GOS

Pilots, while on long-call reserve, must be given a minimum of ___ consecutive hour(s) of rest immediately before beginning a Flight Duty Period. * 1. 9 2. 10 3. 11 4. 12

2. 10

Sterile cockpit procedures must be observed until in level cruise flight or above what altitude? * 1. 5,000 feet 2. 10,000 feet 3. 15,000 feet 4. 2,000 feet

2. 10,000 feet

Captains shall declare an emergency and request an immediate landing when the fuel supply falls below; * 1. 20 minutes 2. 30 minutes 3. 45 minutes 4. 60 minutes

2. 30 minutes

Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that: * 1. A climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing. 2. A layer of warmer air exists above. 3. Ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below. 4. The temperature is below freezing at higher altitudes.

2. A layer of warmer air exists above.

What is true about the use of Exemption 17347? * 1. Conditional language in the forecast must be at or above the authorized minimums. 2. A second alternate must be listed on the OFP/Dispatch Release. 3. The main body of the forecast must be at least 1/2 the authorized minimums. 4. GoJet Airlines is not authorized to utilized Exemption 17347

2. A second alternate must be listed on the OFP/Dispatch Release.

You can expect clear ice when: * 1. Anytime it is snowing. 2. Anytime freezing rain is reaching the surface 3. Flying in temperatures at or below 0°C in rain or in cumuliform clouds. The probability of clear ice is increased during periods of freezing rain on cold aircraft surfaces.Reference WOP 2.10.21. 4. You forget to turn on the anti-ice and deice equipment.

2. Anytime freezing rain is reaching the surface

A member of a law enforcement agency may carry a weapon on board if what condition is met: * 1. The weapon is left with the crew. 2. It must be boarded as checked baggage. 3. A Notice Of Armed Individual form must be completed. 4. The firearm may not be loaded.

3. A Notice Of Armed Individual form must be completed.

________ is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff. * a. 5 knots b. There is no maximum tailwind c. 10 knots d. 15 knots direct, or 20 knots within 30 degrees of the runway

c. 10 knots

The AC ESS XFER switchlight is used to ________. * a. Prevent the automatic transfer of IDGs to power AC BUS 1 or 2 b. Transfers the power source for DC BUS 2 to the DC ESS BUS c. Transfers the power source for the AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 2 d. Transfers the ESS TRU 2 to DC BAT BUS

c. Transfers the power source for the AC ESS BUS to AC BUS 2

The ________ supplies bleed air to the PACKS. * a. External bleed air b. APU bleed air c. Engine bleed air d. All of the above

d. All of the above

In ______ mode, the pitch attitude commanded by the Flight Director will maintain the selected airspeed. * a. CLB b. PITCH c. DES d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

The DC EMER BUS powers the ________. * a. Engine and APU fire extinguishers b. Fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves c. AC contractor switch d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

The maximum air temperature for takeoff is ________. * a. 70 degrees C b. ISA +15 C c. 35 degrees C d. ISA +35 degrees C

d. ISA +35 degrees C

The ACPC power distribution priority is ______. * a. APU, on-side IDG, off-side IDG, external b. External, on-side IDG, off-side IDG, APU c. On-side IDG, off-side IDG, APU, external d. On-side IDG, APU, off-side IDG, external

d. On-side IDG, APU, off-side IDG, external

Placing the DSPLY FAN switch in the ________ position allows conditioned air alone to cool the flight deck CRT displays. * a. NORM b. FLT ALTN c. GND ALTN d. STBY

d. STBY

Marginal weather at the destination and alternate airport is defined as: * 1. Destination - ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 statute miles; Alternate - ceiling less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 1 statute mile. 2. Destination - ceiling less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 3 salute miles; Alternate - ceiling less than 600 feet and visibility less than 2 miles. 3. Destination - ceiling less than 2,000 feet and visibility less than 3 statute miles; Alternate - ceiling less than 400 feet and visibility less than 1 statute mile. 4. Marginal weather only applies to VFR operations.

. Destination - ceiling less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 3 salute miles; Alternate - ceiling less than 600 feet and visibility less than 2 miles.

When must a VOR check be performed? * 1. Every 30 days for the FAA, Every day for the company. 2. Any time the aircraft will be flown in IMC conditions. 3. Any time the aircraft will be flown under IFR. 4. Every 30 days for the FAA, Every 30 days for the company.

. Every 30 days for the FAA, Every day for the company.

When the Pilot In Command of a flight has obtained less than 100 hours as Pilot In Command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minima for the destination airport? * 13. 1. Has no effect. 2. Minimums are decreased by 100 ft. and 1/2 mile. 3. Minimums are increased by 100 ft. and 1/2 mile. 4. The MDA or DH is decreased by 100 ft.

. Minimums are increased by 100 ft. and 1/2 mile.

When must the flight crewmembers report for duty? * 1. 1 hour prior to departure time, or as prescribed by Crew Scheduling 2. 45 minutes prior to departure time 3. 30 minutes prior to departure 4. At the time designated by the Captain

1. 1 hour prior to departure time, or as prescribed by Crew Scheduling

In a pressurized aircraft operated under Part 121, above what cabin altitude must flight crewmembers use supplemental oxygen the entire time they are above this altitude? * 1. 10,000ft. 2. 12,000ft. 3. 15,000ft. 4. 14,000ft

1. 10,000ft.

A pilot may not act as crewmember of a GoJet Airlines aircraft if he/she has consumed an alcoholic beverage within the past: * 1. 12 hours 2. 8 hours 3. 24 hours 4. 6 hours if beverage was beer or wine.

1. 12 hours

If a pilot is scheduled for a report time of 0650 home-base time with 2 flight segments and 1 deadhead, what is the maximum FDP for that pilot? * 1. 13 hours. 2. A Flight Duty Period that includes a dead head does not have a maximum limit. 3. 12 hours. 4. Not enough information given. Maximum FDP is calculated using the local report time regardless of the pilot's home base.

1. 13 hours.

SPECI KCMI 181540Z 33018G25KT 1/2SM R32L/1800FT SN OVC005 M01/M03 A2980. What is the reported ceiling at CMI? * 1. 500' overcast 2. 3200' broken 3. Measured 100' overcast 4. 1800' overcast

1. 500' overcast

A symptom of Spatial Disorientation is: * 1. A belief that the aircraft is banked when the Attitude Indicator (ADI) shows wings level 2. Shortness of Breath 3. Tunnel Vision 4. Pressure upon the ear drum relieved by swallowing.

1. A belief that the aircraft is banked when the Attitude Indicator (ADI) shows wings level

What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements to serve as Pilot In Command and to serve as Second In Command for GoJet Airlines? * 1. Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multi-engine class; airplane type rating. 2. Commercial pilot; airplane category; multi-engine class; instrument; airplane type rating. 3. Commercial pilot; airplane category; instrument rating. 4. Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multi-engine class.

1. Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multi-engine class; airplane type rating.

Which minima should be used by a pilot who is circling to land in a CRJ700 or CRJ550? * 1. Category D minima 2. Use Category C minima. . GoJet is not authorized to conduct circling approaches. 4. The CRJ is not certified for circling approaches.

1. Category D minima

A GoJet Airlines Pilot may fly for compensation or hire if: 1. Specifically authorized in writing by the Director of Flight Operations. 2. If their flight times will not violate any Federal Air Regulations. 3. If they call any additional flight times into crew scheduling. 4. If the time is only flight instruction.

1. Specifically authorized in writing by the Director of Flight Operations.

The fuel listed under the burn amount on an OFP/Dispatch Release is: * 1. Takeoff to landing. 2. Taxi fuel. 3. The aircraft's hourly fuel burn 3. The aircraft's hourly fuel burn

1. Takeoff to landing.

Using the METAR above, what is the reported visibility at SGF? * 1. The Prevailing Visibility is Zero Statute Miles. 2. The prevailing visibility is 800FT. Prevailing visibility is 0SM. The RVR for runway 02 is 800 feet. 3. The prevailing visibility is 3000FT.

1. The Prevailing Visibility is Zero Statute Miles.

Chronic Fatigue is: * 1. The continuing decline in performance/judgment due to accumulated acute fatigue. 2. Due to severe emotional stresses. 3. Due to the lack of sleep the night before. 4. Avoided by staying up all night.

1. The continuing decline in performance/judgment due to accumulated acute fatigue.

When a domestic flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z, what is the latest time it may depart without being re-dispatched? * 1. The flight must always be re-dispatched. 2. 2005Z 3. 1905Z 4. 1850Z

1. The flight must always be re-dispatched.

What does the term "Attenuation" mean when discussing radar? * 1. The signal is reflected by a closer target not allowing it to depict further echoes. 2. The radar works to show distance but cannot be tilted to show elevation of echoes. 3. The radar is showing no severe echoes. 4. The radar set has been calibrated to the TIP mode by the pilot.

1. The signal is reflected by a closer target not allowing it to depict further echoes.

Frost, snow, or ice may not be adhering to the critical areas of the aircraft for the Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check. * 1. True 2. False

1. True

A takeoff alternate airport must be listed in the OFP/Dispatch Release when: * 1. Weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. 2. No destination alternate airport is available. 3. Destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 ft. And visibility less than 5 sm). 4. At all times.

1. Weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport

Crewmembers are assigned specific duties during emergency evacuations. The Captain and First Officer duties during the post landing phase of an emergency evacuation are: * 1. Captain directs the Flight Attendant and assists with their duties, First Officer assists the Flight Attendant their duties. 2. Captain assumes overall direction of evacuation, First Officer opens type I service door (if not already open). 3. Captain is first to exit the aircraft and takes all available emergency equipment; First Officer opens emergency exits (if not already open).

2. Captain assumes overall direction of evacuation, First Officer opens type I service door (if not already open).

GoJet Airlines is approved to conduct scheduled operations between any two cities of its choosing. * 1. True 2. False

2. False

When the ATIS reports that Ground Deicing is in effect, GoJet Captains are required to have their aircraft deiced before leaving the gate. * 1. True. GoJet's Winter Operations/Ground Icing Program allows for aircraft deicing at the gate and at a location away from the gate. Reference WOP 2.11 and 2.14. 2. False.

2. False.

If ground icing conditions exist due to light snow, and holdover time has been exceeded, what check must be accomplished? no more than 5 minutes before takeoff? * 1. Tactile visual inspection within 5 minutes of takeoff. 2. Pre-takeoff Contamination Check within 5 minutes of takeoff. 3. Pre-takeoff Check. 4. Takeoff is not authorized when holdover time has been exceeded.

2. Pre-takeoff Contamination Check within 5 minutes of takeoff.

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? * 1. Request radar vectors to the nearest airport suitable for large aircraft landings. 2. Proceed in accordance with approved instructions in the operations manual. 3. Return to the departure airport if closer than the destination airport. 4. Land at the nearest provisional airport.

2. Proceed in accordance with approved instructions in the operations manual.

30. The most important priority in operating the airline is: * 1. Cost Effectiveness 2. Safety 3. On Time Service 4. Long Overnights

2. Safety

Which statement is not a restriction for a First Officer who has obtained 100 hours in the CRJ? * 1. The Captain shall make all takeoffs when the reported or actual weather is less than the straight in category I IFR landing minimums for that airport. 2. The Captain shall make all takeoffs at special use airports. 3. The Captain shall make all takeoffs when the reported or actual weather is less than the straight in category I IFR landing minimums for that airport. 4. The Captain shall make all landings when the reported Runway Condition Code is 2 or less.

2. The Captain shall make all takeoffs at special use airports.

What is required to disperse Haze or Smoke? * 1. The sun's heat to evaporate the water to which the haze is clinging to 2. Wind 3. Cooler Temperatures 4. Car Pooling

2. Wind

22. May cargo be carried in the passenger compartment? * 1. No, it must be in an approved cargo hold. 2. Yes, but only if it is passenger carry-ons securely stored in an overhead or underseat bin. 3. Yes, if secured by a seatbelt or tiedown strong enough to prevent shifting. 4. Yes, if the passenger holds the cargo during takeoff and landing.

2. Yes, but only if it is passenger carry-ons securely stored in an overhead or underseat bin.

All Captains are considered high minimums for approaches unless they have obtained: * 1. 150 hours in type after I.O.E 2. 100 hours in make and model after I.O.E. 3. 100 hours PIC in type 4. 200 hours in make and model after I.O.E.

3. 100 hours PIC in type

If a First Officer has less than 100 hours in the CRJ in scheduled operations, what is the maximum crosswind component he/she may land with? * 1. No Limitation 2. The Aircraft's demonstrated Crosswind Component 3. 15 knots 4. 25 knots.

3. 15 knots

An average adult passenger weight on November 1st is: * 1. 190 pounds. 2. 87 pounds unless in STL. 3. 195 pounds. 4. Whatever the passenger tells the gate agent.

3. 195 pounds.

Maximum authorized depth of dry snow for takeoff is: * 1. 1.0 inch 2. 2.0 inches 3. 3.0 inches 4. 4.0 inches

3. 3.0 inches

A symptom of Hypoxia is: * 1. Feelings of dizziness and drowsiness 2. Impairment of vision and judgment. 3. Low blood pressure 4. Both 1 and 2

4. Both 1 and 2

You may not serve as a PIC in any operation unless you have passed; * 1. A proficiency check within 180 days prior to the date you are to serve. 2. An aircraft proficiency check since the beginning of the 6th calendar month prior to the date you are to serve. 3. A proficiency check since the beginning of the 12th calendar month prior to the date you are to serve. 4. An aircraft simulator check within the previous 6 calendar months.

3. A proficiency check since the beginning of the 12th calendar month prior to the date you are to serve.

A SIGMET applies to: * 1. Part 121 carriers only. 2. Part 91 flights only. 3. All aircraft

3. All aircraft

You have 70 hours as pilot in command in a CRJ. How does this affect the DH, MDA, and mini-mum visibility requirements for an instrument approach? The MDA or DH: * 1. Remains the same, but the visibility minima are increased by 1/2 mile. 2. And visibility minima are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile, respectively. 3. And visibility minima are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile respectively. 4. Is increased by 100 feet, but the visibility minima remain the same.

3. And visibility minima are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile respectively.

No person may dispatch or release an aircraft under IFR, unless appropriate weather reports, or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be: * 1. At least 2,000 foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility. 2. Weather conditions never prevent the dispatch of an aircraft. 3. At or above authorized minimums at the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport. 4. At or above authorized minimums between 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport

3. At or above authorized minimums at the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport.

f you are being radar vectored in Instrument Meteorological Conditions and lose radio communications with ATC, what action should you take? * 1. Fly direct to the next point shown on your IFR flight plan and continue the flight. 2. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR On Top. 3. Fly direct to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. 4. Execute an instrument approach to the nearest airport.

3. Fly direct to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a head wind shears into a calm wind? * 1. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases. 2. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases. 3. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases. 4. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.

3. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

If a flight crewmember completes a required training event that must be completed at least once every 12 months in July 2019 and the subsequent required training event is completed in June 2020, the latter event is considered to have been completed in: * 1. June 2020 2. January 2020 3. July 2020 4. February 2020

3. July 2020

If a crewmember's medical is due during the month of May, when must he provide a copy of it to the Crew Records Department? * 1. May 1 2. May 20 3. May 25 4. May 31

3. May 25

. GoJet Airlines receives weather data for flight plans from: * 1. Meterorlogix and the Weather Channel. 2. Meterorlogix, Local TV, and the National Weather Service. 3. National Weather Service and WSI. 4. National Weather Service, Meterorlogix, and any means approved by the FAA.

3. National Weather Service and WSI.

Bloomington, IL (BMI) is listed on the OFP/Dispatch release as an alternate airport. The fore-cast at BMI is as follows: wind 200° at 35 knots, ceiling 500 feet overcast, visibility 1 1/4 miles. Is BMI a legal alternate? * 1. Yes, the derived visibility is 1 mile. 2. No, the derived ceiling and visibility is 600 feet and 1 1/4 miles. 3. No, the derived ceiling and visibility is 600 feet and 1 1/2 miles. 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.

3. No, the derived ceiling and visibility is 600 feet and 1 1/2 miles.

Before each flight, who is directly responsible for determining the airworthiness status of a mechanical irregularity previously entered in the aircraft maintenance log? * 1. Aircraft Dispatcher. 2. Line Maintenance Supervisor. 3. Pilot In Command of next flight 4. Director of Maintenance.

3. Pilot In Command of next flight

To be able to use lower than standard takeoff minimums when visibility is below landing minimums, you must have a: * 1. Takeoff alternate within 30 minutes flying time 2. Takeoff alternate within one hour flying time 3. Takeoff alternate within 1 hour single engine cruise speed in still air 4. Takeoff alternate with one hour two engine cruise speed

3. Takeoff alternate within 1 hour single engine cruise speed in still air

Icing conditions exist for the CRJ, for takeoff, if there is visible moisture in any form present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet, snow, etc.) and: * 1. The Total Air Temperature is less than 5°C. 2. The Total Air Temperature is less than 10°C. 3. The Outside Air Temperature is equal to or less than 10°C. 4. The Outside Air Temperature is equal to or less than 5°C.

3. The Outside Air Temperature is equal to or less than 10°C.

To conduct a land and hold short operation during the daytime, _________. * 1. The braking action must be at least good with up to 5kts tailwind. 2. The runway must be dry with hold short lights in the runway to identify the intersection. 3. The aircraft must not have any MEL(s) that may affect the aircraft's capability to stop. 4. GoJet Aircraft are not authorized to conduct land and hold short operations.

3. The aircraft must not have any MEL(s) that may affect the aircraft's capability to stop.

What is required for a crew to land and hold short of an intersecting runway? * 1. The landing runway must have an arresting cable. 2. ATC has the final authority to accept or decline a LAHSO clearance. 3. The runway must be dry with no tailwind on the landing runway. 4. The captain must make the landing.

3. The runway must be dry with no tailwind on the landing runway.

Under what condition may the flight crew continue an instrument approach to the DA/MDA, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than published landing minimums exist at the airport? * 1. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. 2. When the weather report is received after the pilot has been cleared for an instrument approach. 3. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of an instrument approach. 4. If the airplane is equipped with ground proximity warning equipment.

3. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of an instrument approach.

Which of the following is required when taking off with 1/4 mile or touchdown zone RVR 1600? * 1. Operative High Intensity Runway Lights. 2. Operative RVR Reporting System. 3. Adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control. 4. 1 or 3.

4. 1 or 3.

A pilot has the weekend off and shows for a trip Monday. The pilot is on duty from 0900 until 2000, scheduled to fly 7 hours and 30 minutes. Tuesday morning, he/she shows at 0530 and the Flight Duty Period ends at 0815 having been scheduled to fly 1:45. If Crew Scheduling sends the pilot home the second day at 0830 to receive the required rest, what is the soonest he/she may show for another trip? * 1. 2015 Tues night 2. 1615 Tues afternoon 3. 1815 Tues night 4. 1830 Tues night

4. 1830 Tues night

When the Captain of a flight becomes aware of hazardous conditions he should? * 1. Continue if there is a chance the operation will be successful. 2. Restrict or suspend operations. 3. Notify Dispatch. 4. 2 and 3.

4. 2 and 3.

When flying near thunderstorms you should avoid severe cells by: * 1. 5 miles 2. 10 miles 3. 15 miles 4. 20 miles

4. 20 miles

A flight may proceed if a mechanical discrepancy is noted while taxiing to the runway for departure, provided: * 1. The affected system fails after leaving the gate. 2. The affected system can be deferred per the MEL. 3. The affected system is not required by this flight. 4. All the above.

4. All the above.

Acute Fatigue is a normal occurrence of everyday living and occurs because of: * 1. Periods of physical strain. 2. Periods of mental strain. 3. Because of emotional stress. 4. All the above.

4. All the above.

What documents is the Pilot in command required to carry with him on the aircraft to its destination? * 1. Load Manifest 2. Flight and airworthiness releases. 3. Flight Plan. 4. All the above.

4. All the above.

Which of the following is a true statement? * 1. Do not attempt to fly under a thunderstorm. 2. Hail can sometimes be found several miles from the storm's core. 3. Do not trust the visual appearance of a storm as an indicator of it's turbulence 4. All the above.

4. All the above.

An instrument approach procedure to an airport may not be initiated unless the latest weather report issued by an authorized weather reporting facility indicates that weather conditions; * 1. Exceed the lowest circling minima for that airport. 2. Are at or above the circling minima for the runway the Pilot intends to use. 3. Exceed the straight in minima for all nonprecision approaches. 4. Are at or above the authorized IFR landing minima for that procedure.

4. Are at or above the authorized IFR landing minima for that procedure.

The wing anti-ice system must be ON for takeoff when the OAT is 5 °C or below and: * 1. Visible moisture in any form is present (such as fog with visibilty of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals). Wing anti-ice is required for takeoff when the OAT is 5°C and visible moisture in any form is present, or when the runway is contaminated with surface snow, slush, or standing water. Reference SOP 3-5.3.1 and FCOM2 2-4-6. 2. The runway is contaminated with surface snow, slush or standing water. 3. Type IV anti-icing fluid has been applied to the wings. 4. Both 1 and 2.

4. Both 1 and 2.

Which of the following statements is true concerning deicing of GoJet aircraft? * 1. Which of the following statements is true concerning deicing of GoJet aircraft? 2. All critical surfaces of the aircraft must be free of ice, frost and/or snow prior to departure. 3. The Captain will assure the aircraft is inspected when the deicing operation is complet ed. 4. Both 2 And 3.

4. Both 2 And 3.

Maintenance test flights are only authorized by: * 1. Dispatch 2. Director of Flight Operations 3. Chief Pilot 4. Both 2 and 3 may authorize maintenance test flights.

4. Both 2 and 3 may authorize maintenance test flights.

Which of the following is an example of the Captain's duties? * 1. Assures that each pilot is properly rested as per FAR 117, but not required to assure the Flight Attendants are properly rested. 2. Is in command of the crew from the time they report for duties prior to departure until they are released from duty. 3. Supervises the preparation of each flight by supervising the First Officer and reviewing the flight release paperwork to assure all factors are considered prior to departure. 4. Both 2 and 3.

4. Both 2 and 3.

Hyperventilation can be eased by: * 1. Descending to a lower altitude 2. Going on 100 % oxygen 3. Holding your nostrils closed and trying to blow gently out of them. 4. By breathing slowly into a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.

4. By breathing slowly into a paper bag held over the nose and mouth.

What requirements must be met prior to any powerback operation? * 1. PIC must be trained. 2. 3 wingwalkers. 3. Cannot back towards buildings or active taxiways. 4. GoJet is not authorized for powerback operations.

4. GoJet is not authorized for powerback operations.

When conducting an approach to land on a runway served by both an ILS and a visual approach slope indicator the pilot: * 1. Shall maintain the electronic glide slope regardless of weather conditions. 2. Is not required to maintain a relationship with the approach slope lights during VFR conditions. 3. Stay above the glide slope and land beyond the approach slope lights on the runway. 4. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary to land.

4. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary to land.

KSGF 261145Z 02003KT 0SM R02/800FT FG VV/// 24/24 A3000 The METAR for SGF indicates: * 1. An approach to Runway 2 may be made as long as an alternate airport has been designated. 2. An approach to Runway 2 may be made, but a landing cannot be made. 3. The anti-icing system must be used when conducting the approach. 4. None of the above

4. None of the above

When must the Flight Crew use shoulder harnesses? * 1. Whenever they are at their duty station. 2. Take-off only. 3. Landing only. 4. Take-off and landing.

4. Take-off and landing.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in an airworthy condition? * 1. The Director of Maintenance. 2. The Quality Control Assurance Inspector. 3. The VP of Flight Operations. 4. The Pilot-in-Command.

4. The Pilot-in-Command.

No person may takeoff a GoJet aircraft with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any critical surface. The critical surfaces of the aircraft are: * 1. Wings and Horizontal Stabilizer, Control Surfaces, Windshield, Antennas 2. Horizontal Stabilizer, Wings, Upper Fuselage, Landing Gear, Lower Fuselage. 3. The entire airplane is a critical surface 4. Wings, Horizontal Stabilizer, Vertical Stabilizer, Upper Fuselage, Control Surfaces, Engine Inlets.

4. Wings, Horizontal Stabilizer, Vertical Stabilizer, Upper Fuselage, Control Surfaces, Engine Inlets.

May a flight crew depart at a weight that would require a higher than normal fuel burn in order to land at their destination at or below the aircraft's maximum certificated landing weight? * 1. No, they must depart at a lighter weight. 2. Yes, as long as they burn to below landing weight before actually landing.

No, they must depart at a lighter weight.

If a Captain obtained a First Class Medical Certificate on May 3, 2008, when would he need to renew it by according to the FAR's to use it for operations requiring a First Class Medical? (Captain is over 40) * 1. November 3, 2008 2. November 30, 2008 3. May 3, 2009 4. December 31, 2008

November 30, 2008

The APU fire protection system consists of how many fire bottles? * a. 1 b. The APU shares fire bottles with the engines c. 2 d. The APU does not use fire bottles

a. 1

The primary purpose of the APU is to provide what? * a. 115 volts AC electrical power b. Bleed air for the Environmental Control System c. 24 volts DC electrical power d. Bleed air for engine starts

a. 115 volts AC electrical power

The Cockpit Voice Recorder has the capacity to record the last _______ minutes of the flight, * a. 120 b. 60 c. 45 d. 30

a. 120

Which of the following will cause the APU to shutdown automatically? * a. Low oil pressure b. Total fuel less than 600 pounds c. Extracting APU bleed air above 25,000 feet pressure altitude d. Blown APU ECU fuse

a. Low oil pressure

When in an unsafe condition for flight, which door(s) will show red on the synoptic page? * a. Main cabin door b. Overwing exits c. Forward and aft cargo doors d. Main cabin door and service door

a. Main cabin door

SPEED mode causes the Flight Director to command a pitch attitude that will do what? * a. Maintain the selected airspeed b. Maintain the selected vertical speed c. Maintain 1000 feet per minute d. Maintain the optimum climb speed

a. Maintain the selected airspeed

HALF BANK limits the maximum bank angle commanded by the Flight Director to? * a. 20 degrees b. 15 degrees c. A bank angle that results in a standard rate turn d. A bank angle that results in a half standard rate turn

b. 15 degrees

The APU start sequence may be attempted ______ in one hour with _____ between starts. * a. 5 times, 10 minutes b. 3 times, 2 minutes c. 5 times, 30 seconds d. 3 times, 30 seconds

b. 3 times, 2 minutes

_______ is the maximum altitude for starting the APU. * a. 15,000 feet pressure altitude b. 37,000 feet pressure altitude c. 25,000 feet pressure altitude d. 41,000 feet pressure altitude

b. 37,000 feet pressure altitude

he electrical load placed on the APU generator must not exceed ________. * a. 30 kVA b. 40 kVA c. 115 kVA d. 120 kVA

b. 40 kVA

The minimum altitude to engage the autopilot is ________. * a. 400 feet AGL b. 600 feet AGL c. 1000 feet AGL d. The autopilot may be engaged immediately after takeoff

b. 600 feet AGL

Which door is not displayed on the DOORS synoptic page? * a. Forward service door b. Aft equipment bay door c. Main cabin door d. Overwing emergency exit doors

b. Aft equipment bay door

Both RTUs monitor and control COM 1 and COM 2. * a. True b. False

b. False

To make a cabin announcement using the Public Address System, ____________. * a. Press the PA switchlight on the Interphone Control Unit and then move the Transmit Switch on the Audio Control Panel to TALK b. Move the Transmit Switch on the Audio Control Panel to PA then press the PA switchlight on the Interphone Control Unit . c. Press the PA switchlight on the Interphone Control Unit and then use any push to talk switch while talking into any system microphone d. Move the Transmit Switch on the Audio Control Panel to CBN then press the PA switchlight on the Interphone Control Unit.

b. Move the Transmit Switch on the Audio Control Panel to PA then press the PA switchlight on the Interphone Control Unit .