hematologic
10. The nurse is obtaining the health history of a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which factor in this client's history does the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? a. Eating a meat-free diet b. Family history of sickle cell disease c. History of leukemia d. History of bleeding ulcer
ANS: A A diet high in protein and iron helps keep the client's levels of iron within normal limits. Meat is a good source of protein and iron. A bleeding ulcer could cause anemia but would not cause iron deficiency. Sickle cell disease causes sickle cell anemia. Leukemia causes a decrease in white blood cells.
The nurse is administering a prescribed fibrinolytic to a client who is having a myocardial infarction (MI). Which adverse effect does the nurse monitor for? a. Bleeding b. Orthostatic hypotension c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Nausea and vomiting
ANS: A A fibrinolytic lyses any clots in the body, thus causing an increased risk for bleeding. Fibrinolytic therapy does not place the client at risk for hypotension, thrombosis, or nausea and vomiting.
The nurse is caring for a client who had a bone marrow aspiration. The client begins to bleed from the aspiration site. Which action does the nurse perform? a. Apply external pressure to the site. b. Elevate the extremities. c. Cover the site with a dressing. d. Immobilize the leg.
ANS: A All these options could be done after a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. However, the most important action when bleeding occurs is to apply external pressure to the site until hemostasis is ensured. The other measures could then be carried out.
19. The nurse is assessing a client with anemia. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to see in this client? a. Dyspnea with activity b. Hypertension c. Bradycardia d. Warm, flushed skin
ANS: A Anemia is a reduction in the number of red blood cells (RBCs), the amount of hemoglobin, or the hematocrit level. Tissue oxygenation depends on RBCs. Typical symptoms of anemic clients include dyspnea, increased somnolence, tachycardia, and pallor. A client who is anemic tends to have lower blood pressure, increased heart rate, and skin that is pale and cool to touch.
The nurse is caring for a client who has a decreased serum iron level. Which intervention does the nurse prioritize for this client? a. Dietary consult b. Family assessment c. Cardiac assessment d. Administration of vitamin K
ANS: A Diets can alter cell quality and affect blood clotting. Diets low in iron can cause anemia and decrease the function of all red blood cells. The question does not say that the hemoglobin is low enough to affect the cardiac function. Family assessment may be important in finding out any genetic or family lifestyle causes of the low serum iron level. However, the first intervention that the nurse can provide is to have the client's dietary habits evaluated and changed so that iron levels can increase. Vitamin K is involved with clotting, not with iron stores.
8. The nurse is assessing a client who has a factor VIII deficiency. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to assess in this client? a.Excessive bleeding from a cut b.Chronic lower back pain c.Nausea and vomiting d.Temperature of 101° F
ANS: A Factor VIII deficiency is also known as hemophilia A. With hemophilia, a client has a prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and is at risk for excessive bleeding from minor cuts. The other three distractors are not associated with a factor VIII deficiency.
The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old male client. Which blood value indicates that the client is experiencing normal changes associated with aging? a. Hemoglobin, 13.0 g/dL b. Platelet count, 100,000/mm3 c. Prothrombin time (PT), 14 seconds d. White blood cell (WBC) count, 5000/mm3
ANS: A Hemoglobin levels in men and women fall after middle age. Therefore, this client's hemoglobin value would be considered part of the aging process. Platelet counts and blood-clotting times are not age related; the client's platelet count and PT are elevated for some other reason. The WBC count shown is normal.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with numerous areas of bruising. Which question does the nurse ask to determine the cause of this finding? a. "Do you take aspirin?" b. "How often do you exercise?" c. "Are you a vegetarian?" d. "How often do you take Tylenol?"
ANS: A Platelet aggregation is essential for blood clotting. An inability to clot blood when an injury occurs can result in bleeding, which would cause bruising. Aspirin is a drug that interferes with platelet aggregation and has the ability to "plug" an extrinsic event, such as trauma. Vitamin K found in green vegetables enhances clotting factors, which would improve the ability to stop bleeding associated with an extrinsic event. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) and exercise do not inhibit clotting factors.
15. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. The client states, "I am concerned I might be given blood products during surgery and this would be against my religious beliefs." How does the nurse respond? a. "We can use other means to replace blood loss besides blood products." b. "Your chance of needing a blood transfusion is small." c. "The operating team will do what is necessary to save your life." d. "You could have family members donate blood for you."
ANS: A The client's rights and wishes should be respected while accurate information is provided for reassurance. Directed donations from family members neither ensure safe blood products nor may be sanctioned by the client's religion.
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has a splenectomy. Which statement does the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? a. "Avoid crowds and people who are sick." b. "Do not eat raw fruits or vegetables." c. "Avoid environmental allergens." d. "Do not play contact sports."
ANS: A The spleen is the major site of B-lymphocyte maturation and antibody production. Those who undergo splenectomies for any reason have a decreased antibody-mediated immune response and are particularly susceptible to viral infections. Eating raw fruits and vegetables places the client at risk for bacterial infections. The body responds to environmental allergens with an unspecific inflammatory process. The client is not at risk for bleeding or injury due to contact sports.
The nurse is assessing a client whose warfarin (Coumadin) therapy was discontinued 3 weeks ago. Which laboratory test result indicates that the client's warfarin therapy is no longer therapeutic? a. International normalized ratio (INR), 0.9 b. Reticulocyte count, 1% c. Serum ferritin level, 350 ng/mL d. Total white blood cell (WBC) count, 9000/mm3
ANS: A Warfarin therapy increases the INR. Normal INR ranges between 0.7 and 1.8. Therapeutic warfarin levels, depending on the indication of the disorder, should maintain the INR between 1.5 and 3.0. When the effects of warfarin are no longer present, the INR returns to normal levels. Warfarin therapy does not affect white blood cell count, serum ferritin level, or reticulocyte count.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who has autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? a.Avoid intramuscular injections. b.Administer prescribed anticoagulants. c.Infuse intravenous normal saline. d.Monitor for an increase in temperature.
ANS: A With autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, the total number of circulating platelets is greatly reduced. As a result of the decreased platelet count, the client is at great risk for bleeding, and intramuscular injections should be avoided. Anticoagulants should not be given. A low platelet count is not treated with saline, and thrombocytopenia will not cause a change in body temperature.
A nursing student asks the instructor why he was marked off on his care plan when explaining a low hemoglobin level as being caused by "anemia." What response by the instructor is best? A. Anemia is a symptom, not a disease. B. Anemia only refers to a low red blood cell count. C. Hemoglobin and anemia are unrelated. D. The hemoglobin must not be too low.
ANS: A Anemia is a symptom that can be caused by many disease states. It is not a disease that explains low hemoglobin. The other answers are incorrect.
A nurse is assessing an infant for the most common type of anemia worldwide. What action by the nurse is most helpful? A. Assess if formula is iron-fortified. B. Determine family history of anemia. C. Look at mucous membranes for pallor. D. Perform range of motion on the hips.
ANS: A The most common type of anemia worldwide is iron-deficiency anemia, which can be caused by ingesting non-iron-fortified formula if the child is not breastfed. This type of anemia is not genetic. Pallor, either of the skin or mucous membranes, would be seen in any type of anemia. Range of motion of the hips or shoulders is an important assessment in sickle cell disease, in which avascular necrosis can occur.
A 2-year-old child's hemoglobin is 8.2 g/dL. What action by the nurse is best? A. Ask the parents about activity level. B. Document findings in the chart. C. Notify the provider immediately. D. Schedule a re-draw of blood in 6 months
ANS: A The normal hemoglobin for a child this age is 10.55-12.7 g/dL, so this child is somewhat anemic. The nurse should assess for other manifestations of anemia, including normal activity level. The findings should be documented, but this is not the only action that the nurse should take. The provider needs to be notified, but it does not have to be done immediately, as this is not an emergency. After a full evaluation, the provider may or may not want to repeat the laboratory work in 6 months.
The nurse is monitoring a client with liver failure. Which assessments does the nurse perform when monitoring for bleeding in this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Gums b. Lung sounds c.Urine d. Stool e. Hair
ANS: A, C, D The liver is the site for production of clotting factors. Without these factors, the client is at risk for bleeding. Common areas of bleeding include the gums and mucous membranes, bladder, and gastrointestinal tract. Lung sounds and hair are part of the assessment but are not essential in the presence of liver failure and hematologic abnormalities.
The nurse is completing the preoperative checklist on a client. The client states, "I take an aspirin every day for my heart." How does the nurse respond? a. "I will call your doctor and request a prescription for pain medication." b. "I need to call the surgeon and reschedule your surgery." c. "I'll give you the prescribed Tylenol to minimize any headache before surgery." d. "I need to administer vitamin K to prevent bleeding during the procedure."
ANS: B Aspirin and other salicylates interfere with platelet aggregation—the first step in the blood-clotting cascade—and decrease the ability of the blood to form a platelet plug. These effects last for longer than 1 week after just one dose of aspirin. The client may need to have the surgery rescheduled. Vitamin K, prescribed pain medication, and Tylenol cannot reduce the anticlotting effects of aspirin.
13. Which risk factor does the nurse assess for to determine a client's cause of anemia? a. Antacid therapy b. Chronic alcoholism c. Congestive heart failure d. Type 2 diabetes
ANS: B Chronic alcohol abuse is strongly associated with malnutrition of many dietary essentials, including iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12. Antacids, heart failure, and diabetes affect nutrition at varying levels, but anemia is most closely related to the malnutrition seen with chronic alcohol abuse.
25. The nurse observes that a client, whose blood type is AB-negative, is receiving a transfusion with type O-negative packed red blood cells. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Report the problem to the blood bank. b. Assess and record the client's vital signs. c. Stop the transfusion and keep the IV open. d. administer prescribed diphenhydrami
ANS: B Clients with an AB-negative blood type can receive O-negative blood because they do not have antibodies against this type of blood. The transfusion can proceed. The nurse monitors the client's vital signs as if he or she were receiving type AB-negative packed red blood cells. The blood bank would not need to be called. Blood would not need to be stopped because the blood is compatible with the client's blood type. Benadryl would be given only if the client had an allergic reaction.
23. The nurse is teaching a client who was recently diagnosed with thrombocytopenia. Which instruction does the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Drink at least 3 liters of fluid each day." b. "Use a soft-bristled toothbrush." c. "Avoid blowing your nose." d. "Use only aspirin when having pain."
ANS: B Decreased platelet counts increase the risk for prolonged bleeding, even with slight injury. Fluid intake will not affect the platelet count. The client can blow his or her nose if necessary but should be instructed to do so gently. Aspirin should be avoided because it can cause an even greater risk of bleeding.
7. The nurse is providing health promotion education to a client who has a family history of leukemia. Which factor does the nurse teach this client to avoid? a. Alcohol consumption b. Exposure to ionizing radiation c. High-cholesterol diet d. Smoking cigarettes
ANS: B Many genetic and environmental factors are involved in the development of leukemia. Exposure to radiation increases the risk for development of leukemia, particularly acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). Although alcohol consumption, high-cholesterol diet, and smoking are not healthy behaviors, they do not increase the risk for leukemia.
14. The nurse is teaching a client who is being discharged to home after bone marrow transplantation. The client asks, "Why is it so important to protect myself from injury?" How does the nurse respond? a. "Injuries put you at high risk for infection." b. "Platelet recovery is slow, which makes you at risk for bleeding." c. "Severe trauma could result in rejection of the transplant." d. "The medications you are taking will make you bruise easily."
ANS: B Platelets recover more slowly than other blood cells after bone marrow transplantation. Thus the client is still thrombocytopenic at home and remains at risk for excessive bleeding after any trauma or injury. Injured tissue makes a client at risk for infection, and trauma could result in injury to the transplant (but not rejection). However, these are not the best responses to give the client. A steroid regimen may make a client more at risk for bruising, but the most accurate response pertains to platelet recovery.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. How does the nurse evaluate the therapeutic effect of the therapy? a. Evaluate platelets. b. Monitor the partial thromboplastin time (PTT). c. Assess bleeding time. d. Monitor fibrin degradation products.
ANS: B The PTT assesses the intrinsic clotting cascade. Heparin therapy is monitored by the PTT. Platelets are monitored by the platelet count laboratory value, bleeding time evaluates vascular and platelet activity during hemostasis, and fibrin degradation products help assess for fibrinolysis.
The nurse is teaching a client who has undergone a bone marrow biopsy. Which instruction does the nurse give the client? a. "Wear protective gear when playing contact sports." b. "Monitor the biopsy site for bruising." c. "Remain in bed for at least 12 hours." d. "Use a heating pad for pain at the biopsy site."
ANS: B The most important instruction is to have the client monitor the area for external or internal bleeding. Activities such as contact sports should be avoided, and an ice pack can be used to limit bruising.
9. The nurse is planning care for a client who has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which intervention does the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Oxygen by nasal cannula b. Bleeding Precautions c. Isolation Precautions d.Vital signs every 4 hours
ANS: B The normal platelet count ranges between 150,000 and 400,000/mm3. This client is at extreme risk for bleeding. Although it is necessary to notify the provider, the nurse would first protect the client by instituting Bleeding Precautions. The other interventions are not related to the low platelet count.
9. The nurse is planning care for a client who has leukemia. Which intervention does the nurse include in the plan of care to prevent fatigue? a.Arrange for a family member to stay with the client. b.Plan care for times when the client has the most energy. c.Schedule for daily physicals and occupational therapy. d.Plan all activities to occur in the morning to allow for afternoon naps.
ANS: B With leukemia, energy management is needed to help conserve the client's energy. Care should be scheduled when the client has the most energy. This client may not have the most energy in the morning. If the benefit of an activity such as physical or occupational therapy is less than its worsening of fatigue, it may be postponed. The nurse should limit the number of visitors and interruptions by visitors, as appropriate.
A nurse working in pediatrics learns that the normal hemoglobin value for an infant is high at birth, then decreases by 2 months of age before increasing again as the child grows. The nurse knows the reason for this shift is which of the following? A. Hemodilution from starting oral nutrition B. Lower available oxygen while in utero C. Rapid hemoglobin destruction at birth D. Slower hemoglobin production after birth
ANS: B The fetus needs a higher hemoglobin level to compensate for the relatively low-oxygen environment of the uterus. The other answers are incorrect.
1. The nurse is preparing to administer transfusion therapy to a client. Which interventions does the nurse implement before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.) a. Confirm the client's room number with the blood tag. b.Check the client's ABO and Rh types with the blood tag. c. Place a 20-gauge needle or larger in the client's forearm. d. Obtain the client's pulse oximetry reading. e. Assess the client's temperature.
ANS: B, C, E Before giving any transfusion therapy, two nurses must examine the blood tag and the requisition slip to ensure that the ABO and Rh types are compatible. The client's room number is not an acceptable form of identification. A larger needle (at least a 20-gauge needle) should be used, and blood pressure, pulse, respirations, and temperature should be obtained. Obtaining an oxygen saturation reading is unnecessary.
27. A client who is receiving a unit of red blood cells begins to report chest and lower back pain. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV. b. Assess the level of the pain. c. Stop the transfusion. d. Reposition the client on the right side.
ANS: C A hemolytic transfusion reaction is caused by blood type or Rh incompatibility. When blood containing antigens different from the client's own antigens is infused, antigen-antibody complexes are formed in the client's blood. Manifestations include low back pain and chest pain, and the transfusion should be discontinued immediately. The other actions are not the priority.
1. The registered nurse is assigning a practical nurse to care for a client who has leukemia. Which instruction does the registered nurse provide to the practical nurse when delegating this client's care? a.Evaluate the amount of protein the client eats. b.Assess the client's roommate for symptoms of infection. c.Perform effective hand hygiene frequently. d.Wear a mask when entering the room.
ANS: C A major objective in caring for the client with leukemia is protection from infection. Frequent handwashing is of the utmost importance. If at all possible, the client should be in a private room. Masks are worn by anyone who has an upper respiratory tract infection. The client may be on a "minimal bacteria diet." Protein is not a factor in this diet.
12. The nurse assesses that a client has a smooth, beefy red tongue. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? a. Administer prescribed oral iron supplements. b. Monitor the daily white blood cell count. c. Provide a diet high in green leafy vegetables. d. Perform more frequent mouth care.
ANS: C A smooth, beefy red tongue could signify glossitis, which is seen with vitamin B12 deficiency. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin B12. Iron supplements would be used with iron deficiency anemia. The red blood cell count is what is affected by vitamin B12 deficiency—not the white blood cell count. The beefy red tongue is caused by the vitamin deficiency, not by poor mouth care.
22. A client who has sickle cell anemia is admitted to the hospital. The client reports severe pain. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Administer one unit of packed red blood cells. b. Administer prescribed hydroxyurea (Droxia). c. Begin intravenous fluids at 250 mL/hr. d. Prepare for bone marrow transplantation.
ANS: C All of these are treatments for sickle cell anemia. However, the client in severe pain is likely to be in sickle cell crisis. To prevent further sickling of the red blood cells, adequate hydration of at least 200 mL/hr is needed during a crisis. The other interventions should be implemented after the fluids are started.
The nurse is preparing a client for a bone biopsy and aspiration. The client asks, "Will this be painful?" How does the nurse respond? a. "The procedure is always done under general anesthesia." b. "The biopsy lasts for only 2 minutes." c. "There is a chance that you may have pain." d. "You can relieve pain with guided imagery."
ANS: C Clients may have pain during this procedure. The type and amount of anesthesia or sedation depend on the physician's preference, the client's preference, and previous experience with bone marrow aspiration. The procedure takes from 5 to 15 minutes. Guided imagery can relieve pain but works well only with some clients.
A client is newly diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Which information does the nurse include in the client's discharge instructions? a. "Eat a diet high in iron." b. "Take hydroxyurea (Droxia) every morning." c. "Be aware of the early symptoms of crisis." d. "Do not use any oral contraceptives."
ANS: C Clients need to know the early symptoms of crisis so that treatment can be started early to prevent pain, complications, and permanent tissue damage. The iron level is not low in sickle cell anemia. Hydroxyurea is used in the hospital during a sickle cell crisis. The use of oral contraceptives is controversial because they may enhance clot formation, predisposing the client to crisis.
20. The nurse is transfusing red blood cells to a client who has sickle cell disease. Which laboratory result indicates that the nurse should discontinue the transfusion? a. Hematocrit level (Hct), 32% b. Hemoglobin S, 88% c. Serum iron level, 300 mcg/dL d. Total white blood cell count, 12,000/mm3
ANS: C Clients with sickle cell disease are anemic but are not iron deficient. Transfusions are prescribed cautiously to prevent iron overload with repeated transfusions. Iron overload damages the heart, liver, and endocrine organs. Monitor the client's serum ferritin, serum iron (Fe), and total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) during transfusion therapy. The other laboratory values should not result in discontinuation of the transfusion by the nurse.
The nurse is assessing a client's susceptibility to rejecting a transplanted kidney. Which result does the nurse recognize as increasing the client's chances of rejection? a. Decreased T-lymphocyte helper b. Decreased white blood cell count c. Increased cytotoxic-cytolytic T cell d. Increased neutrophil count
ANS: C Cytotoxic-cytolytic T cells function to attack and destroy non-self-cells, specifically virally infected cells and cells from transplanted grafts and organs. A high level of these cells would increase the chances of rejection. Decreased white blood cells would indicate immune suppression. Neutrophils are increased during an infection.
28. The nurse is preparing to transfuse a third unit of red blood cells to a client. Which laboratory result is the nurse most concerned about? a. Fibrinogen level less than 100 mg/dL b. Hematocrit of 30% c. Potassium level of 5.5 mg/dL d. Serum ferritin level of 250 ng/mL
ANS: C Electrolyte imbalance is possible as a result of transfusions, especially with red blood cells or whole blood. Potassium is the main electrolyte inside cells. During transfusion, some cells are damaged and release potassium. Low fibrinogen levels would require transfusion of cryoprecipitate. The client would be a candidate for red blood cell transfusion if his hematocrit level were low, so this would not be a concern for preparation of the red blood cells. The serum ferritin level is normal and is not a matter of concern.
A female client is admitted with the medical diagnosis of anemia. The nurse assesses for which potential cause? a. Diet high in meat and fat b. Daily intake of aspirin c. Heavy menses d. Smoking history
ANS: C Iron levels can be low because intake of iron is too low, or because loss of iron through bleeding is excessive. A premenopausal woman may be having unusually heavy menses sufficient to cause excessive loss of blood and iron. Smoking and aspirin do not cause iron deficiency. A diet high in meat provides iron.
3. The nurse observes yellow-tinged sclera in a client with dark skin. Based on this assessment finding, what does the nurse do next? a. Assess the client's pulses. b. Examine the soles of the client's feet. c. Inspect the client's hard palate. d. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
ANS: C Jaundice can best be observed in clients with dark skin by inspecting the oral mucosa, especially the hard palate, for yellow discoloration. Because sclera may have subconjunctival fat deposits that show a yellow hue, and because foot calluses may appear yellow, neither of these areas should be used to assess for jaundice. The client's pulse and lung sounds have no correlation with an assessment of jaundice.
18. The nurse is caring for a client during a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention does the nurse implement for the client? a. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) as needed. b. Administer intravenous fluids to keep the vein open. c. Keep the room temperature at 80° F. d. Transfuse red blood cells (RBCs).
ANS: C Keeping the room warm can be used as a complementary therapy to relieve the pain of a sickle cell crisis. Cold can act as a factor in causing a crisis. Analgesia is an important part of relieving pain. The analgesia routine should be followed on an around-the-clock basis and should consist of IV opioids for severe pain, followed by treatment with oral doses of opioids or NSAIDs. High-volume intravenous fluids should be administered to minimize pain during a sickle cell crisis.
10. The nurse is teaching a client with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia to eat a diet high in this vitamin. Which meal selected by the client indicates that the client correctly understands the prescribed diet? a. Baked chicken breast, mashed potatoes, glass of milk b. Eggplant parmesan, cottage cheese, iced tea c. Fried liver and onions, orange juice, spinach salad d. Fettuccine alfredo, green salad, glass of red wine
ANS: C Organ meats and leafy green vegetables have the highest content of vitamin B12. The other selections do not indicate understanding of the teaching on diet.
5. The nurse is teaching a client who is being discharged after stem cell transplantation. Which instruction does the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a.Eat a diet high in fruits and vegetables. b.Ask your provider to administer a rubella vaccination. c.Wash your hands frequently. d.Participate in physical therapy every day.
ANS: C Protecting the client from infection at home is just as important as it was during hospitalization for a client who has had stem cell transplantation. Hand hygiene is the best protection against infection. Salads, raw fruits, and live vaccinations (such as rubella) are contraindicated in a client who has a risk for infection. Energy management is important; therefore activities such as physical therapy may need to be postponed.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? a. Assess the client's fibrinogen level. b. Administer the prescribed iron. c. Maintain strict Standard Precautions. d. Monitor the client's pulse oximetry.
ANS: C The client who is receiving chemotherapy drugs that suppress the bone marrow will be at risk for a decreased white blood cell (WBC) count and infection. The nurse will be most therapeutic by adhering to Standard Precautions to prevent infection, such as handwashing. The nurse will not expect the fibrinogen level to be affected by this therapy. Iron is not typically administered with chemotherapy because this is bone marrow suppression, so the administration of epoetin (Epogen) or filgrastim (Neupogen) is most effective. Monitoring the pulse oximetry is part of routine care and probably would not need to be done continuously.
The nurse is caring for four clients with hematologic-type problems. Which client does the nurse prioritize to see first? a. 18-year-old female with decreased protein levels b. 36-year-old male with increased lymphocytes c. 60-year-old female with decreased erythropoietin d. 82-year-old male with an increased thromboxane level
ANS: C The kidney releases more erythropoietin when tissue oxygenation levels are low. This growth factor then stimulates the bone marrow to increase red blood cell (RBC) production, which improves tissue oxygenation and prevents hypoxia. Hypoxia causes the body to increase its respiratory rate to overcome decreased oxygenation of the tissues. All these clients are important, but the woman with decreased erythropoietin takes priority because of her risk for hypoxia.
The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a 46-year-old client, who states, "I have been drinking a 12-pack of beer every day for the past 20 years." Which laboratory abnormality does the nurse correlate with this history? a. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count b. Decreased bleeding time c. Elevated prothrombin time (PT) d. Elevated red blood cell (RBC) count
ANS: C The liver is the site for production of prothrombin and most of the blood-clotting factors. If the liver is damaged because of chronic alcoholism, it is unable to produce these clotting factors. Therefore, the PT could become elevated, which would reflect deficiency of some clotting factors. The WBC would not be elevated in this situation because no infection is present. Bleeding time would likely increase. The client's RBC count most likely would not be affected unless the client was bleeding, in which case it would decrease.
6. The nurse prepares to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which means of identification does the nurse use to ensure that the blood is administered to the correct client? a. Ask the client whether his or her name is the one on the blood product tag. b. Ask the client's spouse if the client is supposed to have a transfusion. c.Compare the name and ID number on the blood product tag with the name and ID number on the client's ID band. d.Compare the unit and room number of the client with the unit and room number listed on the blood product tag.
ANS: C The safest way to determine whether the blood product is to be given to the correct client is to check the client's hospital ID band and compare the information on it with that on the blood product tag. The room and unit numbers are never considered as means of positive identification. Asking the client who he or she is might result in an error if the client is confused. Similarly, a visitor cannot be assumed to know whether this is the client to have the blood transfusion.
11. The nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which food choice indicates that the client correctly understands the teaching? a. Chicken b. Oranges c. Steak d. Tomatoes
ANS: C Treatment for iron deficiency anemia involves increasing oral intake of iron from food sources. Foods high in iron include red meat, organ meat, kidney beans, leafy green vegetables, and raisins.
A client who has a chronic vitamin B12 deficiency is admitted to the hospital. When obtaining the client's health history, which priority question does the nurse ask this client? a. "Are you having any pain?" b. "Are you having blood in your stools?" c. "Do you notice any changes in your memory?" d. "Do you bruise easily?"
ANS: C Vitamin B12 deficiency impairs cerebral, olfactory, spinal cord, and peripheral nerve function. Severe chronic deficiency may cause permanent neurologic degeneration. The other options are not symptoms of vitamin B12deficiency.
2. The nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled to undergo allogeneic bone marrow transplantation. Which statements indicate that the client correctly understands the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "The surgeon will insert the marrow into my femur bone." b. "Until the marrow transplant takes, I can have visitors." c. "The transplant does not start working immediately." d. "I will need chemotherapy before my transplant." e. "Radiation treatments will begin 2 days after transplantation."
ANS: C, D Engraftment, or the successful take of transplanted cells, takes anywhere from 8 to 28 days, depending on the type of cell transplantation. For donated marrow or stem cells to work, the client will require large doses of chemotherapy before transplantation. The client will not require radiation after the transplant. Transplanted marrow is delivered intravenously. It is not placed into any bone. The client is at risk for infection until the bone marrow begins to produce white blood cells. Therefore visitors should be limited to prevent infection to the client.
The nurse is assessing the following laboratory results of a client before discharge. Which instruction does the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan? Test Result Hemoglobin 15 g/dL Hematocrit 45% White blood cell (WBC) count 2000/mm3 Platelet count 250,000/mm3 a. "Avoid contact sports." b. "Do not take any aspirin." c. "Eat a diet high in iron." d. "Perform good hand hygiene."
ANS: D A normal WBC count is 5000 to 10,000/mm3. A white blood cell count of 2000/mm3 is low and makes this client at risk for infection. Good handwashing technique is the best way to prevent the transmission of infection. The other laboratory results are all within normal limits.
2. The nurse is teaching a client who has sickle cell disease and was admitted for splenomegaly and abdominal pain. Which instruction does the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching? a."Avoid drinking large amounts of fluids." b."Eat six small meals daily instead of large meals." c."Engage in aerobic exercise 3 days a week." d."Receive a yearly influenza vaccination."
ANS: D Abdominal pain and a palpable spleen could indicate blood trapping in the spleen. Over time, the spleen may become nonfunctional, which makes the client at risk for infection. An annual influenza vaccination helps prevent infection. A client with sickle cell disease should not become dehydrated or engage in strenuous physical activity because this could precipitate a crisis. Eating smaller meals has no impact on sickle cell disease or infection.
26. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. The client's respiratory rate is 33 breaths/min and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Administer prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl). b. Continue to monitor the client's vital signs. c. Stop the infusion of packed red blood cells. d. Slow the infusion rate of the transfusion.
ANS: D Circulatory overload can occur when a blood product is infused too quickly. Adults with a history of heart failure are at risk for this. Management of this complication can be achieved by infusing the blood products more slowly. The client is not having an allergic reaction to the blood; therefore the blood should not be stopped nor should diphenhydramine be administered.
24. The nurse is teaching a client who has myelodysplastic syndrome. Which instruction does the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Rise slowly when getting out of bed." b. "Drink at least 3 liters of liquids per day." c. "Wear gloves and socks outdoors in cool weather." d. "Use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
ANS: D Myelodysplastic syndrome is a group of disorders that includes anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia. Because of low platelets, the client is at risk for bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush minimizes trauma to the gums and prevents bleeding. The other instructions are not appropriate for this syndrome.
16. The nurse is caring for a 20-year-old man who has Hodgkin's lymphoma in the abdominal and pelvic regions. The client is scheduled for radiation therapy and states, "I want to have children someday, and this procedure will destroy my chances." How does the nurse respond? a. "Adoption is always an option." b. "Infertility is not seen with this type of radiation therapy." c. "Sperm production will be permanently disrupted." d. "You have the option to store sperm in a sperm bank."
ANS: D Permanent sterility can occur in male clients receiving radiation in the abdominal and pelvic regions. The client should be informed of this side effect and given the option to store sperm in a sperm bank before treatment. The other options do not appropriately address the client's concerns.
17. The nurse is preparing a client with leukemia for a peripheral stem cell transfusion. Which information does the nurse provide the client? a. "Nausea and vomiting are common after the transfusion." b. "The transfusion will take about 6 hours." c. "You may have numbness in your fingers and toes." d. "Your urine may be red for a short time."
ANS: D Red urine can occur as a result of red blood cell breakage within infused stem cells. The cells are transfused during the time frame of an ordinary blood transfusion, numbness and tingling may have been seen during pheresis (not transfusion), and nausea and vomiting may occur during administration of chemotherapy before the stem cell transfusion.
The nurse is caring for a client who has an elevated white blood cell count. Which intervention does the nurse implement for this client? a. Administer the prescribed Tylenol. b. Hold the client's prescribed steroids. c. Assess the client's respiratory rate. d. Obtain the client's temperature.
ANS: D White blood cells provide immunity and protect against invasion and infection. An elevated white blood cell count could indicate an infectious process, which could cause an elevation in body temperature. Tylenol would treat a fever but not the elevated white blood cell count. Steroids place the client at higher risk for infection but should not be stopped suddenly. The respiratory rate does not need to be assessed in this client.
2. A child has mild anemia and the parent asks why this makes the child have difficulty concentrating. What response by the nurse is best? A. "All sick children have trouble concentrating." B. "Her anemia makes her too tired to think." C. "She may have another problem with her brain." D. "The brain isn't getting enough oxygen."
ANS: D Anemia leads to decreased oxygenation of body tissues, including the brain. A lowered cerebral oxygen concentration can lead to dizziness and difficulty concentrating. Stating that all sick children have this problem is inaccurate and vague. The child may be tired, but this answer is also vague and does not really address the question. Describing the possibility of another medical problem is not warranted at this time.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with liver failure. Which assessment is the highest priority for this client? a. Auscultation for bowel sounds b. Assessing for deep vein thrombosis c. Monitoring of blood pressure hourly d. Assessing for signs of bleeding
And. D All these options are important in assessment of the client, but the most important action is assessment for signs of bleeding. The liver is the site of production of prothrombin and most of the blood-clotting factors. Clients with liver failure run a high risk of having problems with bleeding.
The nurse helps to ambulate a client who has anemia. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client is not tolerating the activity? a. Blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg b. Heart rate of 110 beats/min c. Pulse oximetry reading of 95% d. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
B The red blood cells contain thousands of hemoglobin molecules. The most important feature of hemoglobin is its ability to combine loosely with oxygen. A low hemoglobin level can cause decreased oxygenation to the tissues, thus causing a compensatory increase in heart rate. The other options are close to normal range and are not indicative of not tolerating this activity.
3. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). Which instruction does the nurse include in this client's discharge plan? a.avoid contact sports. b.Refrain from intercourse. c.Apply heat to any bruised areas. d.Use aspirin for headaches.
NS: A Clients with AML have a low platelet count and are at risk for bleeding. Contact sports can cause bleeding and should be avoided by those with a low platelet count. Anal intercourse should be avoided, but it is not necessary to refrain from all types of intercourse. Ice should be placed on bruised areas instead of heat, and aspirin should not be used by those with a low platelet count.
The nurse is teaching a client who is receiving sodium warfarin (Coumadin). Which topics does the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Foods high in vitamin K b. Using acetaminophen (Tylenol) for minor pain c. Daily exercise and weight management d. Use of a safety razor and soft toothbrush e. Blood testing regimen
NS: A, B, D, E The client on warfarin will need to know which foods are high in vitamin K because vitamin K intake must be consistent to avoid interfering with the anticoagulant properties of warfarin. Clients should not take aspirin or NSAIDs for minor pain owing to their anticoagulant properties. Clients must use safety razors and soft toothbrushes to avoid bleeding episodes. The client on warfarin needs regular blood tests for prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). Daily exercise and weight management are not specifically important to this client.