Hesi Practice Test A

A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a red streak along the vessel above the IV access site. Which action should the nurse take at this time? A. Administer the medication more rapidly using the same IV site. B. Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the medication. C. Notify the healthcare provider before administering the next dose. D. Give the client a PRN dose of aspirin while the medication infuses.

A cephalosporin antibiotic that is administered IV may cause vessel irritation. Rotating the infusion site minimizes the risk of thrombophlebitis, so an alternate infusion site should be initiated (B) before administering the next dose. Rapid administration (A) of intravenous cephalosporins can potentiate vessel irritation and increase the risk of thrombophlebitis. (C) is not necessary to initiate an alternative IV site. Although aspirin has antiinflammatory actions, (D) is not indicated. Correct Answer: B

The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next? A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes. B. Flush the tube with water. C. Administer the medications as prescribed. D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.

The NGT should be flushed before, after and in between each medication administered (B). Once all medications are administered, the NGT should be clamped for 20 minutes (A). (C and D) may be implemented only after the tubing has been flushed. Correct Answer: B

The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute? A. 80 B. 8 C. 21 D. 25

The accepted formula for figuring drops per minute is: amount to be infused in one hour × drop factor/time for infusion (min)= drops per minute. Using this formula: 1,000/8 hours = 125 ml/ hour 125 × 10 (drip factor) = 1,250 drops in one hour. 1,250/ 60 (number of minutes in one hour) = 20.8 or 21 gtt/min (C). Correct Answer: C

A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVPB. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

The infusion rate is calculated as a ratio proportion problem, i.e., 50 ml/ 20 min : x ml/ 60 min. Multiply extremes and means 50 × 60 /20x 1= 300/20=150 Correct Answer: 150

The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10 pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The nurse plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min? A. 42 gtt/min. B. 83 gtt/min. C. 125 gtt/min. D. 250 gtt/min.

gtt/min = 20gtts/ml X 1000 ml/4hrs X 1 hr/60 min Correct Answer: B

Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How much heparin has the client received? A. 11,000 units. B. 13,000 units. C. 15,000 units. D. 17,000 units.

(A) is the correct calculation: 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units (the amount of units in one ml of fluid). 40 units/ml x 50 ml/hr = 2,000 units/hour (1,000 units in 1/2 hour). 5.5 x 2,000 = 11,000 (A). OR, multiply 5 x 2,000 and add the 1/2 hour amount of 1,000 to reach the same conclusion = 11,000 units. Correct Answer: A

A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump? A. 13 ml/hour. B. 63 ml/hour. C. 80 ml/hour. D. 125 ml/hour.

(B) is the correct calculation: To calculate this problem correctly, remember that the dose of KCl is not used in the calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. Correct Answer: B

The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to administer? A. ½ tablet. B. 1 tablet. C. 1½ tablets. D. 2 tablets.

(C) is the correct calculation: D/H × Q = 7.5/5 × 1 tablet = 1½ tablets. Correct Answer: C

An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, is infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180

(D) is correct calculation: 180 ml/hr = 500 ml/5 mg × 1mg/1000 mcg × 30 mcg/min × 60 min/hr. Correct Answer: D

The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive? A. 31 gtt/min. B. 62 gtt/min. C. 93 gtt/min. D. 124 gtt/min.

(D) is the correct calculation: Convert lbs to kg: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage for this client: 5 mcg × 82.73 = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in 1 ml: 250/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg per ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07ml per minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, then 60 × 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min (D) OR, using dimensional analysis: gtt/min = 60 gtt/ml X 250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 lbs X 182 lbs. Correct Answer: D

A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level. B. Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up. C. Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour. D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

All interventions should be implemented prior to administering blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is administered, the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction. Correct Answer: D

A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding "stronger pain medications." What initial action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction. B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema. D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

Pain and diminished pulse volume (B) are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to complete loss of the peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to the extremity. (A) should not be pursued until physical causes of the pain are ruled out. (C) is of less priority than determining the effects of the edema on circulation and nerve function. Further assessment of the client's ecchymosis can be delayed until the signs of edema and compression that suggest compartment syndrome have been examined (D). Correct Answer: B

The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. After suctioning the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow secretions return. What action should the nurse implement next? A. Encourage the client to cough to help loosen secretions. B. Advise the client to increase the intake of oral fluids. C. Rotate the suction catheter to obtain any remaining secretions. D. Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again.

Suctioning should not be continued for longer than ten to fifteen seconds, since the client's oxygenation is compromised during this time (D). (A, B, and C) may be performed after the client is re-oxygenated and additional suctioning is performed. Correct Answer: D

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take? A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate. B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin. C. Infuse 10 percent dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr. D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

TPN is discontinued gradually to allow the client to adjust to decreased levels of glucose. Administering 10% dextrose in water at the prescribed rate (C) will keep the client from experiencing hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution is available. The client could experience a hypoglycemic reaction if the current level of glucose (A) is not maintained or if the TPN is discontinued abruptly (B). There is no reason to obtain a stat blood glucose level (D) and the healthcare provider cannot do anything about this situation. Correct Answer: C

What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults? A. It is more difficult to find a superficial vein in the feet and ankles. B. A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis. C. A cannulated extremity is more difficult to move when the leg or foot is used. D. Veins are located deep in the feet and ankles, resulting in a more painful procedure.

Venous return is usually better in the upper extremities. Cannulation of the veins in the lower extremities increases the risk of thrombus formation (B) which, if dislodged, could be life-threatening. Superficial veins are often very easy (A) to find in the feet and legs. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is probably not any more difficult than handling an arm or hand. Even if the nurse did believe moving a cannulated leg was more difficult, this is not the most important reason for using the upper extremities. Pain (D) is not a consideration. Correct Answer: B