm and a short arm
Acentric chromatid
Chromatid lacks a centromere; produced when crossing over takes place within a paracentric inversion. The acentric chromatid does not attach to a spindle fiber and does not segregate in meiosis or mitosis; usually lost during cell division.
Dicentric chromatid
Chromatid with two centromeres; produced when crossing over takes place within a paracentric inversion.
What is pseudodominance a product of?
Chromosome deletion
What are the different types of chromosome mutations?
Chromosome rearrangements, aneuploidy, and polyploidy
Allopolyploidy
Chromosome sets are from two or more species
Telophase I
Chromosomes arrive at the spindle poles
Telophase
Chromosomes arrive at the spindle poles signalling the start of telophase. Nuclear envelope re-forms. The condensed chromosomes relax.
Telophase II
Chromosomes arrive at the spindle poles; the spindle breaks down and a nuclear envelope re-forms.
Prophase II
Chromosomes condense, the spindle forms, and the nuclear envelope disintegrates.
What would be the result if a chromosome did not have a kinetochore?
Chromosomes lacking a centromere cannot be drawn into the newly formed nuclei; these chromosomes are lost, often with catastrophic consequences for the cell
Metaphase
Chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate
What is an example of x-linked recessive trait?
Color blindness
What type of medium will auxotrophs grow in?
Complete medium
Genome
Complete set of genetic instructions for any organism
Molecular genetics
Concerns the chemical nature of the gene itself: how genetic information is encoded, replicated, and expressed.
Backcross
Cross between an F1 genotype and either of the parental genotypes
Two-point testcross
Cross between an individual heterozygous at two loci and an individual homozygous for recessive alleles at those loci
Dihybrid cross
Cross between two individuals that differ in two characteristics
Monohybrid cross
Crosses between parents that differed in a single characteristic
What is the first mechanism of generating genetic variation?
Crossing over
S phase
DNA replication
Position effect
Dependence of the expression of a gene based on the gene's location in the genome
Acrocentric
Describes a chromosome whose centromere is placed very close to, but not at, one end; creating a long arm and a knob, or satellite
Sex-influenced characteristics
Determined by autosomal genes but are expressed differently in males and females
Continuous traits
Determined by multiple genes (polygenic), traits vary over a range that can be measured, such as height or hair color
Allele
Different forms of a gene
Genomic imprinting
Differential expression of genetic material depending on whether it is inherited from the male or the female
Prometaphase
Disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of prometaphase. Spindle microtubules anchor to kinetochores.
F- factor
Does not have the fertility factor
Trisomy 21
Down syndrome
What does Robertsonian translocation associated with?
Down syndrome
What are some examples of model organisms?
Drosophila melanogaster, a fruit fly; Escherichia coli, a bacteria; Caenorhabditis elegans, a nematode; Arabidopis thaliana, the thale cress plant; Mus musculus, the house mouse; and Saccharomyces cerevisiae, baker's yeast
Reverse duplication
Duplication is inverted
What are the four basic types of rearrangements?
Duplications, deletions, inversions, and translocations
Repulsion or trans configuration
Each chromosome contains one wild-type and one mutant allele
Gene interaction
Effects of genes at one locus depend on the presence of genes at other loci (2 genes control one trait)
Sex-limited characteristic
Encoded by autosomal genes that are expressed in only one sex; the trait has zero penetrance in the other sex.
Transmission genetics
Encompasses the basic principles of heredity and how traits are passed from one generation to the next. This subdiscipline addresses the relation between chromosomes and heredity, the arrangement of genes on chromosomes, and gene mapping.
Spindle-assembly checkpoint
Ensures that each chromosome is aligned on the metaphase plate and attached to spindle microtubules from opposite poles.
Dosage Compensation
Equalization of the amount of protein produced by X-linked genes in males and females Females (humans) have double the amount of X chromosomes which can be detrimental; dosage compensation is used to prevent this problem
How often does a prokaryote divide?
Every 20 minuetes
Sister chromatids
Exact copies of each other and result from DNA replication
Population genetics
Explores the genetic composition of groups of individuals of the same species (populations) and how that composition changes over time and space.
What is the only recipient cell for the fertility factor?
F-
Nondisjunction
Failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate in meiosis or mitosis. Leading to gametes with an extra chromosome or a missing chromosome
Poly-X Syndrome
Females, XXX Normal intelligence, few are sterile Four or five X chromosomes usually have more difficulties
How can aneuploidy arise?
First, a chromosome may be lost in the course of cell division if a centromere is deleted. Second, the small chromsome generated by Robertsonian translocation may be lost in meiosis or mitosis. Third, nondisjunction.
Prophase I
First, the chromosomes condense, pair up, and for a tetrad. Crossing over generates genetic variation.
Consequences of Meiosis
Four cells are produced from each original cell. Chromosome number in each new cell is reduced by half. The new cells are haploid. Newly formed cells from meiosis are genetically different from one another and from the parental cell.
Interphase is divided into what three phases?
G1, S, G2
Nonrecombinant gametes
Gametes that contain only original combinations of alleles present in the parents
Recombinant gametes
Gametes with new combinations of alleles
Horizontal gene transfer
Genes can be passed between individual members of different species by nonreproductive mechanism
Linked genes
Genes located on the same chromosome that tend to be inherited together in genetic crosses.
What types of genes do plasmids carry?
Genes that are not essential to bacterial life but play an important role in the life cycle and growth of bacteria; antibiotic resistance and promote mating
Genotype
Genetic makeup of an organism
Nonreciprocal translocation
Genetic material moves from one chromosome to another without any reciprocal exchange
F+ factor
Has the fertility factor
G1/S checkpoint
Holds the cell in G1 until the cell has all the enzymes necessary for the replication of DNA
Metaphase I
Homologous pairs line up in the middle on the metaphase plate.
Lyon hypothesis
If a cell contains more than 2 X chromosomes, all but one of them is inactivated
What are some differences of proaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
In prokaryotic cells there is no nucleus, do not have membrane bound organelles, usually has one circular DNA molecule and relatively small. Inn eukaryotic cells there is a nucleus present, with membrane bound organelles, usually with multiple linear chromosomes, and relatively large DNA complexed with histones.
Codominance
In which the phenotype of the heterozygote is not intermediate between the phenotypes of the homozygotes; rather, the heterozygote simultaneously expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes
What is the second mechanism of generating genetic variation?
Independent assortment
Independent Assortment
Independent segregation of genes during the formation of gametes
Metaphase II
Individual chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate
Phenocopy
Individual showing traits of genotype other than their own, produced by the environment
What are the two phases of the cell cycle?
Interphase and mitotic phase
Paracentric inversion
Inversion that does not include the centromere
Pericentric inversion
Inversion that includes the centromere
Chromosome duplication
Is a mutation in which part of the chromosome has been doubled
Barr body
Is an inactivated X chromosome
Penetrance
Is defined as the percentage of individuals having a particular genotype that express the expected phenotype
Pseudodominance
Is the expression of a normally recessive mutation because the wild-type allele has been deleted
Auxotrophs
Lack one or more enzymes necessary for synthesizing essential molecules and will grow only on medium supplemented with those essential molecueles.
Differences between linkage and crossing over?
Linkage keeps particular genes together; crossing over mixes particular genes up.
q arm
Long arm of chromosome
Chromosome deletion
Loss of a chromosome segment
What are the alternative life cycles of a bacteriophages?
Lytic and lysogenic cycle
What cycle does virulent phages reproduce?
Lytic cycle
What is an example of codominance?
MN human blood type
Klinefelter syndrome
Male, have one or more Y chromosomes and multiple X chromosomes
XYY
Males
What happens to map distances in the presence of double crossovers?
Map distances will be underestimated
In what phase does the spindle-assembly checkpoint occur?
Metaphase
What attaches to the kinetochore?
Microtubules of the spindle
In what type of medium do prototrophs grow?
Minimal medium
Are double crossover independent events?
No
The inheritance of alleles at the ABO locus is illustrated by a paternity suit against the famous movie actor Charlie Chaplin. In 1941, Chaplin met a young actress named Joan Barry, with whom he had an affair. The affair ended in February 1942 but, 20 months later, Barry gave birth to a baby girl and claimed that Chaplin was the father. Barry then sued for child support. Barry had blood-type A, her child had blood-type B, and Chaplin had blood-type O. Could Chaplin have been the father of Barry's child?
No, Chaplin cannot be the father of Barry's child
Independent assortment results in:
Nonrecombinant and recombinant gametes. Nonrecombinant and recombinant gametes.
Complete linkage leads to:
Nonrecombinant gametes and nonrecombinant progeny
Types of Aneuploidy
Nullisomy, monosomy, trisomy, and tetrasomy
Phenotype
Observable traits
Hfr × F-
One Hfr cell and one F-
Pleitropy
One gene affects multiple traits
Epistasis
One gene masks the expression of another gene
Testcross
One individual of unknown genotype is crossed with another individual with a homozygous recessive genotype for the trait in question
Polyploidy
One or more complete sets of chromosomes are added. An organism that has more than two sets of chromosomes.
Merozygotes
Partial diploid cells with two copies of some genes, one on the bacterial chromosome and one on the newly introduced F plasmid
Interkinesis
Period of time between meiosis I and meiosis II during which no DNA replication takes place.
Lysogenic cycle
Phage binds to host cell and enter cell. The phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome and becomes a prophage. The prophage is replicated as part of the bacterial chromosome. Prophage can separate from the chromosome and the cell will enter the lytic cycle.
Temperate phages
Phages capable of undergoing either the lytic or the lysogenic cycle
Episomes
Plasmids capable of replicating freely and are able to integrate into the bacterial chromosomes
Multifactorial characteristics
Polygenic and influenced by the environment
What are the phenotypic effects of chromosome inversion?
Position effect
Characteristics of cytoplasmically inherited traits
Present in males and females. Usually inherited from one parent, typically the maternal parent. Reciprocal crosses give different results. Exhibit extensive phenotypic variation, even within a single family.
What are the two types of Down syndrome?
Primary Down syndrome and familial Down syndrome
Addition rule
Probability of any one of two or more mutually exclusive events is determined by adding the probabilities of each event "either" "or"
Multiplication rule
Probabilityy of two or more independent events taking place together is determined by multiplying their independent probabilities. "and"
What are the stages of Meiosis I?
Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I, Telophase I
What are the stages of Meiosis II?
Prophase II, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Telophase II
What are the five stages of mitosis?
Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
Shugoshin
Protein that protects cohesin from being degraded by separase at the centromere
Crossing over
Refers to the exchange of genetic material between nonsister chromatids. After crossing over has taken, the sister chromatids are no longer identical.
Virus
Replicating structure composed of nucleic acid (DNA/RNA, single stranded or double stranded, circular or linear) and a protein coat
The following testcross produces the progeny shown: AaBb × aabb --> 10 AaBb, 40 Aabb, 40 aaBb, 10 aabb. Were the A and B alleles in the AaBb parent in coupling or in repulsion?
Repulsion
Anaphase I
Separation of homologous chromosome pairs, and the random distribution of chromosomes into two newly divided cells
Cell cycle
Series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide
G2 phase
Several additional biochemical events necessary for cell division take place.
p arm
Short arm of chromosome
Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms
Show differences among individuals at the molecular level
Anaphase II
Sister chromatids separate and move as individual chromosomes toward the spindle poles.
Anaphase
Sister chromatids separate, becoming individual chromosomes that migrate toward spindle poles.
Plasmids
Small circular DNA molecules that are distinct from the bacterial chromosome
Locus
Specific place on a chromosome occupied by an allele
Principle of independent assortment
States that alleles at different loci separate independently of one another.
Principle of segregation
States that each individual diploid organism possesses two alleles for any particular characteristic, one inherited from the maternal parent and one from the paternal parent.
The concept of dominance
States that when two different alleles are present in a genotype, only the trait encoded by one of them- the "dominant allele"- is observed in the phenotype.
Transformation
Takes place when a bacterium takes up DNA from the medium in which it is growing.
Transduction
Takes place when bacterial viruses carry DNA from one bacterium to another
Conjugation
Takes place when genetic material passes directly from one bacterium to another. DNA is transferred only from donor to recipient, with no reciprocal exchange of genetic material.
What are the different types of duplications?
Tandem, displaced, and reverse duplications
What is an example of an episome?
The F factor
Hfr cells
The F factor is integrated into the bacterial chromosome
G1 phase
The cell grows and proteins necessary for cell division are synthesized
Chromosome inversion
The chromosome segment is inverted- turn 180 degrees
Prophase
The chromosomes become visible. The mitotic spindle forms.
Karyotype
The complete set of chromosomes possessed by an organism. Usually taken will the chromosomes are in metaphase and lined up in descending order of their size
Cytokinesis
The cytoplasm divides to produce two cells, each having half the original number of chromosomes
Expressivity
The degree to which a character is expressed
Tandem duplications
The duplicated segment is immediately adjacent to the original segment
Displaced duplications
The duplicated segment is located some distance from the original segment, either on the same chromosome or on a different one
Trisomy
The gain of a single chromosome; 2n+1
Tetrasomy
The gain of two homologous chromosomes; 2n+2
Epistatic gene
The gene that does the masking
Hypostatic gene
The gene whose effect is masked
Incomplete penetrance
The genotype does not always produce the expected phenotype
What must be formed before cell division?
The kinetochore, a large protein complex forms at centromere
How does Robertsonian translocation occur?
The long arms of two acrocentric chromosomes become joined to a common centromere through a translocation, generating a metacentric chromosome with two long arms and another chromosome with two very short arms. The smaller chromosome is often lost.
Monosomy
The loss of a single chromosome; 2n-1
Nullisomy
The loss of both members of a homologous pair of chromosomes; 2n-2
Aneuploidy
The number of chromosomes is altered: one or more individual chromosomes are added or deleted
Recombination frequency
The number of recombinant progeny/total number of progeny × 100%
Genetic maternal effect
The phenotype of the offspring is determined by the genotype of the mother. Regardless of the genotype of the offspring it will always display the mother's phenotype
What can be said about genes that have a 50% recombination?
They belong to different linkage groups, either on different chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome
G2/M checkpoint
This checkpoint is passed only if the cell's DNA is completely replicated and undamaged.
X-linked dominant pedigree
Trait is common in pedigree. Affected fathers pass to all of their daughters. Males and females are equally likely to be affected
X-linked recessive pedigree
Trait is rare in pedigree. Trait skips generations. Affected father do not pass to their sons. Males are more often affected than females.
Polygenic traits
Traits controlled by two or more genes (skin color)
Discontinuous traits
Traits give clear-cut, "either-or" phenotypic differences between alternative alleles, tends to be qualitative (blood type, A, B, AB, or O)
Autosomal dominant pedigrees
Traits occur equally in males and females. Unaffected people cannot transmit the trait. Affected people have at least one affected parent. Does not skip generations.
Autosomal recessive pedigrees
Traits usually appear equally in males and females. Tend to skip generations. More likely to appear among progeny of related parents.
F' × F-
Two F' cells
F+ × F-
Two F+ cells
Homologous pairs
Two chromosomes alike in structure and size which can carry different alleles.
A single crossover affects how many chromatids?
Two of the four chromatids
Cotransformed
Two or more genes are transferred together
Reciprocal translocation
Two-way exchange of segments between the chromosomes
Complete dominance
Type of dominance in which the heterozygote has the same phenotype as the homozygote
How does chromosome duplication alter the phenotype?
Unbalanced gene dosage; the amount of a particular protein synthesized by a cell is often directly related to the number of copies of its corresponding gene: an individual organism with three functional copies of a gene often produces 1.5 times as much of the protein encoded by that gene as an individual with two copies
Prototrophs
Use simple ingredients to synthesize all the compounds that they need for growth and reproduction.
Incomplete dominance
When the phenotype of the heterozygote falls in between the phenotypes of the two homozygotes
Map units corresponds to ______.
a 1% recombination rate
A fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, that has only one sex chromosome (XO) and two sets of autosomes would have which of the following sexual phenotypes? a. male b. metamale c. intersex d. female e. metafemale
a.
A genetic cross with two genes produces 400 offspring, and 20 of them have recombinant phenotypes. What is the recombination frequency for this cross? a. 0.05 b. 0.2 c. 0.1 d. 0.01 e. 0.5
a.
A plasmid that is capable of integrating into a bacterial chromosome is called _________. a. an episome b. a plaque c. a provirus d. a transductant e. an auxotroph
a.
A three-point linkage analysis found a coefficient of coincidence value of 1.0. What does this value reveal about the number of observed double crossovers in the progeny? a. The number of observed double crossovers was less than the number of double crossovers predicted by probability. b. There was interference that reduced the number of observed double crossovers. c. The number of observed double crossovers was greater than the number of single crossovers. d. The number of observed double crossovers was the same as the number of double crossovers predicted by probability. e. The number of observed double crossovers was greater than the number of double crossovers predicted by probability.
a.
Additional copies of a gene ___ cause cellular problems. a. sometimes b. never c. always
a.
An individual possesses two alleles at a locus and these two alleles separate when ametes are formed, one allele going into each gamete. This genetic concept is known as which of the following? a. principle of segregation b. concept of dominance c. chromosome theory of heredity d. principle of independent assortment e. reciprocal cross
a.
Chromosome duplications often result in abnormal phenotypes because a. developmental processes depend on the relative amounts of proteins encoded by different genes. b. extra copies of the genes within the duplicated region do not pair in meiosis. c. the chromosome is more likely to break when it loops in meiosis. d. extra DNA must be replicated, which slows down cell division.
a.
Conjugation between a F+ and an F- cell usually results in a. two F+ cells. b. two F- cells. c. an F+ and an F- cell. d. an Hfr cell and an F+ cell
a.
Humans with only one sex chromosome (XO) usually have underdeveloped sexual characteristics and are sterile. What is this condition called? a. Turner syndrome b. Klinefelter syndrome c. Nondisjunction d. Lyon hypothesis e. Androgen-insensitivity syndrome
a.
If an Aa individual is crossed to an aa individual, what will be the phenotypic ratio in the offspring? a. 1:1 b. 4:0 c. 3:1 d. 1:1:1:1 e. 2:1
a.
In flowering plants, meiosis in the male portion of the flower produces ________. a. four microspores that will divide mitotically to form male gametophytes b. one haploid sperm and three polar bodies that fail to function c. two diploid sperm that will divide mitotically to form the functional male gametophyte d. four haploid sperm that are able to fertilize the egg produced by the female portion of the flower e. four megaspores but only one survives and functions
a.
Mutant bacterial strains that lack one or more enzymes needed to make essential molecules are called ___________. a. auxotrophs b. temperate c. prototrophs d. transductants e. transformant
a.
The spread of a complete metaphase chromosome set presented for diagnostic purposes is called a ______. a. karyotype b. genome c. translocation d. polyploidy
a.
True or False: All chromosomes of the same species would have the same centromeric positions. a. True b. False
a.
What is a shorthand method for predicting outcomes of genetic crosses? a. Punnett square b. reciprocal cross c. testcross d. chi-square goodness-of-fit test e. backcross
a.
What is an Ab aB linkage arrangement called? a. repulsion linkage b. coupling linkage c. complementation d. linkage disequilibrium e. interference
a.
What is the process called in which a virus has undergone major changes in its genome through the reassortment of genetic material from different strains of the virus? a. antigenic shift b. specialized transduction c. antigenic drift d. transformation e. integration
a.
What type of gene action occurs when one gene masks the effect of another gene at a different locus? a. epistasis b. genomic imprinting c. anticipation d. epigenetics e. complementation
a.
Which genetic condition is found at an unexpectedly high frequency among the Hopi Native Americans? a. albinism b. red-green color blindness c. sickle-cell disease d. dwarfism e. hemophilia
a.
Which of the following is the molecule that holds sister chromatids together during mitosis and meiosis? a. cohesin b. histone c. shugoshin d. separase e. chromatin
a.
Which of the following statements about chromosome inversions is correct? a. Chromosome inversions flip a segment of a chromosome 180 degrees. b. Chromosome inversions can reduce the number of chromosomes in a cell. c. Chromosome inversions lead to an increase in crossovers. d. Chromosome inversions do not affect gene expression.
a.
Which of the following statements about polyploidy is not true? a. Polyploidy is possible only between the members of the same species. b. Polyploidy is a major mechanism by which new plant species have evolved. c. Polyploidy is found in many of the food crop plants we enjoy, such as bananas and strawberries. d. Polyploidy results from failure to separate a whole set of chromosomes during cell division. e. Polyploidy often results in larger cell size.
a.
Which of the following statements about retroviruses is not true? a. They replicate their DNA genomes in the cytoplasm of host animal cells. b. They produce the enzyme reverse transcriptase. c. They can make a DNA copy of their genome that integrates into host cell genome. d. They have three genes in common, and each gene can produce more than one type of protein. e. They may contain oncogenes.
a.
Which of the following statements best describes linkage? a. it is a condition in which two or more genes do not show independent assortment. b. it is a condition that occurs in many types of organisms but not in humans because we do not produce sufficient numbers of offspring. c. it is a condition where two genes are located on separate chromosomes. d. it is a condition where a heterozygous individual makes only one type of gamete. e. it is a condition where one parent in a cross is homozygous for two or more genes and the other parent is heterozygous.
a.
While studying a new human disease you discover that the disease is linked to a mitochondrial gene. You can be reasonably sure that the disease is inherited __________. a. from mother to child b. from father to child c. by both mother and father d. from either mother and father
a.
With the genic sex-determination mechanism, which of the following statements is true? a. Sex is determined by genes on undifferentiated chromosomes. b. Females have two X chromosomes (XX) and males have one (XO). c. Sex is determined by environmental factors. d. Females have one Z and one W chromosome (ZW) and males have two Z chromosomes (ZZ). e. Females have two X chromosomes (XX) and males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY).
a.
A cell in G1 of interphase has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes and DNA molecules will be found per cell when this original cell progresses to the following stages? a. G2 of interphase b. Prophase of mitosis c. Metaphase of mitosis d. Anaphase of mitosis e. Telophase of mitosis f. After cytokinesis following mitosis g. Prophase I of meiosis h. Metaphase I of meiosis i. Anaphase I of meiosis j. Telophase I of meiosis k. After cytokinesis following meiosis I l. Prophase II of meiosis m. Metaphase II of meiosis n. Anaphase II of meiosis o. Telophase II of meiosis p. After cytokinesis following meiosis II
a. 12 chromsomes and 24 DNA b. 12 chromosomes and 24 DNA c. 12 chromosomes and 24 DNA d. 24 chromosomes and 24 DNA e. 24 chromosomes and 24 DNA f. 12 chromosomes and 12 DNA g. 12 chromosomes and 24 DNA h. 12 chromosomes and 24 DNA i. 12 chromosomes and 24 DNA j. 6 chromosomes and 12 DNA k. 6 chromosomes and 12 DNA l. 6 chromosomes and 12 DNA m. 6 chromosomes and 12 DNA n. 12 chromosomes and 12 DNA o. 6 chromosomes and 6 DNA p. 6 chromosomes and 6 DNA
Species I is diploid (2n=4) with chromosomes AABB; related species II is diploid (2n=6) with chromosomes MMNNOO. Give the chromosomes that would be found individuals with the following chromosome mutations: a. Autotriploidy in species I b. Allotetraploidy including species I and species II c. Monosomy in species I d. Trisomy in species II for chromosome M e. Tetrasomy in species for A f. Allotriploidy including species I and II g. Nullisomy in species for chromosome N
a. AAABBB b. AABBMMNNOO or ABMMMNNNOOO or AAABBBMNO c. AAB or ABB d. MMMNNOO e. AAAABB f. ABMMNNOO or AABBMNO g.MMOO
A man and a woman are both deaf due to being homozygous recessive at different gene loci. If all their children have normal hearing which of the following has occurred within each child? a. epistasis b. complementation c. codominance d. incomplete dominance e. gene interaction
b.
A phage cross is made with phage T2. One of the parents was h+ r- and the other parent was h- r+ . What would be the two recombinant classes of progeny from this cross? a. h+r- and h-r+ b. h+r+ and h-r- c. h+r- and h+r+ d. h+r+ and h-r+ e. h+r- and h-r-
b.
A recessive mutant allele of an autosome gene in a species of mouse results in a shorted tail in males when homozygous. However, when homozygous in females, this genotype has no effect, the mice have normal tails. What is this genetic phenomenon called? a. genomic imprinting b. sex-limited characteristic c. sex-influenced characteristic d. cytoplasmic inheritance e. genetic maternal effect
b.
In the XX-XO mechanism of sex determination, which of the following statements is true? a. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome (XY). b. Females have two X chromosomes (XX) and males have one X (XO). c. Females have two Z chromosomes and males have one Z (ZO). d. Males have two X chromosomes (XX) and females have one X (XO). e. Males have one chromosome (XO) at high temperatures and two X chromosomes at low temperatures (XX).
b.
In which bacteriophage life cycle does the phage DNA become incorporated into the bacterial chromosome? a. Lytic b. Lysogenic c. Both lytic and lysogenic d. Neither lytic or lysogenic
b.
Individual 1 with phenotype T for tall is test-crossed and half of the offspring produced have phenotype T and half have phenotype t. What are the genotypes of the individuals that were crossed? a. TT and tt b. Tt and tt c. Tt and Tt d. TT and Tt
b.
Normally in humans a mutant gene on the Y chromosome will be inherited in which of the following ways? a. All of the daughters of a parent with the mutant gene will receive it but none of the sons will. b. All of the sons of a parent with the mutant gene will receive it but none of the daughters will. c. Half of the the sons of a parent with the mutant gene will receive it and half will not; none of the daughters will receive it. d. Half of the sons and daughters of a parent with the mutant gene will receive it and half will not. e. One-quarter of both the sons and daughters of a parent with the mutant gene will receive it and the rest will not.
b.
The products of mitosis normally ____________. a. have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell b. are genetically identical to the parent cell c. are different genetically from each other because of crossing over d. have twice as many DNA molecules as the parent cell e. function as gametes in animals
b.
Until the 1970s, only a small number of bacterial species had been studied compared to the total number present throughout the world. Which of the following explanations was the main reason for this failure? a. It was assumed that all bacterial species are very similar, so studying a few species would reveal the properties of all bacteria in general. b. Only a small number of bacterial species could be cultured in the laboratory where they could be studied with standard techniques of microbiology. c. It was assumed that bacteria have limited importance because they are mainly unicellular and most are not medically significant. d. Since bacteria reproduce asexually, it was assumed that their life cycle would be too simple to be biologically important. e. Funding was available only to study bacteria that caused diseases in humans
b.
What division of genetics is essentially a study of evolution? a. diversity genetics b. population genetics c. pangenesis genetics d. transmission genetics e. molecular genetics
b.
What information can the chi-square goodness-of-fit test provide? a. the genotypes of the progeny in the test cross b. how well the observed results of a genetic cross fit the expected values c. the genotypes of the two parents in the test cross d. that the results of the genetic cross are correct e. how well the genetic cross was carried out
b.
What is the evidence for early understanding and application of the principles of heredity? a. the concept of the cell theory b. the domestication of plants and animals c. the proposal that genes are located on chromosomes d. the development of the germ-plasm theory e. the theory of evolution through natural selection
b.
What is the function of the telomere? a. to help keep plasmid DNA circular b. to protect the end of a DNA molecule c. to hold together sister chromatids d. to act as the site for the start of replication
b.
What is the outcome of a Robertsonian translocation? a. Two acrocentric chromosomes b. One large chromosome and one very small chromosome with two very short arms c. One large metacentric and one large acrocentric chromosome d. Two large metacentric chromosomes
b.
What term describes an individual possessing two of the same alleles at a gene locus? a. dihybrid b. homozygous c. wild type d. heterozygous e. monohybrid
b.
Which of the following statements about aneuploidy is true? a. Most autosomal aneuploids develop normally and have a normal life span. b. One form of aneuploidy is loss of both members of a homologous pair of chromosomes. c. Aneuploidy is a change in the number of chromosome sets. d. The rarest aneuplodies in humans are those of the sex chromosomes.
b.
Which of the following statements about chromosome translocation is correct? a. Translocations do not affect chromosome number. b. Translocation can affect gene expression by moving a gene under the control of a different promoter. c. Translocations only take place within a chromosome. d. Translocation and "crossing over" refer to the same phenomenon.
b.
Which of the following terms describes the situation, for X-linked genes, in human and Drosophila males who have only one X chromosome? a. heterozygous b. hemizygous c. homozygous d. homogametic e. dioecious
b.
Which organism did Gregor Mendel use to discover the basic principles of genetics? a. Caenorhabditis elegans (nematode) b. Pisum sativum (pea plant) c. Mus musculus (mouse) d. Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) e. Escherichia coli (bacterium)
b.
Which process of DNA transfer in bacteria requires a virus? a. Conjugation b. Transduction c. Transformation d. All of the above
b.
Which statistical test can be used to determine if two genes are linked? a. the single nucleotide polymorphism test b. chi-square test of independence c. determination of interference d. the coefficient of coincidence e. deletion mapping
b.
Who discovered the basic principles of heredity? a. James Watson b. Gregor Mendel c. Thomas Hunt Morgan d. August Weismann e. Charles Darwin
b.
____________ is a type of polyploidy that arises from the hybridization between two different species. a. Paracentric inversion b. Allopolyploidy c. Autopolyploidy d. Tetrasomy
b.
A dicentric chromosome is produced when crossing over takes place in an individual heterozygous for which type of chromosome rearrangement? a. Duplication b. Deletion c. Paracentric inversion d. Pericentric inversion
c.
A recombination frequency of 5% translates to what distance on a genetic map? a. 1 m.u. b. 50 m.u. c. 5 m.u. d. 10 m.u. e. 0.5 m.u.
c.
Eukaryotic cells that contain more than two sets of genetic information are referred to as __________. a. homologous b. haploid c. polypoid d. diploid e. mitotic
c.
Failure to separate for homologous chromsomes or sister chromatids is referred to as ___________. a. gene dosage effect b. pseudominance c. nondisjunction d. Robertsonian translocation
c.
How many ova, plural for ovum, can be produced from two primary oocytes through meiosis? a. 8 b. 4 c. 2 d. 1 e. 16
c.
In which stage of meiosis does the separation of homologous chromosomes occur? a. metaphase II b. prophase I c. anaphase I d. telophase II e. anaphase II
c.
In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell duplicate its DNA? a. G2 b. G0 c. S d. G1 e. M
c.
What is the clear patch of lysed cells on a continuous layer of bacteria on the agar surface of a petri plate called? a. a fertility factor b. a colony c. a plaque d. a transformation e. a transduction
c.
What is the complete set of genetic instructions for an organism? a. its phenotype b. its mutations c. its genome d. its chromosomes e. its gemmules
c.
What is the physical appearance or manifestation of a characteristic called in genetics? a. genotype b. alleles c. phenotype d. independent assortment e. wildtype
c.
What value represents the number of ways in which the expected classes are free to vary in the chi-square goodness-of-fit test? a. binomial expansion b. the genotypic ratio c. degrees of freedom d. the phenotypic ratio e. conditional probability
c.
What will be the genotypic ratio in the offspring of two Aa parents that are crossed with each other? a. 9:3:3:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:2:1 d. 3:1 e. 2:1
c.
When two genes are linked but quite far apart, their estimated map distance, based on recombination frequencies, is often an underestimation of their true map distance. What is the explanation for this underestimation? a. The genes are located on different pairs of homologous chromosomes. b. One of the genes is lethal when homozygous which reduces the recombinantion frequency. c. Some double crossover events go undetected since they do not lead to recombinant progeny. d. There will be more single crossover events counted than actually have occurred so the recombination frequencies will be reduced. e. There will be few or no double crossovers occurring so that more nonrecombinant progeny are produced.
c.
Which of the following methods of gene transfer in bacteria requires physical contact between donor and recipient cells? a. replication b. generalized transduction c. conjugation d. transformation e. specialized transduction
c.
Which of the following statements about Down syndrome is true? a. The probability of a child having Down syndrome does not correlate with maternal age. b. Down syndrome never runs in the family as it is based on a random aneuploidy event. c. Trisomy of chromosome 21 is well tolerated enough to give rise to fully developed individuals. d. The primary cause for Down syndrome is the Robertsonian translocation.
c.
Which of the following statements best describes an F' bacterial cell? a. It has lost the ability to undergo conjugation with an F- cell. b. It contains an F factor that is integrated into the chromosome of the host cell. c. It contains an F plasmid that includes some bacterial genes. d. It is not able to grow on complete medium. e. It does not contain the F factor.
c.
Which of the following types of bacterial cells would normally be able to undergo conjugation with an F+ cell? a. either an F+ or an F' cell b. an F' cell c. an F- cell d. another F+ cell e. an Hfr cell
c.
Which of the following would not be considered a useful characteristic for a model genetic organism? a. inexpensive to house and propagate b. large numbers of offspring c. a long generation time d. adaptability to a laboratory environment e. easy to make crosses and evaluate offspring
c.
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chapter 5
A boy has blood-type MN with a genotype of L^M L^N. His red blood cells possess both the M antigen and the N antigen. What is the relationship between his two alleles for this gene? a. incomplete dominance b. complete dominance c. epistasis d. codominance e. complementation
d.
A human male with the chromosome constitution of XXXYY would contain how many Barr bodies in his somatic cells? a. 4 b. 1 c. 3 d. 2 e. 0
d.
Assume that attached earlobes are an autosomal recessive trait with 73% penetrance. If one parent is heterozygous (Aa) and the other homozygous recessive (aa) for the attached earlobe gene, what is the probability that their first child will have attached earlobes? a. 50% b. 18.75% c. 25% d. 36.5% e. 73%
d.
How does incomplete dominance differ from incomplete penetrance? a. Incomplete dominance refers to alleles at the same locus; incomplete penetrance refers to alleles at different loci. b. Incomplete dominance ranges from 0% to 50%; incomplete penetrance ranges from 51% to 99%. c. In incomplete dominance, the heterozygote is intermediate between the homozygotes; in incomplete penetrance, heterozygotes express phenotypes of both homozygotes. d. In incomplete dominance, the heterozygote is intermediate between the homozygotes; in incomplete penetrance, some individuals do not express the expected phenotype.
d.
In a testcross involving two heterozygous genes, equal numbers of recombinant and nonrecombinant progeny are produced. From this result, what can be concluded? a. One of the two gene is lethal when homozygous. b. The genes are located very close to each other. c. The genes are linked, but there is no crossing over between them. d. The genes are not linked. e. The genes are linked, and there is some crossing over between them.
d.
In humans, mitochondrial genetic disorders are inherited from only the mother. The severity of such diseases can vary greatly, even within a single family. What form of inheritance does this represent? a. genetic maternal effect b. genomic imprinting c. sex-limited inheritance d. cytoplasmic inheritance e. sex-influenced inheritance
d.
Of all cases of primary Down syndrome, 92% is caused by _______. a. tetrasomy b. monosomy c. nullisomy d. trisomy
d.
Species A has 2n = 16 chromosomes and species B has 2n = 14. How many chromosomes would be found in an allotriploid of these two species? a. 21 or 24 b. 42 or 48 c. 45 d. 22 or 23
d.
The Green Revolution relied upon genetic applications to do which of the following? a. cure certain genetic diseases in humans b. provide renewable energy sources c. determine which species are most closely related to humans d. expand the world's food production e. synthesize new drugs
d.
The principle of independent assortment involves at least how many different gene pairs? a. 1 b. 5 c. 3 d. 2 e. 4
d.
Three-point testcrosses are often used to map genes. The two least frequent classes from such crosses usually represent which of the following types of progeny? a. single-crossover progeny b. half the nonrecombinant progeny c. nonrecombinant progeny d. double-crossover progeny e. one nonrecombinant class and one single-crossover class of progeny
d.
What is penetrance? a. the degree to which a trait is expressed b. a situation where an allele is only expressed in one sex and does not produce the same phenotype in the other sex c. a situation where the stronger or earlier expected phenotype d. the percentage of individuals having a particular genotype who express the expected phenotype e. a situation where a trait is only expressed at a particular temperature
d.
What is the constricted region of the chromosome where the kinetochore forms? a. origin of replication b. checkpoint c. telomere d. centromere e. plasmid
d.
What process involves the separation of chromosomes in the division of somatic, nonsex, cells? a. mutation b. blending c. translation d. mitosis e. transcription
d.
When Mendel crossed a plant homozygous for round seeds to another plant homozygous for wrinkled seeds, he found that all the progeny had round seeds. How is this explained? a. Segregation of alleles in the two parents produced gametes with both alleles. b. The parent that was homozygous for round seeds underwent self-pollination. c. The progeny were homozygous for the allele for round seeds. d. The allele for round seeds is dominant to the allele for wrinkled seeds. e. The allele for rounds is recessive to the allele for wrinkled seeds.
d.
Which of the following is characteristic of the bacteria and makes them different from both the archaea and the eukaryotes? a. Bacteria have multiple chromosomes while the other two groups have single chromosomes. b. Bacteria have linear chromosomes while the other two groups have circular chromosomes. c. Bacteria do not have a nuclear envelope and the other two groups do. d. Bacteria have no histones associated with their chromosomes and the other two groups do. e. Bacteria require mitosis for cell division while the other two groups use binary fission.
d.
Which of the following is not a difference between mitosis and meiosis? a. The products of mitosis are usually genetically identical but the products of meiosis are genetically different. b. Homologous chromosomes pair in meiosis but not in mitosis. c. Mitosis usually produces two daughter cells while meiosis usually produces four cells. d. Sister chromatids separate during mitosis but not during meiosis. e. In mitosis there is one cell division while in meiosis there are two cell divisions.
d.
Which of the following is not a valid statement about the characteristics that make bacteria and viruses advantageous for many genetic studies? a. Techniques are available for isolating and manipulating their genes. b. Mutants are easily obtained and studied. c. Reproduction is rapid, and many progeny are produced. d. They have large and complex genomes. e. Different strains that have been isolated are easy to grow under laboratory conditions.
d.
Which of the following statements best describes genetic maps? a. They cannot be determined between two genes if the genes are in the repulsion configuration. b. In humans, they are based on the results of somatic-cell hybridization experiments. c. They are determined by the number of nucleotides between two genes. d. They are based on recombination frequencies between genes. e. They are best constructed from the results of crosses between two homozygous individuals.
d.
Which of the following statements best describes the difference between virulent phages and temperate phages? a. Virulent phages can integrate their genomes into the host bacterial chromosome, whereas temperate phages are not able to do this. b. Virulent phages cannot produce plaques after infecting a bacterial host, whereas temperate phages can produce plaques under some conditions. c. Virulent phages have circular RNA genomes, whereas temperate phages have linear DNA genomes. d. Virulent phages can go through only the lytic cycle, whereas temperate phages can undergo either the lytic cycle or the lysogenic cycle. e. Virulent phages are able to carry out both specialized transduction and generalized transduction, whereas temperate phages can only carry out generalized transduction.
d.
Which of the following statements is true of plasmids? a. They are composed of RNA. b. They normally exist outside of bacterial cells. c. They possess only a single strand of DNA. d. They contain an origin of replication.
d.
A cross between an AABB individual and an aabb individual will produce what type of offspring? a. Half will be aaBB and half will be AAbb. b. All will be aabb. c. All will be AABB. d. Half will be AABB and half will be aabb. e. All will be AaBb.
e.
Assume that a cell has 6 chromosomes while it is in the G1 stage of the cell cycle. How many chromosomes and how many DNA molecules will it have in the G2 stage? a. 3 chromosomes and 6 DNA molecules b. 6 chromosomes and 6 DNA molecules c. 12 chromosomes and 12 DNA molecules d. 12 chromosomes and 24 DNA molecules e. 6 chromosomes and 12 DNA molecules
e.
Assume that a single crossover occurs between two genes during meiosis. What would be the consequence of this crossover event? a. All of the chromatids will be nonrecombinant. b. Three chromatids will be recombinant, and one will be nonrecombinant. c. Three chromatids will be nonrecombinant, and one will be recombinant. d. All of the chromatids will be recombinant. e. Two of the four chromatids will be recombinant, and two will be nonrecombinant.
e.
Bacteria have acquired genes from other species of bacteria and sometimes from eukaryotic cells. The processes by which this occurs are known collectively as ____________. a. interrupted conjugation b. cotransduction c. reverse transcription d. cotransformation e. horizontal gene transfer
e.
If a plant has a genotype of Aa, we would assume which of the following? a. The a allele is dominant to the A allele. b. The plant has round seeds. c. The a allele is the wild-type allele for this plant species d. This plant had to have one parent of AA genotype and one parent of aa genotype. e. The A allele is dominant to the a allele.
e.
In humans, what normally results in the male sexual phenotype? a. the presence of one X chromosome and one W chromosome (XW) b. the presence of only one X chromosome (XO) c. the presence of two Z chromosomes (ZZ) d. the presence of the Xist gene on the X chromosome e. the presence of the SRY gene on the Y chromosome
e.
In order to pass the G2/M checkpoint the cell must _____________. a. have sister chromatids already separated from each other b. have all the enzymes needed for DNA replication available c. have tensions generated at the kinetochores d. be ready to pass into the G2 stage e. have its DNA completely replicated and undamaged
e.
Meiosis results in genetic variation among its product cells. One source of this genetic variation is the random distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes, and the other source of genetic variation is __________________. a. the arrival of chromosomes at the spindle poles in telophase I b. the division of the cytoplasm at cytokinesis c. the reforming of the nuclear envelope at interkinesis d. chromosomes condensing at prophase II e. crossing over occurring at prophase I
e.
Mendel's principle of segregation can be explained by what process? a. none of these b. testcross c. mitosis d. fertilization e. meiosis
e.
The study of the chemical nature of the gene, and how genetic information is replicated and expressed is part of what division of genetics? a. diversity genetics b. population genetics c. pangenesis genetics d. transmission genetics e. molecular genetics
e.
What are the forms of one gene called? a. chromosomes b. traits c. gemmules d. phenotypes e. alleles
e.
What characteristic makes prokaryotic cells different from eukaryotic cells? a. Prokaryotic cells contain a nuclear membrane. b. Prokaryotic cells have their genes located on chromosomes. c. Prokaryotic cells have RNA but not DNa as their genetic material. d. The DNA of prokaryotic cells contains uracil instead of thymine. e. Prokaryotic cells do not contain membrane-bound organelles.
e.
What is a cross that occurs between two individuals that differ in two characteristics? a. testcross b. monohybrid cross c. trihybrid cross d. backcross e. dihybrid cross
e.
When two genes show a high frequency of cotransduction, it can be assumed that which of the following statements is true? a. The two genes are far apart but located on the same chromosome. b. There is a high level of crossing over between the two genes. c. The two genes are located on different chromosomes. d. Two phages have transduced two different genes. e. The two genes are located close two each other.
e.
Which of the following would not be considered a useful model genetic organism? a. Drosophila melanogaster (a fruit fly) b. Caenorhabditis elegans (a nematode) c. Escherichia coli (a bacterium) d. Mus musculus (the house mouse) e. Bos taurus (the cow)
e.
Which stage of mitosis involve sister chromatids separating and moving toward opposite poles? a. prometaphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. telophase e. anaphase
e.
Who was a nineteenth-century biologist who put forth the theory of evolution through natural selection and published his idea in the book entitled On the Origin of Species? a. Walter Sutton b. Thomas Hunt Morgan c. Gregor Mendel d. Frederick Sanger e. Charles Darwin
e.
With genetic maternal effect, the phenotype of an individual is determined by which of the following? a. cytoplasmic genes usually located in the mitochondria b. the sex of the parent who transmits the gene to the individual c. a combination of environmental factors and the genotype of the individual d. the sex of the individual with only one sex able to express the genotype e. the nuclear genotype of the maternal parent
e.
If the chi-square is lower than .05 probability then you would _________.
fail to reject the null hypothesis
Probability is low when chi square is ________.
high
A bacterial strain with genotype his−leu−thr− is transformed with DNA from a strain that is his+leu+thr+. A few leu+thr+ cells and a few his+thr+ cells are found, but no his+leu+ cells are observed. Which genes are farthest apart?
his and leu
Probability is high when chi square is _________.
low
If the chi-square is higher than .05 probability then you would _______.
reject the null hypothesis
Translocation
the movement of genetic material between nonhomologous chromosomes or within the same chromosome