HOSA Clinical Nursing Review
What does an insulin syringe look like?
Orange cap
Step 15
Organized supplies on sterile field.
13.
Organizes kit supplies and prepares the supplies in the kit, maintaining sterility.
Types of orders
Verbal, Written, Telephone, Faxed
Step 13
Kept guaze in place (Verbalized continuous pressure for 2-3 minutes)
1.
(Extra sterile gloves & catheter) Bring with other supplies.
8.
(Gloves) I put on clean procedural gloves.
17.
(Hold Catheter) in such a way that the lubricated 2 inches is held by your thumb and forefinger, while the distal end is inside the collection container.
Telfa//directly on wound or incision//Petroleum, Antimicrobials//
-Non-stick dressings- Example? Non-Adherent; non-stick Used ______________ to prevent injury to tissue when the dressing is removed -Band-Aide Can be impregnated with?
Dry -Dry sterile dressing (DSD) Wet to Dry or Damp to Dry Pressure Absorption Wound Vacuum
-Types of Dressings?
If IM is improperly administered damage to what areas may occur?
-nerves -bones -Tissue -Blood vessels
One gram of fat provides how many calories?
. 9
A resident has the following items on her meal tray. Which is not counted as fluid intake?
. Gravy
Z-track method
1 1/2 needle, add 0.2-0.3 ml of air after accurate dose measurement, only give in ventrogluteal site , change needles after drawing medcation up, displace the skin for injection, after injecting maintain position with both hands for 10 sec
What is the maximum amount you can inject into a deltoid?
1 ml
What is the peak for Rapid insulin?
1-2 hours
What are the treatments for complications of local or regional anesthesia?
1. ***Establish an open airway.************* 2. Give O2. 3. Notify the surgeon. 4. Fast-Acting barbiturate is usual treatment. If toxic rx is untreated, unconsciousness, hypotension, apnea, cardiac arrest, and death may result.
Name the 3 types of pain.
1. Acute pain 2. Chronic CA pain 3. Chronic non-cancer pain
Name 4 complications of local or regional anesthesia.
1. Anaphylaxis 2. Incorrect delivery technique 3. Systemic absorption 4. Overdosage
What are the interventions for autoimmunity?
1. Anti-inflammatory drugs 2. Immunosuppressive drugs 3. Symptomatic treatment
What are the vitamins most often consumed in less than appropriate amounts by preschool and school-age children?
1. Vitamin A 2. Vitamin C 3. Vitamin B6 4. Vitamin B12
What are the 5 parts of the Nursing Process?
1. Assessing; 2. Diagnosing; 3. Planning; 4. Implementing; 5. Evaluating
When a patient has an impaired gas exchange what are a couple interventions a nurse should do?
1. Encourage deep breathing exercises. 2. Encourage mobilization as soon as possible to help remove secretions and promote lung expansion.
A patient's coffee cup holds 250 mL. The person did not drink all the coffee. You measure that 75 mL of coffee remain. How much did the person drink?
175 mL
Paramyxovirus (mumps)
1. Incubation 14 to 21 days. 2. Transmitted by direct contact or droplet spread. 3. Uses analgesics for pain and antiseptics for fever. 4. Maintain bed rest until swelling subsides. 5. The manifestations include submaxillary and sublingual infection, orchitis, and meningoencephalitis.
Pertussis (whooping cough)
1. Incubation 5 to 21 days. 2. An acute, infectious respiratory disease usually occurring in infancy. 3. Caused by a gram-negative bacillus. 4. Begins with upper respiratory symptoms. 5. Paroxysmal stage of the disease is characterized by prolonged coughing and crowing or whooping upon inspiration; lasts from 4 to 6 weeks. 6. Transmitted by direct contact , droplet spread, or freshly contaminated objects. 7. Treated with erythromycin. 8. Complications include pneumonia, hemorrhage, and seizures.
Name the two types of General anesthesia and info about them.
1. Inhalation-Intake and excretion of anesthetic gas or vapor to the lungs through a mask. 2. Intravenous Injection- injected through an IV line disposed in the blood.
Name 4 things that local or regional anesthesia does to the body.
1. Insensibility 2. Motor function may be affected. 3. Client remains conscious and able to follow instructions. 4. Gag and cough reflexes remain intact.
Name three interventions for hypoxemia.
1. Maintain airway patency and breathing pattern. 2. Prevention of hypothermia. 3. Maintenance of oxygen therapy as prescribed.
Name 5 complications of General anesthesia.
1. Malignant hyperthermia 2. Overdose 3. Complications of specific anesthetic agents. 4. Unrecognized hypoventilation. 5. Complications of intubation.
Name the three types of analgesics that are for relieving pain.
1. Non-opioids 2. Opioids 3. Adjuvants
Name three things that perioperative includes?
1. Peroperative 2. Intraoperative 3. Postoperative
Name 3 interventions for risk for perioperative positioning injuries.
1. Proper body position 2. Risk for pressure ulcer formation 3. Prevention of obstruction of circulation, respieation, and nerve conduction.
What is the normal range of sodium?
135-146 mEq/L
1. Acute pain can activate what? 2. When that happens what are symptoms of the patient?
1. SNS 2. Restlessness, increased HR, BP, RR, dilated pupils and sweating.
Name the 3 top ways HIV is transmitted.
1. Sexual 2. Parenteral 3. Perinatal
1. This test monitors disease progression in HIV? 2. This test determines presence of HIV?
1. Viral load 2. Viral culture
Major areas of risk factors?
1. age; 2. genetic factors; 3. psyiologic factors; 4. health habits; 5. lifestyle; 6. environment
Intradermal angle of injection
15 degrees
What degree angle shoudl an intradermal shot be administered?
15*
Havighurst's theory
1. decreased physical strength and health 2. retirement/decresed income 3. loss of spouse 4. relationship with age group 5. social roles in flexible way 6. satisfactory living arrangements
What is normal magnesium levels?
1.3-2.1 mg/dL
Target organ
1.Tissues or organs upon which is specifically affected by a drug
What is the correct fraction for 0.25?
1/4
How many units does an insulin syringe hold?
100 units or 1ml
What is the duration of Intermediate (NPH) insulin?
12-18 hours
More than ___ of the Medicare budget is used for terminally ill pts
25%
Subcutaneous Needle selection
25-27 needle gauge, 5/8 needle length, no more htan 1 ml per dose
18.The dynamic display of a patient's anatomy using x-radiation is termed: a. fluoroscopy. b. radiography. c. image intensification. d. real-time radiography.
A. Fluoroscopy
A yellow bruise is apporoximately: 1.) 2 days old 2.) 5 to 7 days old 3.) 7 to 10 days old 4.) 10 to 14 days old
7 to 10 days old
What is the maximum amount you can inject into the Dorsogluteal site?
2.5-3 ml
What is the maximum amount you can inject into the ventrogluteal location?
2.5-3 ml
More than ____ of older adults live independently
2/3 (68%)
What percent of medication errors are life threatening?
20%
How many stages of inflammation are there?
3
OBRA requires
3 regular meals and a bedtime snack
What is the duration of Rapid Insulin?
3-4 hours
What is the duration of Short (regular) insulin?
3-8 hours
23. Which of the following is the determination of a precise area, usually through gentle palpation or careful wording of questions? a. Localization b. Chronology c. Quality d. Occurrence
A. Localization
Hyperactive bowel
>30 per minute
What is the normal range for phosphorous?
3.0-4.5 mg/dL
What is normal K level?
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
What is the recommended amount of time to leave the catheter clamped when obtaining a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter?
30 mins
What is the onset of short (regular) insulin?
30 minutes to 1 hour
Medications are excreted through
Kidney, liver, bowel, lungs, exocrine glands, chemical makeup determines the organ of excretion
What percent of medication errors require additional life-sustaining treatments?
42%
What degree angle should a subcutaneous shot be givern
45 degrees or 90 degrees
Subcutaneous angle of injection
45-90 degrees
On a 2000 calorie diet, what is the amount of protein foods needed for an dult man?
5 1/2 to 6 1/2 oz
What is the correct fraction for 5.75?
5 3/4
Types of syringes
5 ml., 3cml., 1 ml. (TB), 100 unit, 50 unit (insulin)
Normal bowel sounds
5-30 per minute
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing a wound infection?
A diabetic obese patient who smokes
Persons with difficulty swallowing usually require
A dysphagia diet
Residents serve themselves from bowls and platters on their tables. This is
A family dining program
Abnormal passage between 2 organs, chronic drainage is a sign of
A fistula
Which of the following is an example of healing by secondary intention?
A full thickness pressure ulcer, a dog bite, a burn
A graduate is
A measuring container for fluid
19. A(n) _____ is someone who has been admitted to the hospital for diagnostic studies or treatment. a. Inpatient b. Outpatient c. Medical resident d. Intern
A. Inpatient
48. It is the duty of any health care practitioner, including medical imaging personnel, to: a. safeguard patient rights and autonomy. b. complete examinations at the request of physicians under any circumstance. c. persuade patients to undergo medical examinations against their wishes. d. restrain all patient for medical examinations.
A. Safeguard patient rights and autonomy
1. The highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is: a. Self-actualization b. Belonging c. Physiologic d. Self-esteem
A. Self-actualization
14. When working with an elderly patient: a. Speak slowly and clearly, and ask for understanding and feedback b. Write down your instructions first for the patient to read c. Give the patient breathing instructions while you're positioning him or her, in order to hasten the procedure d. Assume the patient can see and hear you clearly, and move quickly and deliberately in order to get done.
A. Speak slowly and clearly, and ask for understanding and feedback
42. Which of the following would be considered an example of negative non-verbal communication? a. Standing with your arms crossed b. Eye contact c. Leaning toward patient when talking d. A smile
A. Standing with your arms crossed
46. The x-radiation that is "left over" and exits the patient to strike the image receptor and create the image is known as _____ radiation. a. remnant b. primary c. scatter and secondary d. Grenz
A. remnant
Identify procedures that may be delegated to NAP
Application of a condom catheter; Collection of a sterile urine sample; care of an indwelling catheter
Topical Route
Application of medication to the surface of the skin or transdermally
Cognitive skills
Ability to think and reason
At what age do we have all of our T-Cells?
After puberty
Which of the following demonstrate that further teaching is required to prevent an infection related to being catheterized?
An elderly female carries her urinary drainage bag like a purse under her arm as she ambulates; As a patient is being transferred in a wheelchair, he places the drainage bag in his lap; The NAP places a patient's drainage bag on a lowered side rail or on the floor
Medicare Part A
covers inpatient hopital care, extended care following hospital, some home health services, hospice services
What is an Antiemetic?
Anti nausea medication
What are the two types if immunity?
Antibody-mediated (b-cells) Cell-mediated (t-cells)
What type of drug is promethezine?
Antiemetic
These things are stimulated by what? bacteria viruses fungi parasites drugs pollen and food
Antigen stimulated
What is stereotyping?
Assume all members of a culture, ethnic group or race act alike
What should you do to prevent anaphylaxis?
Avoid the allergen, do not choose epipen on the test
A/A
Awake and alert
7. Facsimile transmission of health information is 1. not permitted 2. permitted for urgently needed patient care 3. permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
37. As a student radiographer, you have received a requisition to perform a procedure that requires indirect supervision. In completing the examination, you mistakenly mislabel the image with regard to the left and right sides of the patient. Department policy requires a repeat image. In doing so, you must be aware that: a. you can repeat the image with a technologist in another part of the department b. a qualified practitioner must review your repeat procedures and directly supervise your work c. you can still perform under indirect supervision as long as a technologist is within "shouting" distance d. you can repeat the examination with a classmate who has already demonstrated competency with this type of examination
B. A qualified practitioner must review your repeat procedures and directly supervise your work
41. What stage of grieving is the terminally ill patient when he/she begins to deal with his/her pain and illness? a. Anger stage b. Acceptance stage c. Depression stage d. Bargaining stage
B. Acceptance stage
7. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to a radiographic table: a. position the wheelchair at a 90-degree angle to the table. b. allow the patient to help with the transfer if it is safe and he or she is capable of doing so. c. do not let the patient do any weight-bearing movements. d. break the transfer into a series of simultaneous movements and commands.
B. Allow the patient to help with the transfer if it is safe and he or she is capable of doing so
4. Any characteristic that makes a drug undesirable or improper is its: a. Tolerance b. Contraindication c. Risk-benefit factor d. Solubility
B. Contraindication
21. According to Elisabeth Kubler-Ross, the customary stages of the dying or grieving process in the typical sequence are: a. Acceptance, denial, depression, anger, bargaining b. Denial and isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance c. Anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance d. Denial and isolation, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
B. Denial and isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
30. By what method are pathogens spread when a person coughs or sneezes? a. Direct contact b. Droplet c. Vehicle d. Vector
B. Droplet
38. Two blood-borne pathogens of particular importance to hospital personnel are: a. Papillomarvirus and rhinovirus b. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) and HIV c. Clostridium and Bacillus d. Pneumonia and tuberculosis
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) and HIV
16. In a radiographic/fluoroscopic (R/F) system, the primary barrier is considered to be the: a. fluoroscopy lead apron in front of the spot film device. b. image intensifier or flat panel detector. c. tabletop of the R/F table. d. patient.
B. Image intensifier or flat panel detector
18. The ideal location of the endotracheal tube tip is: a. In the back of the throat b. In the trachea 1 to 2 inches above the carina c. Just below the junction of the esophagus and trachea d. In the left or right main-stem bronchus
B. In the trachea 1 to 2 inches above the carina
5. Nonprescription drugs are also known as: a. Generics b. Illegal drugs c. Over-the-counter drugs d. Barbiturates
C. Over-the-counter drugs
13. A radiographer looking to relocate to another state for similar employment is advised to check into that State's __________ requirements to ensure qualified employability. a. professional membership b. licensure c. registry d. Accreditation
B. Licensure
10. When moving a patient to or from a stretcher: a. have the patient hold the stretcher from moving. b. lock the stretcher securely against the examination table. c. prop a wheelchair against the end of the cart. d. protect the stretcher with woolen blankets.
B. Lock the stretcher securely against the examination table
1. The use of x-rays to create a medical image on patients is referred to as: a. Electrocardiography b. Radiography c. Sonography d. magnetic resonance imaging
B. Radiogaphy
B-Cells protect against what?
Bacteria
Which of the following is NOT included on a medication label? A) the name of the medication B) the individual's name C) a list of other medications the individual is taking D) the expiration or discard date
C) a list of other medications the individual is taking
9. The use of water-soluble contrast agent such as Gastrografin for a colon examination is warranted for patients with: a. Pancreatitis b. Polyps c. A possible bowel perforation d. Diverticulosis
C. A possible bowel perforation
4. All of the following are related EXCEPT: a. Rectal b. Tympanic c. Inguinal d. Oral
C. Inguinal
50. An organization that accredits hospitals and other healthcare institutions in the United States is the definition of: a. RSNA b. ARRT c. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
C. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
58. The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitur intends to shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant (technologist). It implies that the patient was injured through no fault of his or her own while in the complete control of another. An example of this would be a: a. patient marking the wrong body part for surgery while still awake. b. patient "ripping" their bandages off after surgery because they are painful. c. patient's skin being torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed. d. patient saying something very crude during surgery in a state of anesthesia.
C. Patient's skin being torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed
17. Which of the following is not required to be included in a patient's health record? a. medical history b. radiology reports c. patient's telephone number d. physical examination report
C. Patient's telephone number
1. The science dealing with the nature, effects, uses, and origin of drugs is called: a. Pharmacokinetics b. Endocrinology c. Pharmacology d. Pharmacodynamics
C. Pharmacology
8. The commitment to cultural diversity is an integral part of the medical imaging profession as evidenced by official position statements from the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT). In a continuing effort to broaden the profession's human diversity, a well-known student scholarship is available, known as the _____ Scholarship. a. Ed Jerman Merit b. GE Minority Merit c. Royce Osborne Minority Student d. Clarence Dally Diversity
C. Royce Osborne Minority Student
23. Which immobilization device is radiopaque? a. sponge b. cervical collar c. sandbag d. none of the above
C. Sandbag
27. Which of the following should be done when moving a patient with a broken arm? a. Support only wrist b. Support only the forearm c. Support the entire arm d. Support only elbow
C. Support the entire arm
28. A radiographer's primary responsibility is to which of the following? a. The radiology department b. The hospital c. The patient's needs d. The radiologist
C. The patient's needs
15. When radiographing a very young child or a mentally impaired patient: a. Work silently in order to avoid questions and alarming the patient b. Ask the patient if he or she has ever had this type of procedure before c. Try and get a family member to be a part of the examination for communication and reassurance d. Speak loudly and take charge of the examination from the beginning
C. Try and get a family memeber to be a part of the examination for communication and reassurance
31. What is the proper procedure for turning a disabled patient on an x-ray table? a. Turn the patient's legs first b. Turn the patient away from you c. Turn the patient towards you d. Turn the patient whichever way is easier
C. Turn the patient towards you
44. How should you have an ambulatory patient get off the radiographic table? a. Jump to the floor b. Get on a stretcher c. Use a footstool d. Get in a wheelchair
C. Use a footstool
Warning signs of cancer
CAUTION Change in bowel or bladder A sore that doesn't heal Unusual bleeding or discharge Thickening or lump Indigestion Obvious change in mole or wart Nagging cough
Phosphorous has a inverse relationship with what other electrolyte?
Calcium
Routine or Standing orders
Carried out until the prescriber cancels it
Step 8
Check the label of the medication container against the medication administration record before drawing up medication.
Remember the following when selecting foods from the meat and beans group:
Choose lean or low-fat meat and poultry.
Who founded American Red Cross?
Clara Barton
Step 21b female
Cleansed area with forceps holding cotton ball with antiseptic solution, or swabs, from clitoris toward anus on far side of meatus in one downward motion, then repeated on the near side.
Fever, elevated WBC, redness, swelling, and increasing pain
Collect diagnostic specimen for culture and sensitivity. Assess for additional indications of infection
What should you never do with two medications?
Contaminate one medication with another
Mood
Cooperative, uncooperative
Which category of medication is used to treat epilepsy? A) tranquilizers B) antibiotics C) psychotropics D) anticonvulsants
D) anticonvulsants
Which of the following information could you get from a medication information sheet? A) the number of refills remaining B) other medications the individual is taking C) the date the prescription was filled D) the possible side effects of the medication
D) the possible side effects of the medication
34. When lifting a patient, what must you remember? 1. Keep your back straight 2 . Keep your arms straight 3. Keep your legs straight a. 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 only
D. 1 only
21. The health information department performs which of the following supportive functions? 1. Health research 2. Administrative activities of the organization 3. Publication of marketing literature for advertising 4. Support for medical education activities 5. Maintenance of a medical library for physicians and the general public 6. Patient billing and accounting processes 7. Quality management programs a. 1, 2, 3, 6, and 7 only b. 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only c. 2, 4, 5, and 6 only d. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7 only
D. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7 only
Self-neglect
failure to provide for self bc of lack of ability or awareness. most seen in older ppl with few fam/friends
29. Which of the following is (are) desirable method(s) of conducting a clinical history interview? a. Positive nonverbal communication b. Defining and specifying terms c. Subjectiveness d. A and b
D. A and B
20. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding kilovolts peak (kVp)? Kilovolts peak (kVp): a. principally controls the quantity of x-rays produced. b. has little impact on penetrability of the beam through the patient. c. is a measure of the electron speed through the x-ray tube from anode to cathode. d. affects both x-ray beam quantity and quality.
D. Affects both x-ray beam quantity and quality
1. Patient immobilization is a critical part of achieving optimum image quality. Even the smallest, undetectable involuntary motion can degrade the final image. Effective methods to reduce the amount of patient motion include: a. giving clear, concise instructions to the patient before the exposure. b. assessing the amount of patient cooperation you can expect and making adjustments in immobilization. c. explaining how important it is to hold still during the exposure so that a good image can be obtained. d. all of the above.
D. All of the above
10. In preparation for any emergent situation, the professional technologist should become familiar with: a. Location of and access to the crash cart b. Automatic external defibrillator (AED) operation c. Institutional numbers for emergency code announcements d. All of the above
D. All of the above
12. Which of the following best defines fidelity? a. Meeting the basic needs of the patient b. Being a competent professional c. Abiding by the ASRT Code of Ethics d. All of the above
D. All of the above
37. When asking about a patient's pain, it is effective to: a. Ask the patient if the pain runs down his or her leg b. Assure the patient that questions about pain offer little insight into the patient's condition c. Ask the patient if the pain is in his or her abdomen d. Ask the patient to point to or touch the area that hurts, and record that area on the requisition
D. Ask the patient to point or touch the area that hurts, and record that area on the requisition
23. All of the following are related EXCEPT: a. Viruses b. Protozoa c. Fungi d. Bacillus
D. Bacillus
25. As a radiographer working in a busy department, you have received an examination request for an interventional venous line placement for an inpatient. The referring physician is very upset about any delay with his patient. In reviewing the request, you notice that there is no indication as to why this examination is being done. How would you proceed with this situation? a. Complete the examination and get the missing information later. b. Ask the patient if he knows why the examination is being done. c. Because this patient is an inpatient, the missing information is unnecessary. d. Delay the examination until the needed information is provided by the referring physician.
D. Delay the examination until the needed information is provided by the referring physician
9. All of the following describe pharmacokinetics EXCEPT: a. Excretion b. Absorption c. Metabolism d. Filtration
D. Filtration
1. Nasogastric (NG) tubes are inserted with the patient in the _____ position. a. Trendelenburg b. Sims' c. Recumbent, prone d. High Flower's
D. High Fowler's
19. What purpose is served by the Standards document for a profession? a. It sets the legal and ethical standards for a profession. b. It determines the minimum standards for an individual to become certified by a registry organization. c. It establishes the sponsorship of a joint review committee. d. It specifies the requirements for accreditation of an educational program by a joint review committee.
D. It specifies the requirements for accreditation of an educational program by a joint review committee
5. When lifting patients it is important to: a. lift with your back and save your leg strength. b. twist at the waist to improve your center of gravity. c. avoid using a transfer belt, in order to prevent abdominal cramping. d. keep your back stationary and lift with your legs.
D. Keep your back stationary and lift with your legs
24. The chief controlling factor of radiographic contrast in film/screen radiography is a. milliampere seconds (mAs) b. source-to-image distance (SID) c. object-to-image distance (OID) d. kilovoltage peak
D. Kilovoltage peak
31. The most common legal claim against health care providers is: a. slander. b. libel. c. assault. d. negligence.
D. Negligence
29. With regard to HIPAA regulations: a. patients cannot access their medical information without their physician's consent and attendance. b. patients can access the health information of other patients who have had a similar medical experience during their stay. c. copying and faxing medical information is strictly forbidden. d. none of the above is true.
D. None of the above is true
8. A patient who has a rectal temperature of 100.5oF is: a. Hyperthermic b. Febrile c. Hypothermic d. Normal
D. Normal
12. Man's first and foremost need is: a. Being accepted by peers b. Succeeding at job or work c. Shelter and protection from outside enemies d. Nourishment and water
D. Nourishment and water
17. Toward which side should all transfers be initiated? a. left b. right c. patient's weak side d. patient's strong side
D. Patient's strong side
6. You are the director of a busy medical imaging department. One of your technologists has been accused of looking up the personal medical records and x-ray reports of his brother's girlfriend. The girlfriend visited the hospital as a patient for an ultrasound examination of the pelvis to rule out pregnancy. Disciplinary action for this technologist would be appropriate because of a violation of: a. local statutes and ordinances. b. state laws. c. federal constitutional laws. d. professional ethics.
D. Professional ethics
56. As you begin a barium study of the colon, the patient states clearly that she wants the examination to stop. The professional imaging technologist should: a. turn off the barium, clean up the patient, and exit her from the room quickly. b. record the amount of barium given to the patient and charge her accordingly. c. insist that she can handle the barium enema and that once you have started it needs to be completed as you cannot get the barium out. d. stop the barium, drain as much of it as possible from the patient's colon, and courteously conclude the examination.
D. Stop the barium, drain as much of it as possible from the patient's colon, and courteously conclude the examination
3. The medical term for a temporary suspension of consciousness is: a. Aura b. Vertigo c. Epistaxis d. Syncope
D. Syncope
A partial or complete separation of the outer wound layers, sometimes described as a splitting open of the wound. Wound heals from the bottom up.
Dehiscence
Occurs when fluid intake is less than needed to meet the body's fluid needs, resulting in a fluid volume deficit.
Dehydration
Side Effect
DESIRABLE OR UNDESIRABLE EFFECTS OF A DRUG APART FROM THE PRIMARY PURPOSE OF GIVING THE DRUG
Drug Order
Date and time- name of medication-dose-route-frequency- signature
Which is not a sign of a swallowing problem?
Edema
Protrusion of visceral organs through a wound opening is a sign of
Evisceration
Step 7
Explained procedure to patient and provided privacy.
T/F: During ancient times, nurses had glamorous roles
False
Identify the indicators of a UTI
Fever, Complaints of pain, Abdominal pressure and discomfort, cloudiness of the urine
Step 5
Identified patient by checking ID band and asking patient name
During what stages of life do nutritional needs become greater?
Infancy, adolescence, pregnancy, lactation.
Step 9c
Injected correct amount of air into vial.
20g
Injected medication at a slow and steady rate.
Step 3
Introduced self and greeted patient.
Roman numeral for 50
L
What is Duration?
Length of time that the concentration is great enough to produce a response
What is an anaphylactic reaction?
Life threatening reaction causing constriction of bronchiolar muscles, edema of pharynx and larynx, SOB
Step 14
Lifted gauze and assessed bleeding. Judge states, no bleeding or hematoma formation
Plateau
Maintained level of concentration with repeated fixed doses
NG NGT
NASO GASTRIC
Do T-Cells secrete antibodies?
NO
Who was Lavinia Dock?
Nursing leader and women's rights activist; instrumental in women's right to vote
Step 18
Placed sterile drape appropriately.
Step 11
Positioned lamp to illuminate perineal area.
Step 13
Prepared Catheterization Kit
When is demerol generally used?
bedside procedures
20k
Repositioned patient, provided for comfort and safety and lowered bed if appropriate.
30.
Returns patient to a position of comfort.
What are surgical techniques used for chronic pain?
Rhizotomy Cordotomy
Eyes
Sclera: white, yellow? Mucosa: Pink? (Red can mean infection, Pale-anemia) PERRLA? (Pupils Equal Round Reactive to Light Accommodation)
This is an example of autoimmunity this is when all connective tissue becomes hard, there is no cure.
Scleroderma
What disease occurs with vitamin C deficiency?
Scurvy
Adverse effects
Severe response can result in an allergic reaction
A person is on a low-cholesterol diet. Which food is allowed?
Skim milk
The nurse is responsible for making sure pt is NPO b/f surgery, what happens if pt eats?
Surgery get CX and by eating increases the risk for pt to have aspiration.
1.
Takes an extra pair of sterile gloves and an extra sterile catheter into the room.
Nonstick, has a shiny appearance and wicks drainage to the center layer
Tefla gauze
What is ethnocentrism?
belief that one's ideas, beliefs, and practice are superior
MyPlate encourages the following except
The same diet for everyone
When does pain usually reach it's peak level post surgery?
The second day.
Step 7
Turned IV tubing roller camp to "off" position.
Roman numeral for 5
V or v
5,000-10,000 (normal range)
WBC count?
leave it in. try with another catheter.
What should you do if you insert the catheter in the vagina?
In what situation should a nurse have a patient in a side-lying position or turning his or her head to the side to prevent aspiration?
When there is an impaired gas exchange.
Where is the radial pulse located?
Wrist
Stat
a single dose given immediately
Conditions associated with diarrhea include:
a. Dehydration b. Metabolic acidosis c. Shock
List three classic signs and symptoms of measles.
a. Photophobia. b. Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa. c. Confluent rash that begins on the face and spreads downward.
a, an
absent, deficient
large intestine
absorbs water and some other nutrients and collects food residue for excretion
circum
around
ab
away from
Vital statistics
birth, death, age at death, marriages, race, etc.
Teratongenic Potential
causing malformation of the fetus which is most susceptible during the first trimester of pregnancy with causes including: infections, tobacco, alcohol, and some drugs
essential nutrients
chemical elements found in food used to perform body functions
osteoporosis
condition in which bones become porous and break
Low-residue diet
eliminates bulk fiber
lipids
fats and oils
What is cultural blindness?
ignoring differences and proceed as they do not exist
Identify contributing factors to pressure ulcer formation
malnutrition, decreased sensory perception/mobility, stress, anemia, excessive sweating
atherosclerosis
narrowing of arteries by fatty substances
What are some things they do that are invasive to help with pain?
nerve blocks spinal cord stimulation
What is a common sublingual medication?
nitroglycerine
Should you airlock with IM?
no
Should you aspirate an IM?
no
Should you aspirate with IM?
no
Whould you Massage a SQ?
no
hypersensitivity reaction
occurs in those with history of allergies; s/s: rash, hives, wheezing, itching, angina-edema, hypo-tension
What does cultural diversity include?
people of varying cultures, racial and ethnic origin; sexual orientation, lifestyle, ethnicity, religion; language; physical size; gender; age; disability
What is chronic illness? examples
permanent change; causes/caused by irreversible alterations in normal anatomy/physiology; special patient ed for rehab; long period care/support. Heart disease, stroke, cancer, resp. disease, diabetes...
What is extended family?
relatives in close proximity (aunts, uncles, grandparents, cousins...)
A person is NPO. You should
remove the water pitcher and cup from room
medications errors
report all medication errors, pateitn safety is top priority when an error occurs, documentation is required, the nurse is responsible for preparing a written occurence or incident report: an accurate, factual description of what occurred and what was done, nurse plays an essential tole in reconciliation
Wound infection develops, as evidenced by unexpected purulence or foul odor
report the findings to the physician
How do you develop cultural knowledge?
research, observation, inquire
Bright red: indicates active bleeding
sanguineous
Ear instillation
structures are sensitive to temperature, use sterile solutions, drainage may indicate eardrum rupture, never occlude the ear canal, do not force medicine into an occluded ear canal
pancreas
the organ that produces the enzymes amylase, lipase, and protease, is the:
absorption
the process where by blood capillaries pick up digested nutrients
Measures the quality of pain
the scale 1-10
co, com, con
with together
short, long
When mixing insulin, you are always going to draw up the ______ acting insulin first (e.g. regular insulin) and then the _____ acting insulin (e.g. NPH).
22.
(Hold while urine drains) with non-dominent hand.
3.
(Lighting) Make sure there is good lighting . . . bring lamp if necessary.
31.
(Maintain sterile technique) throughout procedure.) Done. (Now record procedure, etc.)
6.
(Obtain Help) If patient is confused or unable to follow directions, I get someone to help me.
14. E
(One stroke, throw away) per cotton ball.
25. One of the greatest fears of a geriatric patient is a. falling b. being unable to hear the radiographer c. having to lie on a radiolucent pad d. getting lost on the way to the radiology department
A. Falling
7. All of the following occur during x-ray tube preparation or "boost" EXCEPT: a. high voltage is applied across the two sides of the tube (anode and cathode). b. the cathode filament raises its temperature based on the selected milliamperage (mA). c. the anode comes up to a minimum rotation speed. d. none of these; all of the following occur during tube preparation.
A. High voltage is applied across the two sides of the tube (anode and cathode)
35. The chain of infection consists of: a. Host, infectious microbe, mode of transmission, reservoir b. Fomite, vector, reservoir, breachment c. Encounter, entry, spread, multiplication, outcome d. Bacteria, virus, protozoa, fungi
A. Host, infectious, microbe, mode of transmission, reservoir
34. A nosocomial infection is an: a. Infection acquired in a hospital b. Upper respiratory infection c. Infection acquired at a large gathering d. Infection obtained through a physician's physical examination
A. Infection acquired in a hospital
10. All of the following are related EXCEPT: a. Intragluteal b. Subcutaneous c. Intramuscular d. Intravenous
A. Intragluteal
8. The technique of wrapping a child in a sheet: a. is known as mummification. b. is appropriate for young adults and teenagers. c. is appropriate for a child who can cooperate and understand your instructions. d. should be used only with parental approval.
A. Is known as mummification
22. Standards have been established for the maintenance of complete medical records by the: a. Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (The Joint Commission). b. American Registry of Medical Records (ARMR). c. American Osteopathic Association (AOA). d. Both a and c are correct.
A. Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (The Joint Commission)
What is the acronym for all nursing process?
ADPIE (assess, diagnose, plan, implement and evaluate)
Trade Name
AKA Brand name, is the name under which the manufacturer markets the medication
generic name
AKA non-proprietor name is given by the manufacturer who 1st developed the med
What are some SQ sites?
Abdomen Outer aspects of upper arm Outer thigh upper buttock Scapular area
As part of catheter insertion assessment, where should you palpate?
Above the symphysis pubis
Pregnancy Category X
Absolute fetal abnormality; not to be used anytime in pregnancy
Example of a Generic name
Acetominophen
With a low ph are you more acidic or alkaline?
Acidic
applying negative pressure to draw the edge of the wound together //edema//circulation//
-Wound Vacuum Assisted Closure (VAC)- Assists in wound closure by ___________________ Accelerates healing Reduces __________ Improves ______________ Reduces bacterial counts in the wound
What types of things would we ask/assess for, for fluid and electrolyte balance?
-nutritional assessment -Physical assessment-assess for hydration -Psychosocial assessment-psychological factors that may effect balance. -Diagnostic assessment-laboratory assessment.
A child needs 150% of the usual calorie intake for normal growth and development.
...
A girl's growth spurt during adolescences begins earlier than boys ( as early as 10 years old).
...
Accidents are a major cause of deaths for children and adolescents.
...
Adolescences is a time when the child forms his/her identity and that rebellion against family is common for this age group
...
Common childhood problems are encountered by nurses caring for children in the community or hospital settings. the child's age directly influences the severity and management of these problems.
...
Do not examine the throat of a child with epiglottitis because of the risk of completely obstructing the airway
...
IV fluids containing potassium should be administeerd only with adequate urine output.
...
In planning and providing nursing care, patent airway is always a priority of care, regardless of age
...
The nurse should be sure a prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromplastin time (PTT) have been determined before a tonsillectomy.
...
Urinary output for infants and children should be 1 to 2 mL/kg/hour.
...
4 types of quant. research?
1. Descriptive - explore & describe events in real life 2. Correlation - examine type and degree of relationships b/w 2 + variables 3. Quasi experimental research - examine cause and effect relationships b/w selected variables. 4 experimental - examine cause and effect relationships b/w variables under highly controlled conditions.
Rubella (German measles)
1. Incubation 14 to 21 days. 2. Common viral disease, that has teratogenic effects on fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy. 3. Transmitted by droplet and direct contact with infected persons. 4. Discrete red maculopapular rash starts on face and rapidly spreads to entire body. 5. Rash disappears within 3 days.
HIV is classified according to clinical conditions and CD4+ counts what is the norm count?
800-1000 CD4+ cells/mm3 of blood
Intramuscular angle of injection
90 degrees
What degree angle should an intramuscular shot be inserted?
90 degrees
What is a Tuberculin syringe?
A 1ml syringe used for TB test and SC injections
Which the following patients would be expected to benefit from a moist to dry dressing?
A 24 y/o patient with an open and infected wound from a spider bite; A 30 y/o who had a large cyst removed and now has some necrotic tissue present in the crater type wound
Which of the following lab results or measurements indicated a risk for impaired wound healing?
A BMI 35 (elevated), FSBG 215(elevated), serum albumin 2.9 (decreased), hemoglobin 10 g/dl (decreased)
1. A general radiographic imaging system consists of which of the components identified below? 1. Control console and generator 2. X-ray tube and support assembly 3. Image receptors 4. Image processing workstation 5. X-ray table and upright cassette holder 6. Collimator assembly a. 3, 4, 5, and 7 only b. 1, 2, 5, and 6 only c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 4, and 6 only
B. 1, 2, 5, and 6 only
6. The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the 1. advance health care directive 2. living will 3. health care proxy a. 1 only b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
Rinne test: how
Activate tuning fork and place on bone behind ear, ask when they stop hearing it
This is a chronic neurobiologic disease characterized by: impaired control over drug use compulsive drug use continued use despite harm craving occurs over time, not a result of one hospital stay
Addiction
14. The organization that sponsors an international meeting in Chicago, Illinois each year in late November is the: a. International Society of Radiographers and Radiologic Technologists (ISRRT) b. Radiological Society of North America (RSNA) c. American College of Radiology (ACR) d. Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT)
B. Radiological Society of North America (RSNA)
5. A physician who specializes in the interpretation of medical images is known as a: a. radiographer b. radiologist c. radiologic technologist d. radiologist assistant
B. Radiologist
13. The most accurate way to determine body temperature is: a. By using both an oral and rectal thermometer and averaging the readings b. With a rectal thermometer c. With an oral thermometer d. By asking the patient if he is warm
B. With a rectal thermometer
Alopecia
Bald spots.. hair loss
3 levels of care in nursing homes
Basic, skilled, subacute
Responsible for vascular leak syndrome, and has a role in clotting.
Basophils
What should you checkbefore doing an enteral tube feed?
Before feeding, check the position of the tube and it's length.
Orientation
Being aware of person, place and time
Ineffective wound healing can be seen how soon after surgery?
Between the 5th-10th day.
20. What is the most commonly used immobilization device? a. sheet restraint b. cervical collar c. positioning sponge d. Velcro straps
C. Positioning sponge
8. The term used to describe energy transmitted through matter is a. ionization b. physiology c. radiation d. therapy
C. Radiation
20. When moving a patient from a cart to the radiographic table, it would be appropriate to: a. Ask the patient how much they can help with the transfer. b. Wrap the patient up in a sheet and roll him or her over completely. c. Allow the patient to safely help with the transfer as much as he or she is able. d. Do both a and c.
D. Do both A and C
4. To improve the flexibility of a radiographic system, engineers have designed equipment so that the x-ray tube support system and detector assembly: a. are always connected and centered to each other. b. have only longitudinal motions. c. have only transverse motions. d. do none of the above.
D. Do none of the above
7. When performing a cleansing enema on an adult patient: a. Lukewarm water just above body temperature is used b. The patient is placed in the Sims' position for enema tip insertion c. After the bowel is filled with liquid, generally more than 500 mL, the patient should rest quietly to allow the liquids to work d. All of the above are appropriate
D. All of the above are appropriate
14. Damage to x-ray tubes that can shorten their useful life can occur with: a. unnecessarily prolonged anode preparation times. b. repeated preparation of the tube several times before exposures are performed. c. preselection of exposure factors before the tube is boosted. d. both a and b.
D. Both A and B
4. To confirm the placement of an NG tube in its proper position, a physician may use: a. A syringe to remove gastric contents as proof b. Fluoroscopy or radiography for visualization c. Feedback from the patient by asking if he or she can feel it in the stomach d. Both a and b
D. Both A and B
6. Symptoms of a head injury include: a. Respiratory distress b. Change in state of consciousness c. Increased appetite d. Both a and b
D. Both A and B
3. When you ask the pharmacist for the drug Benadryl, you are asking for the drug using the drug's _____ name. a. Generic b. Chemical c. Kinematic d. Brand
D. Brand
2. The word ambulatory means that the patient is: a. Must be confined to a wheelchair b. Must be moved by ambulance c. Can be moved by stretcher d. Can walk
D. Can walk
5. When transporting a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube to medical imaging: a. Confirm the suction pressure before disconnecting the tube b. Make sure the NG tube is secured to the patient's nose c. Confirm the allowable time for suction interruption d. Do all of the above
D. Do all of the above
Who was first professor of nursing?
Mary Adelaide Nutting
Who was first African American nurse?
Mary Mahoney
Step 11C Partial rebreathing mask
Mask over patient's mouth and nose to form a tight seal, bag remains partially inflated.
Transcribing Medication Order
Name Date/Time Drug Name Dosage Drug Route Administration Frequency of Administration Signature Person Ordering & Title
official name
Name assigned by the FDA; most often the same as the generic name
What is the antidote to morphine?
Narcan
Infants and young children
Need more fluids than adults do
Patient with indwelling catheter develops fever, elevated pulse, lower abdominal pain, cloudy, foul-smelling urine
Notify physician
How do we assess fluid balance?
On a fluid balance chart where all fluid input and output is recorded
Dressings and drains, including casts and plastic bandages, must be assessed for bleeding or other drainage when?
On admission to the PACU (recovery room) and hourly thereafter.
What are the three P's of diabetes?
Polyphasia Polyphagia Polyuria
An excessive amount of bright blood drainage accumulates over a short time (eg 4 hours)
Report to the surgeon. Keep the patient NPO because it may be necessary to return to surgery for suturing of a bleeding vessel Drainage that is bright red in large may indicate hemorrhage
Pain can result from manipulation of the drainage device or accumulation of drainage within the wound. Infection accompanied by inflammation and edema may increase pain
Report unrelieved increasing pain to the physician
Step 20j
Repositioned patient, provided for comfort and patient safety. Lowered bed if appropriate.
What are some serious side effects of morphine?
Respiratory failure, respiratory arrest, constipation
What are the functions of sleep?
Restoration therapy (proteins are rebuilt and energy is replenished), preservation and protection, learning and memory consolidation
What are possible responses to general anesthesia?
Retching, vomiting, restlessness and changes in the ability to control body temperature.
What are these things? -Age. -Medications. -Lifestyle. -Chronic illness-inc. risk -Prior surgical experiences-ex. anesthesia rx. -Type of surgical procedure-ex. exploratory laparotomy inc. risk for paralytic ileus.
Risk factors based on assessment
The nursing assistive personnel (NAP) is assisting the nurse to insert a Foley catheter on a male patient. In which position should the NAP place the patient?
Supine with legs slightly abducted
What was the Goldmark Report?
Survey of nursing education; needed financial support for university programs
These type of cells are protective against fungi, virus and some CA.
T-Cells
Medication - measuring
Tablets, Capsules, Scored caplets, Liquid medications: measurement, syringe, suppositories
Reasons for lack of urine after inserting a straight catheter include
The catheter is outside of the bladder; The catheter is inserted in the vagina rather than in the urethra of a female patient
6. After bedpan use, hygiene of the female patient's perineum is important. Proper cleansing of this region requires using gloves and several folded tissues to wipe the region: a. Transversely between gluteal folds b. From the anus to the mons pubis c. In circular motions d. From the mons pubis to the anus
D. From the mons pubis to the anus
The NAP is applying a condom catheter to the patient. The patient asks, "What is the purpose of the skin preparation solution?" The NAP correctly responds:
The skin preparation solution prevents skin irritation and should be dry before the condom catheter is applied
smaller number = smaller lumen size in catheters
The smaller the catheter number the LARGER?/ SMALLER? the lume size?
The first dressing on a patient post surgery is always changed by who?
The surgeon
Who is responsible for obtaining a signed consent before sedation is given and surgery is performed?
The surgeon
What is Onset?
The time it takes to produce a response
3. For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except a. the patient's name and/ or identification number b. the date of the examination c. a right- or left-side marker d. the patient's birth date
D. The patient's birth date
Provide and exit route for air, blood, and bile as well as help prevent deep infections and abscess formation during healing.
Drains
To apply sterile gloves, you have applied the first sterile glove on your right hand. Where should you pick up the remaining glove?
Underneath the second glove's cuff
controlled substance
Drugs that have the potential for abuse.
Which of the folllowing regarding removal of the old dressing on a surgical incision are accurate?
If the dressing is over a hairy area, remove tape in the direction of hair growth; use caution to avoid tension on any drains that are present
When you let inflammation sit it gets hard and causes what?
Immobility
Which of the following requires strict surgical asepsis?
Insertion of a Foley catheter
Step 21
Insertion of catheter depends on female or male
Examining a woman's breasts is what part of the nurse's assessment _________ and __________.
Inspection, Palpation
allergy, TB
Intradermal injections are commonly used for _______ testing and _______ screening.
What is the term used during surgery? What is the nurses responsibility for this term
Intraoperative Safety and advocacy.
What is IV therapy feeding?
Introduction of mainly hydration into a peripheral vein. this methods requires additional nutritional support if used for more than a few days.q
Which mineral is needed for growth and metabolism?
Iodine
A disorder in which the blood supply to the epiphyses of the bone is disrupted is callled: 1.) muscular dystrophy 2.) cerebral palsy 3.) congenital hip dysplasia 4.) Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease
Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease
What electrolyte causes diarrhea?
Magnesium
What electrolyte is usually off when you are an alcoholic b/c they are usually malnourished?
Magnesium
Explain secondary prevention.
Maintaining of best possible health
16.
Maintaining sterile technique, places the plastic urine receptacle 10 cm (4in.) from the urinary meatus. The end of the catheter needs to rest inside the container as the urine drains (e.g., places container between patient's thighs).
What should you always do when administering a parenteral?
Make sure final dose is accurate
**************test question********************* This is the biggest complication from general anesthesia. Marked by a rapid rise in body temperature, increase in serum calcium and potassium, signs of increased muscle metabolism (muscle proteins detected in the urine) and rigidity. Can be life-threatening.
Malignant hyperthermia
gluteal
Malkin (2008) states that use of the ______ site should be removed from injection practice as an unnecessary and unacceptable risk for clients.
pickles
a patient who is placed on a sodium restricted diet should avoid eating _____
bland diet
food that is easily digested
What is the most common postoperative complication following a tonsillectomy? Describe the signs and symptoms of the condition.
hemorrhage; frequent swallowing, vomiting fresh blood, and clearing throat
hypertension
high blood pressure
height and weight
nutrition plays a large role in determining which of the following?
liquid diets
nutritionally inadequate for short term use
What is a risk factor?
something that increases a person's chances for illness and injury.
variable?
something that varies and diff values measured
S2
Softer: Dubb Tricuspid area- 4th ICS @ sternum
What is the onset of Intermediate (NPH) insulin?
2-4 hours
Nursing interventions for children with communicable diseases include:
1. Isolate child during period of communicablility. 2. Treat fever with NON-ASPIRIN product because of the risk of Reye syndrom. 3.Report occurrence to the health department. 4. Prevent child from scratching skin. 5. Administer diphenhydramine HCI (Benadryl) as prescribed for itching. 6. WASH HANDS after caring for a child and handling secretions or child's articles.
4 Concepts common in nursing theory?
1. Person/patient. (*most important) 2. environ. 3. health. 4. nursing
What are the 5 functions of family?
1. Physical, 2. economic; 3. reproductive; 4. affective/coping; 5. socialization
Name 5 things the nurse would do for anxiety prevention b/f surgery?
1. Preoperative teaching. 2. Encouraging communication. 3. Promoting rest. 4. Using distraction. 5. Teaching family and significant others.
What is the peak of short (regular) insulin?
2-4 hours
You are re-heating cooked food. The food temperature should be
165 F
Step 15
Applied clean folded gauze dressing over insertion site, and secured with tape.
45, 90
5/8 inch needle is used for adults of normal weight and the needle is inserted at a _____ degree angle, a 3/8 inch needle is used at a _____ degree angle for subcutaneous injections.
Needle lengths
5/8-1 1/2
Agent-host-environmental model of health and illness?
1965. Leavall & Clark. Examining causes of disease in individual. Agent = environmental factor/stressor that must be present or absent for an illness to occur. Host= living organism capable of being infected/affected by an agent. Influenced by family history, age & health habits. Environment = factors external to host make illness more/less likely; anything that influences health: physical, social, biologic &cultural
What was the Lysaught Report?
1981, Challenge to liscensure (nursing too big, split into acute and distributive care)
What is the maximum amount you can inject into the Vastus Lateralis?
2 ml
What is the Duration of Long insulin?
20-24 hours
normal fluid balance
2000 to 2500 mL
Adult fluid requirements are about
2000 to 2500 mL daily
To maintain normal fluid balance, an adult needs to ingest
2000 to 2500 mL of fluid a day
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA)
2009 passed, includes health ins, health care funding, studen loands and wide rane of spending considers.
Intramuscular needle selection
21-23 needle gauge (depends on viscosity of fluid to be injected), 1-1 1/2 needle length (depends on size of client and tissue to be injected)
How many units does a low dose syringe hold?
50 units
avoiding errors
8 rights, careful reading of drug order, label on drug container, only administer drugs you have prepared, be systematic (same every time), believe the patient, observe patient taking the medications, never leave meds unattended, solid knowledge about drugs, critical thinking (does it make sense)
What is the maximal amount you can inject intramuscularly?
3ml
One gram of carbohydrate provides how many calories
4
When does a child tie his/her shoes?
4 years
When does a child use scissors?
4 years
What is the peak of Intermediate (NPH) insulin?
4-10 hours
On a 2000 calorie diet, what is the amount of grains needed for an adult woman?
5 to 6 oz
What is the max infusion rate with potassium?
5-10 mEq/hr the rate should never exceed 20 mEq/hr under any circumstances.
Step 23
Asked client to bear down gently as if to void.
ABCD rule of Melanoma
Asymmetry Border irregularity Color Blue/Black Diameter Greater than 6mm
Where would you open prefilled syringes?
At the bedside
4. Wilhelm C. Roentgen's discovery of "the x-ray" is regarded as one of medicine's most significant achievements. Although his discovery was accidental, his early research was so thorough that no significant findings have been added to his original theories. This in itself is a true tribute to the brilliance of Roentgen as a scientist. One of the most famous early images he created was an x-ray image of his: a. Colon b. laboratory assistant's foot c. wife's hand d. Kidneys
C. Wife's Hand
A patient tells the LPN/LVN that he is thinking of joining a health maintenance organization (HMO). To discuss this option with the patient, the LPN/LVN should know that the purpose of an HMO is to: A. encourage as many diagnostic tests as possible. B. provide services at the specialist level to as many patients as possible. C. keep patients as healthy as possible. D. limit the amount of health education information available to patients.
C. keep patients as healthy as possible. Rationale: The HMO is focused on keeping patients as healthy as possible. Health education materials are one way of accomplishing this goal. Only necessary tests and referrals to specialists should be ordered.
What is the acronym used for getting ready for a procedure?
CERDCH (CHECK the order on the chart, gather the EQUIPMENT, REVIEW the steps of the procedure, DISCUSS the procedure with the superviser if needed, CONFIRM the correct protocols, wash your HANDS)
What is the acronym for communication before a procedure?
CICAD. (CHECK the patient ID, INTRODUCE yourself, explain the procedure and gain CONSENT, ASSESS the client and confirm that the procedure is still appropriate, DESCRIBE what the patient can expect)
This electrolyte is and important maintenance of bone strength and density activation of enzymes or reactions, skeletal and cardiac muscle contraction, nerve impulse transmission, and blood clotting?
Calcium
Step 6
Calculated correct dosage of correct medication, if necessary.
A teenager who had a cast applied after a tibia fracture complains that his pain medication is not working and his pain is still a 9 or 10. The nurse notices some edema of the toes and a capillary refill of 6 seconds. The priority action of the nurse would be: 1.) call the health care provider immediately 2.) check if there is an order for a stronger pain medication 3.) try nonpharmacological techniques of pain relief 4.) explain to the teen that a new fracture is expected to be painful the first day
Call the health care provider immediately
8. X-ray film imaging has been replaced by: a. computed radiography (CR). b. direct digital detector technology. c. digital radiography systems. d. all of the above.
D. All of the above
14g
Cleanses in this order: outside far labium majus, outside near labium majus, inside far labium, inside near labium, and directly down the center over the urinary meatus. (Some kits have only three swabs, so the order would be inside far labium, inside near labium, and directly down the center; the outside labia majora would have already been cleansed with soap and water.)
A patient is NPO. This means that the person
Cannot eat or drink anything
Oral Medication-
Capsule, syrups, Elixirs, Tinctures, Solutions, Suspensions, Magmas
Which nutrient provides energy and fiber?
Carbohydrate
What category of HIV is this: asymptomatic, persistent lymphadenopathy
Category A
What category of HIV is this: deficiency of cell mediated immunity
Category B
What category of HIV is this: The person had AIDS
Category C
14.
Cleanses the patient.
What are 3 race classifications?
Caucasian, Negroid, Mongoloid
What usually causes bronchiolitis and how is it transmitted?
Caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and is found to be readily transmitted by close contact with hospital personnel, families and other children
Helps protect the body by differentiating self from non-self cells, non-self cells most easily recognized by cell-mediated immunity are CA cells and those self cells infected by organisms that live within host cells (RBC's). *************Its function is to protect against CA cells and viruses, responsible for delayed hypersensitivity and transplant rejection.
Cell-Mediated Immunity (t-cells)
Step 11
Changed needle if indicated.
Drainage containers expand rapidly
Check all connections for leakage. Tape or otherwise eliminate leaks in the system
The nurse has been called to make a home visit to a patient with a history of a spinal cord injury and an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient appears diaphoretic and his face is flushed. The nurse takes the patient's vital signs with the following results: Temperature 98.4°F, pulse 54, respirations 20 and blood pressure 160/100. The patient's head of the bed is elevated. What action should the nurse take next?
Check for any kinks in catheter tubing
Step 5
Checked administration record against the label on the medication container when removing from medication storage.
Step 1
Checked physician's order (scenario)
Step 1
Checked physician's order (scenario).
Step 1
Checked physicians order (scenario).
Step 8
Checked the label of the medication container against the medication administration record before drawing up medication.
Step 7
Checked the label of the medication container for expiration date.
Drug names
Chemical, Generic/Non-Proprietary, Trade/Brand/Proprietary
20j
Disposed of used uncapped needle and attached syringe.
Step 30
Documented procedure and patient's tolerance in nurse's notes.
Which of the following may indicate internal hemorrhage?
Distention or swelling of the affected body part; A decreased blood pressure and increased pulse; A change in the type and amount of drainage from a surgical drain
You are to collect a sterile urine specimen for culture and sensitivity from your patient's indwelling Foley catheter. Choose the supplies that you will need to carry out the procedure.
Clean gloves, Alcohol or disinfectant swab, 5mL Luer Lock syringe, Catheter clamp or elastic band, Sterile specimen container, Completed laboratory requisition, Completed ID label
How do you care for a catheter insertion site?
Clean the area around the drainage tube twice daily, use soap and water, rinse well and dry, do not apply lotion or powder, check for inflammation or infection (swollen, red, irritated, tender)
Step 9b
Cleaned top of vial, if necessary.
A nurse is explaining how to perform a dressing change. Which of the following sequences for changing a surgical wound dressing (wound drain present) indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding this procedure?
Cleanse wound. Use a separate swab for each cleansing stroke. Cleanse around drain by using a circular stroke starting near the drain and moving outward. Clean incision in direction of bottom to top
Step 21c female
Cleansed center area from the clitoris toward the anus in one downward motion.
Step 19
Cleansed injection site with alcohol in a circular motion, beginning in the center and wiping outward.
Step 20
Cleansed urethral meatus appropriately.
27.
Cleanses and dries patient's perineal area as needed.
What is a binuclear family?
Divorced parents assume joint custody of children
A complete drug order
Clients full name, Date, Drug, Dose, Route of administration, Time/freq of administration, Signature of ordering health care provider
Step 15
Closed door to patient's room or enclosed unit with curtains and raised bed to appropriate height.
What can you do to counteract constipation caused by morphine?
Coalase
When would you collect these things: -Hx and data collection. -Age. -Drugs and substance use (look for withdrawls) -Medical hx, including cardiac and pulmonary hx (specifically comorbities ex. DM and CAD). -Previous surgeries and anasthesia. -Blood donations (this will tell you if they may have a disease like HIV) -Discharge planning.
Collaborative management assessment
Drug Deterioration Signs
Color change, Odor, Crumbling/Powder
ABD Pads//secondary dressing//high absorbency//
Combine, combination pads Large absorbent pads Used as a ______________ -Over a primary dressing -Not against the skin Used when ____________ is needed
Synergistic effect
Combined effect of two or more drugs is greater than the effect of each drug alone
arm, chest, scapulae
Common sites for intradermal injections are the inner lower _______, the upper _______, and the back beneath the __________.
arms, thighs
Common sites for subcutaneous injections are the outer aspect of the upper_______ and the anterior aspect of the _________.
What should you always determine when mixing medications?
Compatibility of the medications
31.
Completes entire procedure without breaching sterility.
IV delivery of sedative, hypnotic, and opioid drugs reduces the level of consciousness but allows the client to maintain a patent airway and to respond to verbal commands.
Conscious Sedation
Catheter leaks after insertion
Consider catheter too small, balloon deflated, or catheter has slipped out of bladder
Difficulty inserting catheter with a male patient
Consider prostate enlargement, may require coude catheter
Can pt still take his meds even if he is NPO b/f his surgery?
Consult the physician and anesthesia for instructions, especially for meds for DM, CAD, glaucoma, anticonvulsants, antihypertensives, anticoagulants, antidepressants, or corticosteroids.
20.
Continues gentle insertion of catheter until urine flows for a distance of 5-7.5 cm (2-3 in.) Then inserts the catheter another 2.5-5 cm (1 to 2 in.).
23.
Continues to hold the catheter securely with the nondominant hand while the urine drains from the bladder.
What is a dyadic family?
Couple chooses not to have kids
What must be taken into consideration when performing ADL's on a patient?
Culture, likes and dislikes, religion, age, ability, lifestyle
Which action best describes the role of the licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? A. To initiate plans for care for assigned patients B. To care for individuals in the long-term care setting C. To care for individuals during hospitalization during acute illnesses D. To care for individuals during illness, to prevent disease, and to care for the dying patient
D. To care for individuals during illness, to prevent disease, and to care for the dying patient Rationale: The LPN/LVN is responsible for care during all aspects of health and illness. It is not limited to long-term care or hospital nursing. Initiation of care plans is not the responsibility of the LPN/LVN.
21. A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower than the feet is said to be in which of the following positions? a. stenver b. fowler c. sims d. trendelenburg
D. Trendelenburg
15. When tape is used as an immobilization tool with an infant: a. use liberal amounts of tape to hold the infant tightly. b. place the tape with the adhesive side in touch with the infant's skin to hold better. c. wrap the tape around the patient tightly to create an awareness of the importance of radiation protection. d. twist the tape so the nonadhesive side is against the infant's skin.
D. Twist the tape so the nonadhesive side is against the ingant's skin
4. To achieve extreme dorsiflexion of the ankle, the most effective immobilization method employs the use of: a. sandbags. b. tape. c. a draw sheet. d. Velcro straps.
D. Velcro straps
3. Failure to pay one's federal income taxes would be an example of a(n): a. ethical violation. b. moral violation. c. professional conduct violation. d. violation of federal law.
D. Violation of Federal Law
A 70-year-old patient who was treated for a respiratory problem is to be discharged from the hospital. The patient says the physician told her that she must leave "because of DRGs." To discuss this statement with the patient, the LPN/LVN must understand that DRGs (diagnostic-related groups) are a way of paying the hospital money: A. in advance for care provided for a particular diagnosis. B. for each day of service provided. C. based on whether a patient is cured. D. in a lump sum for the care of a patient with a particular diagnosis.
D. in a lump sum for the care of a patient with a particular diagnosis. Rationale: Under the DRG system, the fee the government will pay for hospitalization depends on the DRG category (illness). Hospitals receive a flat fee for each patient's DRG category, regardless of length of stay in the hospital; thus hospitals have an incentive to treat patients and discharge them as quickly as possible.
48. The total quantity of x-ray photons produced during an exposure is determined by the: a. kVp b. SID c. milliamperage (mA) d. mAs
D. mAs
7. The total quantity of x-ray photons produced during an exposure is determined by the: a. kVp. b. SID. c. milliamperage (mA). d. mAs.
D. mAs
Tolerance
Decreased response to a medication
Therapeutic concentration
Defines the necessary concentration of a medication in blood or tissue to achieve the desired effect
Pregnancy Category D
Definite fetal risk; givern only if life threatening condition exists
Intramuscular sites
Deltoid, vastus lateralis, ventral gluteal
chemical name
Describes the drug's chemical composition and molecular structure
Pre-procedure:
Determines if patient has allergy to iodine or latex.
Dysphagia
Difficulty swallowing
Developmental milestones for school-age child (6 to 12 years)
Each year child gains 4 to 6 pounds and about 2 inches in height. Girls may experience menarche. Loss of primary teeth and eruption of most permanent teeth occur. Fine and gross motor skills mature. Able to write script at 8 years. Dresses self completely. Egocentric thinking is replaced by social awareness of others. Learns cause-and-effect relationships. Socialization with peers becomes important. Molars (6 years) erupt.
Development milestones for preschool child (3 to 5 years)
Each year child gains about 5 pounds and grows 2 1/2 to 3 inches. Stands erect with more slender posture. Learns to run, jump, skip, and hop. 3-year-olds ride a tricycle. Handedness is established. Uses scissors at 4 years. Ties shoelaces at 5 years. Learns colors, shapes. Visual acuity approaches 20/20. Thinking is egocentric and concrete. Uses sentences of 5 to 8 words. Learns sexual identity (curiosity and masturbation common). Imaginary playmates and fears are common. Aggressiveness at 4 years is replaced by more independence at 5 years.
Systemic effect
Effects that spread throughout the body; affecting all body systems and organs
EMAR
Electronic Medication Administration record
Drains//Hemavac, JP, penrose
Enhances flow of drainage from wound Prevents accumulation of drainage Promotes wound healing Types?
Urine output from Foley catheter is less than 30 mL per hour
Ensure tubing/catheter is kink free then assess patient for renal failure or severe dehydration
Route of Medication administration
Enteral, parenteral, topical, inhalation
What is the name of the antibody test done to see if pt has HIV? (ELISA). What is the test confirmed by?
Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay Western blot
Mongoloid race includes what groups of people?
Epicanthic fold (almond shaped eyes); yellow brown skin; short stature and brachycephalic skull; East asian (but all over- Asia; America - indiansl divided into north asiatic, artic, south asiatic, far east and american)
___________ is a person considering his/her culture to be the best.
Ethnocentrism
every 6 hours.
How often should a patient urinate or be catheterized if they are unable to urinate spondaneously?
How often should the nurse assess drained material from a nasogastric tube?
Every 8 hours
What is cultural imposition?
Everyone should conform to your belief system
A total separation of all wound layers and protrusion of internal organs through the open wound requires surgical intervention.
Evisceration
What are keloids and in what race of people is this found?
Excess growth of scar tissue at site of healed injury. African American
Therapeutic effect
Expected physiological response
Step 5
Explained procedure to patient and the purpose.
Step 6
Explained procedure to patient, describing sensation to be felt when catheter is removed.
Step 14
Explained procedure to patient.
Step 5
Explained procedure to patient.
prefilled
If heparin is being administered a _________ cartridge is used.
13d
Expresses a small amount of sterile lubricant into the kit tray; lubricates the first 2.5-5 cm (1-2 in.) of the catheter by rolling it in the lubricant. Leaves the catheter tip in sterile lubricant until ready to use.
What are common negligence acts?
Failure: notify MD of problems, properly delegate & supervise, follow procedure and policies
T/F - A contaminated or traumatic wound may show signs of infection within 24 hours. A surgical wound infection usually develops postoperatively within 14 days
False
T/F - After a patient has had a Foley catheter for 1 week, a urine specimen may be obtained from the bedside drainage bag
False
T/F - Obtaining a sterile urine sample for testing by using a straight catheter can be delegated to NAP
False
T/F:During ancient times, nurses did not follow directions of doctors. They were autonomous.
False
Where do individuals learn their health beliefs and values?
Family
HOw quickly is medication absorbed in subcutaneous tissue?
Faster than most drugs administered orally but slower than IV drugs
What can cause medication errors?
Fatigue stress and understaffing increase the risk of making a medication error
Speech
Fluent, understandable, slurred, fast, slow etc
What was Henry Street Settlement?
Focused on health needs of NYC poor living in tenements
Which of the following would be inappropriate to delegate to NAP?
Foley catheter insertion
A person is on a bland diet. Which is incorrect?
Foods contain strong spices for taste.
1, 2
For a subcutaneous injection, a 45-degree angle is used when ______ inch of tissue can be grasped at the site; a 90-degree angle is used when ______ inches of tissue can be grasped at the site.
1/2, 45
For a subcutaneous injection, a child may need a _____ inch needle inserted at a _____ degree angle.
5, 15
For an intradermal injection the needle enters the skin at a _____ to _____ degree angle.
bleb or wheal
For an intradermal injection, the medication forms a _____ or _______ under the epidermis.
A person is on a mechanical soft diet. The person can have the following except
Fresh vegetables
A person is on a high-protein diet. Which foods are not high in protein?
Fruits
Because elderly have few T-Lymphocytes what does this increase their chances of having?
Fungal infections
What words have to do with walking?
Gait and Ambulation
-Reversible loss of consciousness. -State can be achieved by a single agent or a combination of agents. -Central nervous system is depressed resulting in analgesia, amnesia and unconsciousness with loss of muscle tone and reflexes. -With this the nurse needs to consider emotional/psychological effects which include the fear of being put to sleep.
General Anesthesia
25, 5/8
Generally a #______ gauge, _____ inch needle is used for adults of normal weight for most subcutaneous injections.
1,2
Generally a _____ to _____ mL syringe is used for most subcutaneous injections.
Step 20g
Gently applied alcohol swab or dry gauze over injection site and withdrew needle quickly.
20h
Gently applied alcohol swab or dry gauze over injection site and withdrew needle.
there might be blood in the urine bag.
How might you suspect that a patient is tugging at their catheter to try and remove?
Developmental milestones for adolescences (12 to 19 years)
Girl's growth spurt during adolescence begins earlier than boys' ( may begin as early as 10 for girls). Boys catch up around 14 and continue to grow. Girls finish growth around 15, boys around 17. Secondary sex characteristics develop. Adult-like thinking begins around 15 years. They can problem solve and use abstract thinking. Family conflicts develop.
Single
Given only one time
PRN
Given only when patient requires it
While pt is going through the return of the sympathetic nervous system tone what position should they be in and what should you assess for?
Gradually elevate head and monitor for hypotension.
Which term describes a seizure in which the child cries out, falls to the floor, becomes rigid, and then has a convulsion? 1.) Petit mal 2.) Myoclonic 3.) Grand mal 4.) Atonic
Grand mal
Step 21a male
Grasped penis at shaft below glans with nondominant hand, and continued to hold throughout insertion of catheter.
Step 3
Greeted patient and introduced self.
Step 12
Greeted the patient and introduced self.
What is family?
Group of people who live together and are emotionally bonded
Vitamin A
Growth; vision, healthy hair, skin, and mucous menbranes; resistance to infection
These are nrs dx related to what disease? -chronic low self esteem -social isolation -disturbed thought processes -diarrhea -impaired skin integrity
HIV
What is the acronym for before a procedure in regards to hygeine?
HPI (wash HANDS, PPE, INFECTION control)
The organism usually responsible for epiglottitis is?
Haemophilus influenzae (H. influenzae, primarily type B)
Hirsuitism
Hairy
What is the minority group?
Have physical or cultural characteristics different from dominant group
Bronchovesicular sounds
Heard at central chest or posterior chest. Equal in inspiration and expiration.
Gurgle sounds
Heard in pneumonia and emphysema. Sounds like blowing air into fluid with straw.
Which of the following are common sites for the development of pressure ulcers?
Heels, Sacrum, Lateral malleoli, Trochanters, Ischial tuberosities
Step 20b
Held syringe between thumb and forefinger of dominant hand at 45-90 degree angle.
20c
Held syringe between thumb and forefinger of dominant hand at a 90 degree angle to injection site.
An elderly patient is admitted for back surgery. She states that she has an allergy to latex. She is now retired but her previous occupation was as a registered nurse. She reports that she is also allergic to morphine and penicillin. She has a history of five laminectomies (back surgeries) resulting from scoliosis as a child. She has three children who visit her. She requires a cane to ambulate. Which factors would be considered high-risk factors for latex allergy?
History of multiple surgeries as a child and occupation
The nurse is applying sterile gloves. Which series of steps would require correction?
Hold the gloved hands at sides of body, below waist level, until beginning the sterile procedure
Step 10
Holding cannula, cleaned site with antimicrobial scrub.
You have prepared a sterile field and have added the necessary sterile items to the field. You have applied sterile gloves and are waiting to assist the physician in performing a surgical procedure. You keep the sterile field in view and hold your hands down at your sides, away from your clothing. While waiting, you instruct the patient to avoid touching the sterile field and for the need to lie still. Which action made by you is incorrect?
Holding your gloved hands at your sides
14b
Holds this position throughout the procedure—firm pressure is necessary.
during Middle ages, which secular groups formed?
Hospital brothers of St. Anthony (care for those w/St. Anthony's fire disease); Misericordia in Italy (provide transport services for ill); Alexian Brothers (care for bubonic plague victims)
3 Liters
How big might an irrigation bag be?
1-2 inches
How far down the catheter do you lubricate for a FEMALE patient?
With this electrolyte imbalance excitable membranes may not respond to any stimulus.
Hypermagnesemia
Problems caused by hyperphosphatemia center on the hypocalcemia that results when serum phosphorus levels increase.
Hyperphosphatemia
Is an altered immunologic reaction to an antigen and it results in a pathologic immune response upon re-exposure to the antigen.
Hypersensitivity
This imbalance causes increased membrane excitability and the accompanying serum calcium and potassium imbalances.
Hypomagnesemia
Roman numeral for 1
I or i
Abdominal Order of physical assessment
IAPP: Inspection, Ascultation, Percussion, Palpation OR Look, Listen, Drum, Feel
What are some examples of parenterals?
ID SQ IM IV
Which has faster absorption IM or SQ?
IM
INH
INHALATION
What are the nursing organizations?
INO: International nursing organization. ANA:American Nurses Assoc.(Public education, clinical nursing standards, lobbying) NLN: National League for Nursing. (Fosters the development and improvement of all nursing services and nursing education.) AACN: American Association of Colleges in Nursing.(establish quality educational standards.) NSNA: National Student Nurses Assoc. Specialty Practive and Special Interest.
ID
INTRADERMAL
IM
INTRAMUSCULAR
IV
INTRAVENOUS
IVPB
INTRAVENOUS PIGGY BACK
Normal order of physical assessment
IPPA: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation OR Look, Feel, Drum, Listen
What should you always keep in mind during a nursing procedure?
ITD. Promote client independance and involvement, assess client tolerance to the procedure, ensure privacy and dignity. ITD.
Step 4
Identified patient by ID bracelet.
Step 4
Identified patient by checking ID band and asked patient name.
Step 5
Identified patient by checking ID band and asking patient name.
Step 13
Identified patient by checking ID bracelet and asking patient name
Step 13
Identified the patient by checking ID bracelet and asking patient name.
List two contraindications for live virus immunization.
Immunocompromised child or a child in a household with an immunocompromised individual.
Patient needs a single sterile urine specimen
Insert a straight catheter
What is an expected lab finding for some one who is dehydrated?
In the absence of hemmorrhage, overall hemo-concentration.
When teaching a patient about wound healing, the nurse should tell the patient:
Inadequate nutrition delays wound healing and increases risk of infection
Which is not a sign or symptom of dysphagia?
Increased appetite
What symptoms will a patient have when they have hypernatremia?
Increased thirst It causes shift of fluid out of the cells and then causes neuromuscular irritability.
Age groups' concept of bodily injury:
Infants: after 6 months, their cognitive development allows them to remember pain. Toddlers: fear intrusive procedures. Preschoolers: fear body mutilation. School age: fear loss of control of their body. Adolescent: major concern is change in body image.
Causes visible symptoms and can rid the body of harmful organisms.
Inflammation
Infection is usually accompanied by what?
Inflammation
Initiates both antibody and cell mediated immunity.
Inflammation
Provides immediate, short term protection against the effects of tissue injury and foreign proteins.
Inflammation
Drug therapy does what to the virus?
Inhibits, does not kill the virus.
Step 20f
Injected medication at a slow and steady rate.
Step 20d
Injected needle quickly at a 45-90 angle.
20d
Injected quickly at a 90 degree angle into muscle.
This is caused by a local or regional anesthesia: Secondary to the interruption of the sensory nerve impulse transmission from a specific body area or region.
Insensibility
Step 2 for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter
Insert a 21-gauge, 1-inch needle attached to a 3- or 20-mL syringe into the center of the sampling port, or a 3- or 20- mL leurlok syringe to a needleless port. Draw the correct amount of urine into the syringe (3 mL or 20 mL).
During an assessment you ask what questions about the location of the pain.
Is it localized, projected, radiating, or referred
no
Is the lumen/balloon size part of the MD order for catheterization?
Explain tertiary prevention.
Is the prevention of health such as seeing the doctor like check ups.
What is the purpose of inflammation and immunity?
Is to neutralize, eliminate or destroy invading organism or the antigen.
What are the three types of dehydration?
Isotonic (sodium loss is the same as water loss) Hypotonic (sodium loss is greater than water loss) Hypertonic (sodium loss is less than water loss)
What is fowlers position?
It is a type of body position for a patient where the patient lies in bed with their hands by their sides and their upper body raised by the bed being lifted. (eg, flat is 0 degrees fowlers, whereas sitting upright is 90 degrees fowlers)
What part of a nurse's assessment is auscultation used?
It is for listening to heart, pulse, breathing and bowel tones.
A nurse is explaining the procedure for inserting an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following explanations regarding the anchoring of the catheter would be most accurate?
It is important to anchor the catheter tubing to minimize the risk for urethral trauma, bladder spasms from traction, and to prevent accidental dislodgement
You are teaching the male patient and family caregiver about the advantages of a condom catheter. Which of the following would you include in the teaching?
It is relatively safe and noninvasive; It is a convenient method of draining urine; It is used for male patients who are incontinent; It carries less risk of developing a UTI than an indwelling catheter
What is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
It is the admistration of complete nutritional requirements, for when the patients digestive tract cannot absorb nutrients and hydration. The nutrients are administered directly into the blood via a LARGE vein (eg, subclavian) through a catheter.
What is the bristol chart?
It is the chart that stool is measured against (type, pattern etc)
What is auscultation?
It is the process of listening with the ears in examining a patient.
What is the name of the CA HIV patients can get?
Kaposi's sarcoma, and malignant lymphomas they can also have endocrine complications
What is the treatment for hyperkalemia and how does it work?
Kayexalate and it pulls potassiumbk in to the gut and then the person poops it out.
Which of the following actions associated with Foley catheterization could cause a potential problem?
Keeping the foreskin retracted after catheterization
What are 2 types of nurses?
LPN & RN
What is the common NRS Dx for pt's who are preoperative?
Lack of knowledge secondary to lack of surgical experience.
What is a subculture or subgroup?
Large group of people who are members of even larger cultural group, but have certain ethnic, occupational or physical characteristics not common to larger group
When inspecting the head
Large, normal, or small sized head?
What med do you give a patient or hyponatremia?
Lasix
The nurse is caring for a patient who is unable to get out of bed. During the nurse's routine assessment, the nurse notices that urine seems to be pooling in the space at the end and around the condom catheter. The NAP comes to you complaining that the patient's condom catheter has fallen off for the second time today, requiring changing of bed linens. Which is an appropriate response from the nurse?
Let's check the condom catheter size. Perhaps there is one that will fit better
2 types of palpation
Light Palpation: 1/2 inch to 3/4 inch deep. *Nurses ONLY do this one* and Deep Palpation: 2 inches to 2.5 inches *Done by Dr*
Which of 2 nurses consisered founder of public Health nursing?
Lilian Wald
What 2 nurses opened up Henry Street Settlement?
Lilian Wald and Mary Brewster
Who was first trained nurse in US?
Linda Richards
If no bowel sounds
Listen for 2-5 minutes
How should a nurse assess for urine retention?
Look for bladder distention.
S1
Louder: Lub Mitral area-5th ICS @ mid Clavicular (Apex)
People with kidney failure is there calcium level high or low?
Low
What is Trough?
Lowest level of concentration reached before next scheduled dose
Wet to Dry/Damp to Dry Dressing//deep wounds requiring packing//dead space//DSD//
Mechanical debridement with removal of the dressing Common in ________________ -Eliminate _________ Moisten gauze/rolled -Opened and fluffed Cover with ______
MAR
Medication Administration Record
What are sublingual medications?
Medications taken under the tongue
What does the mini nutritional assessment assess?
Mobility Weight loss Food intake Body Mass Index (BMI) Neuropsychological problems Psychological stress Calf Circumference
Factors affecting stability
Moisture, Temperature, Lights
Wound appears inflamed and tender, drainage is evident, and/or an odor is present
Monitor patient for signs of infection, for example, fever, increased WBC, purulent drainage. Notify MD. Obtain wound cultures as ordered
A patient is to have frequent dressing changes. What should the nurse use to secure the dressing?
Montgomery ties
What is the dominant group?
Most ability to control values and sanctions of society
are not (any longer)
Most catheters ARE?/ ARE NOT? made with latex?
A parent asks the nurse to tell her what cerebral palsy is. The best response of the nurse would be that it is a: 1.) motor disability caused by a nonprogressive disturbance in brain development 2.) disorder of the brain that results in mental retardation 3.) complication of the birth process that causes brain damage 4.) brain disorder that involves seizures
Motor disability caused by a nonprogressive disturbance in brain development
Which pain is the hardest to treat?
Nerve pain
First line of defense, phagocytosis, they mature in 12-14 days. It is involved in inflammation.
Neutrophils
Should you Air lock an IM?
No
Whould you aspirate an SQ
No
Pregnancy Category B
No adverse effect demonstated in animals; no human studies
Pregnancy category A
No risk to the fetus in any trimester
Are race and ethnicity the same?
No, race = physical, etnicity = cultural
Can you irrigate a nasogastric tube after gastric surgery with out an order?
No, you need an order from the surgeon
Acetylsalicylic acid, acetaminophen, and non-steroidal anti-imflammatory drug (NSAIDS) like motrin, aleve, tramadol. These are examples of what type of drug?
Non-opioid analgesics
Vitamin E
Normal reproduction, forming red blood cells, muscle function
Neck, nose, ears
Nose: stuffy or draining? Neck: midline on head, equal sides? Stiffness? Ears: Hearing aids?
What are some characteristics of subcutaneous tissue?
Not richly supplied with blood vessels few sensory nerve endings
What is noncompliance?
Not taking prescribed medication correctly
Calorie counts are ordered for a resident. What should you do?
Note what the person ate and how much.
14. G Note
Note: Some kits only have 3 cotton balls, so you would only cleanse the inner labium, then directly down the center over the meatus . . . the outer labium majus would be clean enough from soap and water.
aspirate
Nurses have traditionally been taught to ________ by pulling the plunger after inserting the needle and before injecting the medication. The nurse could than determine whether the needle had entered a blood vessel.
P.O.
ORAL
What type of pt's are at a higher risk for evisceration?
Obese people
What interventions should the nurse do FIRST in caring for a child who has ingested a poison?
Observe and report to RN the child's respiratory, cardiac, and neurologic status.
Wound bleeds during dressing change
Observe color and amount of drainage. If excessive, you may need to apply direct pressure. Obtain vital signs. Notify MD of findings
28.
Observe urine for amount, color, and clarity. Discards urine in toilet. Discards supplies in an appropriate receptacle.
Patient reports a sensation that "something has given way under the dressing"
Observe wound for increased drainage or dehiscence or evisceration. Cover wound with sterile moist dressing. Instruct patient to lie still. Notify MD
Step 12
Observed pulse waveform/intensity display and audible beep, correlating oximeter pulse rate with patient's radial pulse.
During application of the condom catheter, the adhesive strip falls to the floor. What is the nurse's best action?
Obtain another adhesive strip from condom catheter kit
Which of the following actions, if made by the nurse, could be considered negligence?
Obtaining the urine sample at 1030 and transporting it to the lab at 1115
Drug interactions
Occurs when a drug alters the intensity of pharmacologic effects of another drug given concurrently.
Which statement about oils is false
Oils from plant sources contain cholesterol
The nursing instructor is asking the nursing students to share their knowledge regarding sterile gloving. Which statement, if made by a student, would require correction?
Once sterile gloves are applied, the inside of the glove is still considered sterile
What is a therapeutic relationship?
One that resides in the helpfulness zone (not impersonal (under involved) or familiar (over involved)
You are preparing a sterile field. You open the sterile commercial kit by pulling the outermost flap toward your body, followed by opening the remaining flaps. You touch only the outer edge of the sterile field with your hands. You add sterile items to the sterile field by placing them on the field at an angle and never allowing the wrapper to touch the field. You pour normal saline from a previously opened bottle in the patient's room into a sterile receptacle without splashing. Which action(s) in preparing a sterile field did you perform incorrectly?
Open the outermost flap and pouring out a sterile solution
Step 13a
Opened catheterization kit according to directions.
Step 17
Opened lubricant container and lubricated catheter - 1-2 inches for women and 5-7 inches for men.
13b
Opens the specimen container if a specimen is to be collected.
11b
Opens the sterile catheter kit and places on the bedside table without contaminating the inside of the container.
13a
Opens the ―stick‖ end of the packet of sterile antiseptic swabs.
Codeine, hydrocodone, oxycodone, morphine, hydromorpnone, fentanyl, methadone, tramadol, and meperidine are examples of what type of drug?
Opioid analgesics
11.
Organizes the work area:
Ox3
Oriented times three: Oriented to all 3- person, place and time
Clinical manifestations of what disease? -pain and stiffness in one or more joints (usually wgt bearing joints) -Joint enlargement (heberden's and Bouchard's nodes -Crepitus
Osteoarthritis
At the venous end of circulation plasma always moves where?
Out
Subcutaneous sites
Outer aspect of arm, anterior aspects of thigh, abdomen (two inches away from the umbilicus), upper gluteal areas, Scapular areas of upper back (last resort)
Of all of the physiologic needs, which one is most essential?
Oxygen
Sickle cell treatments:
Oxygen, Pain meds, fluid
PR
PER RECTUM
What is race?
Physical characteristics; skin, body, face, hair
Is the adaptation manifested by a drug class specific with drawl syndrome.
Physical dependence
How can I find info on medication
Physicians Desk Reference, Formulary, Drug package inserts, nursing drug bookd/cards, credible online references, pharmacists
Which of the following levels of basic human needs is more basic?
Physiologic
Step 22
Picked up catheter with gloved dominant hand 3-4 inches from catheter tip, holding catheter loosely coiled in palm of dominant hand (if appropriate) and placing distal end of catheter in urine tray receptacle or specimen cup (if appropriate).
12d
Picks up the fenestrated drape; allows it to unfold without touching other objects; places the hole over the perineum with the hole over the labia.
Petechia
Pin point hemorrhages: typical sign of liver dysfunction
20b
Pinched or stretched skin according to selected site with nondominant hand.
Step 20c
Pinched or stretched skin according to selected site with nondominant hand.
The nurse is reviewing with the surgical technician how to prepare a sterile field. Which of the following techniques are incorrect and should not be included in the review?
Place the drape so the top half is over the top half of the work surface
Which pulse is located behind the knee?
Popliteal
Step 9
Positioned patient comfortably with lower arm supported and instructed patient to breathe normally.
Step 9
Positioned patient: Male- supine position with thighs slightly abducted. Female - supine position with knees flexed
11c
Positions a plastic bag or other trash receptacle so that nurse does not have to reach across the sterile field (e.g., near patient's feet); or places a trash can on the floor beside the bed.
5.
Positions patient. Assists patient to a dorsal recumbent position (supine) (knees flexed, feet flat on the bed). Instructs patient to relax her thighs and let them rotate externally (if patient is able to cooperate). Alternatively, uses Sims' position (side-lying with upper leg flexed at hip).
During what operative state are our assessment skills crucial?
Postoperative
What is the term used after surgery? What is the nurses responsibility for this term?
Postoperative On going evaluation and stabilization of clients, prevention of post-op complications.
What is the major cation in the ICF?
Potassium
Which mineral is needed for heart function?
Potassium
Patient or caregiver is unable to perform dressing change
Provide additional teaching and support. Obtain services of home care agency as needed
intravenous route
Provides the most rapid effect. Most dangerous route because the drug is placed directly into the bloodstream, can't be recalled, and actions cannot be slowed.
P.A.S.S. stands for what?
Pull Aim Squeeze Sweep
Step 20a
Pulled protective cap from needle by pulling straight off.
20a
Pulled protective cap of needle off in a straight direction.
What are these things: 1. Diagnostic: exploratory laparotomy. 2. Curative: fibroid tumors-hysterectomy. 3. Restorative: hip replacement. 4. Palliative surgery makes the client more comfortable. Does not cure, ex. suprapubic catheter. 5. Cosmetic surgery reconstructs the skin and underlying structures, ex. scar revision.
Purpose of surgery
2 methods of nursing research?
Quantatative & Qualitative
Step 8
Raised bed to working height and lowered side rail on working side (as appropriate)
What kind of response would you expect with a parenteral medication?
Rapid
A person is on a fiber- and residue-restricted diet. The person can have the following except
Raw fruits and vegetables
Step 14
Read SpO2 on digital display when oximeter readout reached constant value and pulse display reached full strength during each cardiac cycle.
Step 22
Recorded assessment in nurses notes as appropriate.
Step 22
Recorded assessment on nursing notes as appropriate.
Step 20
Recorded findings in nurse's notes.
Step 21
Recorded medication on MAR.
How long does recovery take when given general anesthesia?
Recovery depends on type of agent, length of time client is anesthetized and if a reversal agent is used.
Ongoing evaluation and stabilization of clients to anticipate, prevent and treat complications after surgery. Usually located close to the surgical suite.
Recovery room AKA PACU.
health belief model?
Rosenstock. What people percieve to be true about themselves in relation to their health. Modify factors for health: demographics, sociopsychological and structural variables. 3 components of individual perception of disease threat: 1. perceived susceptibility to a disease; 2. perceived seriousness of disease; 3. perceived benefits of action.
What type of injection can a tuberculin syringe be used for?
SC injection
anaphylaxis
SEVERE ALLERGIC REACTION
What should progress notes contain?
SOAP - subjective data (what the patient states), objective data (what you have measured), assessment (the nursing diagnosis, plan (the nursing care plan).
SUB Q
SUBCUTANEOUS
SL
SUBLINGUAL
Vesicular sounds (lung)
Soft sounds. Longer in Inspiration than expiration.
What type of agents are used on the pt before the have a local or regional anesthesia?
Sedatives, opioid analgesics, or hypnotics.
If a pt has hypocalcemia what are they at risk for and what should you do to help prevent it?
Seizures and keep the environment stress free.
Step 18
Selected and inspected injection site using anatomical landmarks.
Step 18
Selected and inspected injections site using anatomical landmarks,
Step 9a
Selected correct type of safety syringe and needle size.
2.
Selects a straight catheter kit.
What is culture?
Shared system of beliefs, values and behavioral expectations that provides social structure for daily living.
The nurse is observing the patient's wife perform treatment of her husband's pressure ulcer. Which action, if made by the patient's wife, indicates that further instruction is needed?
She performs hand hygiene and removes the old dressing and begins to clean the ulcer with soap and water
Capillary refill
Should happen in less than 3 seconds. Check in Surgery, Injury, Cast.
What are the types of roles?
Sick role Self
Who describes Erik Eriksons "adolescence stage" to the "Genital Stage"?
Sigmund Freud
What is an example of a command you would ask a patient to assess for motor fx?
Simple commands, ask pt to move extremities.
What is the science of nursing?
Skilled application of knowledge to help others reach max health and quality of life
What electrolyte does not change very much?
Sodium
The nurse if preparing a sterile field. Which of the following would be considered contamination of the field?
Some of the sterile normal saline spills onto the sterile barrier; Non-sterile items are added to the sterile field; The nurse prepares the sterile field and leaves the room to get more sterile supplies
What is the difference between spirituality vs religion?
Spirituality is the
Step 21a female
Spread labia minora with thumb and index finger of nondominant hand to expose meatus; continued to hold throughout procedure.
What stage of inflammation is this? (Vascular) change in blood vessels (seconds to minutes) Phase I constriction Phase II hyperemia and edema (increased blood flow, plasma).
Stage I
What stage of inflammation is this? (cellular exudate hours after invasion) neutrophilia, pus.
Stage II
What stage of inflammation is this? (tissue repair and replacement)
Stage III
What is health?
State of complete physical, mental and social well being; not merely the absence of disease
the advantage of using a bladder scanner to assess uring volume is that is is noninvasive and therefore eliminates the risk of infection
State the advantages of using a bladder scanner to assess urine volume.
What type of procedure do you use for Parentera medications?
Sterile
You have a sterile urinary catheter and sterile gloves. Choose the remaining equipment you will need to insert a straight urethral catheter
Sterile cotton balls, antiseptic solution, Water soluble lubricant, sterile forceps
Surgical asepsis
Sterile technique: eliminate all microorganisms
Distribution systems
Stock supply, Individual Client supply, Unit dose, Automated medicine dispensing System
Which will not prevent the spread of infection when providing drinking water?
Store the ice scoop in the ice dispenser.
Step 17
Stored sensor in appropriate location.
Pregnancy Category C
Studies with animals have shown adverse reactions; no humans studies; given only after risk to the fetus has been considered
What type of medication gives you a longer absorption?
Sub q
What is the difference between intradermal and sub q?
Sub q goes between tissue Intradermal goes between dermis and epidermis
A person has diabetes. All food served is not eaten. What should you do?
Tell the nurse.
One evaluation measure of creating and maintaining a sterile field involves monitoring the patient for developing signs and symptoms of localized or systemic infection. Which of the following is a cause for concern?
Temp 102.5 F
OBRA requires the following for foods served in long-term care centers except
That food be prepared without seasoning
The nurse is assisting the NAP to remove a Foley catheter. The nurse should intervene if which of the following actions is noted
The NAP cleans the perineal area, hands the patient their call light and removes gloves
The NAP documents "Peri-care given" next to "Urinary Catheter" on a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. What is the best explanation of what the NAP did after application of clean gloves?
The NAP stabilized the catheter and washed the catheter with soap and water from where the catheter enters the meatus down 4 inches toward the drainage tubing.
In generics what is the same as the trade name?
The active ingredient
Where should you open the medications?
The bedside
The nurse is reviewing urinary catheter care with a newly hired NAP. Which statement made by the NAP indicates further instruction is needed?
The bedside drainage bag should only be emptied when it is full
Identify the reasons why a patient with an indwelling catheter may have less than 30 mL per hour of urine in the collection bag
The catheter has slipped out of the bladder; The patient is severely dehydrated; The patient's kidneys are damaged or injured
Therapeutic effect
The desired or intended effect of a particular medication.
Why is genetic counseling important for the cystic fibrosis family?
The disease is autosomal recessive in its genetic pattern
During change of shift report the nurse states that a patient has early renal failure and that your should be alert to this when administering medications. Why would this be a concern?
The kidneys assist in the detoxification of drug metabolites
Nutrition is
The many processes involved in ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of food and fluids by the body
A nurse is applying a wound V.A.C. dressing independently for the first time. What action, if made by the nurse, indicates that further instruction is needed in performing this procedure?
The nurse applies new gloves, irrigates the wound with normal saline, and then gently blots it dry. The nurse measures the wound, removes and discards gloves, and applies a new pair of gloves. The nurse cuts the foam approximately one-half inch smaller than the size of the wound and gently places the foam in the wound, avoiding any tunneled and undermined areas.
The nurse is preparing to set up a sterile field for a patient who is going to have a sterile dressing change. Which of the following assessment measures would be unnecessary at this time?
The nurse asks the patient if he has ambulated in the hall today
How can the nurse determine that negative pressure is being achieved with a wound V.A.C.?
The nurse can check for air leaks by listening with a stethoscope or by moving the hand around the edges of the wound while applying light pressure.
A nursing student is watching a nurse catheterize a female patient with an indwelling catheter. Which of the following, if it occurs, indicates a break in sterile technique?
The nurse inserts the urinary catheter, and when urine does not return, removes the catheter and makes a second attempt to locate the urethra with the same catheter; The nurse lubricates the catheter and places it back into the sterile tray when it recoils and touches the bed; After the nurse cleans the labia, the labia becomes slippery and closes as the nurse attempts to obtain a clear view of the urethra
The nursing instructor is reviewing the renal system and urinary catheterization with her students. Which statement, if made by a nursing student, indicates that further instruction is needed?
The nurse may use clean technique to insert an indwelling catheter
The nurse is caring for a patient after major abdominal surgery. Which of the following demonstrates correct understanding in regard to wound dehiscence?
The nurse should be alert for an increase in serosanguineous drainage from the wound
The nurse is teaching a patient how to empty his Hemovac drain. Which action of the patient indicates that further instruction is needed?
The patient empties the Hemovac drain, replaces the plug, and records the amount of drainage
The nurse is caring for a patient who had knee replacement surgery 5 days ago. The patient's knee appears red and is very warm to the touch. The patient requests pain medication. Which of the following would be a correct explanation of what the nurse is noticing?
The patient is demonstrating signs of postoperative wound infection
Which of the following indicates a reason for notifying the health care provider to get an order for removal of an indwelling catheter?
The patient's urine appears cloudy with a foul odor
Which of the following may indicate an increased risk for wound dehiscence?
There is an increase in serosanguineous drainage from the wound
Types of drug actions
Therepeutic effect, Side effects, Adverse effects, Toxic effects
Note
These are the steps to take to for a FEMALE. Determine if she is allergic to iodine or latex.
A patient had an indwelling catheter for 3 weeks. The patient had the catheter removed 3 hours ago and now complains of having to go to the bathroom frequently and that it is painful to void. Which instruction is appropriate for you to give the patient?
This is a normal occurrence after having a catheter in place for more than several days
Parenteral route
This route is outside of the GI tract, and is mostly through injections (IV, IM, SQ or SC).
Half Life
Time for excretion to lower the concentration by half
Serum half-life
Time needed for excretion processes to lower the serum drug concentration by half.
What is Peak?
Time to reach highest effective concentration
What type of damage can happen to the body from excessive inflammatory response?
Tissue
Protein is needed for
Tissue growth and repair
Why do you use the z track method?
To make sure the medication does not leak up into the subcutaneous tissue
Which of the following are functions of dressings?
To promote hemostais, Wound debridement, to prevent contamination
What is aspirate in a syringe?
To suction out part of the liquid. Aka pull back on syringe
Subjective data (aka symptoms)
Told to us by the patient
Is a state of adaptation in which exposure to a drug induces changes in its effect over time.
Tolerance
What does blood do when calcium levels are too high or too low?
Too high your blood can clot Too low you can bleed
What are some alternative methods of nutrition if a patient cannot eat?
Total parenteral nutrition, IV therapy, enteral tube feeding (nasogastric tube, gastrostomy tubes)
Left over food should be refrigerated within two hours
True
Refrigerated left over food should be eaten within 4 days
True
T/F - Healing by primary intention is expected when the edges of a clean surgical incision are sutured or stapled together, tissue loss is minimal or absent, and the wound is uncontaminated by microorganisms
True
T/F - Obtaining a urine sample from an indwelling catheter requires sterile technique
True
__________ is relying on someone without doubt or question.
Trust
Example of a tradename
Tylenol
Drug Deterioration Results
Unpredictable effect, Toxic
What is an allergic reaction?
Unpredictable response
What is nitrogenous waste?
Urea, uric acid, creatinine.
Identify prevention strategies for pressure ulcers
Use a moisture barrier ointment, applied after each incontinent episode; When the patient is in the side-lying position in bed, use the 30 degree lateral position; place patient on a pressure-reducing support surface; oral supplements should be instituted if the patient is found to be malnourished
Murmers
Use bell of steth to hear
The patient reports an allergy to latex. What alterations should be made in the patient's care?
Use latex-free or synthetic gloves when gloves are necessary; avoid items that contain latex in the care of the patient
Bar Code Medication Administration
Use of bar codes and a scanner and the EHR
What is polypharmacy?
Use of multiple medications by the client
What is self-prescribing?
Use of unprescribed drugs to treat a diagnosed or undiagnosed illness
Lung Auscultation
Use the diaphragm of stethoscope
What is another name for Hydroxizine?
Visterile
What part of the nurse's assessment do you observe with your eyes?
Visual
Which vitamin is needed for blood clotting?
Vitamin K
Labs on some one with HIV: what would there WBC be? what would there CD4+ be?
WBC=low CD4=low
What are the steps to follow after a procedure?
WHILHDA. Dispose of waste, wash hands, inform the client how the procedure went, lower bed, wash hands, document the procedure, report abnomalities.
9.
Washes the perineal area with soap and water; dries gently. While washing the perineal area, locates the urinary meatus.
Why do we do documentation?
We document because it is essential to the communication of health care about a patient between nurses.
Food labels contain the following information except
Weight of the item
General signs of lead poisoning include:
a. Anemia b. acute crampy abdominal pain c. vomiting d. constipation e. anorexia f. headache g. lethargy h. impaired growth
Children under age 2 with burns have a higher mortality rate because of :
a. Greater body surface area. b. Greater fluid volume (proportionate to body size). c. Less effective cardiovascular response to volume shifts.
Cause of diarrhea include:
a. Infections: bacterial, viral b. Malabsorption problems c. Inflammatory diseases d. dietary factors
3 cups
according to my pyramid, the recommended daily amount for milk and milk products is
6 ounces
according to my pyramid, the recommended daily amount of breads, cereals, rice and pasta is
two
according to my pyramid, the recommended daily amount of fruits is_______
2.5 servings
according to my pyramid, the recommended daily amount of vegetables is_____
5 1/2 ounces
according to my pyramid, what is the recommended daily amount of meats, fish, and poultry?
Local effects
act mainly at the site of application
Weber test: how
activate tuning fork and place in the center of head- should hear equally in both ears
Adaptation theory?
adjustment of living matter to other living things and environment
Standing or routine
administered until the dosage is changed or another medication is prescribed
Subcutaneous Route
administration of a drug into the subcutaneous or fatty layer of tissue.
Distribution
after absorption, occurs within the body to tissues, organs, and specific sites of action
contra
against
nutrition
all body processes relating to food
Plateau
point at which blood serum concentration is reached and maintained
Cystic fibrosis
an autosomal recessive disease that causes dysfunction of the exocrine glands
what are concepts?
an idea. abstract impressions organized into symbols of reality
Asthma
an inflammatory reactive airway disease that is often chronic
Idiosyncratic reaction
an unexpected reaction to a drug that is peculiar to the individual
List the signs and symptoms of iron deficiency.
anemia, pale conjunctiva, pale skin color, atrophy of papilae on tongue, brittle/ridged/spoon-shaped nails, and thyroid edema.
complete proteins
animals foods such as meats, fish, milk, cheeses, and eggs are the best source of_____
How can free radicals be reduced?
antioxidants- Viatmin A,C,E, carotenoids, zinc, selenium, and phytochemicals
Instead of pain drugs what can we do for the pt?
apply heat, cold pressure massage PT Vibration therapeutic touch
Drug incompatibilities
are drug interactions occurring when two or more drugs are mixed together that cause a chemical deterioration of the drug.
Persons with dysphagia
are fed according to the care plan
What is cultural conflict?
aware of diff - feel threatened - ridicule beliefs and traditions of others
What is knowledge?
awareness of the reality one acquires through learning/investigation
Adverse effect
bad effect, time to stop taking medication
Quantatative?
basic and applied research. aka NUMBERS
proteins
basic components of all body cells; animo acids make up with these essential nutrients.
Why is it very important to treat tonsillitis if related to streptococcus?
because of the risk of developing glomerulonephritis or rheumatic heart disease
ante
before
baso
blue
ambi
both
Which are not counted as liquid foods
butter, sauces, and melted cheese
How is the vacuum reestablished after emptying a drain such as a Jackson-Pratt drain or Hemovac?
by compressing the drain reservoir
independent variable?
cause or condition manipulated/identified to determine relationship of dependent variable
essential
chemical nutrients in food used to perform many body functions
To save on cost, the nurse may use clean gloves for changing the dressing on which of the following
chronic pressure ulcer
What is a normal side effect of morphine?
confusion
An infant is admitted with a diagnosis of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection . The type of transmission-based isolation precaution the nurse would set up would be: 1.) standard precautions 2.) droplet precautions 3.) contact precautions 4.) airborne infection isolation precautions
contact precautions
complete proteins
contain essential amino acids
body mass index(bmi)
correlation of body fat with weight in relation to height
What are the physical assessment findings for a child with asthma?
expiratory wheezing , rales, tight cough, and signs of altered blood gases
Partial or total separation of wound layers; patient states that it feels like something has given way is a sign of
dehiscence
Jung's theory
development continuation through life by searching, questioning, and setting goals that are consistent with the persons personality. search for true self. midlife crisis
instrument?
devices used to collect and record data. Rating scales, pencil/paper tests...
Age discrimination
different tx of older people simply bc of age
Ageism
disliking of aging people based on the belief that aging makes people unattractive, unintelligent, and unproductive. prejudice. based solely on age.
Facts about elderly
diverse, close contact with fam, independent living, low depression diagnosis, personality is the same, successfully cope with aging
Explain concept of gender roles
dominant gender in family makes decisions for others
de
down, from
8 rights
drug, dose, route, time, client, date(exp. date), allergies, documentation
Least irritating material
dry gauze
The nurse observes all wounds closely, particularly surgical wounds, in which the risk of hemorrhage is greatest
during the first 24 - 48 hours after surgery
soft-diet
easily digested food
When is a verbal order acceptable?
emergent situations
high level wellness model?
encourages nurse to care for total peron; involves functioning to one's max potential while maintaining balance and purposeful direction. Wellness= active state, oriented toward max potential of individual, regardelss of health. Process of being, belonging, becoming, and befitting.
Vastus Lateralis
hand below groin, hand above knee, inject between anterior and lateral thigh between thuimbs
Agent
environmental factor/stressor that must be present or absent for an illness to occur.
Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs is useful when planning and implementing nursing care as it provides a structure for:
establishing priorities of care
research?
examine carefully or search again; scientific inquiry = process using observable and verifiable info
What is deductive reasoning
examining a general idea, then considering specific actions/ideas
What is misuse?
example using pain killers when not necessary
Free radical theory
excessive accumulation of free radicals cause/contribute to physiologic changes of aging and arthritis, circ diseases, diabetes and atherosclerosis
What re some examples of of medications given opthalmically?
eye drops, prednisone,
Environment
factors external to host make illness more/less likely; anything that influences health: physical, social, biologic &cultural
what risk factors cannot be changed?
family history of cancer, age, genetics..
Gerontophobia
fear of aging and refusing to accept older adults into society
What is culture shock?
feelings person experiences when placed in a diff culture
cellulose
fibrous, indigestible form of plant carbohydrate is called ____
What are some examples of medications given nasally?
flonase
A patient with lung cancer received radiation therapy to reduce the size of the tumor prior to a lobectomy (surgical removal of part of the lung). The patient is now being seen on home health services for packing of an abnormal passage between the patient's chest cavity and an opening on the patient's back. The nurse is aware the patient is at increased risk for:
fluid and electrolyte imbalance
Subacute care facilities
for ppl with acute illness, injury or exacerbation of a disease process
which sign or symptom observed in a sleeping 2-year-old child immediately after a tonsillectomy necessitates reporting and follow-up care? 1.) pulse of 110 beats/min 2.) a blood pressure of 96/64 mm Hg 3.) nausea 4.) frequent swallowing
frequent swallowing
Qualitative?
gain insight by discovering meanings. aka WORDS
What are you looking at in regards to the needle?
gauge length
Erikson's theory
generativity vs stagnation integrity vs. despair
Age cohort
group of people born within a specified time period ex. Baby boomers
diabetic diets
grouping of foods by types, nutrients and calorie count
A health care provider is preparing to examine the throat of a child diagnosed with acute epiglottis. A priority nursing responsibility would be to? 1.) have a tracheotomy set at the bedside 2.) immobilize the child's head 3.) restrain the child's arms 4.) have oxygen available
have a tracheotomy set at the bedside
Children with chronic otitis media are at risk for developing what problem?
hearing loss
When some one is dehydrated what 2 organs will take over as a compensatory mechanism?
heart it pumps faster so HR will increase, person may develop CHF. and kidneys but they usually take days to respond.
If a pt has diarrhea and they are not absorbing potassium what type of monitor do you need to put them on?
heart monitor
Hypotension, tachycardia, and hematoma formation is a sign of
hemorrhage
name some settings for nursing care:
homes, schools, hospitals, clinics
Diagnosis-related group (DRG)
hospital paid set amt based on the pt's admitting diagnosis
two
how many lumens does a foley cath have?
one
how many lumens does a straight cath have?
three
how many lumens foley cath have that is used for irrigation?
Basic care facilities
hygiene, ambulation, nutrition, elimination, other basic needs
Allergic reaction
hypersensitivity reaction to a particular allergen
When pt has hyperphosphatemia what other electrolyte entails the management of?
hypocalcemia
One of the risks of dehydration is decreased cardiac output the HR will increase, what does this put you at risk for?
hypovolemic shock
A patient is to go home with a Jackson-Pratt drain. Which of the following statements, if made by the patient, indicates further teaching is required?
if drainage suddenly stops, it means the drain is ready to be removed
wait, it may be that the lubrication has temporarily clogged it.
if there is a delay in urine coming out of a male patients catheterization what should you do?
Immunologic theory
immune system weakens over time making an aging person more susceptible to disease. autoimmune diseases/allergies seen with aging
What is airlock?
leaving air in the syringe so that it will be the last thing injected into the skin. creating an airlock inside the skin
B-Cells mature where?
in the bursa
T-Cells mature where?
in the thymus
What is lactase deficiency and lactose intolerance and in what race of people is this disorder found?
inability to digest lactose; AA and Hispanics
What is a cohabitating family?
individuals living together (unmarried adults), group marriages
Which is a priority nursing diagnosis in a child admitted with acute asthma? 1.) risk for infection 2.) imbalanced nutrition 3.) ineffective breathing pattern 4.) disturbed body image
ineffective breathing pattern
Increase white blood cell count, fever, and purulent drainage is a sign of
infection
Otitis media
inflammatory disorder of the middle ear
intramuscular route
injected into the muscle - most common muscles are ventrogluteal (butt), dorsogluteal (hip), deltoid (upper arm), and vastus lateralis ( leg...pediatric)
how do you apply opthalmic medications?
inner to outer canthus
minerals
inorganic elements found in all body tissues
Dehydration
is a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. Fluid output exceeds intake.
copper
is a mineral found in liver, organ meats, nuts, and legumes that is essential for the use of iron and is a component of enzymes
chlorine
is a mineral found in salt, meat, milk, and eggs that regulates fluid balance and is essential for the formation of hydrochloric acid
iodine
is a mineral found in saltwater fish and iodized salt that is needed for the formation of hormones in the thyroid gland.
Explain medical asepsis?
is the cleaning of medical equipment and keeping the situation/procedure as clean as possible
What is atrophy?
is the deterioration of cells or skin
calcium
is the mineral found in milk, and cheese, that helps develop and maintain bones, and teeth, and it maintains normal heart, and muscle action.
sodium
is the mineral found in salt, meat, fish, poultry, and milk that maintains fluids balance and regulates muscles and nerves
vitamin k
is the vitamin found in spinach, kale, cabbage, liver, and cereals that is essential for normal blood clotting
vitamin d
is the vitamin found in sunshine, fatty fish, egg yolk, and liver that is essential for growth and the regulation of calcium and phosphorous
Emotional abuse
isolating, ignoring, or depersonalizing older adults
What is a negative side effect of promethazine?
it irritates the tissue
How can a nurse BEST evaluate the adequacy of fluid replacement in children?
monitor urine ouput
Community-based residential facility (CBRF)
monthly fee, room and board, help with ADLs, meds, yearly med exams, info and referrals, leisure activies and rec programs
What is dysphagia?
language disorder marked by deficiency in the generation of speech, and sometimes also in its comprehension, due to brain disease or damage.
Life-lease or life-contract facilities
large initial investment and substantial monthly rent/service fees. guarenteed residence for life then the apt goes back to the owners of facility
Is intramuscular more or less irritating to medicine?
less sensitive to irritating medicine
What is the onset of Rapid insulin?
less than 15 minutes
bio
life
The nurse does not agree with the patient's decision for a DNR. The nurse should examine her/his own _____________.
moral reasoning
What is an acute illness? examles
rapid onset of symptoms, lasts only a short amt of time, often non life threatening. common cold, diarrhea; pneumonia; appendicitis.
Reye's syndome affects the: 1.) stomach and the intestine 2.) islet of Langerhans 3.) Liver and the brain 4.) heart and the blood vessels
liver and the brain
Identify food sources for vitamin A.
liver, sweet potatoes, carrots, spinach, peaches, and apricots.
Host
living organism capable of being infected/affected by an agent. Influenced by family history, age & health habits.
How should a parent be instructed to "childproof" a house?
lock all cabinets, safely store all toxic household items in locked cabinets, and examine the house from the child's point of view.
What is aphasia?
loss of ability to understand and express speech, caused by brain damage
anorexia
loss of appetite
List the laboratory findings that can be expected in a dehydrated child.
loss of bicarbonate/decreased serum pH, loss of sodium (hyponatremia), loss of potassium (hypokalemia), elevated Hct, and elevated BUN.
What is the most significant issue that aging parents and their kids face?
loss of independence
Identify the functions of dressings
maintaining a moist environment, control of bleeding and drainage, protection from outside contaminants and further tissue injury, increased patient comfort
List seven signs of respiratory distress in a pediatric client.
restlessness, tachycardia, tachypnea, diaphoresis, flaring nostrils, retractions, and grunting
protein diets
restrict or add protein
Describe the care of a child in a mist tent.
monitor child's temperature, keep tent edges tucked in, keep clothing dry, assess child's respiratory status, look at child inside tent
obesity
more than 20 percent over recommended body weight
fats
most concentrated form of energy
Supplemental Medicaid (Title 19)
must meet finance req. have assets?= dont qualify.
An abdominal S-Shaped curvature of the spine seen in school-aged children is: 1.) sclerosis 2.) sciatica 3.) scabies 4.) scoliosis
scoliosis
List health problems following crusades:
overcrowding and related stress, poor ventiliation, poor heating and cooling, poor sanitation, poor water supply
What nutritional support should be provided for the child with cystic fibrosis?
pancreatic enzyme replacement, fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) and a moderate-to-low-carbohydrate, high protein, moderate-fat diet
What regulates our calcium?
parathyroid hormone
Absorption
passage of medication molecules into the blood from the site of administration
culture of poverty?
passed down from generation - older, migrant workers, welfare...
What is disease?
pathologic change in the structure or function of the body or mind
What are the values of the dominant group?
personal space, time, respect, food/nutrition, family, gender, religion, $, language, housing (thinness, beauty, technology).
Living will
persons wishes to die naturally if he.she develops illness or receives injury that cant be cured
human dimensions affect health & illness (physical, emotional, intellectual, environ, sociocultural, spiritual)
physical - genetics, age, developmental level, race, gender emotional - how mind affects body function and responds to body conditions intellectual - cognitive abilities, educational background and past experiences environ _ housing, sanitation, climate, pollution, of air, food and water sociocultural - econ level, lifestyle, family culture spiritual - beliefs and values
digestion
physical and chemical breakdown of food prior to absorption
factors that influence distribution
physical and chemical properties of the medication, physiology of the person taking it (circulation, membrane permeability, protein binding)
Physical abuse
physical pain or injury
What gives you edema?
plasma
Parts of syringe
plunger, barrel, tip, hub, shaft, bevel
List the signs and symptoms of dehydration in an infant.
poor skin turgor, absence of tears, dry mucous membranes, weight loss, depressed fontanel and decreased urinary output.
sample?
population studied
Drainage system is empty although wound drainage is present
position the tubing to enhance gravity flow and eliminate kinks or pressure on the tubing. Gently "milk" the tubing to release any clots that may block tubing
If an ng tube is in the pt what electrolyte should be infusing b/c the tube is sucking it out?
potassium
applied research?
practical research = directly influence/improve clinical practice. always useful
Medicare Part D
prescription drug coverage, voluntary. drugs distributed through local pharms and admined by wide variety of private insurance plans
Myths about elderly
pretty much alike, alone and lonely, sick frail and dependent, cognitively impaired, depressed, difficult and rigid, cant cope with aging
The layer of dressing in contact with the wound
primary dressing
Independent or assisted living centers
private apts bought/rented. have community rooms, swimming, lounges, mini grocery stores, greenhouses, and transportation
evidence based practice?
problem solving approach to making clinical decisions using best evidence available.
metabolism
process in which nutrients are used by the body
What is ethnicity?
sense of identification with a collective group (common heritage)
incomplete proteins.
proteins that contain some of the nine essential amino acids and any of the remaining thirteen amino acids are called _____
Normal pulse & respiratory rate for a child 1 to 11 months
pulse 100 - 150 respiratory 25 - 35
Normal pulse & respiratory rate for a newborn
pulse 100 - 200 respiratory 30 - 60
Normal pulse & respiratory rate for a child 10 to 16 years (adolescent)
pulse 60 - 90 respiratory 16 - 20
Normal pulse & respiratory rate for a child 6 to 10 years (school age)
pulse 70 - 110 respiratory 18 - 22
Normal pulse & respiratory rate for a child 3 t0 5 years (preschooler)
pulse 80 - 120 respiratory 20 - 25
Normal pulse & respiratory rate for a child 1 to 3 years (toddler)
pulse 80 - 130 respiratory 20 - 30
basic research?
pure/lab research, not always useful
Thick, yellow, green, tan, or brown
purulent
Pale, red, watery
serosanguineous
basal metabolic rate(bmr)
rate at which uses of body energy just for tissue maintenance
Clear, watery plasma
serous
What is sickle cell anemia and in what race is it found?
red blood cells form crescent shape, deliver less Oxygen; AA
Financial abuse
resources stolen/misused by a person whom the older adult trusts
When the is an over dose of local or regional anesthesia what are the signs to look for?
respiratory depression and sedation
What is illness?
response of a person to the disease; abnormal process in which person's level of functioning is changed when compared w/ a previous level.
Cardinal signs of respiratory distress in children
restlessness, increased respiratory rate, increased pulse rate, diaphoresis
Describe the purpose of bronchodilators.
reverse bronchospasm
What is inductive reasoning?
reverse process - building from specific ideas/actions to conclusions about general ideas
peristalsis
rhythmic, wavelike motion of digestive muscles to move food to digestive tract
What r effects on family?
role change, stress, economic probs, decreased social interaction, anxiety, fear, avoidance, blame
Nursing homes or extended care facilities
room & board, personal care, med and nursing sevices. licensed by states and regulated by state and feds.
Factors that influence absorption
route of administration, ability to dissolve, blood flow to site of administration, body surface area, lipid solubility of medication
What are types of knowledge?
science, philosophy, process
What is morphine used as?
sedative
auto
self
How do you develop cultural awareness?
self examination, biases, feeling toward others
Epiglottitis
severe, life-threatening infection of the epiglottis
where are sharps disposed of?
sharps container
Trachea sounds
should sound the same at inhalation and expiration
Government subsidized housing
simple apts w/o special services. may have access to nursing clinics or special transportation. wait list 1-2 yr
Aspiration prevention
sitting position, side-lying position, assess swallowing ability, single pill administration, crushing meds and moxing with pudding/applesauce
Skilled care facilities
skill nursing care on the reg. admin of meds, skilled txs or procedures. speech, physical, occupational and respiratory therapists
Buck's extension is an example of: 1.) skin traction 2.) skeletal traction 3.) balanced traction 4.) Bryant's Traction
skin traction
Topical
skin, transdermal, opthalmic, ears, nasal, vaginal
brady
slow
polyunsaturated fats
soft or oil at room temperature
saturated fats
solid at room temperature
Types of drug orders in acute settings
standing or routine, single (one-time), Now, prn, STAT, prescriptions
wellness
state of good health with optimum body function
nutritional status
state of one's nutrition
malnutrition
state of poor nutrition
hypothesis?
statement of relationships b/w DV & IV that researcher expects to find
cholesterol
sterol lipid
Duration of action
the length of time the concentration of a drug in the blood or tissues is sufficient to elicit a response
anorexia
the loss of appetite
carbohydrates
the major source of human energy comes from what group of essential nutrients?;starches and sugars
Peak concentration
the maximum amount of the drug before it becomes toxic and not therpeutic.
Word "nurse" originated from the Latin word "nutix" which means?
to nourish
Why are bowel or intestinal preperation performed b/f surgery?
to prevent injury to the colon and to reduce the number of intestinal bacteria. An enema or laxative may be ordered by the physician.
The patient asks the nurse what the purpose is for Hemovac drain. The nurse's best response is
to provide constant suction to remove and collect drainage from your wound to help it heal
Why does a wound bed need to stay moist?
to support healing by enabling granulation tissue to grow
chlorasept
what is the alternative to iodine if the patient is allergic to it?
Side effect
what might happen it is troublesome but okay
Vision
top number= how far away you are to see bottom number= distance the normal eye can see
What is a blended family?
traditional but bringing in children from other relationship
Durable power of attorney
transfers authority to make health care decisions to another person when he/she cant make decisions themselves
bi
two
di
two
Deltoid Intramuscular site
two or three fingers below acromion process, give in biggest part of muscle
An enlarge prostate could cause the nurse to be
unable to advance catheter into the bladder
Toxic effect
undesirable drug effect that implies drug poisoning, can be very harmful or life threatening
aniso
unequal
kilocalorie
unit to measure energy value of good
idiosyncratic response
unpredictable and unexplained drug reaction
What position does the child with epiglottitis assume?
upright, sitting with chin out and tongue protruding ("tripod" position)
Inhalation
use of hand-held inhalers, Metered dose inhalers, dry powder inhalers, spacer, wait time between inhalers
calories controlled diet
used to reduce or increase calorie intake
dependent variable?
variable studied, determined as a result of study
Food and drug interaction
varies with meds, interactions can potentiate or decrease medications action, herbal interactions
Is intramuscular tissue vascular or avascular?
vascular
Therapeutic effect
what should happen
water soluble
vitamins are not normally stored in the body, and they are easily destroyed by cooking, air, and light.
Name S&S of inflammation
warmth redness swelling pain decreased function
Pharmacokinics
what the body does to the drug
Now
when a medication is needed right away but not STAT
overweight
weight 15-20 percent above recommended weight
underweight
weight up to 15% below desired weight
What measurements reflect present nutritional status?
weight, skinfold thickness, and arm circumference.
removal of indwelling catheter requires a MD order. CHECK THE ORDER. bring: 1) 10mL syringe (to deflate the cath) 2) clean towel, 3) clean gloves, 4) puritan hat to measure urine.
what do you need to gather for removal of an indwelling catheter (NUR*101)?
When should wound drainage be cultured?
when there is a change in color amount or odor of drainage
The nurse is reinforcing teaching concerning the use of a cromolyn sodium inhaler for a 10-year-old with asthma. Which would be an accurate concept to emphasize? 1.) you should use the inhaled whenever you feel some difficulty in breathing 2.) you should use the inhaler between meals 3.) you should use the inhaler regularly every day even if you are symptom free 4.) you can discontinue using the inhaler when you are feeling stronger
you should use the inhaler regularly every day even if you are symptom free
Which food group contains the most cholesterol?
Protein foods
3.
Provides good lighting; takes a procedure lamp to the bedside if necessary.
Step 14
Put on sterile gloves.
The nurse is assessing the patient's condom catheter. Which of the following most likely indicates the condom catheter should be removed?
Redness and/ or excoriation of the penis
religious
food habits can be based on cultural or ______ befiefs
fat-restricted diets
food high in fat are to be avoided
sodium-restricted diets
food high in sodium are limited
Developmental theory?
orderly and predictable growth and development, Eric Ericsson and Maslow
vitamins
organic compounds essential to life
A patient asks the nurse why the Montgomery ties are being used instead of regular tape. The nurse's best response is:
"Montgomery ties avoid frequent removal of tape, which is irritating to the skin during dressing changes."
The nurse is instructing a patient on how to change a transparent dressing. Which statement, if made by the nurse, requires correction?
"You will want to remove your gloves to prevent the transparent dressing from sticking to them. Remove the paper backing of the transparent dressing and firmly stretch it over the wound to prevent wrinkling."
antioxidants
organic molecules protecting the body from free radicals
feminization of poverty?
# of female households at poverty level - unmarried mothers, divorce, abandonment, abortion
7. Alt
(Alternately: Sims Position) I drape a blanket so her rectal area is covered.
5. Alt
(Alternatively: Sims Position) female is lying on her side, with upper legs flexed at hip, and upper leg's knee is also on the bed, crossing the lower one.
16.
(Container placement) maintaining sterility, place urine collection container between thighs and 4 inches from meatus.
19.
(Continue Insertion) until urine flows (about 2 to 3 inches), then insert another 1 to 2 inches.
Where should the injection occur in the abdomen?
1-2 inches away from th umnilicus
When does the child sit unsupported?
8 months
Prescription
A written order from a doctor for a specific medicine.
Vitamin D
Absorbing and metablolizing calcium and phosphorus, healthy bones
Name a potassium sparing diuretic?
Aldactone
12.
Applies sterile drape(s) and underpad.
Personal space?
Area around person regarded as part of person
23.
(Dominent hand collects specimen) if needed. Place specimen container into urine flow, then cap, maintaining sterility.
12. D
(Drape Fenestrated Drape) so that the hole is over her perineum / labia.
Because the elderly has fewer B-lymphocytes what does this increase the chances of?
Bacterial infections
Vitamin K
Blood clotting
Where does b and t cells originate from?
Bone marrow
1. Another term for human diversity is: a. Independence b. Social autonomy c. Cultural diversity d. Existentialism
C. Cultural diversity
Roman numeral for 500
D
8.
Dons clean procedure gloves.
Which nutrient is needed for tissue growth and repair?
Protein
Step 8
Removed IV site dressing, stabilizing IV device.
Roman numeral for 10
X or x
18.
(Deep Breaths, Bear Down) It helps relax the patient if she takes slow deep breaths. It also helps once the catheter tip is pressing against her bladder sphincter, to "Bear Down" (try to void).
Excretion
the bodily process of discharging waste matter
ad
toward
15.
(Discard Cotton Balls) in such a way as they do not cross the sterile field.
14. A
(Cleanse Patient) non-dominant hand above labia, use my thumb and forefinger to spread patient's labia, pulling up to expose the urinary meatus.
27.
(Cleanse and Dry) the patient's perineal area, since the betadine irritates skin.
14. G
(Cleansing Order): first wipe outside far labium majus, then outside of near labium majus, then inside far labium, then inside near labium, then directly down center over the meatus.
25.
(Discard) the catheter according to agency policy.
7.
(Drapes Patient) If patient is in the dorsal recumbent position, I fold a blanket into a diamond shape; wrapping the corners around legs, and anchor them under her feet; and I fold the upper corner down over her perineum area.
14. B
(I Hold this position firmly throughout procedure.)
14. C
(If labia slips, I change gloves and start over.)
20.
(If resistance, remove, don't force in.)
Step 13d
(If underpad is first item in kite) placed the pad under the patient, plastic side down, without unnecessary contamination.
11. B
(Open Kit) I open up the sterile catheter kit in such a way as to not contaminate the sterile field.
13. E
(Open Lubricant) package, and slide 1-to-2 inches of the catheter into it.
13. C
(Open specimen container) if specimen is to be collected.
13. A
(Organize Kit) pouring antiseptic over cotton balls, maintaining sterility. (Some kits come with Swabs.)
11. A
(Organize Work Area) I put the over-bed table within easy reach.
14. D
(Pick up cotton ball) with forceps, and clean up perineal area without touching anything else.
13. B
(Place forceps) near the cotton balls. (Omit if you have Swabs.)
12. B
(Place waterproof under-pad) between the patients legs, shiny side down, while only touching the outer one inch.
5.
(Position Patient) Assist: Dorsal Recumbent Position . . . female is flat on her back, with knees bend, legs apart, and feet flat on the bed.
12. C
(Put on sterile gloves) while not touching anything else.
10.
(Remove Gloves & Wash Hands)
13. D
(Remove Un-needed's) from Kit / field, such as specimen container, etc.
12. A
(Remove waterproof under-pad) from the kit before gloving . . . without touching anything else.
24.
(Remove) the catheter when urine flow ends, by pinching the tube closed, and slowing pull it out.
30.
(Reposition Patient) for comfort and safety.
4.
(Right Handed, Right Side) If I am right-handed, I will position myself on the patient's right side. Opposite for left-handed.
21.
(Start over) with a new sterile catheter if the tip goes inside the vagina, or touches anything non-sterile before going into the meatus.
2.
(Syringe with Lube) I select a catheter kit that comes with a syringe pre-filled with lubricant.
26.
(Take urine container) and set it aside to be emptied later.
28.
(Throw everything out according to agency policy.)
29.
(Throw out gloves, wash hands.)
11. C
(Trash) I position a plastic bag on the bed, or trash can at my feet, so that I don't cross the sterile field when throwing out the used cotton balls, etc.
9.
(Wash & Dry & Locate) I wash the perineal area with soap and water, dry gently, and while washing I locate the urinary meatus.
14. F
(Wipe from clitoris to anus.)
Signs and symptoms of asthma
- airway becomes edematous - airway becomes congested with mucus - smooth muscles of bronchi and bronchioles constrict - air trapping occurs in the alveoli
Signs and symptoms of otitis media
- fever, pain, infant may pull at ear - enlarged lymph nodes - discharge from ear (if drum is ruptured) - upper respiratory symptoms - vomiting, diarrhea
Signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis
- history of upper respiratory symptoms - irritable, distressed infant - paroxysmal coughing - poor eating - nasal congestion - nasal flaring - prolonged expiratory phase of respiration - wheezing; rales can be ausculated - deteriorating condition that is often indicated by shallow, rapid respirations
Tonsillitis
- inflammation of the tonsils - may be viral or bacterial - may be related to streptococcus infection
Signs and symptoms of tonsillitis
- sore throat - fever - enlarged tonsils (may have purulent discharge on tonsils) - breathing may be obstructed (tonsils touching, called "kissing tonsils")
Signs and symptoms of epiglottitis
- sudden onset - restlessness - high fever - sore throat, dysphagia - drooling - muffled voice - child assumes upright sitting position with chin out and tongue protruding ("tripod" position)
Signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis
- tenacious mucus production obstructs vital structures - lung insufficiency (most critical problem) - pancreatic insufficiency - increased loss of sodium and chloride in sweat
Bacteria, Spores, Viruses, Fungi//Toxic//< 1%//
-2% Chlorhexidine Gluconate - Kills? Affective pre-op skin antiseptic and surgical scrub _________ to granulation tissue When using in an infected wound use at ________ strength
Place first sterile glove on dominant hand by grabbing turned down part of the cuff//the inside of glove//Slip sterile gloved hand underneath second cuff//after both gloves are on//above the waist//
-Applying Sterile Gloves- How should you put a sterile glove first glove on? -Touch only ____________ with unsterile hand Then what should you do with your already sterile gloved hand? When can you adjust fit? -Touch only sterile part of gloves Maintain gloved hands _______________.
What should you consider when Mixing medications?
-Compatability of the medications
What are some Idiosyncratic reactions?
-Over or under reaction to medication -synergism -Antagonism -Drug incompatability
Name things that you would teach the pt for postoperative.
-Breathing excerises, incentive spirometry, coughing and splinting, leg procedures and exercises, antiembolism stockings, and elastic wraps, early ambulation, and rang of motion exercises.
Least Severe, Reddened area (sunburn)//Blisters form//Skin is charred or no existent, Severe fluid loss, nerve destruction, Requires debridement and grafting//
-Burns- Observation and determination of severity: 1st Degree? 2nd Degree? 3rd Degree?
What are the manifestations of hypermagnesemia?
-Cardiac -CNS -Neuromuscular
What symptoms do you get with hypophosphatemia?
-Cardiovascular -Musculoskeletal (acute muscle breakdown, or rhabdomyolyis) -CNS
What treatment can they use for hypercalcemia?
-Dialysis
Serum from the body, Pale yellow, Watery, Fluid blister-like//Bloody//Blood and serum, Red-pink//Pus, Pale yellow to green, White blood cells, Infection
-Drainage- Serous? Sanguinous? Serosanginous? Purulent?
Check order//Medicate and position PRN//Gather supplies, cut tape//Move garbage can close to bed//Wash hands//Apply clean gloves//Remove old dressing//Assess wound; Size, shape, type, drainage etc.//Remove dirty gloves//Wash hands//Open all bottles and packages//Date, time and initial dressing//Don gloves; sterile or clean//Cleanse wound//Dry surrounding skin//Dress wound//Remove dirty gloves//Wash hands//Document//
-Dressing Change Procedure- GO!
...
-Dressing Materials- Gauze ABD Pads Hydrocolloids Non Stick Dressings Transparent films Skin Barriers Montgomery Straps Tape Cleansing Solutions Drains Other dressing materials: -Hydrogels -Alginate -Collagens -Composites -Contact layers Silver dressings
little to no drainage//introduction of bacteria//discomfort//abrasion, non-draining post-op incisions//Moisten with SNS to reduce trauma when removing dressing if it is adhered to the wound//
-Dry Sterile Dressing- Wound with ____________ Protects wound from injury Prevents _____________ Reduces ____________ Speeds healing Used on _____________________ If dressing is adhered to wound?
Can be used sterile or clean// primary dressing//Iodoform, Vaseline, Xeroform (Vaseline impregnated)//absorb drainage//packing or wrapping wounds//extremities and head//
-Gauze Pads- 2x2s, 3x3s, 4x4s Folded gauze -Sterile or clean? -Used as a _________; next to the wound Special types? Fluffed and Rolled Gauze -Large pieces of layered gauze -Loosely folded to _____________ -Used for ________________ -Used to secure dressings on ________________.
Duoderm//Autolytic debriding//Stage I & II//high friction areas//clean, shallow//one week//
-Hydrocolloid dressings- Example? Soft wafer that can be cut to desired shape and size Absorbs small amounts of drainage ______________ of necrotic wounds Used on __________ pressure sores Protects ________________ Maintains moist environment for healing ____________ wounds Can remain in place up to ___________ if kept clean and dry
What are some characteristics of Parenteral medications?
-Invasive -Aseptic -Sterile procedure -Requires precise calculation of dosage -Requires proper site identification -Requires careful technique -Provides rapid client response
No antibacterial//exudates//Moisturizes//cleanse wounds//Sterile Normal Saline (SNS), Lactated Ringer's (LR)
-Isotonic Solutions- ____________ action Removes ___________ ___________ wound surfaces Commonly used to _______________ Types?
-Redness, erythema, Swelling, edema, Heat, warmth, Pain, Altered function//Color, Amount, Odor
-Just a Reminder- Signs and symptoms of infection? When assessing exudate what should you note?
Risk for Infection//Impaired Skin Integrity//Pain//Impaired Tissue Integrity//Body Image Disturbance//Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirement
-Nursing Diagnoses?
What should you assess Post administration?
-Pain level -Blood value -Vital signs -side effects
HOw do you check to see if the medicine is working post administration after an IM injection?
-Pain level -Blood values -Vital signs -side effects/ adverse reaction
Grasp outer surface with gloved hand//Placing it in the palm of your other gloved hand//under remaining glove//
-Removing Sterile Gloves- What should you do first? Roll off first glove -How? Place ungloved hand ________________ on thumb side Slide off remaining glove, cover first glove Discard both in balled condition
What are some IM injection guidelines?
-Rotate sites -Avoid tender and bruised ares -Aspirate and massage -Z Track with highly irritating solutions
stool, urine, and drainage//wafer, paste, or powder//an anchor for tape//
-Skin Barriers- Used to protect skin from _______________ Comes in _________,_______,________ Can be used as _____________ to prevent skin irritation
Non blanchable erythema of intact skin Patient may complain of pain or itching at site Reversible if pressure is relieved but can become stage 2 in less than a week
-Stage 1?
Partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis Ulcer is superficial Looks like an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater Can heal in weeks if covered and treated
-Stage 2?
Full-thickness skin loss involving damaged or necrosis of SQ tissue that may extend down to, but not through underlying fascia Ulcer appears as a deep crater Takes months to heal with treatment Always a stage 3
-Stage 3?
Full-thickness skin loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, black eschar, damage to the muscle, bone or supporting structures (tendons, etc) Takes a year or longer to heal with treatment Always a stage 4 Want to be looking for beefy red tissue, tiny granulation dots; if its bleeding it has good circulation
-Stage 4?
Paper (thin/tears easily; direct skin contact), Silk (sturdy; used for attaching tubes, anchoring foley's; limit putting directly on skin), Plastic (some dressing change kits), Adhesive//Used to approximate incisions of lacerations not requiring stitches//
-Tape- Various widths Variety of materials such as??? Steri-strips are used to?
If some one has come bk from surgery and had anesthesia what are the two high risk patients the nurse should really look out for?
-Those with liver and kidney disease.
superficial//skin protection//visualization of site//autolytic debridement//Moisture/Vapor Permeable//OpSite, Tegaderm//
-Transparent- To manage ___________ wounds Provide _____________ Allows ______________ -IV site Allows ______________ of small wound when removed _________________: -Allows gas to pass through -Used over black eschar or necrotic debris Example?
What are some of the Medication Administration Essentials?
-Triple check -Three Checks - six rights -clients rights -pre administration assessment -post administration assessment
Full-thickness tissue loss Wound covered by slough or eschar Must be debrided to remove slough or eschar before it can be staged
-Unstageable?
How should you minimize discomfort?
-Use smallest suitable needle -Position client comfortably -Select proper site -Stabilize the skin -Hold the syringe steady -Insert the needle quickly and smoothly -Inject the medication slowly
How will you minimize discomfort with injections?
-Use smallest suitable needle -patient client comfortably -Select proper site -Stabilize the skin -Hold the syringe stedy -INsert the needle quickly and smoothly -inject the medication slowly
How do you determine the guage and length of the needle to be used?
-Weight and muscle mass -age -injection site -medication viscosity -Residual effects of the medication
Epithelialization; growth of new tissue//Helps with collagen production/CT, capillary walls//Creation of new tissue/neogenesis; burn patients//Minerals, Calories//Albumin//< 3.5//hydrations//
-Wound Assessment Includes Nutrition- Vitamin A? Vitamin C? Protein? Also important? Check ___________ levels -_____g/dL = Nutritional Deficit Assess __________
What do parenteral medications require?
-aseptic technique -Sterile procedure -Precise calculation of dosage -Proper site identification -Careful technique
What are some examples of topicals?
-enema -suppository -ointments -nitroglycerine -birthe control patch
What is the treatment for Osteoarthritis?
-minimize inflammation but preserve ROM (rest and exercise the joint) -Analgesics and anti-inflammatory drugs. ex. celebrex -surgery (joint replacement)
Burns are the second leading cause of accidental death in children under 15 years (second only to automobile accidents).
...
Children with German measles pose a serious threat to all their unborn siblings.
...
Diarrhea can be a serious or FATAL illness, especially in infancy.
...
Iron deficiency occurs most often in children 12 to 36 months old, adolescent females, and females during their childbearing years.
...
Poisoning particularly by ingestion, such as lead and home remedies, are frequent cause of childhood injury or illness.
...
School-age children are in Erikson's stage of industry, meaning they like to do and accomplish things. Peers are also becoming important for this age child.
...
Temper tantrums are common in the toddler, i.e., considered "normal" behavior.
...
Use of syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics
...
Which of the following patients have risk factors for developing a wound infection?
1)An 80 y/o M who has a burn 2)A 17 y/o patient who has a metal fragment lodged in his thigh 3)A patient receiving chemotherapy who has a surgical incision 4)A patient with peripheral vascular disease and an ulcer on the heel
4 Levels Of Consciousness (LOC)
1) Alert 2) Lethargic 3) Stuporous/semi-comatose (response only from pain) 4) Comatose (no response whatsoever)
What is the procedure for IM injections?
1) Apply clean gloves 2) Select a healthy tissue site 3) Clean skin with alcohol swab 4) Spread skin using non-dominant hand 5) Insert needle quickly at a 90 degree angle 6) Aspirate slowly, inject, remove and massage 7) Engage safety mechanism immediately and dispose in sharps container
What is the procedure for a SQ injection?
1) Apply clean gloves 2) Select a healthy tissue site 3) Clean skin with an alcohol swab 4) Pinch or spread skin using non dominant hand 5) Insert needle quickly at a 45*-90* angle 6) Inject medication slowly. remove needle and engage the safety mechanism immediately and dispose of in sharps container
What are the Three Checks?
1) Check doctors order 2) Check patient Allergies 3) Check drug expiration date
1) Straight catheter is inserted and then immediately removed (no balloon). i.e. it is intermittent Indwelling catheters are foley catheters with small inflatable balloon and is attached to a closed drainage system. It remains in place UNTIL the MD ORDERS it to be discontinued. Both are inserted sterilely 2) Retention catheter
1) Describe the procedural differences between straight and indwelling catheterization. 2) What is another name for an indwelling, foley catheter?
What are the clients rights in regards to medication?
1) Information 2) Refusal 3) Careful assessment 4) Informed consent 5) Safe administration 6) Supportive therapy 7) No unnecessary medications
What is involved in the Pre Administration assessment?
1) Medication history 2) History of Allergies 3) Current medication data 4) Diet history 5) Perceptual or coordination problems 6) Current condition 7) Physical Assess
What are some special considerations for medicine administration?
1) Polypharmacy 2) Self-prescribing 3) Over the counter medicaitons 4) Misuse 5) Noncompliance
What are the 6 rights?
1) Right drug 2) Right dose 3) Right route 4) Right client 5) Right Time 6) Right documentation
How do you prevent tissue damage from SQ injections?
1) Rotate sites 2) Do not aspirate 3) Do not massage 4) avoid sites with bruising, pitting, and lumps -Use a volume of 1 ml or less
1) UTI - urosepsis trauma to the urethra 2) a) proper sterile/clean technique as appropriate when inserting, collecting urine samples, checking catheter set up, d/c catheter, b) good perineal care, c) correct procedural technique, d) maintaining a closed drainage system especially with regard to inserting the catheter and inflating/deflating the balloon e) keeping the bag below the bladder to prevent reflux f) sufficient fluid intake (2000-2500mL) g) proper positioning of tubing to prevent pooling of urine in tubing
1) What are the risks and potential complications associated with catheterization and 2) What are the nursing interventions to prevent them? Name 7 things
Where do the triple check occur?
1) When nurse reaches for the medication 2) Whe n the dose is in the nurses hand. (side by side with the mar 3) One last time before administering to the client
You are informing your patient that his physician has ordered a urine test for culture and sensitivity that you will obtain from his indwelling Foley catheter. Which statement(s), if made by the patient, indicate that further instruction is needed?
1)That's ok; you can just get a sample out of my urinary drainage bag 2)I think my catheter comes apart from the tubing that goes to the collection bad. We can take it apart and hold a cup at the end of the catheter until you get enough urine for the test 3)After you clamp my tubing, I'm probably going to need some pain medication 4)You will have to insert a new catheter to get a sterile specimen
The nurse is caring for a patient with a Jackson-Pratt drain. Which of the following indicates correct understanding?
1)The nurse instructs the NAP to empty the drain every 8 hours or when it is 2/3 full and document the amount as output on the intake and output record. 2)The nurse ensures the drainage device appears deflated after it is emptied
The nurse is caring for a Hindu patient. Which of the following would be important nursing measures when inserting a urinary catheter?
1)The nurse provides privacy during catheter insertion 2)The nurse is of the same gender as the patient 3)The nurse avoids putting soiled linens on the bedside table
The nurse is catheterizing a male patient. Which of the following demonstrates correct understanding of the procedure?
1)The patient is placed in a supine position with legs slightly abducted 2)The nurse cleans the urethral meatus using a circular motion from the meatus down to the base of glans 3)The nurse applies sterile gloves before opening the antiseptic solution and lubricant
What is the length of the needle for an IM injection?
1-3 mL
Interventions for systemic anaphylaxis Name 9 things
1. Establish airway 2. Epinephrine 0.3-0.5ml 3. Antihistamine to treat angioedema/uticaria 4. Oxygen at 2-6 L/min 5. Aminophylline for bronchospasms it is a steroid pt needs to stay 24 hours. 6. ABG's 7. Pulse ox 8. Suction available 9. CPR may be necessary
What are the 4 stages of illness?
1. Experiencing symptoms: pain, rash, fever, bleeding, cough.. 2. Assuming the sick role: person knows sick, seeks validation from others. Gives up normal activities, may do nothing; may self treat.. 3. Assume a dependent role: pt accepts diagnosis and follows prescribed treatment plan, conform to opinions of others, assistance 4.Achieving recovery and rehab: home, hospital or mix; pt gives up dependent role and assumes normal activities
Rubeola (measles)
1. Incubation 10 to 20 days. 2. A highly contagious, viral disease that can lead to neurologic problems or death. 3. Transmitted by direct contact with droplets from infected persons. 4. It is contagious mainly during the prodromal period, which is characterized by fever and upper respiratory symptoms.
Varicella zoster (chickenpox)
1. Incubation 13 to 17 days. 2. Viral disease characterized by skin lesions. 3. Lesions begin on the trunk and spread to the face and proximal extremities. 4. Progression through macular, papular, vesicular, and pustular stages. 5. Transmitted by direct contact, droplet spread, or freshly contaminated objects. 6. Communicability ends when scabs have formed.
Name the 3 sources of pain.
1. Somatic-tissue 2. Visceral-organ pain like an MI 3. Neuropathic-pain from the CNS
3 examples of physiological characteristics:
1. how body metabolizes food (lactose tolorance) or alcohol; skin reacts to sun (tan vs. brown vs burn); mentration of women; breast function...
What is the top 2 ways a healthcare worker gets HIV?
1. needle stick. 2. infected through exposure of non-intact skin and mucous membranes to blood and body fluids.
qualitative research methods
1. phenomenology - person lived through experience 2. grounded theory - person describes own reality 3. ethnography - routed in anthropology 4. historical - people use facts to explain present day problems
What are Maslow's 5 Basic Human needs?
1. physiologic; 2. safety and security; 3. love & belonging; 4. self esteem; 5. self actualization
Steps in quantitative research process?
1. state research problem 2. define purpose of study 3. review related literature 4. formulate hypothesis 5. select research design 6. select population and sample 7. collect data 8. analyze data 9. communicate findings and conclusions
4 factors affect cultural sensitivity:
1. stereotyping; 2. cultural imposition; 3. cultural blindness; 4. cultural conflict
What are 4 aims of nursing?
1. to promote health; 2. to prevent illness; 3. to restore health; 4. to facilitate coping with a disability or death
The nurse has received an order to insert a Foley catheter in a 24 y/o female patient. Which catheter would be most appropriate for this patient?
14 French 5mL balloon
A 68 year old female patient is admitted for knee-replacement surgery with an expected hospital stay of 2 weeks. She has no known allergies. The physician has ordered an indwelling Foley catheter to be inserted preoperatively. Which catheter should you choose?
14 French, 5 mL ballon, latex catheter
How much water does an adult need to survive
1500 mL
If a patient's indwelling catheter is removed by 0900, the patient should be due to void by
1500-1700 (3:00-5:00PM)
A 40-year-old male patient has been admitted for abdominal surgery. He has no history of prostate problems. The physician has ordered that the patient be catheterized. Which of the following would be an appropriate size catheter for this patient?
16 French 5mL ballon
When does a child throw a ball overhand?
18 months
In what year was it founded?
1882
Century that Nightingale brought major reforms in nursing?
18th century
What is the guage of the needle with IM injection?
19-25
Needle gauges
19-27
What is a nuclear or traditional family?
2 parents (homo or hetero, married or committed relationship) + children, and allmembers in same house until children leave as young adults
When does a child speak two- to three-word sentences?
2 years
when does a child achieve 50% of adult height?
2 years
Group-housing plans
2+ unrelated people sharing a house with private rooms but share common areas
The nurse inspects all wounds for signs of infection. A contaminated or traumatic wound may show signs of infection
2-3 days after surgery
What is the onset of Long insulin?
2-4 hours
What is the maximum amount of sodium you should have daily
2300 mg daily
1. Why is peristalsis delayed post surgery? 2. Pt's who have abdominal surgery often have decreased peristalsis for at least how long?
24 hours
Inflammation occurs how long after infection sets in?
24 hours
____ of older adults who need care will receive assistance from fam
80%
What angle should you insert the IM injection?
90 degrees
Post surgery at what level should we report urine out put?
<30 mL/hr
Hypoactive bowel
<5 per minute
What kind of nurse is skilled in the care of clients with multiple medical and surgical problems that can occur following a surgical procedure.
A PACU nurse AKA recovery room nurse.
Which of the following could be considered negligence?
A condom catheter is removed every 3 days
35. What type of complaint can be filed by patients if they feel they have been touched without permission? a. Battery b. Assault c. Defamation d. Slander
A. Battery
6. The peak blood pressure reading when measuring blood pressure is the: a. Both b and c b. Diastolic pressure c. Systolic pressure d. Blood pressure resulting from left ventricular contraction
A. Both B and C
A male patient with back and lower abdominal injuries from a motor vehicle accident is unable to void. His physician has requested the insertion of a catheter to determine the amount of residual urine and possibly to assist him with voiding. What type of urinary catheter should the nurse anticipate using?
A foley catheter
adverse effect
A general term for any undesirable effects that are a direct response to one or more drugs.
What is a conceptual framework or model?
A group of concepts that follows understandable pattern
What is a nursing diagnosis?
A list of symptoms and information (like vitals, nursing assessment etc)
What does the categorization give you?
A quick reference to a drugs therapeutic action and uses and therapeutic effects
19. What term describes the hypothetical point around which all mass appears to be concentrated? a. center of gravity b. base of support c. orthostatic hypotension d. a and b
A. Center of gravity
keep inserting as the catheter it might not be in the urethra
What should you do if urine starts to come out before you have inserted the catheter to the bifurcation?
What is nursing process?
A scientific problem solving method by which nurses can plan and provide care for patients
Carotid Bruit
A sound you hear with the bell of steth lightly on the skin... if occluded carotid, will hear a blowing sound
After catheter insertion and urine return, patient continues to complain of discomfort
A spasm, bladder infection, or injury to the urinary tract could cause
When should a medication dose be recorded in an individual's medication log? A) at the time the medication is taken by the individual B) when the individual has a serious side effect C) within 24 hours of when the individual takes the medication D) an hour before the individual takes the medication
A) at the time the medication is taken by the individual
One of the Five Rights the DSP must follow to ensure medication safety is A) the right dose B) the right to vote C) the right thing to wear D) the right to choose
A) the right dose
25. Which of the following statements uses out-of-control language? a. "I can't believe I have all these examinations in the same week. This is so unfair!" b. "Wow, three examinations this week. Oh well, I'll take each as it comes." c. "I'm looking for a study partner for examinations this week. Anyone available?" d. "Final examination week, wow! I've had bigger challenges in my life and have come out on top."
A. "I can't believe I have all these examinations in the same week. This is so unfair!"
Which statement by the patient indicates that the patient understands his HMO (health maintenance organization) insurance plan? A. "My health plan contracts with medical groups to provide services." B. "I must receive pre-approval for any physician's office visit." C. "My plan reduces costs by establishing a network of preferred providers." D. "All health care costs in my HMO are fully covered."
A. "My health plan contracts with medical groups to provide services." Rationale: This is the definition of an HMO. Patients may be allowed to arrange for certain services independently (annual gynecology examinations, e.g.). Preferred provider network describes a PPO (preferred provider organization). Few health care plans provide full coverage for all costs.
subcutaneously
Among the many kinds of drugs administered ___________ (just under the skin) are vaccines, insulin, and heparin.
The new nurse understands the job description of the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) by making which statement? (Select all that apply.) A. "The UAP may assist the nurse with direct patient care." B. "The UAP is able to do whatever the nurse delegates to them." C. "The UAP may perform care without direct supervision." D. "The UAP is trained and certified to perform certain nursing tasks."
A. "The UAP may assist the nurse with direct patient care." D. "The UAP is trained and certified to perform certain nursing tasks." Rationale: The UAP may assist the nurse or perform certain nursing tasks independently that they have been trained and certified to perform, with supervision by the licensed nurse. Unlicensed personnel may only be delegated tasks that they can legally be expected to do and that the nurse can be reasonably sure they are able to perform. The nurse remains responsible for the care provided by the UAP.
A patient is considering using alternative treatments for health problems. Which question is most important for the patient to consider? A. "What are the risks and benefits of the therapy?" B. "What will my family think about my using this type of therapy?" C. "Will my physician approve of this course of action?" D. "Will my friends think this is a wise decision?"
A. "What are the risks and benefits of the therapy?" Rationale: The most important consideration is determining the risks and benefits of the therapy. Family friends and some physicians may not approve of alternative therapy.
8. Forms of intentional misconduct include 1. slander 2. invasion of privacy 3. negligence a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 only d. 1 only
A. 1 and 2 only
6. Common dosage forms of drugs include: 1. Suspension 2. Capsule 3. Oral 4. Tablet 5. Inhalant 6. Parenteral 7. Solution a. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 7 b. 1, 2, 3, and 7 c. 3, 4, and 7 d. 3, 6, and 7
A. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 7
11. You and a fellow radiographer have received an unconscious patient from a motor vehicle accident. As you perform the examination, it is important that you 1. refer to the patient by name 2. make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient 3. reassure the patient about what you are doing a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only
A. 1, 2, and 3
40. When you and a colleague perform a portable chest radiograph on a patient with contact precautions, it would be appropriate to: 1. Place the cassette in a protective bag before exposure and dispose of the bag properly after exposure 2. Wash your hands only after the examination has been completed 3. Remove jewelry and place it in a safe place 4. Put on a clean mask, clean gloves, and clean gown (your assistant need not do the same as they are not going to touch the patient); put on a lead apron outside of the clean gown 5. Greet the patient professionally and explain what you are going to do 6. Have your assistant position the receptor behind the patient 7. After exposure, remove the gown, mask, and gloves and discard them when you return to radiology a. 1, 2, and 5 only b. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only c. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6 only d. 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7 only
A. 1, 2, and 5 only
36. As a radiography student you will be expected to demonstrate clinical competency in various procedures as part of your clinical rotations. The required number of mandatory competencies is currently: a. 36 b. 48 c. 72 d. 98
A. 36
52. As a radiographer positions an elderly patient for an upright abdominal view, the patient is asked to stand up from the wheelchair. As he does so, the wheelchair moves out from under him and he falls to the floor, dislocating his shoulder. As the technologist attempts to break his fall, a co-worker notes that the wheel locks on the chair were left unlocked. In this situation: a. a breach of duty has occurred. b. it would be acceptable to apologize to the patient and perform the examination free of charge to establish goodwill. c. the technologist will not be held negligent, as the wheel locks were most likely defective. d. the patient's condition contributed significantly to the accident and will most likely prove the technologist innocent.
A. A breach of duty has occurred
9. The term bradypnea is used to describe: a. A decrease in respiratory rate b. Difficulty in breathing c. Absence of breathing d. An increase in respiratory rate
A. A decrease in respiratory rate
9. If a patient cannot assist with a cart-to-table transfer: a. a draw sheet or transfer assist device should be used. b. ask one other colleague to help you do the lifting. c. disregard the transfer and do a portable examination with the patient on the cart. d. none of the above are appropriate.
A. A draw sheet or transfer assit device should be used
36. Which of the following would not be used in restraining a child? a. A leather belt b. A sandbag c. A sheet d. A pillow case
A. A leather belt
39. A civil wrong that involves individual property rights is called: a. a tort. b. negligence. c. defamation. d. libel.
A. A tort
6. When obtaining cervical spine images on a patient with a cervical collar, complete: a. all projections with the cervical collar in place. b. the lateral projection and then remove the collar. c. the AP projection and then remove the collar. d. all spine projections with the collar removed and replaced with a head clamp.
A. All projections with the cervical collar in place
8. When positioning a patient in a rolling motion transfer: a. always move the patient toward you. b. ask the patient which way he or she wants to be rolled. c. roll the patient toward his or her weak side. d. never roll a patient, as it creates postural hypotension.
A. Always move the patient toward you
4. When you were a student radiographer the importance of radiation protection was constantly stressed and you have incorporated the principle of ALARA as a professional value. As an employee working within a busy imaging department, you work with some technologists who do not practice radiation protection as you have been taught. One technologist in particular routinely overexposes patients in order to get a "perfect image for the radiologist." This poor technologist practice would be an example of: a. an ethical violation. b. a hospital rule violation. c. poor morals. d. a violation of personal values.
A. An ethical violation
32. Chemical substances capable of killing pathologic bacterial growth microbes are termed: a. Bactericidal b. Bateriostatic c. Disinfectants d. Antiseptics
A. Bactericidal
34. If bodily harm were to occur to a patient as a result of reckless conduct by the health care provider, this would be deemed: a. battery. b. assault. c. defamation. d. slander.
A. Battery
17. You are working in the outpatient department and receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the right hip joint, however, the requisition asks for a left femur examination. What should you do? a. check with the referring physician b. perform a right hip examination c. perform both a right hip and left femur examination d. perform a left femur examination
A. Check with the referring physician
26. What term describes the primary medical problem as defined by the patient? a. Chief complaint b. Palpation c. Onset d. Nonverbal communication
A. Chief complaint
33. An important piece of information regarding a patient's need for medical care is sought by physicians and medical professionals. Many times, patients are vague about their pain or reason for seeing the doctor. It is important to discover the patient's _____ for seeking medical care. a. Chief complaint b. Pain threshold c. Tolerance d. Insurance incentive
A. Chief complaint
32. Which of the following would be considered an unethical practice for a radiographer? a. Criticizing a doctor or team member b. Repeating a radiograph c. Reporting unethical practices d. Watching an interesting case
A. Criticizing a doctor or team member
3. Physicians can choose from several medical imaging modalities in order to determine their patient's condition. Among these are radiography, MRI, CT scanning, ultrasonography, and nuclear scanning, just to mention a few. Each specialty has its own _______ of information. a. diagnostic yield b. interpretation cycle c. diagnostic efficacy d. diagnostic ratio
A. Diagnostic yield
18. Which of the following does not relate to a person's ethnicity? a. Dress b. Language c. Religion d. Race
A. Dress
7. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 provides for all of the following conditions EXCEPT: a. Employees must speak English and understand the nature of disability b. Legal protection against discrimination because of physical or mental disability c. Institutions must make reasonable accommodations for all individuals d. Guarantees basic human rights to persons with a disability
A. Employees must speak English to understand the nature of disability
19. A key component to effective communication with a patient is a. establishing rapport b. assessing the patient's physical condition c. introducing the patient to the radiologist d. giving a detailed, technical explanation of the examination
A. Establishing rapport
5. As you are enjoying a light breakfast in a local coffee shop, a small group sits down at an adjacent table. As they talk, you overhear them making derogatory statements about people who are obese. Comments such as, "I can't believe people can eat so much?" and "How can they let themselves get that way?" are typical of the conversation. One group member openly states, "Why can't they be like us; fit and trim?" This group is demonstrating" a. Ethnocentrism b. Assimilation c. Biculturalism d. Racism
A. Ethnocentrism
4. Questions about the diagnosis of an examination from a patient or visitor are best answered by a. Explaining that only a radiologist can read radiographs b. Providing the best diagnosis available c. Explaining that the results are not available yet d. Suggesting that the question is inappropriate
A. Explaining that only a radiologist can read radiographs
12. It is illegal to deny an individual the opportunity to advance professionally through employment because of: a. Gender b. Technical skills c. Daycare needs d. Personal hygiene
A. Gender
14. Inadequate mAs exposures in CR imaging technology will yield an image that is: a. grainy and demonstrates quantum mottle. b. magnified and distorted. c. minified and distorted. d. overexposed and too dark to interpret.
A. Grainy and demonstrates quantum mottle
9. All professional decisions in radiologic technology and other health care practices involve a consideration of: a. human values. b. local laws. c. union contract restrictions. d. religious doctrine.
A. Human values
30. The biggest thief of time is a. indecision b. worry c. traffic d. mistakes
A. Indecision
17. As you perform a portable chest radiograph, the optimal SID of 40 inches is unattainable because of orthopedic supports over the patient. It is necessary for you to shorten the SID to 34 inches. A professional radiographer should do which of the following? a. Indicate the shorter SID on the examination notes to the radiologist. b. Prop the patient up to increase the distance 6 inches from the image receptor. c. Angle the tube cephalad to compensate for the shorter SID. d. Angle the tube 15 degrees caudad to compensate for the SID.
A. Indicate the shorter SID on the examination notes to the radiologist
2. Particular care must be taken when using radiation for medical imaging. This is the result of radiation's ability to create __________ in human tissue and possible biochemical changes. a. ionizations b. radio waves c. sound waves d. thermal changes
A. Ionizations
10. All of the following are true of the Pigg-O-Stat infant immobilizer EXCEPT: a. it can be used for supine abdominal studies of the child. b. its design provides for lead protection over the child's gonads. c. it is made of contour-shaped, clear acrylic restraining forms. d. the patient can be rotated 360 degrees for various oblique projections.
A. It can be used for supine abdominal studies of the child
2. A drug agent that promotes bowel evacuation is a(n): a. Laxative b. Enlax c. Enteric d. Parenteral
A. Laxative
25. Which of the following includes the tone of voice, the speed of speech, and the position of the speaker's extremities and torso? a. Nonverbal communication b. Palpation c. Quality d. Facilitation
A. Nonverbal communication
8. Which of the following may be given to a patient to counteract hypoglycemia? a. Orange juice b. Hamburger c. Buttered toast d. Peanut butter
A. Orange juice
29. Which of the following would describe a paraplegic? a. Paralyzed from the waist down b. Paralyzed from the waist up c. Paralyzed on one side d. Paralyzed on all four extremities
A. Paralyzed from the waist down
33. When negligence occurs to a patient, who is responsible for proving injury? a. Patient b. Radiographer c. Doctor d. Nurse involved in the case
A. Patient
30. As a professional imaging team member, it is important to remember that: a. patient health records are considered legal documents. b. incorrect coding of patient data has little effect on the day-to-day operations of a health care provider. c. only the radiologist will be asked to provide legal testimony regarding a patient's examination in which you participated. d. HIPAA rules are voluntary and followed only by outpatient imaging centers.
A. Patient health records are considered legal documents
16. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) legislation affects radiology and other hospital departments by its focus on a. patient record confidentiality b. facility reimbursement c. quality management and performance improvement d. risk management
A. Patient record confidentiality
23. Computed radiography uses which of the following as its image receptor? a. photostimuable phosphor plate b. direct conversion hard-wired plate c. radiographic film d. all of the above
A. Photostimuable phosphor plage
Home health care has been a growing area of health care provision. It differs from hospital and nursing home care in which way? A. Placing more focus on the patient's support system and environment B. The amount of medication a patient can receive C. The types of skilled and unskilled services that can be provided D. Physician involvement in patient care
A. Placing more focus on the patient's support system and environment Rationale: This is carefully assessed by the nurse to ensure a patient can be safely maintained in the home setting. The amount of medication a patient receives, skilled versus unskilled care, and the physician involvement are concepts in both home health and institutional settings.
40. As a patient begins to explain his reasons for coming to the clinic for an x-ray examination, he begins to use medical terms to describe his conditions. His information appears to be accurate medically and helps clarify his symptoms. To deal with this patient you should: a. Politely listen, record his comments, and repeat his statements to clarify b. Ask him if he is a doctor and tell the radiologist c. Determine if he knows what he is talking about by quizzing him on basic anatomy d. Disregard his information and record your impressions of his symptoms
A. Politely listen, record his comments, and repeat his statements to clarify
9. When a patient with one strong side and one weak side is being assisted onto an x-ray table, the radiographer should a. position the stronger side closer to the table b. let the patient manage without assistance c. position the weaker side closer to the table d. lift the patient carefully onto the table
A. Position the stronger side closer to the table
7. A reliable device to measure oxygen saturation levels of arterial blood is a: a. Pulse oximeter b. Stethoscope c. Sphygmomanometer d. Spirometer
A. Pulse oximeter
45. In recording a patient history for the radiologist, you note that the patient has an open sore on her ankle. In your description you indicate that the sore is draining and has a foul odor. This information deals with the _____ of a patient history. a. Quality b. Chronology c. Logic d. Onset
A. Quality
9. You have received an examination request for a pediatric wrist and hand. The examination history states that the child caught her hand in a fan. The child's hand shows soft tissue swelling but no cuts or abrasions. The patient is brought to you with the mother who is quite distraught and upset over her child's injury. As you proceed to image the daughter, how would you effectively handle the parent in this situation? a. Refer to departmental policy on parents in the examination room, and use your best experience to deal with the mother, which may include having her leave the room as you do the examination. b. Ask the mother to hold the child if the child appears to be moving. c. Inform the mother that her crying is not helping with the examination. d. Delay the examination until the mother has regained her composure.
A. Refer to departmental policy on parents in the examination room, and use your best experience to deal with the mother, which may include having her leave the room as you do the examination
4. The x-radiation that is "left over" and exits the patient to strike the image receptor and create the image is known as _____ radiation. a. remnant b. primary c. scatter and secondary d. Grenz
A. Remnant
In a long-term care facility an elderly resident refuses to take his medication. The nurse is aware that the resident has which right(s) regarding medications? (Select all that apply.) A. Residents can refuse treatments, including medication. B. The Patient Self-Determination Act guarantees the right to refuse all treatments. C. Legal systems can force patients to take medication for contagious diseases. D. Health care providers cannot force patients to take medications for contagious diseases.
A. Residents can refuse treatments, including medication. C. Legal systems can force patients to take medication for contagious diseases. Rationale: Health care and legal systems can enforce treatment for contagious disease. If the medication is not for the treatment of infectious disease, however, the patient can refuse it. In general, patients can refuse any or all treatments, except in highly specific cases such as contagious disease. B is incorrect. The Patient Self-Determination Act generally guarantees the right to refuse all treatments, except in certain cases such as contagious disease. Health care systems, along with legal systems, can force patients to take medications for contagious disease. However, if such a situation arises, the LPN/LVN's most appropriate action would be to notify the immediate supervisor.
8. Heart attack patients often take a small tablet of nitroglycerine and put it in their mount, under their tongue, for quick action. This route of administration is: a. Sublingual b. Oral c. Topical d. Pareteral
A. Sublingual
30. If someone needs to hold a patient during a radiographic procedure, who should be asked? a. The patient's family member b. Another technologist c. A student d. A nurse's aide
A. The patient's family member
1. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to assisting a patient from a wheelchair to an x-ray table? a. The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table b. The patient's weaker side should be closer to the x-ray table c. The wheelchair should directly face the x-ray table d. The wheelchair should be parallel with the x-ray tabl
A. The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table
cultural congruent care?
Madeline Leininger - Care that fits the person's valued life patterns and set of meanings, which is generated from people themselves rather than by predetermined criteria
15. All of the following are true of CR technology EXCEPT: a. there is no difference in image resolution between the three image plate (cassette) sizes. b. the latent image is time-sensitive and should be processed in the reader in a reasonable time period. c. CR image plates need to be erased or "washed clean" with an intense light source in the reader assembly. d. CR technology offers an affordable electronic transition toward digital imaging.
A. There is no difference in image resolution between the three image plage (cassette) sizes
43. The term res ipsa loquitur means the: a. thing speaks for itself. b. employee is responsible for his or her actions. c. accused must prove innocence. d. employer is responsible for an employee's actions.
A. Thing speaks for itself
14. When using a sheet to "mummify" an infant, the sheet should first be formed into a: a. triangle. b. square. c. rectangle. d. rectangle the size of pillowcase.
A. Triangle
11. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. When lifting someone or something, stand as close as possible to whatever you're lifting. b. Keep your feet very wide apart and your back arched when lifting. c. When working with cardiac patients it is safe to let them help you until they become exhausted. d. When lifting a stack of heavy grid cassettes from the floor to a counter, it is advisable to use your arm muscles because they are stronger than those of the thigh.
A. When lifting someone or something, stand as close as possible to whatever you're lifting
44. Most radiologists have one key question they want answered when it relates to any medical imaging examination. That question most likely would be: a. Why is the patient having this examination? b. What pain level is the patient tolerating? c. Can the patient tell you what day it is and what hospital he or she is visiting? d. Is there a reason for coming to the hospital rather than an outpatient clinic?
A. Why is the patient having this examination?
aspiration
According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA, 2004), routine _________ is no longer recommended with insulin administration.
The greater the H ion concentration the more what you are?
Acidic
-stem cells in the bone marrow -Migrate into secondary lymphoid tissue (spleen, lymph nodes, tonsil and Peyer's patches of the intestinal tract) where the mature completely. -Provides long lasting immunity (memory cells) -Antibodies are called immunoglobulins and gamma globulins. -Neutralize, eliminate or destroy the antigen. -Transferable from person to person.
Acquiring Antibody Mediated Immunity
What does calcium require in order for it to be absorbed?
Active form of Vitamin D
Step 8
Adjusted prescribed flow rate.
Antiepileptic drugs, tricyclic antidepressants and topical meds are examples of what type of drug?
Adjuvant analgesics
Step 20
Administer Medication Intramuscular
Step 20
Administered Subcutaneous Medication
"Identity vs Role confusion" is Eriksons way to describe __________.
Adolescence Stage
A nurse inserting an indwelling Foley catheter in a female patient advances the catheter and obtains clear yellow urine. What is the next action the nurse should take?
Advance the catheter another 1-2 inches and inflate balloon
19. Portable digital DR detectors show tremendous promise for the radiographer, particularly in terms of image quality and efficiency. Many of these portable detectors have a precision, electrical cord attached to the detector cover. This cord is commonly called a(n): a. ground plug. b. TFT gateway. c. tether. d. exposure cord.
C. Tether
Topical Medications
Aerosols; sprays, nebulizer, creams, ointments, suppositories, trans-dermal patches
After a patient has had what done should you assess for: -motor and sensory assessment.
After an epidural or spinal anesthesia.
During a sterile dressing change, when are gloves changed?
After the old dressing is removed and before cleansing the wound
What can cause fluid imbalance?
Age, gender, environment (heat and sweating etc), disease, trauma (crush injuries, burns), therapies (diuretics), GIT losses (gastro)
Which of the following are true regarding the impact of aging related to urinary elimination?
Aging can affect continence if the patient experiences impaired mobility or decreased muscle tone; The elderly are at increased risk of UTI because of retained urine in the bladder
Bronchial sounds
Air moving through trachea close to chest wall-upper area. Shorter on inspiration than expiration.
The lower the H ion concentration the more what you are?
Alkaline
The nurse is catheterizing a male patient and obtains a clear amber urine return. As the nurse begins to inflate the balloon the patient complains of pain and resistance is felt. What is the nurse's best action?
Allow fluid to flow back into syringe, and advance the catheter a little more before attempting to reinflate
12b
Allows the drape to fall open as it is removed from the kit. Touching only the corners and shiny side, places the drape shiny side down, between patient's thighs.
Prevention of blood clots
Ambulation, Compression stockings. ROMs. NO massage!!
loading dose
An initial dose of a drug that is used to achieve ta desired drug level.
A severe fall in systemic blood pressure during an anaphylactic reaction.
Anaphylactic Shock
Montgomery Straps//frequent tape removal//
Anchoring pieces applied to intact skin adjacent to wound Laces crisscross over wound to secure large or bulky dressing that need changed frequently Helps to avoid skin irritation caused by ________________
Induced state of partial or total loss of sensation, occurring with or without loss of consciousness. Used to block nerve impulse transmission, suppress reflexes, promote muscle relaxation, and in some instances achieve a controlled level of unconsciousness.
Anesthesia
Step 16
Applied antiseptic solution to cotton balls, or opened cleansing solution or swabs.
Step 20h
Applied gentle pressure over injection site without massaging.
20i
Applied gentle pressure over injection site, without massaging.
Patient is an incontinent male who empties his bladder fully
Apply condom catheter
The nurse is performing a dressing change on a patient who is postoperative from a laparotomy. The patient coughs and the nurse sees a few loops of intestine uncoiling from the wound. What is the nurse's best action at this time?
Apply sterile saline-soaked towels to the area
How much should your input and output of fluid be per day
Approx 2500mls. Input = 1500ml fluid ingestion, 750ml food intake, 250ml metabolism Output = 1500ml urine, 100ml faeces, 400ml perspiration, 300ml expressed air
23. Health records for inpatients should contain what information? 1. Patient identification data 2. Number of patient visitors during the stay 3. Reports of any diagnostic or therapeutic studies 4. Physical examination data 5. Number of times the nurse call light is activated for nursing care 6. All informed consent documents 7. Medical history, including the chief complaint a. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7 only b. 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only c. 2, 3, 4, 5, and 7 only d. 1, 4, and 6 only
B. 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only
intradermal route
Are usually those for sensitivity tests like for Tuberculin, or allergy tests. Absorption is slow. The inner part of the forearm and the upper back may be used for intra-dermal injections. A 1-ml syringe with a 25 to 27 gauge needle 1/4 to 5/8 inch long is best suited for Intradermal route. The nurse should insert the needle at 15 degree angle between the upper layers of the skin. The nurse should not aspirate the syringe. the injection produces a small wheal (raised area) on the outer surface of the skin., injection of drugs within or between the layers of the skin.
Step 12
Arranged supplies and equipment for perineal care on bed or beside table.
You are inserting an indwelling Foley catheter in a male patient. You have asked the patient to bear down as if to void, and you slowly insert the catheter through the urethral meatus. You advance the catheter and meet resistance. What is your best initial action at this time?
Ask the patient to take slow deep breaths while you insert the catheter slowly
19.
Asks patient to bear down as though trying to void; slowly inserts the catheter into the meatus. Asks patient to take slow deep breaths until the initial discomfort has passed.
20f
Aspirated medication by pulling back on plunger.
Step 3
Assembled equipment and supplies
Step 2
Assembled equipment and supplies.
Step 3
Assembled equipment and supplies.
What method should we use to allows a person to express feelings and ideas without judging or hurting others.
Assertiveness
Patient has a spinal cord injury
Assess bladder frequently and monitor output closely
What is the first thing you should do if you make a medication error?
Assess client immediately
What S&S should the nurse look for with complications of local or regional anesthesia.
Assess for CNS stimulation, CNSand cardiac depression, metallic taste, nausea and vomiting, tremors, seizures, increased pulse, respirations, and bp.
A patient who is 48 hours post Foley insertion is running a low-grade fever and complains of lower abdominal discomfort, and his urine appears cloudy. The NAP states that his urine had a foul odor when his drainage bag was emptied. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing action?
Assess the patient for back or flank pain; obtain a physician's order then obtain a sterile urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
Step 12
Assessed flowmeter and oxygen source for proper setup and prescribed flow rate.
Step 6
Assessed status of patient to determine equipment needs, level of cooperation and mobility
When pt is in a conscious sedation what is the nurses role?
Assessment of airway, level of consciousness, oxygen saturation, electrocardiographic status, and vital signs are monitored every 15-30 minutes.
Which of the following is inappropriate to delegate to nursing assistive personnel?
Assessment of wound drainage
Step 27
Assisted patient to a comfortable position and lowered bed.
Step 18
Assisted patient to a comfortable position.
Step 17
Assisted patient to comfortable position according to site selected.
What is the difference between Baccalaureate and Associate of Nursing Degree?
Associate Degree- is a program that focuses on the basic sciences and theoretical and clinical courses related to the practice of nursing Baccalaureate Degree- is a program that focuses on the basic sciences of theoretical and clinical courses; and courses in the social sciences arts, and humanities to support nursing theory.
Neurologic check is performed
At regular intervals on patients who have experienced a head injury or who have had brain surgery..for any patient at risk of increasing intracranial pressure.
Where do you usually draw up the medications?
At the med cart
Where do you usually draw up the injections?
At the medication cart but may need original vial for scanning
Each patient should be assessed:
At the start of every shift and every 4 hours
Which of the following steps should you take before removing fluid from the balloon in a Foley catheter
Attach a 10mL syringe or larger to the balloon port and allow the water to passively fill the syringe; Gently aspirate the syringe plunger if water remains in the balloon
Step 7
Attached correct oxygen delivery device (cannula or mask) to oxygen tubing, and attached to humidified oxygen source.
Step 10
Attached sensor to monitoring site while explaining to patient that the clip-on probe will feel like a clothes pin on the finger but will not hurt.
The nursing assistive personnel (NAP) reports leakage around a patient's urinary catheter. What action should the nurse take first?
Attempt to reinflate the ballon
Inappropriate immune response it is the breakdown of tolerance-antibodies are directed against healthy, normal cells. List 2 examples
Autoimmunity 1. Rheumatiod arithritis 2. Rheumatic fever
___________ is the ability or tendency to function independently.
Autonomy
What should the DSP do if he/she thinks in an individual is experiencing a severe allergic reaction soon after taking medication? A) observe the individual closely for the next 24 hours B) call 911 to get emergency medical care C) reread the medication information sheet D) call the individual's parents
B) call 911 to get emergency medical care
What must the DSP do to ensure they are giving the right medication to the right person? A) read the medication information sheet until they understand it B) read and compare the information on the medication label and the information on the medication log three times C) ask the individual if they take the medication D) make sure the medication is not expired
B) read and compare the information on the medication label and the information on the medication log three times
Which of the following disorders may be treated with psychotropic medications? A) epilepsy B) schizophrenia C) diabetes D) heart disease
B) schizophrenia
32. In preparing to radiograph a patient who has come to medical imaging with a complaint of abdominal pain, you begin to question the patient as part of the history. A good initial question to ask the patient would be: a. "Did you have any problem with parking here at the hospital?" b. "Can you tell me about the nature of your pain?" c. "Your request states that you have stomach pain, is that correct?" d. "Have you seen your doctor about the pain?"
B. "Can you tell me about the nature of your pain?"
The nurse observes a patient's wife sitting alone after visiting hours, crying. When the nurse approaches her, she states, "I'm so worried about him." Which is the best response by the nurse? A. "Are you worried about him being in the hospital?" B. "Tell me what is worrying you." C. "Would you like to talk with the social worker?" D. "Would you like to talk with the doctor?"
B. "Tell me what is worrying you." Rationale: The most therapeutic response is an open-ended one that allows the wife the opportunity to discuss her concerns. The other options are direct, closed-ended questions suggesting only a "Yes" or "No" answer and do not encourage the wife to express her concerns.
13. When communicating with a young child as part of a radiographic examination, an effective strategy to communicate would be to: 1. Kneel down to the child's eye level and lower your voice 2. Speak loudly and quickly so the child knows you're in charge 3. Allow one of the younger radiographers in the department to perform the study 4. Speak exclusively to the parent so the child cooperates a. 1 and 3 only b. 1 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 only
2. Sanction / injunction by the ARRT can result from: 1. conviction of a felony 2. failing to shield a patient 3. interpreting images and providing the patient with that information a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 only
24. A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone physical changes that include loss of: 1. muscle mass 2. bone calcium 3. mental alertness a. 1 and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 only d. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3
6. When is touching a patient valuable? a. For emotional support b. For emphasis c. For palpitation d. All of the above
D. All of the above
8. Effective strategies to lessen fear and improve cooperation in a young child undergoing a radiographic examination of the knee would be to: 1. bring the child into a darkened x-ray room. 2. lower the elevating table before bringing the child into the room. 3. preposition the x-ray tube support and table before bringing the child into the room. 4. move the overhead tubecrane assembly around quickly and loudly in order to impress the child with your expertise. 5. preselect exposure factors to expedite the examination. 6. minimize unusual noises that are an unnecessary part of the examination. a. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only b. 2, 3, 5, and 6 only c. 2, 4, and 5 only d. 3, 4, and 5 only
B. 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
1. Which of the following would make up the professional ethics of the profession of radiologic sciences? 1. State licensing board for x-ray machine operators 2. X-ray department social events 3. ARRT Code of Ethics 4. State motor vehicle rules and regulations 5. Collective bargaining rules of behavior a. 1 and 3 only b. 3 and 5 only c. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only d. 1 and 5 only
B. 3 and 5 only
24. Time management is an important part of controlling stress levels. Effective methods to control time include: 1. avoiding deadlines, as they typically limit time for pleasurable activities 2. pushing yourself to unknown limits, as you need to know your potential 3. determining the most important activities that could contribute to your success 4. focusing only on those activities that are important, allowing little time for close friends and family 5. doubling your study time to improve your grade from a D to an A a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 1, 2, and 5 only d. 3, 4, and 5 only
B. 3 only
17. The correct combination of exposure factors necessary to yield a total of 24 mAs using the shortest exposure time to minimize patient motion is _____ mA at _____. a. 400; 0.06 sec b. 500; 48 ms c. 250; 9 ms d. 50; 0.48 sec
B. 500; 48 ms
2. The production of x-radiation that occurs in an x-ray tube requires the movement of negatively charged particles traveling from one side of the tube to the other. This movement of charges must occur in: a. an aqueous medium. b. a vacuum. c. a tungsten gas environment. d. any condition that exists inside the x-ray tube, including a nonvacuum.
B. A vacuum
18. What organization certifies individuals in radiography? a. American Society of Radiologic Technologists b. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists c. Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology d. Radiological Society of North America
B. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists
7. Many medical professions have developed "Practice Standards" to ensure optimum performance of their members. The radiography "Practice Standards" are developed and maintained by the: a. American Medical Association (AMA) b. American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT) c. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
B. American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)
7. What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiographic examinations? a. Hypovolemic b. Anaphylactic c. Septic d. Cardiogenic
B. Anaphylactic
3. The x-ray tube component that stops the stream of electrons and produces the x-ray beam is called the: a. cathode. b. anode. c. tetrode. d. positode.
B. Anode
45. The x-ray tube component that stops the stream of electrons and produces the x-ray beam is called the: a. Cathode b. Anode c. Tetrode d. Positode
B. Anode
21. Bacteria have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT they: a. May live on a host in a colony form b. Are eukaryotic organisms c. Are single-celled organisms d. Have the ability to produce endospores
B. Are eukaryotic organisms
37. The "threat of touching a person in a harmful manner" is the legal definition of what? a. Battery b. Assault c. Negligence d. Injury
B. Assault
22. The process by which a beam of x-ray photons is altered as it passes through matter is known as a. density b. attenuation c. fog d. processing
B. Attentuation
13. A popular feature on x-ray generators that reduces repeat exposures caused by inaccurate exposure technique selection by technologists is: a. high-speed anode rotation. b. automatic exposure control (AEC). c. integrated anode heat unit calculation. d. positive beam limitation (PBL).
B. Automatic exposure control (AEC)
14 . Which of the following is the foundation on which a body rests? a. center of gravity b. base of support c. orthostatic hypotension d. biomechanics
B. Base of support
10. A native born Latino individual who has moved to the United States and successfully blended into local community activities, such as work, church, school, and volunteering, without losing his native culture demonstrates: a. Identity b. Biculturalism c. Assimilation d. Ethnocentrism
B. Biculturalism
41. Which of the following is not one of the sacred seven of medical histories? a. Severity b. Birth date c. Onset d. Chronology
B. Birth date
1. The collection of vital signs data is quick and noninvasive. The usual vital signs measured include: a. Respiration, pulse, cardiac output, and urinalysis values. b. Body temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. c. Electrolytes, blood gases, urinalysis values, and fecal occult blood test findings. d. Temperature, blood pressure, blood gases, and bowel sounds
B. Body temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure
A patient who has chronic pain is thinking about having acupuncture. Before discussing this treatment option with the patient, the LPN/LVN is aware that acupuncture is considered __________ therapy. A. biomedical B. CAM C. unapproved D. questionable
B. CAM Rationale: CAM refers to complementary and alternative medicine and focuses on assisting the bodys own healing powers and restoring body balance.
16. Which of the following is a voluntary process through which an agency grants recognition to an individual on demonstration, usually by examination, of specialized professional skills? a. accreditation b. certification c. licensure d. registration
B. Certification
19. Process by which people by which people of diverse backgrounds slowly give up their original cultural language and identity and melt into another, usually larger, group is: a. Cultures b. Bias c. Assimilation d. Ethnicity
C. Assimilation
In the hospital in which a newly licensed LPN/ LVN is employed, a collaborative care plan is used. What does the term collaborative care plan indicate? A. Collaborative care plans are primarily for RNs to use. B. Collaborative care plans include tasks to be performed by all members of the health care team. C. Collaborative care plans involve various nursing personnel. D. Collaborative care plans are diagnosis-specific and cannot be individualized to meet individual patient needs.
B. Collaborative care plans include tasks to be performed by all members of the health care team. Rationale: Collaborative care involves working with all members of the health care team, such as nurses, dieticians, physical therapists; thus a collaborative care plan would involve care given by all health care team members.
3. A patient arrives at medical imaging for a skull series after being hit in the head by a softball. The patient comes to you with a cervical collar, but it is apparent that the collar may not be needed as the patient is turning his head to converse with you as the examination starts. A professional imaging technologist would: a. remove the cervical collar because it appears to be unnecessary. b. complete the skull images with the collar in place using the positioning flexibility of your equipment. c. call the ER nurse and ask her to remove the cervical collar. d. immobilize the patient's head and then remove the cervical collar so it's not in the image.
B. Complee the skull images with the collar in place using the positioning flexibility of your equipment
28. The best ways to reduce stress are by a. managing finances better and saving money b. controlling time, thinking positively, and buffering stressors c. choosing a nonmedical profession and vacationing often d. avoiding worry and practicing relaxation
B. Controlling time, thinking positively, and buffering stressors
The nurse working as a case manager for a health insurance company would expect to perform which duties? A. Assist in determining costs for specific types of care. B. Coordinate the health care of enrolled patients. C. Determine who is eligible for coverage. D. Provide direct patient care.
B. Coordinate the health care of enrolled patients. Rationale: A nursing case manager for a health insurance company arranges for the implementation of services for patients.
18. What causes patients to feel lightheaded, queasy, or faint when they stand up quickly from a sitting or supine position? a. increased respiration from the effort of standing b. decreased blood pressure c. increased body temperature d. increased pulse rate
B. Decreased blood pressure
57. A technologist who has completed a procedure on a patient leaves the area grumbling, "I hate to do AIDS patients because I am afraid of catching the disease." A member of the housekeeping staff hears the technologist and asks who the AIDS patient is, so he can pass the information along to his co-workers for safety reasons. The technologist responds by giving the patient's name and room number. After the incident, housekeeping personnel refuse to clean the room. One person from housekeeping tells the story to members of the housekeeper's church, where the patient is also a church member. After learning of the patient's condition, the church asks the patient not to return to church. What type of complaint might be brought against the technologist? a. Negligence b. Defamation c. Assault d. False imprisonment
B. Defamation
8. A technologist who has completed a procedure on a patient leaves the area grumbling, "I hate to do AIDS patients because I am afraid of catching the disease." A member of the housekeeping staff hears the technologist and asks who the AIDS patient is so he can pass the information along to his co-workers for safety reasons. The technologist responds by giving the patient's name and room number. This act constitutes a(n): a. ethical dilemma. b. ethics violation. c. moral violation. d. virtue.
B. Ethics violation
6. All of the following are true of good lifting mechanics EXCEPT: a. do most of the lifting with your legs and keep your back stationary. b. extend your reach beyond the center of gravity to broaden your arm coverage. c. stand with your feet far apart to broaden your base of support. d. ensure your center of gravity is over your base of support.
B. Extend your reach beyond the center of gravity to broaden your arm coverage
11. When "high-flow" oxygen therapy is given, the _____ method is employed a. Intracatheter b. Facial mask c. Nasal cannula d. Nasogastric
B. Facial mask
40. Restraining a patient without reason may constitute: a. defamation of character. b. false imprisonment. c. invasion of privacy. d. criminal law.
B. False imprisonment
16. A common emotion of most patients entering the hospital is: a. Optimism b. Fear of the unknown and about their condition c. Eagerness to meet new people d. Insincerity
B. Fear of the unknown and about their condition
28. Which of the following is the most effective method for achieving medical asepsis? a. Having most employees in perfect health b. Frequent hand washing c. Cleaning the radiographic table weekly d. Changing linen after every patient
B. Frequent hand washing
5. The type of shock that is a result of severe loss of blood is: a. Anaphylactic b. Hypovolemic c. Vasogenic d. Septic
B. Hypovolemic
41. A process by which patients can agree to be treated or refuse to be treated based on information provided by the radiographer about specific treatment is called _____ consent. a. implied b. informed c. simple d. inadequate
B. Informed
4. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals could be found guilty of a. libel b. invasion of privacy c. defamation d. slander
B. Invasion of privacy
29. In-control language a. is used when driving to class b. is positive and expresses choice c. identifies where others are wrong d. is critical and powerful
B. Is positive and expresses choice
14. Which of the following is an example of an organization that accredits hospitals and other health care institutions in the United States? a. American Hospital Association b. American Medical Association c. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations d. American College of Radiology
C. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization
20. A typical health information management department: a. charges patients and doctors for its services and is a major revenue center for a hospital. b. is responsible for the maintenance, retrieval, and storage of health information. c. is needed only in hospitals. d. provides health records to physicians only
B. Is responsible for the maintenance, retreival, and storage of health information
12. An inflatable air splint is used under what circumstances? a. Severe head trauma b. Lower extremity trauma c. Spinal injury d. Newborn infant AP chest radiography
B. Lower extremity trauma
3. Which of the following would you not want to discuss with a patient? a. Hobbies b. Medical chart c. Ability to walk d. Weather
B. Medical chart
3. Mobility muscles differ from stability muscles in that: a. stability muscles are located in the knees and ankles. b. mobility muscles are located in the arms and legs. c. stability muscles are involved in digestion and body homeostasis. d. mobility muscles provide postural support.
B. Mobility muscles are located in the arms and legs.
43. The federal agency that regulates the use of ionizing radiation including medical and nuclear applications is the: a. Joint Commission (TJC) b. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) c. Occupational Health and Safety Administration (OSHA) d. Radiation Safety Committee
B. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
25. Which of the following would describe an ambulatory patient? a. One that is bedridden b. One that is able to walk c. One that cannot speak d. One that arrived by ambulance
B. One that is able to walk
16. All of the following are true of oxygen therapy EXCEPT: a. Oxygen delivery devices are either low-flow or high-flow rate b. Oxygen therapy can be prescribed by pharmacists and respiratory therapists c. Oxygen is considered a drug and is regulated by the government d. The universal color of flowmeters is green
B. Oxygen therapy can be perscribed by pharmascists and respiratory therapists
30. Which term describes gentle touching to determine the precise location of a symptom or complaint? a. Nonverbal communication b. Palpation c. Quality d. Facilitation
B. Palpation
20. The cadence and rhythm of your speech, often referred to as the "music of speech," is known as: a. Nonverbal communication b. Paralanguage c. Therapeutic communication d. Negative therapeutic communication
B. Paralanguage
22. Any microorganism that causes disease is: a. Prokaryotic b. Pathogenic c. Iatrogenic d. Flora
B. Pathogenic
15. The chief complaint, included in a patient's history, is a statement made by the a. physician b. patient c. admitting officer d. admitting nurse
B. Patient
17. Voluntary motion is under the control of the a. technologist b. patient c. radiologist d. student
B. Patient
18. The most important communication that occurs in a radiology department takes place between the radiographer and the a. administrator b. patient c. radiologist d. student
B. Patient
40. According to Maslow's hierarchy, which of the following is a person's most basic need? a. Safety and security b. Physiological needs c. Self-esteem d. Self-actualization
B. Physiological needs
1. The single most important action for the radiographer when administering emergency care is: a. Reacting to the emergent situation and providing any and all care needed to save the patient's life b. Providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance c. Not getting involved for fear of medical and professional liability d. Waiting to provide care until any doctor arrives
B. Providing a competent level of care, recognizing when advanced care is needed, and calling for assistance
15. To reduce the back strain that can result from moving heavy objects, the radiographer should a. bend at the waist and pull b. push the object c. hold the object away from his or her body when lifting d. pull the object
B. Push the object
47. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table, which action would you do first? a. Raise footrests out of the way b. Put wheelchair parallel to the table c. Lock the wheelchairs brakes d. Help patient stand
B. Put wheelchair parallel to the table
5. When radiographing a patient with severe abdominal trauma and possible hemorrhagic shock, it is important to: a. remove the patient's trousers to prevent artifacts. b. radiograph the patient through the antishock garment the patient is wearing. c. slowly remove the air in the antishock garment to decrease its radiolucency. d. add air to the antishock garment if you feel it has leaked out.
B. Radiograph the patient through the antishock garment the patient is wearing
20. Which title is granted to a radiographer after successful completion of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist's examination in radiography? a. radiologic technologist b. radiologic technologist, radiographer c. registered technologist d. registered technologist, radiographer
B. Radiologic technologist, radiographer
47. Bowel gas in the abdomen would be an example of a _____ material, with regard to the x-ray beam. a. radiopaque b. radiolucent c. radiofrequent d. radioresistant
B. Radiolucent
6. Bowel gas in the abdomen would be an example of a _____ material, with regard to the x-ray beam. a. Radiopaque b. Radiolucent c. Radiofrequent d. Radioresistant
B. Radiolucent
35. Good history taking involves the collection of objective and subjective data. All of the following are examples of subjective data EXCEPT the patient's: a. Emotions b. Respiratory rate c. Speech pattern d. Ability to follow your instructions
B. Respiratory rate
1. The purpose of a patient transfer is to: a. make arrangements for the patient to be moved to another nursing unit. b. safely move a patient from one area to another. c. provide for the patient's hospital bill to be deducted from his or her banking institution. d. make delivery arrangements for the patient's personal belongings.
B. Safely move a patient from one area to another
50. Defamation of a character by speaking poorly of an individual is: a. libel. b. slander. c. civil assault. d. false imprisonment.
B. Slander
9. To protect the human rights of people with disabilities, four essential core values of human rights were recognized by the 1993 Vienna Declaration for Human Rights. These core values are: a. Freedom of speech, assembly, vote and travel b. Solidarity, dignity, autonomy, and equality c. Religion, expression, employment, and education d. Integrity, justice, due process, and appeal
B. Solidarity, dignity, autonomy, and equality
35. A written page or spoken word are examples of which of the following components of communication? a. Channel b. Source c. Message d. Feedback
B. Source
38. When questioning patients to obtain an accurate patient history: a. Keep your questions general in nature so as not to offend the patient b. Start with open-ended questions and then follow up with more direct inquiries c. Do not let the patient talk too much, in order to keep the examination moving d. Use medical "jargon" to impress the patient with your expertise
B. Start with open-ended question and then follow up with more direct inquiries
In what way is the role of the registered nurse (RN) different from that of the LPN/LVN? A. The RN focuses on giving direct care. B. Correct The RN focuses on coordinating care. C. The LPN/LVN focuses on basic supervisory functions. D. The LPN/LVN focuses on in-depth assessments.
B. The RN focuses on coordinating care. Rationale: The LPN/LVN does not focus on coordination of patient care; this is the primary role of the registered nurse. The LPN/LVN focuses on giving direct patient care.
32. Which of the following is FALSE regarding obtained consent? a. The patient must be competent to sign. b. The consent form may be obtained after the procedure. c. The physician named on the consent form is the only physician who can perform the procedure. d. Any condition stated on the consent form must be met.
B. The consent form may be obtained after the procedure
13. All of the following are true of computed radiography (CR) EXCEPT: a. it uses cassettes. b. the image is recorded on an amorphous silicon digital detector plate. c. the active chemical in CR plates is barium fluorohalide. d. the image plates are reusable.
B. The image is recorded on an amorphous silicon digital detector plate
22. When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that a. the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mmHg b. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position c. the patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast d. the patient appears to have a productive cough
B. The patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position
10. In a film-based imaging department, automatic processors are an indispensable part of departmental operations. From the choices below, which is NOT TRUE regarding automatic film processing? a. They typically process images in 90 seconds. b. They are maintenance-free and require annual cleaning. c. They use rollers to transport film through the processing compartments. d. The processing chemicals consist of developer, fixer, and wash.
B. They are maintenance-free and require annual cleaning
12. Why is an x-ray tube glass envelope made of Pyrex glass? a. To prevent breakage if dropped b. To better withstand the heat produced c. To improve the visibility of the anode for service engineers d. For a clearer passage of the x-rays
B. To better withstand the heat produced
36. All of the following are possible sources of nosocomial infection EXCEPT: a. Transfer of pathogenic microbes from a Foley catheter to a patient b. Transfer of microbes through hand contact with a waitress in the coffee shop adjacent to the hospital c. Placement of an unclean radiographic receptor against a patient wound during a portable examination d. Contamination of a surgical instrument in the surgical theater
B. Transfer of microbes through hand contact with a waitress in the coffee shop adjacent to the hospital
9. Chest radiographs and upright abdominal studies are conveniently performed using a(n): a. variable-height table. b. upright cassette holder or Bucky. c. tilting radiographic table. d. interventional C-arm system with a fixed SID.
B. Upright cassette holder or Bucky
39. In a hospital setting, constant awareness is given to the simple fact that patient come to the hospital because they are sick and vulnerable to disease. With the current system of medical care, by the time the patients come to the hospital setting for care, they are sicker than ever in the past. The most common nosocomial infection seen in hospital patients is: a. Common colds picked up on contaminated x-ray equipment b. Urinary tract infections from Foley catheter insertions c. Staphylococcal infection from labor and delivery d. Hepatitis B infection from contaminated needles
B. Urinary tract infectios from Foley catheter insertions
9. After the administration of an iodine-based contrast into a patient, it is important for the technologist to observe the patient for: a. Blurred vision, syncope, and epistaxis b. Urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest c. Excessive salivation, dry eyes, and nasal dryness d. Signs of a reaction such as increased hunger, cold extremities, and bladder swelling
B. Urticaria, nausea, shortness of breath, tightening in the throat, and cardiac arrest
19. Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deerticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by: a. Vehicle b. Vector c. Droplet contact d. The airborne route
B. Vector
37. Which of the following is an example of unintentional misconduct? a. Slander b. X-raying the wrong part c. Libel d. Reckless conduct
B. X-raying the wrong part
Because a patient has a Penrose drain, the nurse inspects the patient's skin and changes the dressing by using drainage sponges. What is the rationale for doing this?
Because drainage can be irritating to the skin and may cause skin breakdown
11a
Bedside or overbed table within nurse's reach.
Developmental milestones (Birth to 1 year)
Birth weight doubled by 6 months, tripled by 12 months. Birth length increased by 50% at 12 months. Posterior fontanel closes by 8 weeks. Social smile at 2 months. Turns head to locate sounds at 3 months. Moro reflex disappears around 4 months. Achieves steady head control at 4 months. Turns completely over at 5 to 6 months. Plays peek-a-boo after 6 months. Transfers objects hand to hand at 7 months. Develops stranger anxiety at 7 to 9 months. Sits unsupported at 8 months. Crawls at 10 months. Fine pincer grasp appears at 10 to 12 months. Waves bye-bye at 10 months. Walks with assistance at 10 to 12 months. Says a few words in addition to "mama" or "dada" at 12 months. Explores environment by motor and oral means.
Developmental milestones for toddlers (1 to 3 years)
Birth weight quadruples by 30 months. Achieves 50% of adult height by 2 years. Growth velocity slows. Appears to be bowlegged and potbellied. All primary teeth (20) are present. Anterior fontanel closes by 12 to 18 months. Throws a ball overhand at 18 months. Kicks a ball at 24 months. Feeds self with spoon and cup at 2 years. daytime toilet training can usually be started around 2 years. Two- to three-word sentences at 2 years. Three - to four-word sentences by 3 years. States own first and last name by 2 1/2 to 3 years. Temper tantrums common.
Aspiration
Breathing fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs
1) remove tape attaching cath to thigh 2) insert syringe into balloon port and withdraw ALL fluid (may need to fill syringe more than one cime 3) pinch catheter at proximal end and slowly withdraw if NO RESISTANCE IF FELT. Ask patient to take a deep breath and assure it will not hurt. 4) dispose of catheter and measure urine 5) document time d/c catheter
Briefly describe procedure for removal of an indwelling catheter
What is ecchymotic?
Bruising
Toxic effects
Build up of medication within the body
When does the birth weight double?
By 4 years
HOw do we categorize drugs?
By the way they act against diseases or disorers
Roman numeral for 100
C
What is one way to help avoid interactions between multiple medications the individual is taking? A) use the same pharmacy for all of the individual's medication needs B) ask the individual to make a list of all his/her medications C) read about the side effects of the medications D) observe for possible medication side effects
C) read about the side effects of the medications
53. In a legal case of negligence: 1. rationale and excuses are balanced against implied damages. 2. a breach of duty has to be identified. 3. the definition of duty has to be identified. 4. Standards of Practice are not considered. 5. injury has to clearly be identified. 6. injury has to be clearly connected to the negligent act. a. 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only b. 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only c. 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only d. 3, 4, 5, and 6 only
C. 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
5. The legal doctrine respondeat superior means which of the following? a. a thing or matter settled by justice b. the thing speaks for itself c. let the master answer d. a matter settled by precedent
C. Let the master answer
12. The flow rate of oxygen therapy is given in: a. Cubic meters per minute b. Millimeters of mercury c. Liters per minute d. Pounds per square inch
C. Liters per minute
42. In large hospitals the person responsible for the operations of radiologic services is typically the administrative director of radiology. This individual must have strong managerial and other skills, including: 1. leadership skills 2. finance and budgeting skills 3. medical image interpretation skills 4. strategic planning skills 5. nursing skills, including pharmacology 6. customer service skills 7. communications and public relations skills a. 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only b. 1, 2, 5, 6, and 7 only c. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7 only d. 3, 5, and 6 only
C. 1, 2, 4, 6, and 7 only
11. Valuable traits of the U.S. mainstream culture include which of the following? 1. Strong work ethic 2. Efficiency 3. Travel and mobility 4. Tolerance and patience 5. Individualism 6. Capitalism 7. Competition a. 1,2,4, and 6 only b. 1,3,4,5, and 7 only c. 1,2,5, and 7 only d. 2,4,5,6,and 7 only
C. 1, 2, 5, and 7 only
13. Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1. diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. medical history 3. informed consent a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
2. To perform effectively and compassionately as a radiologic sciences professional, it is important to understand the areas of human cultural diversity. These may include: 1. Social organizations 2. Phobias 3. Symbolism 4. Space 5. Time 6. Communication a. 1,3,4, and 6 only b. 1,2,3, and 5 only c. 1,4,5, and 6 only d. 2,3,and 6 only
C. 1, 4, 5, and 6 only
10. The discovery of x-rays occurred in a. 1858 b. 1876 c. 1895 d. 1898
C. 1895
16. An effective method to overcome superimposition of patient anatomy on a radiograph is to: 1. increase the SID. 2. angle the x-ray tube. 3. decrease the SOD. 4. rotate the patient into an oblique position. 5. angle the image receptor. a. 1 and 3 only b. 2 and 5 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1 and 5 only
C. 2 and 4 only
5. Desirable features of a modern radiographic table consist of which of the following? 1. High-attenuation tabletop material 2. Variable height 3. Four-way floating tabletop 4. Radiolucent tabletop 5. Convenient and ergonomic-friendly controls 6. Foot control of table motions a. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6 only b. 2, 3, 4, and 6 only c. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
C. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
The LPN/LVN may be limited from assuming primary care responsibility for which patient? A. A patient who is in labor. B. A patient who is 2 days postoperative for an appendectomy. C. A patient who has a central line venous access device. D. A patient who has bipolar disorder.
C. A patient who has a central line venous access device. Rationale: The LPN/LVN may be part of an IV team if postgraduate training/certification has occurred but cannot assume primary care of a patient with a central line venous access device. An LPN/LVN can be assigned responsibility for care of a patient in labor, a stable postoperative patient, and a patient with bipolar disorder.
21. Indirect capture digital radiography is unlike direct capture technology in that indirect technology uses: a. amorphous selenium. b. no thin-film-transistor (TFT) technology. c. a scintillator material to produce light in a two-step process. d. amorphous silicon bonded to amorphous selenium as a two-step process.
C. A scintillator material to produce light in a two-step process
11. The process whereby an organization seeks recognition from its peer groups through demonstrated compliance with developed standards is termed: a. licensure b. registration c. accreditation d. self-analysis
C. Accreditation
22. When is removing a cervical collar permissible? a. before the initial radiographic examination b. after a radiographer makes the exposure c. after the physician has reviewed the images and determined it is safe d. after a paramedic reads the radiograph and approves removal
C. After the physician has reviewed the images and determined it is safe
2. Adequate breathing consists of: a. Good respiratory rate b. Good respiratory depth c. All of the above d. 10 to 12 breaths per minute
C. All of the above
11. When performing a lumbar spine series on an elderly patient: a. move very quickly and deliberately from one position to the next to expedite the examination. b. remove the radiolucent table pad to improve image quality. c. allow the patient to bend hips and knees between exposures to lessen back strain. d. provide a warm blanket for comfort, and remove it for each exposure.
C. Allow the patient to bend hips and knees between exposures to lessen back strain
11. A direct capture digital radiography detector uses _____ as the receptor material. a. silver bromide b. amorphous silicon c. amorphous selenium d. barium fluorohalide
C. Amorphous selenium
27. When entering information into a patient health record, it is important to remember that: a. entries can be made in ink or with a no. 1 pencil. b. abbreviations that are common with cell phone texting are acceptable. c. any date entered must be legible. d. information can be entered electronically by anyone with a computer.
C. Any date entered must be legible
39. It would be inappropriate to: a. Repeat the patient's comments regarding the symptoms, to keep the examination time short b. Call the patient by his or her surname (preceded by Mr., Ms., or Mrs.) to establish a professional image. c. Ask the patient leading questions regarding his or her symptoms d. Describe the patient's symptoms to the radiologist in precise medical terms
C. Ask the patient leading questions regarding his or her symptoms
46. It would be professionally appropriate for the imaging professional to: a. Gently touch the patient to clarify the location of his or her pain b. Touch the patient with varying degrees of pressure to measure the patient's pain tolerance over the area of interest c. Ask the patient to give you a general idea of the area of concern before the examination is started d. Aggressively palpate the patient on the regions that do not hurt to isolate the area of interest
C. Ask the patient to give you a general idea of the area of concern before the examination is started
22. Which of the following is undesirable for conducting a clinical history interview? a. Clarifying terminology b. Asking open-ended questions c. Asking vague questions d. Repeating information
C. Asking vague questions
retract before cleansing and catheterizing and REPOSITION foreskin after procedure!!!
What should you do to the foreskin when catheterizing
6. According to the 2000 U.S. Census more than 36% of the population was 45 years old and older. This age-class of citizens represents a very large population that will have a significant impact on the country with regard to economics, politics, health care, employment, and so on. This group is collectively referred to as _____, and the country will undoubtedly change in many ways to accommodate these valued members of society. a. Generation X citizens b. Generation Y citizens c. Baby boomers d. Postwar citizens
C. Baby boomers
2. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, one of the most common work-related injuries resulting in lost work time and disability is: a. carpal tunnel syndrome. b. torn rotator cuff injury. c. back injury. d. torn knee meniscus.
C. Back injury
48. What is the most common work-related problem among health care workers? a. Disease from dirty needles b. Infection due to patient contact c. Back problems from improper lifting d. Excessive radiation exposure
C. Back problems from improper lifting
42. Touching a patient without permission is the legal definition of: a. assault. b. malpractice. c. battery. d. perjury.
C. Battery
38. Which of the following is an example of good body mechanics? a. Carry objects at arms length b. Bend from the waist c. Bend from the knees d. Keep feet close together
C. Bend from the knees
3. You are working as a radiographer in a small community hospital. As you get on the elevator to ride up to the cafeteria for your morning break, you are joined by a group of people who are quite vocal about the skin tone and dialect of the doctor that is taking care of one of their family members. This group inherently demonstrates a group: a. Consortium b. Consensus c. Bias d. Assimilation
C. Bias
14. A person's hair color and texture as well as his or her skin condition would be an example of what area of human diversity? a. Social organizations b. Communication c. Biologic variations d. Environmental control
C. Biologic variations
15. In a patient condition of hypoxia: a. Respiratory depth remains unchanged owing to increased cardiac output b. Heat rate decreases owing to low oxygen saturation values c. Blood pressure increases d. Respiratory rate remains unchanged
C. Blood pressure increases
3. Body homeostasis is often referred to as the body's "steady state" and is maintained by important body systems using physiologic feedback loops. Vital signs are an excellent indicator of the body's response to conditions and therapies the patient is undergoing. A key strength of using vital signs as an indicator of homeostasis is that they: a. Are subjective and subject to interpretation b. Can be confirmed by asking the patient how he or she feels c. Can be assessed quickly, and the data revealed are objective d. Are measured using interventional catheters and therefore are very accurate
C. Can be assessed quickly, and the data revealed are objective
45. What is the best way to make sure that you have the correct patient for a radiographic examination? a. Ask the receptionist who is next b. Take the next patient in line c. Check the patient's armband d. Call the patient's name
C. Check the patient's armband
36. Objective data regarding a patient's history: a. Are more important than subjective data b. Deal with a patient's feelings c. Consist of a patient's vital signs d. Are an effective way to explain the patient's pain level
C. Consist of a patient's vital signs
12. There are four primary image quality factors. They are: a. SID, mAs, SOD, and kVp. b. primary radiation, scatter radiation, secondary radiation, and remnant radiation. c. contrast, IR exposure or density, distortion, and recorded detail. d. grids, collimation, filtration, and beam restriction.
C. Contrast, IR exposure or density, distortion and recorded detail
14. Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? a. intentional misconduct b. none of the above c. contributory negligence d. gross negligence
C. Contributory negligence
11. The best way to characterize an ethical dilemma is to describe it as the: a. correct choice is absolutely identified. b. incorrect choice is absolutely identified. c. correct choice is not entirely clear and has both positive and negative consequences. d. moral thing to do based on your religious values.
C. Correct choice is not entirely clear and has both positive and negative consequences
23. As you prepare to study for your final examinations, one of your classmates asks to study with you because she has not been keeping up with the lectures, having missed a few classes over the last week. This person always seems unhappy and is never prepared for clinical experiences. She frequently complains about having to get up so early to get to class and that she is not sure she made the right choice in selecting radiologic technology. Studying with this classmate will: a. provide a positive experience for you and make you feel grateful for not being "in her shoes" b. make for a positive experience by allowing you to review material you already understand c. create a negative climate for both of you; you should politely excuse yourself d. give you a positive experience and the opportunity to improve her attitude toward the profession
C. Create a negative climate for both of you; you should politely excuse yourself
5. Which of the following would be considered an unethical practice for a radiologic technologist? a. Repeating a radiograph because of incorrect technique selection b. Watching an interesting case c. Criticizing a doctor or team member in a private or public forum d. Reporting unethical practices of a co-worker
C. Criticizing a doctor or team member in a private or public forum
45. At a recent professional meeting of radiographers, an attendee stands up at a business meeting and states that the chairperson uses excessive radiation and violates ALARA daily. The person making these statements would be committing an act of: a. civil disobedience. b. militant disobedience. c. defamation. d. fraud.
C. Defamation
10. In her studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as a. depression b. bargaining c. denial d. anger
C. Denial
8. Which of the following is considered to be the first stage of acceptance of dying for a terminally ill patient? a. Anger b. Frustration c. Denial and isolation d. Shock
C. Denial and isolation
6. You have just completed a chest radiograph on a young female patient. As you review the image, you notice she was wearing a necklace during the exposure and it is clearly over the chest anatomy. Submitting this image to the radiologist for interpretation would: a. be of no consequence to the interpretation. b. add to the diagnostic efficacy of the image as it demonstrates the patient's taste in jewelry. c. detract from the diagnostic efficacy as it is not part of the patient's anatomy d. increase the diagnostic yield of information.
C. Detract from the diagnostic efficacy as it is not part of the patient's anatomy
23. A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following positions? a. lateral recumbent b. dorsal recumbent with head elevated c. dorsal recumbent with feet elevated d. seated with feet support
C. Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated
11. The latent image in computed radiography is actually _____ within the barium fluorohalide material. a. sensitivity specks b. silver halide specks c. electron traps d. all of the above
C. Electron traps
9. You have received a request to perform a radiographic study on a patient who is clearly intoxicated. In preparing to perform this procedure, you should: a. Close all the examination room doors to prevent others from hearing the patient's language b. Put on a patient gown in case the patient vomits on you c. Ensure your safety by checking to see that the hospital security officer will stay with the patient during the procedure d. Prepare patient restraint devices, including restraint jackets, and tape in order to hold him down during the procedure
C. Ensure your saftey by checking to see that the hospital security officer will stay with the patient during the procedure
2. The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) reserves the right to revoke any certification from an individual whom it has registered. Reasons for revocation can vary from ethical violations to failure to maintain continuing education credits, just to mention two. This process of sanctioning demonstrates professional _____ to society. a. morals b. self-regulation c. ethics d. collective bargaining
C. Ethics
36. Placing a child in a Pigg-O-Stat without the parent's permission may warrant: a. assault. b. battery. c. false imprisonment. d. slander.
C. False imprisonment
39. Which of the following would describe the Fowler's position? a. Lateral recumbent b. Prone c. Feet lower than head d. Head lower than feet
C. Feet lower than head
33. The spread of infection via contaminated food referenced is spread by: a. Air b. Vector c. Fomite d. Contact
C. Fomite
16. Individuals born between 1981 and 1995 are generally referred to as: a. The baby boomers b. Generation X c. Generation Y d. The lost generation
C. Generation Y
2. Establishing a rapport with a patient contributes greatly to a successful immobilization exercise. To establish patient rapport, the imaging professional should: a. tell the patient you need to hurry to get the examination done. b. pull out all your immobilization tools in front of the patient to show you know what you're doing. c. gently tell the patient what you need to accomplish and how you would like to move forward with the examination. d. ask for two or three other technologists to come into the room as you begin the positioning.
C. Gently tell the patient what you nee to accomplish and how you would like to move forward with the examination
7. Effective techniques to use when radiographing children include: a. standing up over the child to show your compassion. b. communicating with the parents exclusively and letting them work with their child. c. getting down to eye level with the child and establishing rapport. d. asking a security officer to be in the room to show your authority.
C. Getting down to eye level with the child and establishing rapport
31. Which of the following is not a method of sterilization? a. Autoclaving b. Moist heat c. Hand washing d. Steam under pressure
C. Hand washing
13. The irrational fear of a homosexual person's sexual orientation is preferred to as: a. Heterosexuality b. Uni-sexuality c. Homophobia d. Homogeneosity
C. Homophobia
24. As you and a colleague transport a patient back to the ER, the patient's fingers get caught in the wheels of the wheelchair, but there is no apparent injury to the patient. This event does require that an incident report be completed. The incident report must be part of the: a. patient's health record. b. patient's medical history on discharge. c. hospital's risk management documentation. d. nurses' notes in the patient's chart.
C. Hospital's risk managment documentation
1. The device that intercepts the exit radiation from a patient and creates the radiographic image is the: a. radiographic grid. b. collimator. c. image receptor. d. image workstation.
C. Image receptor
44. The device that intercepts the exit radiation from a patient and creates the radiographic image is the: a. radiographic grid b. Collimator c. image receptor d. image workstation
C. Image receptor
18. While in your care for a radiographic procedure, a patient asks to see his chart. Which of the following is the appropriate response? a. give the patient that chart and leave him alone for a few minutes to review it b. inform the patient that the chart is for health care providers to view, not for the patient c. inform the patient that he has the right to see his chart but that he should request to view it with his physician so that it is interpreted properly d. inform the patient that you do not know where the chart is
C. Inform the patient that he has the right to see his chart but that he should request to view it with his physician so that it is interperted properly
9. Special protection should be taken to prevent excessive exposure to a. energy b. electromagnetic energy c. ionizing radiation d. radio waves
C. Ionizing radiation
19. All of the following would be characteristics of a patient health record EXCEPT it: a. is a single record on a single patient only. b. may be maintained in paper and/or electronic media. c. is required for hospitals and emergency room visits only. d. promotes communication among providers and continuity of care.
C. Is required for hospitals and emergency room visits only
3 mL
What size balloon should be used for a child?
31. When taking a patient history, it is important to: a. Remain very impersonal and show little emotion or empathy toward the patient b. Call the patient by his or her first name to establish instant credibility c. Maintain a polite and professional demeanor when gathering information d. Memorize the patient's comments to relay them to the radiologist later
C. Maintain a polite and professional demeanor when gathering information
41. A document that guides a hospital as to its purpose and role in the community it serves is called a: a. constitution b. set of bylaws c. mission statement d. master plan
C. Mission statement
55. Acceptable informed consent: a. is required for a chest radiograph. b. is provided in English exclusively. c. must be witnessed by someone not involved in the procedure. d. should not confuse patients with alternative procedures or therapies
C. Must be witnessed by someone involved in the procedure
2. Nasogastric (NG) tubes are inserted through the patient's _____ with the end of the tube placed in the _____. a. Mouth, duodenum b. Oropharynx; stomach c. Nasopharynx; stomach d. Mouth; ileum
C. Nasopharynx; stomach
4. Which of the following would not reflect a human diversity characteristic? a. Handicap b. Gender c. Occupation d. Race
C. Occupation
16. The Octostop immobilization device is used: a. on adults. b. in conjunction with infant mummification. c. on infants and children younger than 1 year. d. for upright imaging studies only.
C. On infants and children younger than 1 year
2. Radiographic exposure technique selection is performed with what component of an x-ray system? a. Generator electronics cabinet b. X-ray tube assembly c. Operator's console d. Radiographic table
C. Operator's console
4. A sudden drop in a patient's blood pressure caused by standing or sitting upright is called: a. hypertension. b. anemia. c. orthostatic hypotension. d. postural emesis.
C. Orthostatic hypotension
7. Vitamins, herbals and dietary supplements are classified as: a. Generics b. Opioids c. Over-the-counter drugs d. Analgesics
C. Over-the-counter drugs
18. Fluoroscopy done in the surgical theater is typically accomplished with a: a. portable radiographic unit. b. mobile radiographic unit. c. portable C-arm system. d. conventional R/F system.
C. Portable C-arm system
47. In a legal proceeding, the actions of a radiographer will be judged with regard to his or her compliance with the: a. actions of other radiographers working in the same department. b. orders of a physician. c. Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy. d. Standards of Care of Medicine.
C. Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy
7. Being rude and impolite to a patient's family members because they are asking how long an examination will take is an example of a(n): a. ethics violation. b. violation of the institution's Standards of Care. c. professional etiquette violation. d. ethical dilemma.
C. Professional etiquette violation
3. In the diagnosis of patient disease states, physicians can select from an array of medical diagnostic modalities. A few of these involve the use of ionizing energy to create a medical image. If a physician is concerned about the use of ionizing radiation, he or she may choose to order any of the following diagnostic modalities EXCEPT: a. Thermograms b. medical sonography c. Radiography d. magnetic resonance imaging
C. Radiography
54. As you position an adult patient for a skull examination, you begin to position a shadow shield attached to the x-ray tube assembly in order to protect the patient's thyroid from exposure. While you are doing so, the lead shield falls and hits the patient in the throat. Apologies are given and nursing care is administered to the patient to take care of the throat trauma. Eventually, the patient's voice changes and he contends that the accident led to his throat damage. In the court proceedings, his attorney claims negligence and uses the principle of: a. respondeat superior. b. fraud. c. res ipsa loquitur. d. HIPAA violations.
C. Res Ipsa Loquitur
33. Which of the following is the rule for pediatric patients undergoing a radiographic exam? a. Always restrain children b. Restrain children under 2 years old c. Restrain children when necessary d. Never restrain children
C. Restrain children when necessary
15. As you position patients for various radiographic procedures, you will occasionally angle the x-ray tube assembly. This intentional use of tube angles is referred to as: a. size distortion. b. size minification. c. shape distortion. d. magnification.
C. Shape distortion
50. As you position patients for various radiographic procedures, you will occasionally angle the x-ray tube assembly. This intentional use of tube angles is referred to as: a. size distortion b. size minification c. shape distortion d. magnification
C. Shape distortion
12. As you enter a patient's room to perform a portable examination you notice the patient sleeping on her side with one leg over the other with the knees bent. This patient is in the _____ position. a. Fowler's b. supine c. Sims' d. None of the above is correct.
C. Sim's
3. The most common type of nasogastric tube used for stomach decompression is the: a. Swan-Ganz catheter b. Central venous pressure line c. Single-lumen Levin tube d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
C. Single-lumen Levin tube
19. The loss of radiographic image resolution is often referred to as "unsharpness." All of the following contribute to total image unsharpCness EXCEPT the: a. size and shape of the patient's anatomy. b. pixel size of the image receptor (IR) and monitor display. c. size and shape of the exposure field (collimation). d. image geometry factors such as SID, OID, and focal spot size.
C. Size and shape of the exposure field (collimation)
14. To measure blood pressure, you will need a: a. Thermometer and otoscope b. Stethoscope and pulse oximeter c. Stethoscope and sphygmomanometer d. Sphygmomanometer and otoscope
C. Stethoscope and sphygmomanometer
13. The term veracity refers to: a. preventing evil and harm. b. doing no harm but also doing good. c. telling the truth. d. protecting the patient from radiation.
C. Telling the truth
17. When taking a portable chest radiograph on a patient undergoing oxygen therapy: a. It is safe to remove the oxygen delivery during the setup and exposure b. The oxygen should be turned off briefly during the exposure to prevent an electrical spark c. The oxygen should not be removed without the consent of a physician or respiratory care practitioner d. The oxygen delivery system should be low-flow rate only
C. The oxygen should not be removed without the consent of a physician or respiratory care practitioner
49. When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that: a. the patient ha a palpable mass in the upper quadrant of the left breast b. the patient appears to have a productive cough c. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position d. the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mmHg
C. The patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position
The LPN/LVN is discussing health care with colleagues. For which reason(s) is the health care system undergoing many changes at this time? (Select all that apply.) A. The population of young people is growing very rapidly. B. There are more people living in poverty than there are self-supporting people. C. There is a shortage of health care personnel. D. Elderly people tend to have extensive health care needs.
C. There is a shortage of health care personnel. D. Elderly people tend to have extensive health care needs. Rationale: Shortage of health care personnel and the growing population of the elderly requiring extensive health care are influencing the current level of change in the health care system.
5. Of all of the energy traveling through the x-ray tube during a radiographic exposure, the largest percentage of this electrical energy is converted to: a. x-radiation. b. infrared energy. c. thermal energy (heat). d. mechanical energy.
C. Thermal energy (heat)
25. All of the following are viral infections EXCEPT: a. Common cold b. Warts c. Tinea pedis d. Cold sores
C. Tinea pedis
29. When a disease is spread by an insect depositing the pathogen on or in a human, it is transmitted by what method? a. Vehicle b. Fomite c. Vector d. Direct contact
C. Vector
16. Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? a. autonomy b. fidelity c. veracity d. beneficence
C. Veracity
38. A female radiography student is considered pregnant when she: a. verbally states she is pregnant to her classmates and clinical instructor b. begins to show the typical signs of a pregnancy c. voluntarily declares her pregnancy in writing to program officials d. requests a second personnel monitoring device and a wraparound lead apron
C. Voluntary declares her pregnancy in writing to program officials
Step 10
Checked the label of the medication container with the medication administration record before returning vial to storage.
Step 1 for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter
Clamp the drainage tubing below the sampling port of the catheter for 30 minutes. Apply gloves, cleanse the sampling port with a disinfectant swab, and allow to dry
What is the nurses role when a consent is being signed?
Clarify facts and witness client signature.
Medical asepsis
Clean Technique: reduce or prevent the spread of microorganisms
What is the process for showering a patient?
Clean to dirty / top to bottom
What is a theory?
Composed of a group of concepts, describes pattern of reality
What is one thing the DSP should do before the doctor writes the order for a medication? A) write the medication in the individual's medication log B) check that the doctor is licensed to prescribe medications C) ask the doctor about the possible side effects of the medication D) tell the doctor about other medications being taken by the individual
D) tell the doctor about other medications being taken by the individual
26. Once an organism is infected and by the time symptoms of the infectious process manifest, several steps have taken place. These steps consist of: 1. Multiplication and spread 2. Encounter and entry 3. Host 4. Damage 5. Reservoir 6. Fomite 7. Outcome a. 3 and 6 only b. 2, 4, 5, 6, and 7 only c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 4 and 7 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 7 only
19. A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? 1. failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation 2. performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination 3. discussing a patient's condition with a third party a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
26. Which of the following may cause a patient to faint? 1. Hunger 2. Emotional stress 3. Lack of sleep a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
5. Which method is effective in communicating with a patient? 1. Professional appearance 2. Touch 3. Pantomime techniques a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
12. When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to 1. move quickly 2. address them by their full name 3. give straightforward instructions a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
16. Which of the following transfers can be used to move a patient from a wheelchair to an examination table? a. pivot b. assisted standing c. standby assist d. all of the above
D. All of the above
22. The fight-or-flight response is a natural process of the body. It is characterized by: a. the release of hormones to increase metabolism b. increased metabolism of fats and sugars to increase available energy to the body c. a higher level of alertness through stimulation of the central nervous system d. all of the above
D. All of the above
24. Pathogenic organisms have the ability to: a. Cause cellular and tissue damage b. Secrete endotoxins c. Replicate and cause blockages to the flow of fluids and gases d. All of the above
D. All of the above
24. Which of the following is (are) usually included as part of the chronology of a clinical history? a. Onset b. Duration c. Frequency d. All of the above
D. All of the above
27. Causes of stress include a. individual perception of wants b. poor physical health c. lack of time management d. all of the above
D. All of the above
28. It is important for the professional imaging technologist to thoroughly understand his or her responsibilities with regard to health information confidentiality. Particularly important considerations include: a. a testimonial statement must be signed, indicating your awareness and responsibility in maintaining the privacy of patient records. b. all examination results are released to patients by physicians only. c. all health care personnel have the same responsibilities for maintain confidentiality, including students. d. all of the above.
D. All of the above
28. Which of the following is (are) part of the sacred seven elements of the patient clinical history? a. Localization b. Aggravating factors c. Quality d. All of the above
D. All of the above
31. Critical thinking is an essential part of the radiologic sciences profession. This requires the professional radiographer to use broad intellectual skills and experiences when making the correct choice for any given situation, as a result of the fact that: a. many decisions are difficult and complex b. working with each patient is a unique experience c. no two procedures or treatments are the same d. all of the above
D. All of the above
35. A high-quality radiologic science program should provide: a. published policies and procedures that involve clinical sites b. a competency-based clinical experience c. access to current imaging technology d. all of the above
D. All of the above
7. Which of the following characterize the development of a toddler (1 to 3 years of age)? a. Understands simple abstractions b. Is unable to understand more than one word for something c. Is unable to take the viewpoint of another d. All of the above
D. All of the above
42. In determining a patient's description of his or her pain, a good question to ask would be: a. "How would you describe the pain?" b. "When did the pain first happen?" c. "if the pain comes and goes, how often does it occur and what is the time span between occurrences?" d. All of the above questions.
D. All of the above questions.
26. Before a diagnostic study can be initiated: a. a formal, documented examination request is entered into the institution's information system. b. the requesting physician must be identified on the request. c. reasons for the examination must be on the request. d. all of the above should be done.
D. All of the above should be done
5. All of the following are true of body temperature measurement EXCEPT: a. Rectal and TA measurement are typically 1 degree higher than oral readings b. Temporal artery (TA) measurements can be measured in 3 seconds noninvasively c. Body temperatures are read in degrees Fahrenheit or Celsius d. All temperatures should be identical regardless of where the temperature is measured
D. All temperatures should be identical regardless of where the temperature is measured
15. The organization that is principally responsible for the general welfare of the profession of radiologic technology, through its efforts in continuing education, practice standards, and socioeconomics is the: a. Association of Educators in Imaging and Radiologic Sciences (AEIRS) b. American Healthcare Radiology Administrators (AHRA) c. Society for Computer Applications in Radiology (SCAR) d. American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)
D. American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)
15. Where is the human center of gravity located? a. at the center of the diaphragm b. within 1 to 2 inches of the umbilicus c. midway between the hip joints d. at approximately sacral level two
D. At approximately sacral level two
21. Which of the following is an example of a spinal trauma immobilization device? a. air splint b. antishock garment c. traction splint d. backboard
D. Backboard
10. The drying patient who wants to stay alive long enough to see his son graduate from college would be in what stage of the dying process? a. Denial b. Depression c. Anger d. Bargaining
D. Bargaining
20. If a radiographer performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have and elbow examination, which of the following charges may be brought against the radiographer? a. asssault b. false imprisonment c. defamation d. battery
D. Battery
46. "Touching a patient without permission" is the legal definition of what? a. Malpractice b. Perjury c. Assault d. Battery
D. Battery
4. What type of shock is caused by a failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs? a. Septic b. Neurogenic c. Anaphylactic d. Cardiogenic
D. Cardiogenic
24. The Pigg-O-Stat is an immobilization device used for which examination? a. upper extremity b. pelvis c. skull d. chest
D. Chest
34. In what aspect of the education program for a radiologic science professional is the student exposed to real-life experiences that allow him or her to transfer knowledge into action? a. cognitive b. classroom c. laboratory d. clinical
D. Clinical
10. The term PSP technology commonly refers to: a. direct digital imaging. b. indirect DR imaging. c. photon static production technology. d. computed radiography (CR).
D. Computed radiography (CR)
2. A common name for an emergency cart within medical imaging is the _____ cart. a. First aid b. Code c. Red d. Crash
D. Crash
26. Stress is defined as a. a feeling of anxiety and fear b. not having enough time to complete commitments c. a breaking point d. demand on time, energy, and resources with some threat included
D. Demand on time, energy, and resources with some threat included
27. A disease spread by kissing is being transmitted by which of the following methods? a. Vector b. Droplet c. Vehicle d. Direct contact
D. Direct contact
10. In preparation of a barium examination of a colostomy patient, it is important to: a. Tell the patient to not take his or her bismuth antiodor tablets before the examination b. Understand the sensitivity of these patients to their condition and lifestyle change c. Irrigate the stoma the night before the morning of the examination d. Do all of the above
D. Do all of the above
11. When dealing with a patient who has a terminal disease, it is important to: a. Interact with him or her based on his or her particular stage of death b. Provide for his or her physical needs c. Not play psychologist and attempt to cure the patient's depression d. Do all of the above
D. Do all of the above
43. An imaging sciences professional: a. Relates his or her personal experiences to the patient's when taking a history b. Uses "pet names" such as "dear," "cutie," and "honey" in order to encourage the patient to provide more intimate information about his or her condition c. Relies exclusively on objective patient data so as not to bias the patient history d. Does none of the above
D. Does none of the above
44. The doctrine of respondeat superior states that the: a. thing speaks for itself. b. accused must prove innocence. c. buyer should beware of a medical purchase. d. employer is responsible for employees' actions
D. Employer is responsible for employee's actions
21. An example of a stress buffer would be: a. taking antacids the day of a big examination b. cramming for an examination with friends the night before a test c. agreeing to work more hours a few days before a big test to ease your money problems d. exercising with friends for 45 minutes the day before a big test
D. Exercising with friends for 45 minutes the day before a big test
A patient states that she is unable to get her transparent dressing to stay in place. What instruction should the nurse provide the patient?
Make sure that you have a margin of 1-1.5 inches around the wound and that the skin is thoroughly dry before applying the dressing
34. In the process of questioning a patient about the reason for having the requested x-ray examination, the patient becomes irritated and complains that "she is getting pretty tired of saying the same things over and over to all these nurses." An effective method to deal with this patient's attitude would be to: a. Call security and have her escorted back to the outpatient center receptionist b. Tell her it's not your fault she is upset and not to take it out on you c. Not to ask any additional questions, so as not to upset her anymore d. Explain that each person asking questions is trying to find additional important information about her condition
D. Explain that each person asking questions is trying to find additional important information about her condition
10. Using moral rules as your complete guide to determining appropriate professional behavior: a. is a reliable strategy to avoid ethical dilemmas. b. assumes everyone has the same moral values as you do, which is generally true. c. is too restrictive and of no value in decision making. d. has its weaknesses, as others may not have the same moral value system as you.
D. Has its weaknesses, as others may not have the same moral value system as you
33. The transfer of knowledge gained in the laboratory or classroom setting is best demonstrated: a. on human phantoms in the practice laboratory b. through essay questions on a major examination c. on volunteer patients in a skills laboratory d. in an actual clinical setting on patients
D. In an actual clinical setting on patients
20. The process of establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host is referred to as: a. Pathogen b. Inflammation c. Nosocomial d. Infection
D. Infection
25. The 15% rule helps explain the effect of _______ on exposure. a. grids b. mAs c. SID d. kilovoltage peak
D. Kilovoltage peak
49. The invisible, unprocessed data on an image detector immediately after x-ray exposure form the _____ image. a. remnant b. manifest c. primary d. latent
D. Latent
9. The invisible, unprocessed data on an image detector immediately after x-ray exposure form the _____ image. a. remnant b. manifest c. primary d. latent
D. Latent
37. A few days after a stereotactic breast biopsy performed by a radiologist in a breast imaging center the patient returns to her physician with an obvious infection at the incision site. This would be an example of a(n): a. Infection caused by patient neglect b. Nosocomial infection c. Idiopathic infection d. Iatrogenic infection
D. Latrogenic infection
27. Which of the following describes an undesirable method of questioning that provides information that may direct the answer toward a suspected symptom or complaint? a. Facilitation b. Palpation c. Nonverbal communication d. Leading question
D. Leading question
46. Getting a speeding ticket from a state police officer on an interstate highway would be a violation of: a. case law. b. constitutional law. c. Common Law of England. d. legislative law.
D. Legislative Law
49. Written defamation of a person is termed: a. invasion of privacy. b. criminal law. c. slander. d. libel.
D. Libel
13. When performing a two-person lift of a patient from a wheelchair, it is important to: a. ask the patient to put his or her arms up over his or her head. b. lift the patient with his or her knees bent. c. bend over from the back and lift the patient's legs with your partner. d. lift the patient as a unit, with his or her arms crossed and legs straight.
D. Lift the patient as a unit, with his or her arms crossed and legs straight
6. The medical imaging specialty of _______ uses radiopharmaceuticals and gamma radiation in the production of medical images for patient diagnosis. a. radiation oncology b. MRI c. Sonography d. nuclear medicine
D. Nuclear medicine
32. Critical thinking skills are necessary for the competent medical imaging professional. Various organizations within the radiologic sciences provide guidance and documentation of these traits. As an example, the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT) publishes ______________ that help define specific professional expectations and responsibilities. a. Essentials b. Standards of Care c. rules and regulations d. practice standards
D. Practice standards
17. A dying patient who has asked to see his loved ones and is making preparations to die would be in the _____ stage of dying. a. Anger b. Bargaining c. Grief d. Preparatory depression
D. Preparatory depression
43. What is the best way to move a heavy object, such as a case of x-ray film? a. Lift it up b. Hold it away from your body c. Drag it d. Push it
D. Push it
20. Belief in racial superiority, leading to discrimination and prejudice toward races considered inferior is: a. Gender b. Homophobia c. Race d. Racism
D. Racism
13. The ideal patient immobilization device would be: a. made of radiopaque materials. b. elaborate in design and disposable. c. expensive and flexible in application for positioning. d. radiolucent, durable, and easy to use for the radiographer.
D. Radiolucent, durable, and easy to use for the radiographer
17. Which of the following is a listing of individuals holding certification credentials in a particular profession? a. accreditation b. certification c. licensure d. registry
D. Registry
12. Professional certification of medical imaging practitioners, such as radiographers, is offered by the American: a. Society of Radiologic Technologists b. College of Radiology c. Board of Radiology d. Registry of Radiologic Technologists
D. Registry of Radiologic Technologists
51. All of the following are necessary for a legitimate case of malpractice EXCEPT: a. a clear definition of duty. b. proof of damages c. a clear illustration of one's breach of duty. d. rumor and innuendo that the professional performed in such a manner as to create cause for damages.
D. Rumor and innuendo that the professional performed in such a manner as to create cause for damages
20. Medical images that are displayed on a television monitor rather than on film are referred to as _____ images. a. latent b. hardcopy c. amplified d. soft copy
D. Soft copy
5, 10 or 30 mL
What size balloon should be used for an adult?
8. When performing a barium enema examination: a. Show the patient the entire volume of enema solution to prepare them for the study b. Encourage the patient to use short breaths or gasps and to tighten abdominal movements, similar to a bowel movement c. Continue emptying the barium solution as the patient cramps to encourage peristalsis d. Suspend the enema bag above the table at a height no greater than 30 inches
D. Suspend the enema bag above the table at a height no greater than 30 inches
10. The levels of blood pressures that are read on a sphygmomanometer are: a. Arterial over venous b. Diastolic over systolic c. None of the above d. Systolic over diastolic
D. Systolic over diastolic
18. Which of the following is an example of a negative nonverbal communication technique? a. Giving a pleasant smile b. Maintaining eye contact c. Leaning toward the patient when talking to him or her d. Talking to the patient with your back turned as you record in the chart
D. Talking to the patient with your back turned as you record in the chart
18. The organization (chart order, forms) of a hospital patient record is determined by a. the accrediting body's suggested format b. Medicare regulations c. the American Hospital Association-suggested format d. the hospital's own preference
D. The hospital's own preference
38. Which of the following is not a legal right of a patient in the radiology department? a. To know the technologist's name b. To refuse the radiographic examination c. To be informed of the possible risks d. To ask for and receive extra studies
D. To ask for and receive extra studies
Crosslink or connective tissue theory
DNA and conn tissue interact with free rads to bond that descrease tissues ability to replace itself. results in dryness, wrinkles, loss of elasticity
1) Time last voided 2) palpate bladder for distention/ do a bladder scan 3) LOC and mobility to assess whether or not assistance is needed 4) gender and age 5) allergies to latex, shellfish (iodine) or tape 6) any condition that will impair the passage of the catheter 7) the patient understands the purpose of catheterization Patient SHOULD SPEAK ENGLISH, and if not USE THE LANGUAGE LINE. This is an invasive, highly sensitive procedure! 8) patient is CLEAN
Describe the nursing assessments that should be done prior to catheterizing a client. Name 7 assessments
What is nursing theory?
Developed to describe nursing; differentiates nursing from other fields
When are values formed in life?
Development of values begins in childhood
A congenital disorder that causes the absence of cell-mediated immunity. They can have a thymus transplant.
Di George's Syndrome
Pulse deficit
Difference in radial and apical pulse
Step 20i
Discarded uncapped needle and attached syringe.
Step 16
Discarded used dressing and supplies in waste bag.
15.
Discards swabs as they are used; does not move them across the open, sterile kit and field.
25.
Discards the catheter.
Step 15
Discussed findings with patient and recorded findings in nurse's notes.
Step 28
Disposed of equipment, linen and used materials.
Step 4 for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter
Document the collection of the specimen
16 French 5mL Foley catheter inserted, tolerated well, output of 875 mL clear yellow urine, pain free, urine specimen sent to the lab
Document the procedure
Step 18
Documented assessment of procedure and patient's tolerance to procedure in nurses notes.
Step 14
Documented procedure and patient's tolerance of procedure in nurse's notes
What should you always avoid when mixing medications?
Don't contaminate one medication with another
12c
Dons sterile gloves (from kit). (Touching only the glove package, removes it from the sterile kit before donning the gloves.)
What pulse is located on the top of the foot?
Dorsalis Pedis
Exudate means what?
Drainage
7.
Drapes patient. If dorsal recumbent position is used, folds blanket in a diamond shape, wraps corners around legs, anchors under feet, and folds upper corner down over perineum. If in Sims' position, drapes so that the rectal area is covered.
17. Over the next 3 decades, which of the following age group is expected to be the fastest-growing segment of the population? a. 35+ b. 55+ c. 65+ d. 75+ e. 85+
E. 85+
15. Human diversity consists of characteristics associated with: a. Age b. Ethnicity c. Gender d. Lifestyle e. All of the above
E. All of the above
39. Disciplinary action may be initiated if a student commits which serious infraction? a. disclosure of confidential information b. falsification of records c. cheating d. intoxication e. all of the above
E. All of the above
40. A qualified practitioner directly supervises a student radiographer by a. reviewing the request in relation to the student's achievement b. evaluating the condition of the patient in relation to the student's knowledge c. being present while the student conducts the examination d. reviewing and approving the procedure e. all of the above
E. All of the above
Sterilization
Elimination of germs from inanimate objects
Disinfection
Elimination of many germs from inanimate objects
What is the function of urination?
Elimination of waste (nitrogenous, toxins, drugs) and homeostasis (water balance, acid base balance etc)
Pelvic Exam
Empty bladder, provide complete privacy
Who was founder of modern nursing?
Florence Nightingale
NPH, NPH, regular, regular, regular, regular, NPH, regular, NPH, NPH, regular, NPH
Example of mixing 25 units of insulin using NPH and regular insulin. Wipe the top of both insulin vials with the alcohol swab. Inject 15 units of air in the _____ vial making sure the needle doesn't touch the insulin (Always enter the same amount of air for the amount of insulin you are going to need. After you enter the air in the ____ vial pull the needle out (do not draw up insulin yet) and insert 10 units of air into the _______ insulin vial. After you inject the air into the _______ insulin vial, draw up the 10 units of ______ insulin. Once you have drawn up your 10 units of ______ insulin, you can now draw up the _____ insulin (making sure you roll the vial between your hands first and do not push any of the _____ insulin into the _____ vial.) Once your needle is inside the ____ vial, pull on the insulin plunger carefully and slowly to bring it to the 25 unit mark - 10 units of _____ insulin plus 15 units of _____ = 25 total units
A resident is visually impaired. You need to do the following except
Feed the person
M/F - Wipe from the clitoris toward the anus
Female
M/F: Gently retract the labia and expose the urinary meatus
Female
M/F: Lubricate catheter 2.5-5 cm (1-2 inches)
Female
m/f: Advance the catheter 2.5-5 cm (1-2 inches)
Female
m/f: position with knees flexed with slight external rotation of the hips
Female
Step 9
Filled the safety syringe with correct amount of medication.
Step 9
Filled the safety syringe with correct amount of medication. a. Selected correct type of safety syringe and needle size. b. Cleaned top of vial, if necessary. c. Injected correct amount of air into vial. d. Withdrew correct dosage. a. Used sterile technique when filling syringe.
What differs between generics and trade name?
Fillers and dyes
How do you locate the deltoid?
Find the acromion process and it is 2 to 3 finger breaths slightly posterior .
How do you find the vastus lateralus?
Find the knee and the greater trochanter. Place top of the greater trochanter and the other at the knee and inject in between the goal posts
What is the last stage of a continuum of symptoms that result from HIV?
Profoundly immunosuppressed
25, 27
For an intradermal injection, use a #____ to #_____ gauge safety needle that is 1/4 to 5/8 inch long.
1
For an intradermal injection, use a ____ mL syringe calibrated into hundredths of a milliliter.
23, 25, 1
For intramuscular injections, a smaller needle as a #___ to #_____ gauge needle, ____ inch long is commonly used for the deltoid muscle.
1
For intramuscular injections, an emaciated client may require a shorter needle (e.g. _____ inch)
3, 5
For intramuscular injections, usually a ___ to ____mL syringe is needed.
2
For intramuscular injections, very obese clients may require a needle longer than 1 1/2 inches (e.g. ____ inches).
greater than 150mL (perhaps a bit less, but do NOT catheterize for less than 50mL.
For what volume should be catheterize to decompress the bladder.
Absorption Dressing//
For wounds with moderate to large amounts of drainage Wicks drainage from the wound -Calcium Alginate -MeSalt -Aquacel Comes in paste, granules, sheeting or rope forms
Vitamin C
Forming substances that hold tissue together; healthy blood vessels, skin, gums, bones, and teeth; wound healing, preventing bleeding; resistance to infection
5-7 inches insert to the bifurcation
How far down the catheter do you lubricate for a MALE patient? What is this landmark on the catheter for proper insertion?
17.
If a urine specimen is to be collected, uses the dominant hand to place the specimen container into the flow of urine; caps container using sterile technique.
insulin
If an insulin is being administered, an ________ syringe is used.
6.
If patient is confused or unable to follow directions, obtains help.
21.
If resistance is felt, withdraws the catheter; does not force the catheter.
22.
If the catheter touches the labia or nonsterile linens, or is inadvertently inserted in the vagina, considers it contaminated and inserts a new, sterile catheter.
14c
If the labia slips back over the urinary meatus, considers it contaminated. Changes gloves and repeats the cleansing procedure.
scan the patient before calling the MD.
If you realize that the pt has not voided in 6 hours what is the first thing you should do?
this antibody has to do with anaphalatic
IgE
What electrolyte is responsible for this: -Skeletal muscle contraction -carbohydrate metabolism -adenosine triphosphate formation -B-complex vitamin activation -DNA and protein synthisis -Extracellular magnesium regulates blood coagulation and skeletal muscle contractility
Magnesium
Step 13
Informed patient that oximeter alarm will sound if sensor falls off or it client moves sensor.
patient is going to have major abdominal surgery
Insert indwelling catheter
Step 24
Inserted catheter gently 2-3 inches in female and 7-9 inches in male, or until urine flows out of catheter's end, collecting specimen as needed or allowing bladder to empty fully.
Step 12
Inspected catheter for intactness after removal.
Step 4
Introduced self and greeted patient.
Important in the immediate in inflammation response and phagocytosis. Predominantly in the liver and spleen, long life spans months to years.
Macrophages
Step 10
Maintained sufficient slack on oxygen tubing and secured to patient's clothing.
What is ADPIE (definition and the acronym)
It is the process for basic nursing care. Assess, diagnose, plan, implement and evaluate
Do we shave the patient b/f surgery?
It is viewed as controversial.
Define patient advocacy
It is where a nurse speaks on behalf of the patient, protecting their interests and ensuring that their needs and desires are considered.
The nurse has inserted a catheter 7.5 cm in a female patient and obtains no urine return even though her bladder is distended. What action should the nurse take at this time?
Leave the catheter in vagina as a landmark and insert another sterile catheter
Roman numeral for 1000
M
8-10 Fr
What size lumen catheter should be used for a child?
The patient complains "It feels like the drain is pulling on my surgical site". What is the nurse's best action?
Make sure there is slack in the tubing from the reservoir to the wound, allowing the patient movement and avoiding pulling at the insertion site
M/F: Advance the catheter to bifurcation of drainage and balloon port
Male
M/F: Gently retract foreskin, exposing urinary meatus
Male
M/F: Wipe around the urethral meatus in a circular motion
Male
M/F: lubricate the catheter 12.5-17.5 cm (5-7 inches)
Male
Male/Female: Abducts legs during positioning
Male
****************test question******************** What is the biggest complication from general anesthesia?
Malignant hyperthermia
Step 11D Venturi Mask
Mask over patient's mouth and nose to form a tight seal, percentage of FiO2 correlated with flow rate
What is a basic need?
Maslow. Essential to emotional and physiologic health and survival of humans
Step 7
Measured capillary refill in finger and verbalized findings to judge.
Which foods provide the most protein?
Meats and Fish
What is a common GI problem post surgery?
Nausea and vomiting
Name a few side effects of opioid analgesics
Nausea, vomiting, constipation, sedation and respiratory depression.
16-18 Fr
What size lumen catheter should be used for a man?
Wound drainage increases requiring frequent dressing changes
Notify MD, who may consider drain placement or alternate dressing method
Step 11
Observed for proper function of oxygen delivery device:
What type of medications are synthesized by the liver?
Oral medications
Enteral
Oral-swallow, sublingual, Buccal, NG tube/Keofed tube, G-tube, rectal
Oral Route Administration
Oral; mouth swallowed Sub-lingual; under tongue dissolved, buccal; against the mucus membranes of the mouth
14-16 Fr
What size lumen catheter should be used for a woman?
sterile water
What solution is used to inflate the balloon of a catheter?
What is the recovery room AKA?
PACU
Any time cells are destroyed you alter what?
PH
This is an expression of the balance b/t co2, regulated by the lungs and bicarbonate regulated by the kidneys.
PH
What is the acronym for getting the environment ready before a procedure?
PRAAP. (provide PRIVACY, RAISE the bed, ADJUST the lighting and ARRANGE supplies, put the patient in the correct POSITION)
FREQUENCY OF MEDICATION
PRN as needed
The nurse is observing the patient's wife perform the moist-to-dry dressing change. Which actions, if made by the patient's wife, indicate that further instruction is needed?
Pack the wound tightly; Leaves contact or primary dressing dripping moist
Assessing a person's cardiovascular system through __________ is the way to determine if there was pitting edema.
Palpation
What part of the nurse's assessment do you feel with your hands?
Palpation
Foley catheter removed at 10 AM
Patient is due to void between 4:00PM and 6:00PM
nursing theorist developed health promotion model?
Pender
The period of time surrounding a surgical procedure?
Perioperative
The term used for before surgery? What is the nurses responsibility for this term?
Peroperative Educator, advocate and health promotion.
factors affect health and illness?
Personal biologic & psychological; sociocultural (age, gender, strength, self esteem, income)
The key function of inflammation is what?
Phagocytosis
What are these things: -Baseline vital signs. -Focus on problem areas identified by the clients hx on all body systems affected by the surgical procedures. -Report any abnormal assessment findings to the surgeon.
Physical Assessment/Clinical Manifestations
When obtaining a sterile urinary catheter specimen, the sterile specimen container should be opened and the lid:
Place with the inside up
Step 9
Placed cannula or mask on the patient and adjusted elastic headband/tubing so that a snug and comfortable fit is achieved.
Step 11
Placed clean sterile gauze over venipuncture site, applied light pressure, and removed cannula by pulling straight away from insertion site in a slow steady motion, keeping the cannula parallel to the skin during withdrawal
Step 13c
Placed sterile package on bed between patient legs or on bedside table.
Step 19
Placed sterile tray and contents on sterile drape between legs (if not done so already) and opened specimen container (if applicable).
Step 10
Placed waterproof pad under the patient and draped patient with a sheet as appropriate.
14a
Places the nondominant hand above the labia, and with the thumb and forefinger spreads patient's labia, pulling up (or anteriorly) at the same time, to expose the urinary meatus.
Oral Medication-tablets
Plain, Scored, Coated, Enteric (don't crush) extended/sustained release (don't crush)
What would you consider to do with a Type II (cytotoxic) response?
Plasmapheriesis to remove autoantibodies
The function of this electrolyte functions include the regulation of protein synthesis, glucose use and storage, and maintenance of action potential in excitable membranes. this electrolytes levels in the blood and interstitial fluid are very low, so change seriously affects physiologic activities.
Potassium
Step 23
Practiced standard precautions throughout procedure.
3 levels of preventive care
Primary - weight loss, diet, exercise, drugs, seatbelts, safe sex, parenting... Secondary - screenings, PAP smears, mamogram, family counseling Tertiary - medication, med therapy, surgical treatment, rehab, job training
Explain primary prevention.
Primary prevention is the caring for the immediate cares or acute sickness
Pre
Principles-based checklist to use with ALL procedures: ID patient according to agency policy; I do the standard precautions: hand hygiene; safety; privacy; and proper body mechanics.
Step 20e
Released skin and grasped lower barrel with nondominant hand.
20e
Released skin and grasped lower end of syringe barrel with nondominant hand.
Cleaning
Removal of all soil from an object or surface
Which of the following is a correct sequence for changing a gauze dressing?
Remove old dressing, discard gloves and perform hand hygiene, create sterile field, apply sterile gloves, clean wound, blot dry, apply new dressing.
You (a student nurse) have opened a sterile drape and added a sterile receptacle to the field. You apply sterile gloves. You next add sterile solution to the receptacle. As you replace the cap on the bottle of solution, you realize that the outside of the bottle is nonsterile. What action should you take?
Remove the gloves, perform hand hygiene without leaving the sterile field, and apply a new pair of sterile gloves
R.A.C.E. stands for what?
Remove- Alert- 911, nurses station Call- Extinguish
Step 26
Removed drape and washed/dried perineum as needed.
Step 17
Removed gloves and performed hand hygiene.
20l
Removed gloves and used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 20k
Removed gloves and used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 29
Removed gloves and used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 13b
Removed plastic wrapping and placed within reach to use as disposal bag for used supplies.
Step 16
Removed probe and turned oximeter power off.
Step 9
Removed tape securing cannula.
10.
Removes and discards gloves. Washes hands.
13c
Removes any unneeded supplies (e.g., specimen container) from the kit.
29.
Removes gloves; washes hands.
26.
Removes the urine-filled receptacle and sets aside to be emptied when the procedure is finished.
12a
Removes the waterproof underpad from the kit before donning sterile gloves. Does not touch other kit items.
Step 21c male
Repeated cleansing three times.
portable ultrasound device
What type of device is a bladder scanner?
The effects of drugs, anesthetic agents, or manipulation during surgery can cause urine what?
Retention
Clinical manifestations of what disease: -fever, fatigue, body aches, and joint swelling. -joint tenderness and stiffness greater in the morning. -decreased ROM. -Extra-synovial nodules over the elbows and fingers.
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Chronic systemic inflammatory disease that causes degenertion of connective tissue. Primarily effects the synovial joints. Autoimmune phenomenon development of self-destructive antibodies called Rheumatoid Factors which persist in the joint capsule inflammation and destruction of the tissue.
Rheumatoid arthritis
When a wound heals from the bottom up it is know as what intention?
Secondary
With aging, changes occur in the gastro-intestinal system. Which is incorrect?
Secretion of digestive juices increases.
What is name of the position used when giving a patient an enema?
Sim's
Which of the following are symptoms of latex allergy?
Skin redness, Itching, Edema, Difficulty breathing
A patient has a 4-day-old postoperative incision. Which would be a normal finding when changing the dressing?
Small amount of serous drainage
The MyPlate food guidance system encourages
Smart and healthy food choices and daily activity
This electrolyte is a major cation in the extracellular fluid and is responsible for maintaining extracellular fluid osmolarity.
Sodium
This electrolyte is responsible for skeletal muscle and cardiac contraction, nerve impulse transmission.
Sodium
Which mineral is needed for fluid balance?
Sodium
Diabetes meal planning involves the following except
Sodium control
What are over the counter medications?
Sold to a patient without a perscription
What two types of data can documentation contain?
Subjective (symptoms - are felt) and Objective (signs - can be measured)
What are some interventions we might use when some one went through general aneshthesia?
Suction equipment, warmth and O2.
When auscultating abdomen
Supine position. Assess all 4 quadrants.
Diaphoresis
Sweating profusely
Homan's sign
Symptom of blood clot: Pain in calf upon flexing toe toward their head
Metabolism
The combination of chemical reactions through which an organism builds up or breaks down materials
Synergistic
The combined effect of two (2) drugs is GREATER then each drug taken alone
NEVER normal saline!!!!
What type of solution is used for bladder irrigation?
What is a blended family?
When a parent brings children from a previous relationship into a joint living situation.
bio-transformation
The process by which the body inactivates drugs. Also called metabolism.
Biotransformation
The process by which the body inactivates drugs. Also called metabolism. occurs under the influence of enzymes that detoxify, break down, and remove active chemicals, occurs in the liver kidneys, blood, intestines, and lungs play a role
30
When administering insulin to adults, the current standard needle gauge in #_______ gauge with a short needle (4 to 6 mm).
Edema
When fluid intake exceeds fluid output body tissues swell with water
Step 3 for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter
Transfer the urine to the appropriate container. Place the lid on the container. Unclamp the catheter. Discard the gloves and used supplies; perform hand hygiene; attach the identification label to the container and complete the requisition; send the sample to the lab in a biohazard bag.
What are sources of knowledge?
Traditional, authoritative, scientific
What are these types of? memory helper suppressor cytotoxic (killer) Natural killer cells
Types of T-Cells
Symptoms of an earache in and infant include: 1.) external drainage, pain, and decrease in temp 2.) tugging at the ear and rolling head from side to side 3.) crying and pointing to affected ear 4.) redness of the cheeks and cyanosis of the ear
Tugging at the ear and rolling head from side to side
Step 11
Turned on oximeter by activating power.
You are teaching the NAP in a nursing home about daily routine measures to reduce the incidence of pressure ulcers within the facility. Which of the following should you include in the teaching?
Turning patients at least every 2 hours; use of pillow bridging when needed; positioning the patient in the 30 degree lateral position; using a turn sheet to reposition patients
What is the best type of faeces according to the bristol stool chart?
Type 3 or 4.
-This type of hypersensitivity is characterized by the production of IgE after exposure to an antigen. -caused by release of histamine. -Re-exposure produce severe allergic reaction. -Symptoms last about 10 minutes. -Peak 1-2 minutes.
Type I
Anaphylaxis of what type of hypersensitivity? -severe rx -rapid, systemic affecting multiple organs simultanously.
Type I
Clinical Manifestations of what type of hypersensitivity? GI tract, the skin and the respiratory tract -Local anaphylaxis -Urticaria -Angioedema (cutaneous swelling) -Allergic rhinitis -Nasal and conjunctival discharge. Target tissues are those that contain a large amount.
Type I
One of the 5 types of hypersensitivity Rapid hypersensitivity, IgE-mediated reactions
Type I
One of the 5 types of hypersensitivity Tissue-specific reactions
Type II
What type of hypersensitivity is this? -Antibody reacts with antigen on surface cells -Most common IgG and IgM -Involves activation of complement types: Hemolytic anemia (rapid break down of RBC) involves antibodies produced against RBC. -Transfusion reactions involves antibodies produced against donor blood cells. -erythroblastosis Fetalis involves maternal antibodies produced against fetal blood cells. ( Mom RH+ and Infant RH- Moms body thinks baby is foriegn and when she has a second baby it will die. They give the mom rogan.
Type II AKA cytotoxic
One of the 5 types of hypersensitivity Immune-complex-mediated reactions
Type III
What type of hypersensitivity is this? -Antigens cause immune complexes to form in the blood. -Not organ specific, activates complement and mast cell degranulation-tissue and capillary damage. ex. serum sickness, glomerulnephritis, systemic lupus erythematous, rheumatoid arthritis. This is people who have antigen-antibody rx.
Type III (immune complex rx) treatment is chemo, steroid, ASA
One of the 5 types of hypersensitivity Cell-mediated tissue reactions
Type IV
This type of hypersensitivity does not involve antibodies, mediated by sensitized T lymphocytes. -delayed response (hours-days) -ex. PPD for TB -contact dermatitis -poison ivy insect stings transplant rejections
Type IV (cell mediated)
One of the 5 types of hypersensitivity Stimulatory
Type V
This type of hypersensitivity is continous "turned on" state of cell -Inappropriate stimulation of normal cell surface receptor by autoantibody. -ex. graves disease (hyperthyroidism) -Interventions are surgical removal or radiate the thyroid. and immunosuppression of autoantibodies.
Type V (stimulatory)
Side effects
Unintended or secondary response
Medication Packaging
Unit dose, Reconstruction - Multi-dose
Heart Auscultation
Use the Diaphragm of stethoscope for normal heart sounds. Listen for: Frequency, loudness, quality, and duration. For Abnormal heart sounds, use Bell very lightly on skin.
How should burns in children be assessed?
Use the Lund-Browder chart, which takes into account the changing proportions of the child's body.
Step 16
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene and applied disposable gloves.
Step 3
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene and applied gloves.
Step 13
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 19
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 3
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 4
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 6
Used alcohol-based handrub for hand hygiene.
Step 16
Used alcohol-based handrub for hygiene and applied disposable gloves.
Sterile Hydrogen Peroxide (H2O2)//effervescent action//blood clots//No sustained antiseptic//
Used for mechanical debridement of open wounds -Causes too much trauma with ____________ for deep tunneling wounds Removes ______________ -Not used for fresh bleeding wounds ____________ action Not used in full strength
Pressure Dressing//sandbag use//
Used for temporary control of excessive bleeding following -Trauma -Surgery -Puncture; intentional and unintentional. May stop bleeding May be combined with ___________
Step 9e
Used sterile technique when filling syringe.
14e
Uses one stroke and a new swab for each area.
How many hours does a pt have to be NPO b/f surgery?
Usually after midnight for 6-8 hours.
supine
What position is a male patient in for catheterization?
What does nitroglycerine do?
Vasodilates the coronary arteries
Step 8
Verbalized absence of polish or artificial nail, OR, removed fingernail polish from digit with polish remover.
Step 2
Verified medication administration record with physician's order.
Objective data
Verified through the Nurse's senses
Moisture may cause contamination//Always assume that an object is unsterile; check integrity of packaging and check label for expiration date//Always face the sterile field//Only sterile to sterile; unsterile to unsterile//Keep sterile equipment above the waist//keep sterile equipment on the top of the sterile field within 1" border of the edge//Drapes hanging over the edge of the table are not sterile//Minimize air movement//Avoid reaching across a sterile field//Opened unused materials are no longer sterile//A person who becomes contaminated must re-establish sterility//Sterile solution bottles must be marked with: Date, Time opened, Nurse's initials//Discard sterile solutions 24-48 hours after opening.
What are the principles of Surgical Asepsis?
1) identify and explain purpose and procedure to patient 2) select male or female icon on scanner 3) place ultrasound gel pad above pubic bone or moisten dome of scan head with conducting gel 4) aim scan head toward bladder (toward coccyx) 5) scan is complete when a 'beep' and volume is displayed
What are the steps for assessing bladder urine volume using a bladder scanner.
1) clamp tubing for 10-15 minutes 2) bring 10-12 mL syringe, alcohol wipes, sterile specimen container and clean gloves 3) wipe aspiration port with alcohol, 4) insert syringe into collection port, 5) aspirate urine (2mL is enough) 6) transfer to sterile container 7) wipe port again with alcohol and 8) remove tubing clamp
What do you need to gather for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter and explain the procedure.
1) MD order 2) Catheterization kit 3) EXTRA pair of sterile gloves 4) TWO catheters of correct size and type 5) sterile drainage collection bad (if indwelling) 6) tape (for indwelling cath) 7) bath blanket and linen protector 8) flashlight 9) assistant
What do you need to gather to perform urinary catheterization. Name 9 things
it is a stiffer catheter with a slightly curved tip and might be used afor enlarged prostate or difficult catheterization r/t GU pathology. A doctor usually puts this in.
What is a coude catheter and when might it be used?
10mL
What is the most common size balloon for an adult catheterization?
A 53-year-old patient is being treated for hypertension and a history of thrombophlebitis (blood clots). She comes to the clinic complaining, "I have to get up all night to go to the bathroom, and I think my urine looks orange!" What is your best response?
What medications are you taking and when?
while holding back he labia minor ask them to bear down and the urethra will 'wink' at you
What might you ask the patient to do to help you locate the meatus
1) drink lots of fluids (2000-2500mL/day) report any burning 2) try to void every 2-4 hours 3) measure first void, call nurse asap after first void
What patient teaching should be do when a catheter is REMOVED
dorsal recumbent position
What position is a female patient in for catheterization?
When are sterile gloves necessary?
When performing a sterile procedure
The nurse is reviewing with the surgical technician how to prepare a sterile field. Which of the following should be included in the discussion?
When preparing a sterile field, unwrap the commercial tray by beginning with the outermost flap and unfolding it in the direction away from the sterile kit toward the top of what will be the sterile field; If there is any question or doubt of an item's sterility, the item is considered to be nonsterile; When using a sterile drape, position the bottom half of the sterile drape over the top of the intended sterile field
24.
When the flow of urine has ceased and the bladder has been emptied, pinches the catheter and slowly withdraws it from the meatus.
to stop bleeding in the bladder
When/Why might a 30mL balloon be used?
What do you do when you accomodate cultureal practices in healthcare? example
Whenever possible and when practice not harmful to health. Dietary preferences, prayer, attire
secure catheter tubing to the inner thigh with enough slack so leg can move.
Where to you position a catheter tubing of a indwelling catheter?
A practice that has been helpful in preventing mental retardation is: 1.) administering the Stanford-Binet test 2.) a blood test at birth 3.) careful preschool development screening 4.) a urine test at age 6 months
a blood test at birth
What is paresis?
a condition of muscular weakness caused by nerve damage or disease; partial paralysis
one to drain the urine and one to inflate/deflate the balloon.
Why are there two lumens in a foley catheter?
1) to relieve discomfort r/t bladder distension (e.g. after surgery or r/t a medical condition) 2) to obtain a sterile urine specimen 3) to measure residual urine amounts 4) to provide continuous urinary bladder drainage (decompresses the bladder) for example during a long surgery to prevent injury or complications related to surgeon nipping the bladder during the procedure. 5) to provide continuous bladder irrigation 6) to monitor urine output accurately in seriously ill patients (e.g. ICU) 7) to promote repair to urinary structures after surgery
Why do we do a urinary catheterization on a patient? Give 7 reasons
1) to subtract the volume of the uterus. 2) If the women has had a hysterectomy and therefore no uterus
Why do we select male or female icon on the scanner? 2) When might we select the male icon for a female patient?
attach a syringe to the irrigation port to remove clots
Why might you irrigate a bladder?
14f
Wipes from front to back (clitoris to anus).
Step 25
With dominant hand, withdrew catheter slowly and smoothly.
Step 21b male
With other hand, used forceps holding cotton ball with antiseptic solution or swabs, to cleanse meatus in circular motion.
18.
With the dominant hand, holds the catheter 4-5 cm (1½-2 in.) from the proximal end, with remainder coiled in the palm of the hand; or otherwise ensures that the end of the catheter is in the plastic container.
14d
With the dominant hand, picks up a sterile swab, and cleanses the perineal area, taking care not to contaminate the sterile glove.
What should you do if blood appears in the syringe?
Withdraw and discard syringe
Results when dependent use of opioids ceases abruptly.
Withdrawal symptoms
Step 9d
Withdrew correct dosage.
Weighing infant
Without a diaper. Always use a barrier and Zero the scale.
4.
Works on the right side of the bed if right-handed and on the left side if left-handed.
a congenital disorder that causes the absence of serum Igs they can give them antibodies.
X linked Agammaglobinemia of Burton
Is under treatment of pain a serious health care problem?
Yes
Should you massage an IM?
Yes
is nursing considered a profession?
Yes
Should you ever hold meds?
Yes and consult the physician before doing so
Can inflammation occur without invasion by organisms?
Yes, inflammation does not always mean there is an infection.
Which of the following is a correct description of glove removal?
You grasp the outside of one cuff with the other gloved hand and pull the glove off, turning it inside out, and place it in gloved hand. Take fingers of bare hand and tuck inside remaining glove cuff. Peel glove off inside out and over the previously removed glove. Discard both gloves in receptacle.
therapeutic
______diets are modifications of the normal diet and are used to improve specific health conditions.
If the catheter is in the urethra but outside of the bladder or the catheter is in the vagina rather than the urethra then there would be
a lack of urine
The nurse is reading electronic documentation from the emergency room on a patient who is to be admitted to the unit. The documentation states the patient has a hematoma on the right knee. The nurse knows to expect to see:
a localized collection of blood underneath the tissues that often takes on a bluish discoloration
Bronchiolitis
a viral infection of the brochioles characterized by thick secretions
What are the classic symptoms of rubeola (measles)?
a. Photophobia. b. Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa. c. Confluent rash that begins on the face and spreads downward.
use salt, sodium, and sugar in moderation
these is a nutritional principle found in the USDA's finding your way to a healthier you: dietary guidelines for Americans?
What are the classic symptoms of Paramyxovirus (mumps)?
a. fever b. headache c. malaise d. parotid gland swelling e. tenderness
Early CNS signs of lead poisoning include:
a. hyperactivity b. aggression c. impulsiveness d. decreased interest in play e. irritability
Name the early CNS signs of lead poisoning.
a. hyperactivity b. aggression c. impulsiveness d. decreased interest in play e. irritability
Late CNS signs of lead poisoning include:
a. mental retardation b. paralysis c. blindness d. convulsions e. coma f. death
anti
against
Somatic mutation theory
aging is from DNA damage causes by exposure to chemicals or radiation causing chromosomal abnormalities leading to dieases/loss of function later in life
Wear-and-tear theory
body is like machine and loses function when its parts wear out. when enough damage happens, overal function descreases encourage good health maintenance
Step 11A Nasal Cannula
cannula is position properly in the nares.
What is nursing?
care of others; profession focus' on holistic person receiving healthcare services and provides unique contribution to prevention of illness and mainenance of health
Name the roles of a nurse:
caregiver, communicator, counselor, leader. researcher, advocate
Neglect
caregivers fail to provide for the needs of the older person in their care
What is the purpose of the 1 inch of space for an aerosol?
creates a cloudlike effect
Abandonment
dependent older person is left by caregiver when a norm person would have stayed
low-cholesterol diet
diet restricting cholesterol intake
Error theory
errors in RNA protein synthesis cause errors in cells resulting in progressive decline in biologic function
Before providing fresh drinking water, you need to know the person's
fluid orders
STAT
given immediately in an emergency
Single (one-time)
given one time only for a specific reason
prn
given when the patient requires it
6 to 8
glasses of water should the average person drink each day
normal weight
good nutrition and adequate exercise allow an individual to maintain a ______
many food habits are formed during youth
these statement about food habits is true
dia
through
Step 11B Nonrebreathing mask
mask over patient's mouth and nose to form a tight seal, valves on the mask closed so exhaled air does not enter reservoir bad.
Toxic effect
may be deadly most serious effect
NPO
means nothing by mouth
Health-illness continuum model of health and illness?
measure person's level of health. Health = constantly changing state w/ high level wellness and death on opposite ends. death-illness-normal-good health-high level wellness
Prescriptions
medications to be taken when outside the hospital
The Benedictine Order was the entry of _____ into nursing
men
Trough concentration
minimum concentration of drug in blood during a dosing interval
What is cultural assimilation/ acculturation?
minority values replaced by values of dominant culture
therapeutic diets
modifications of normal diet
Should you ever leave the persons medication at the bedside?
no
Should you leave meds at the bedside?
no
Should you use an air lock in SQ?
no except lovenox
Is Osteoarthritis inflammatory or non-inflammatory? What type of people do you see this in mostly? What joints does it typically effect?
non-inflammatory obese people weight bering joints
cultural influences on healthcare include:
nontraditional methods of care; physiologic variations, reaction to pain, mental health, language/communication, orientation to sace and time; food and nutrition; family support; socioeconomic.
regular diet
normal diet without restrictions
Non-Modifiable means?
not able to be changed
Life expectancy
number of years average person lives
Who was Harriet Tubman?
nurse and abolitionist, active in underground during civil war
Medicare
old people insurance and disabled people. most >65 yrs qualify
The sodium-controlled diet involves
omitting high-sodium foods
Onset of action
the time required for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response after dosing
General systems theory?
theory for universal application
gelatin
these food is allowed on a clear liquid diet
How far away should an arrosol or hinhaler be away from the mouth?
one inch
Gene theory
one or more harmful genes resulting in typical changes seen with aging and limiting life span
What is Demerol?
opiod narcotic
Ventral Gluteal
opposite hand to hip, heel of hand on greater trochanter, pointer finger on anterior superior iliac spin, middle finger extended bacl on iliac crest, thumb towards groin
Medicare Part C
optional. allow beneficiaries to receive medicare benefits through private insurance companies that offer low costs
Medicare Part B
optional. covers 80% of customary and usual rates charged by physicians after deductibles are met
cushion organs and bones
these is a function of fats in the diet
nursing research?
research improving care of people (clinical setting) & study of people & nursing profession
Parental (skin)
subcutaneous, Intramuscular, Intravenous, intradermal, Epidural
What are other sources of output other than urine?
sweat, vomiting, or diarrhea
A patient with a vaccuum assisted closure continues to complain of pain. What measures may be taken?
switch to the white polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) soft foam; decrease the pressure setting; administer pain medication
fatigue and depression
symptoms of poor nutrition include which of these?
slowly
the best method for weight control is to make desired changes____
body mass index
the calculation that measures weight in relation to height and correlates this body fat is called _____
Why are IV fluids important for the child with increased respiratory rate?
the child is at risk for dehydration and acid/base imbalance
antagonistic effect
the combined effect of two or more drugs acting simultaneously that produces an effect less than that of each drug alone
Maintenance dose
the dose of drug that maintains or keeps the drug in the therapeutic range
amylase
the salivary glands begin chemical digestion by producing salivary______ to begin changing starch to maltose.
calorie
unit of measurement of fuel value of food
data?
verifiable info
you need to keep measuring the input/output including the urine and irrigation solution
when you irrigate a patient's bladder what must you assess/document
Which of the following are methods of wound debridement?
whirlpool and moist-to-dry dressing
Neuroendocrine theory
with age hypothalamus function decreases leading to decreased muscle mass, increased body fat and changes in reproductive function. hormone supplements could help to delay/control these changes
Time of administration
with meals, empty stomach, round the clock dosing, PRN
It is suspected that a patient is developing a wound infection. Which data, if present by the patient, would support this conclusion?
yellow tinged drainage, temp 100.3F, increased complaints of pain at wound site, WBC 13,000mm, foul odor noted from previous dressing
Can some risk factors be modified?examples
yes, quitting smoking, lifestyle changes
